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Targeted Therapy Directed by Genetic Testing in Treating Pediatric Patients With Relapsed or Refractory Advanced Solid Tumors, Non-Hodgkin Lymphomas, or Histiocytic Disorders (The Pediatric MATCH Screening Trial)
This Pediatric MATCH screening and multi-sub-study phase II trial studies how well treatment that is directed by genetic testing works in pediatric patients with solid tumors, non-Hodgkin lymphomas, or histiocytic disorders that have progressed following at least one line of standard systemic therapy and/or for which no standard treatment exists that has been shown to prolong survival. Genetic tests look at the unique genetic material (genes) of patients' tumor cells. Patients with genetic changes or abnormalities (mutations) may benefit more from treatment which targets their tumor's particular genetic mutation, and may help doctors plan better treatment for patients with solid tumors or non-Hodgkin lymphomas.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Avanthi Shah
74989
All
12 Months to 21 Years old
Phase 2
NCT03155620
STU 072017-080
Inclusion Criteria:
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients must be >= 12 months and =< 21 years of age at the time of study enrollment
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients with recurrent or refractory solid tumors, including non-Hodgkin lymphomas, histiocytoses (e.g. langerhans cell histiocytosis [LCH], juvenile xanthogranuloma [JXG], histiocytic sarcoma), and central nervous system (CNS) tumors are eligible; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse except in patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors, optic pathway gliomas, or patients with pineal tumors and elevations of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or serum tumor markers including alpha-fetoprotein or beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG); in cases where patient enrolls prior to histologic confirmation of recurrent disease, patient is ineligible and should be withdrawn from study if histology fails to confirm recurrence; please note: Patients with Hodgkin lymphoma and plexiform neurofibroma are not eligible
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Tumor Testing Requirement: Tumor sample availability requirement for stage 1 of Pediatric MATCH (patients enrolled from start of study in July 2017 through 12/31/21); Patients must have an formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tumor sample available for MATCH study testing from a biopsy or surgery that was performed at any point after initial tumor recurrence/progression, or be planned to have a procedure to obtain such a sample that is considered to be of potential benefit by the treating clinicians; a tumor sample from a clinically performed diagnostic (pre-treatment) biopsy will be acceptable for enrollment onto Pediatric MATCH only for children with high-grade gliomas of the brainstem (diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas) or thalamus
• Please note: Samples that have been decalcified using standardly utilized acid-based decalcification methods are not generally suitable for MATCH study testing; the nucleic acids will have been degraded in the decalcification process
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Tumor molecular profiling report availability requirement for Stage 2 of Pediatric MATCH (patients enrolled starting 2022): In stage 2 of the study, no tumor samples will be submitted for centralized clinical tumor profiling; instead, a tumor molecular profiling report from a College of American Pathologists (CAP)/ Clinical Laboratory Improvements Amendments (CLIA)-approved testing laboratory must be submitted for review by the Molecular Review Committee (MRC)
• This molecular profiling must have been performed on a tumor sample that was obtained at any point after initial tumor recurrence/progression and must be accompanied by a pathology report for the same tumor specimen; a molecular profiling report for a diagnostic (pre-treatment) tumor sample will be acceptable for enrollment onto Pediatric MATCH only for children with high-grade gliomas of the brainstem (diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas) or thalamus. In the event that molecular profiling reports are available from multiple timepoints, the most recent report should be prioritized for study submission
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age); note: neurologic deficits in patients with central nervous system (CNS) tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients must have radiographically measurable disease; measurable disease based on imaging obtained less than or equal to 56 days prior to enrollment; patients with neuroblastoma who do not have measurable disease but have metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) positive (+) evaluable disease are eligible; measurable disease in patients with CNS involvement is defined as any lesion that is at minimum 10 mm in one dimension on standard magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT)
• Note: The following do not qualify as measurable disease:
• Malignant fluid collections (e.g., ascites, pleural effusions)
• Bone marrow infiltration except that detected by MIBG scan for neuroblastoma
• Lesions only detected by nuclear medicine studies (e.g., bone, gallium or positron emission tomography [PET] scans) except as noted for neuroblastoma
• Elevated tumor markers in plasma or CSF
• Previously radiated lesions that have not demonstrated clear progression post radiation
• Leptomeningeal lesions that do not meet the measurement requirements for Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: NOTE: patient does not need to meet all subprotocol criteria at time of enrollment onto the APEC1621SC screening protocol, but will need to meet all criteria prior to enrollment on any assigned treatment subprotocol. Patients must be enrolled onto a subprotocol within 2 weeks (14 days) of treatment assignment
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age); Note: neurologic deficits in patients with CNS tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: At the time of treatment with subprotocol specified therapy, the patients must have radiographically measurable disease; patients with neuroblastoma who do not have measurable disease but have MIBG+ evaluable are eligible; measurable disease in patients with CNS involvement is defined as any lesion that is at minimum 10 mm in one dimension on standard MRI or CT
• Note: The following do not qualify as measurable disease:
• Malignant fluid collections (e.g., ascites, pleural effusions)
• Bone marrow infiltration except that detected by MIBG scan for neuroblastoma
• Lesions only detected by nuclear medicine studies (e.g., bone, gallium or positron emission tomography [PET] scans) except as noted for neuroblastoma
• Elevated tumor markers in plasma or CSF
• Previously radiated lesions that have not demonstrated clear progression post radiation
• Leptomeningeal lesions that do not meet the measurement requirements for RECIST 1.1
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: At the time of enrollment onto a subprotocol, the following general criteria for initiation of therapy will be required:
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anticancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anticancer directed therapy prior to enrollment to the subprotocol; if after the required timeframe, the numerical eligibility criteria are met, e.g. blood count criteria, the patient is considered to have recovered adequately
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anticancer agents known to be myelosuppressive: for agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment >= 21 days after the last dose of cytotoxic or myelosuppressive chemotherapy (42 days if prior nitrosourea)
• Anticancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g. not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil counts [ANC]): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent; for agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment
• Antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1
• Corticosteroids: If used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Hematopoietic growth factors: >= 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g. Neulasta) or 7 days for short-acting growth factor; for agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur; the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator
• Interleukins, interferons and cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors): >= 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon or cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors)
• Stem cell infusions (with or without total-body irradiation [TBI]):
• Allogeneic (non-autologous) bone marrow or stem cell transplant, or any stem cell infusion including donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI) or boost infusion: >= 84 days after infusion and no evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD)
• Autologous stem cell infusion including boost infusion: >= 42 days
• Cellular therapy: >= 42 days after the completion of any type of cellular therapy (e.g. modified T cells, natural killer (NK) cells, dendritic cells, etc.)
• X-ray therapy (XRT)/External Beam Irradiation including Protons: >= 14 days after local XRT; >= 150 days after TBI, craniospinal XRT or if radiation to >= 50% of the pelvis; >= 42 days if other substantial bone marrow (BM) radiation; note: radiation may not be delivered to "measurable disease" tumor site(s) being used to follow response to subprotocol treatment
• Radiopharmaceutical therapy (e.g., radiolabeled antibody, 131I-MIBG): >= 42 days after systemically administered radiopharmaceutical therapy
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement:
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/mm^3
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (transfusion independent, defined as not receiving platelet transfusions for at least 7 days prior to enrollment)
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients with known bone marrow metastatic disease will be eligible for study provided they meet the blood counts (may receive transfusions provided they are not known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusions); these patients will not be evaluable for hematologic toxicity
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 ml/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• Age: 1 to < 2 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 0.6; female 0.6
• Age: 2 to < 6 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 0.8; female 0.8
• Age: 6 to < 10 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1; female 1
• Age: 10 to < 13 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.2; female 1.2
• Age: 13 to < 16 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.5; female 1.4
• Age: >= 16 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.7; female 1.4
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated) =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine transferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L)
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients must be able to swallow intact capsules/tablets, unless otherwise specified in the subprotocol to which they are assigned
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Agent specific limitations on prior therapy will be included with specific treatment subprotocols
Exclusion Criteria:
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Pregnant or breast-feeding women will not be entered on this study due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies, or because there is currently no available information regarding human fetal or teratogenic toxicities; pregnancy tests must be obtained in females who are post-menarchal; males or females of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Concomitant medications
• Corticosteroids: at the time of consent and enrollment to regimen specific subprotocols, patients receiving corticosteroids who have not been on a stable or decreasing dose of corticosteroid for at least 7 days prior to enrollment to the subprotocol will not be eligible; if used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Investigational drugs: patients must meet criteria for prior therapy at the time of consent and enrollment to a subprotocol; other investigational agents may not be administered to patients while they are receiving study drug as part of a subprotocol
• Anticancer agents: patients must meet criteria for prior therapy at the time of consent and enrollment to a subprotocol; other investigational agents may not be administered to patients while they are receiving study drug as part of a subprotocol
• Anti-GVHD agents post-transplant: patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to prevent graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients who have had a prior solid organ transplant are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Additional agent specific criteria will be included with specific treatment subprotocols
Procedure: Biopsy, Procedure: Biospecimen Collection, Procedure: Bone Marrow Aspiration and Biopsy, Procedure: Bone Scan, Procedure: Computed Tomography, Drug: Ensartinib, Drug: Erdafitinib, Other: Laboratory Biomarker Analysis, Drug: Larotrectinib Sulfate, Procedure: Magnetic Resonance Imaging, Procedure: Mutation Carrier Screening, Drug: Olaparib, Drug: Palbociclib, Other: Pharmacological Study, Procedure: Positron Emission Tomography, Procedure: Radionuclide Imaging, Drug: Samotolisib, Drug: Selpercatinib, Drug: Selumetinib Sulfate, Drug: Tazemetostat, Drug: Tipifarnib, Drug: Ulixertinib, Drug: Vemurafenib, Procedure: X-Ray Imaging
Recurrent Childhood Rhabdomyosarcoma, Recurrent Neuroblastoma, Malignant Glioma, Recurrent Osteosarcoma, Recurrent Malignant Solid Neoplasm, Advanced Malignant Solid Neoplasm, Recurrent Ewing Sarcoma, Recurrent Hepatoblastoma, Wilms Tumor, Recurrent Glioma, Refractory Malignant Solid Neoplasm, Stage III Soft Tissue Sarcoma AJCC v7, Stage IV Soft Tissue Sarcoma AJCC v7, Histiocytic Sarcoma, Juvenile Xanthogranuloma, Recurrent Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis, Recurrent Peripheral Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumor, Refractory Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis, Refractory Neuroblastoma, Rhabdoid Tumor, Stage III Osteosarcoma AJCC v7, Stage IV Osteosarcoma AJCC v7, Stage IVA Osteosarcoma AJCC v7, Stage IVB Osteosarcoma AJCC v7, Refractory Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma, Recurrent Medulloblastoma, Recurrent Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma, Refractory Malignant Germ Cell Tumor, Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis, Recurrent Rhabdoid Tumor, Recurrent Soft Tissue Sarcoma, Refractory Medulloblastoma, Refractory Osteosarcoma, Refractory Peripheral Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumor, Refractory Rhabdoid Tumor, Recurrent Malignant Germ Cell Tumor, Ann Arbor Stage III Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma, Ann Arbor Stage IV Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma, Refractory Ewing Sarcoma, Refractory Glioma, Refractory Hepatoblastoma, Refractory Rhabdomyosarcoma, Recurrent Ependymoma, Refractory Primary Central Nervous System Neoplasm, Recurrent Primary Central Nervous System Neoplasm
Children’s Health
A Study of Repotrectinib (TPX-0005) in Patients With Advanced Solid Tumors Harboring ALK, ROS1, or NTRK1-3 Rearrangements (TRIDENT-1)
Phase 1 dose escalation will determine the first cycle dose-limiting toxicities (DLTs), the maximum tolerated dose (MTD), the biologically effective dose and recommended Phase 2 dose (RP2D) of repotrectinib given to adult subjects with advanced solid malignancies harboring an ALK, ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 gene rearrangement. Midazolam DDI substudy will examine effect of of repotrectinib on CYP3A induction. Phase 2 will determine the confirmed Overall Response Rate (ORR) as assessed by Blinded Independent Central Review (BICR) of repotrectinib in each subject population expansion cohort of advanced solid tumors that harbor a ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 gene rearrangement. The secondary objective will include the duration of response (DOR), time to response (TTR), progression-free survival (PFS), overall survival (OS) and clinical benefit rate (CBR) of repotrectinib in each expansion cohort of advanced solid tumors that harbor a ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 gene rearrangement.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Syed Kazmi
177531
All
12 Years and over
Phase 1/Phase 2
NCT03093116
STU-2019-1323
PHASE 1
Key
• Histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of locally advanced, or metastatic solid tumor (including primary CNS tumors) (Stage IV, American Joint Committee on Cancer v.7) that harbors an ALK, ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 gene rearrangement by protocol specified tests.
• ECOG PS 0-1.
• Age ≥18 (or age ≥ 20 of age as required by local regulation).
• Capability to swallow capsules intact (without chewing, crushing, or opening).
• At least 1 measurable target lesion according to RECIST version 1.1. CNS-only measurable disease as defined by RECIST version 1.1 is allowed.
• Prior cytotoxic chemotherapy is allowed.
• Prior immunotherapy is allowed.
• Resolution of all acute toxic effects (excluding alopecia) of any prior anti-cancer therapy to National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (NCI CTCAE) Version 4.03 Grade less than or equal to 1.
• Patients with asymptomatic CNS metastases (treated or untreated) and/or asymptomatic leptomeningeal carcinomatosis are eligible to enroll if they satisfy the protocol specified criteria.
• Baseline laboratory values fulfilling the following requirements:Absolute neutrophils count (ANC) ≥1500/mm3 (1.5 × 109/L); Platelets (PLTs) ≥100,000/mm3 (100 × 109/L); Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL transfusions are allowed; Serum creatinine or creatinine clearance Within normal limits or > 40 mL/min; Total serum bilirubin < 1.5 × ULN; Liver transaminases (ASTs/ALTs) < 2.5 × ULN; < 5 × ULN if liver metastases are present Alkaline phosphatase (ALP); < 2.5 × ULN; < 5 × ULN if liver and/or bone metastasis are present; Serum calcium, magnesium, and potassium Normal or CTCAE grade ≤ 1 with or without supplementation
• Life expectancy ≥ 3 months. PHASE 2 Key Inclusion Criteria
• Histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of locally advanced, or metastatic solid tumor (including primary CNS tumors) that harbors a ROS1, or NTRK1-3 gene fusion.
• Subject must have a documented ROS1 or NTRK1-3 gene fusion determined by tissue-based local testing using either:
• a next-generation sequencing (NGS) or quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR) test will be accepted to determine molecular eligibility. • Adequate tumor tissue needs to be sent to the Sponsor designated central diagnostic laboratory for retrospective confirmation by a central diagnostic laboratory test selected by the Sponsor. OR
• a fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) test AND prospective confirmation of fusion status by a central diagnostic laboratory test selected by the Sponsor PRIOR to enrollment will be accepted to determine molecular eligibility.
• Adequate tumor tissue must be sent to the Sponsor designated central diagnostic laboratory for prospective confirmation by a central diagnostic laboratory test selected by the Sponsor PRIOR to enrollment.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status 0-1.
• Age ≥12 (or age ≥ 20 as required by local regulation).
• Willing and able to provide written institutional review board (IRB)/institutional ethics committee-approved Informed Consent or an Assent signed by a parent or legal guardian for subjects age 12 to 17.
• At least 1 measurable target lesion according to RECIST (v1.1) prospectively confirmed by Blinded Independent Central Radiology Review (BICR), selected by Sponsor, PRIOR to enrollment. Subjects with CNS-only measurable disease ≥10 mm as defined by RECIST (v1.1) are eligible.
• Subjects with advanced solid tumors harboring ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 rearrangement will be assigned into 6 distinct expansion (EXP) cohorts provided all inclusion and exclusion criteria are met. i. EXP-1: ROS1 TKI-naïve ROS1+ NSCLC ii. EXP-2: 1 Prior ROS1 TKI and 1 Platinum based chemo ROS1+ NSCLC iii. EXP-3: 2 Prior ROS1 TKIs ROS1+ NSCLC (No Chemo or IO) iv. EXP-4: 1 Prior ROS1 TKI ROS1+ NSCLC (No Chemo or IO) v. EXP-5: TRK TKI-naïve NTRK+ solid tumors vi. EXP-6: TRK TKI-pretreated NTRK+ solid tumors
• Subjects with asymptomatic CNS metastases (treated or untreated) and/or asymptomatic leptomeningeal carcinomatosis are eligible to enroll if they satisfy the protocol specified criteria.
• Baseline laboratory values fulfilling the following requirements:Absolute neutrophils count (ANC) ≥1500/mm3 (1.5 × 109/L); Platelets (PLTs) ≥100,000/mm3 (100 × 109/L); Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL transfusions are allowed; Serum creatinine or creatinine clearance > 40 mL/min; Total serum bilirubin < 1.5 × ULN; Liver transaminases (ASTs/ALTs) < 2.5 × ULN; < 5 × ULN if liver metastases are present Alkaline phosphatase (ALP); < 2.5 × ULN; < 5 × ULN if liver and/or bone metastasis are present; Serum calcium, magnesium, and potassium Normal or CTCAE grade ≤ 1 with or without supplementation
• Life expectancy ≥ 3 months. Key Exclusion Criteria PHASE 1 and PHASE 2
• Concurrent participation in another therapeutic clinical trial.
• Symptomatic brain metastases or leptomeningeal involvement.
• History of previous cancer, except for squamous cell or basal-cell carcinoma of the skin, or any in situ carcinoma that has been completely resected, requiring therapy within the previous 2 years.
• Major surgery within 4 weeks of start of repotrectinib treatment. Radiation therapy (except palliative to relieve bone pain) within 2 weeks of study entry. Palliative radiation (≤10 fractions) must have been completed at least 48 hours prior to study entry
• Clinically significant cardiovascular disease (either active or within 6 months prior to enrollment): myocardial infarction, unstable angina, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft, symptomatic congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association Classification Class ≥ II), cerebrovascular accident or transient ischemic attack, symptomatic bradycardia, requirement for anti-arrhythmic medication. Ongoing cardiac dysrhythmias of NCI CTCAE grade ≥2
• Any of the following cardiac criteria: Mean resting corrected QT interval (ECG interval measured from the onset of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave) for heart rate (QTcF) > 470 msec obtained from 3 ECGs, using the screening clinic ECG machine-derived QTc value Any clinically important abnormalities in rhythm, conduction or morphology of resting ECG (e.g., complete left bundle branch block, third degree heart block, second degree heart block, PR interval > 250 msec) Any factors that increase the risk of QTc prolongation or risk of arrhythmic events such as heart failure, hypokalemia, congenital long QT syndrome, family history of long QT syndrome, or any concomitant medication known to prolong the QT interval.
• Known active infections (bacterial, fungal, viral including HIV positivity).
• Gastrointestinal disease (e.g., Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, or short gut syndrome) or other malabsorption syndromes that would impact drug absorption.
• Peripheral neuropathy of CTCAE ≥grade 2.
• History of extensive, disseminated, bilateral, or presence of CTCAE grade 3 or 4 interstitial fibrosis or interstitial lung disease including a history of pneumonitis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, interstitial pneumonia, interstitial lung disease, obliterative bronchiolitis, and pulmonary fibrosis. Subjects with history of prior radiation pneumonitis are not excluded.
Inclusion Criteria:
• Histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of locally advanced, or metastatic solid tumor (including primary CNS tumors) (Stage IV, American Joint Committee on Cancer v.7) that harbors an ALK, ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 gene rearrangement by protocol specified tests.
• ECOG PS 0-1.
• Age ≥18 (or age ≥ 20 of age as required by local regulation).
• Capability to swallow capsules intact (without chewing, crushing, or opening).
• At least 1 measurable target lesion according to RECIST version 1.1. CNS-only measurable disease as defined by RECIST version 1.1 is allowed.
• Prior cytotoxic chemotherapy is allowed.
• Prior immunotherapy is allowed.
• Resolution of all acute toxic effects (excluding alopecia) of any prior anti-cancer therapy to National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (NCI CTCAE) Version 4.03 Grade less than or equal to 1.
• Patients with asymptomatic CNS metastases (treated or untreated) and/or asymptomatic leptomeningeal carcinomatosis are eligible to enroll if they satisfy the protocol specified criteria.
• Baseline laboratory values fulfilling the following requirements:Absolute neutrophils count (ANC) ≥1500/mm3 (1.5 × 109/L); Platelets (PLTs) ≥100,000/mm3 (100 × 109/L); Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL transfusions are allowed; Serum creatinine or creatinine clearance Within normal limits or > 40 mL/min; Total serum bilirubin < 1.5 × ULN; Liver transaminases (ASTs/ALTs) < 2.5 × ULN; < 5 × ULN if liver metastases are present Alkaline phosphatase (ALP); < 2.5 × ULN; < 5 × ULN if liver and/or bone metastasis are present; Serum calcium, magnesium, and potassium Normal or CTCAE grade ≤ 1 with or without supplementation
• Life expectancy ≥ 3 months. PHASE 2 Key Inclusion Criteria
• Histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of locally advanced, or metastatic solid tumor (including primary CNS tumors) that harbors a ROS1, or NTRK1-3 gene fusion.
• Subject must have a documented ROS1 or NTRK1-3 gene fusion determined by tissue-based local testing using either:
• a next-generation sequencing (NGS) or quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR) test will be accepted to determine molecular eligibility. • Adequate tumor tissue needs to be sent to the Sponsor designated central diagnostic laboratory for retrospective confirmation by a central diagnostic laboratory test selected by the Sponsor. OR
• a fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) test AND prospective confirmation of fusion status by a central diagnostic laboratory test selected by the Sponsor PRIOR to enrollment will be accepted to determine molecular eligibility.
• Adequate tumor tissue must be sent to the Sponsor designated central diagnostic laboratory for prospective confirmation by a central diagnostic laboratory test selected by the Sponsor PRIOR to enrollment.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status 0-1.
• Age ≥12 (or age ≥ 20 as required by local regulation).
• Willing and able to provide written institutional review board (IRB)/institutional ethics committee-approved Informed Consent or an Assent signed by a parent or legal guardian for subjects age 12 to 17.
• At least 1 measurable target lesion according to RECIST (v1.1) prospectively confirmed by Blinded Independent Central Radiology Review (BICR), selected by Sponsor, PRIOR to enrollment. Subjects with CNS-only measurable disease ≥10 mm as defined by RECIST (v1.1) are eligible.
• Subjects with advanced solid tumors harboring ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 rearrangement will be assigned into 6 distinct expansion (EXP) cohorts provided all inclusion and exclusion criteria are met. i. EXP-1: ROS1 TKI-naïve ROS1+ NSCLC ii. EXP-2: 1 Prior ROS1 TKI and 1 Platinum based chemo ROS1+ NSCLC iii. EXP-3: 2 Prior ROS1 TKIs ROS1+ NSCLC (No Chemo or IO) iv. EXP-4: 1 Prior ROS1 TKI ROS1+ NSCLC (No Chemo or IO) v. EXP-5: TRK TKI-naïve NTRK+ solid tumors vi. EXP-6: TRK TKI-pretreated NTRK+ solid tumors
• Subjects with asymptomatic CNS metastases (treated or untreated) and/or asymptomatic leptomeningeal carcinomatosis are eligible to enroll if they satisfy the protocol specified criteria.
• Baseline laboratory values fulfilling the following requirements:Absolute neutrophils count (ANC) ≥1500/mm3 (1.5 × 109/L); Platelets (PLTs) ≥100,000/mm3 (100 × 109/L); Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL transfusions are allowed; Serum creatinine or creatinine clearance > 40 mL/min; Total serum bilirubin < 1.5 × ULN; Liver transaminases (ASTs/ALTs) < 2.5 × ULN; < 5 × ULN if liver metastases are present Alkaline phosphatase (ALP); < 2.5 × ULN; < 5 × ULN if liver and/or bone metastasis are present; Serum calcium, magnesium, and potassium Normal or CTCAE grade ≤ 1 with or without supplementation
• Life expectancy ≥ 3 months. Key Exclusion Criteria PHASE 1 and PHASE 2
• Concurrent participation in another therapeutic clinical trial.
• Symptomatic brain metastases or leptomeningeal involvement.
• History of previous cancer, except for squamous cell or basal-cell carcinoma of the skin, or any in situ carcinoma that has been completely resected, requiring therapy within the previous 2 years.
• Major surgery within 4 weeks of start of repotrectinib treatment. Radiation therapy (except palliative to relieve bone pain) within 2 weeks of study entry. Palliative radiation (≤10 fractions) must have been completed at least 48 hours prior to study entry
• Clinically significant cardiovascular disease (either active or within 6 months prior to enrollment): myocardial infarction, unstable angina, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft, symptomatic congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association Classification Class ≥ II), cerebrovascular accident or transient ischemic attack, symptomatic bradycardia, requirement for anti-arrhythmic medication. Ongoing cardiac dysrhythmias of NCI CTCAE grade ≥2
• Any of the following cardiac criteria: Mean resting corrected QT interval (ECG interval measured from the onset of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave) for heart rate (QTcF) > 470 msec obtained from 3 ECGs, using the screening clinic ECG machine-derived QTc value Any clinically important abnormalities in rhythm, conduction or morphology of resting ECG (e.g., complete left bundle branch block, third degree heart block, second degree heart block, PR interval > 250 msec) Any factors that increase the risk of QTc prolongation or risk of arrhythmic events such as heart failure, hypokalemia, congenital long QT syndrome, family history of long QT syndrome, or any concomitant medication known to prolong the QT interval.
• Known active infections (bacterial, fungal, viral including HIV positivity).
• Gastrointestinal disease (e.g., Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, or short gut syndrome) or other malabsorption syndromes that would impact drug absorption.
• Peripheral neuropathy of CTCAE ≥grade 2.
• History of extensive, disseminated, bilateral, or presence of CTCAE grade 3 or 4 interstitial fibrosis or interstitial lung disease including a history of pneumonitis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, interstitial pneumonia, interstitial lung disease, obliterative bronchiolitis, and pulmonary fibrosis. Subjects with history of prior radiation pneumonitis are not excluded.
Drug: Oral repotrectinib (TPX-0005)
Locally Advanced Solid Tumors, Metastatic Solid Tumors, Colon, Liver, Lung/Thoracic, Pancreas, Rectum, Stomach
ALK, ROS1, NTRK, Sarcoma, Lung Neoplasms, Carcinoma, NSCL, NSCLC, Non Small Cell Lung, Thyroid Disease, Colonic Neoplasms, Thyroid Neoplasms, Carcinoma, Neuroendocrine, Respiratory Tract Neoplasms, Thoracic Neoplasms, Neoplasms by Site, Neoplasms, Lung Disease, Respiratory Tract Disease, Carcinoma, Bronchogenic, Bronchial Neoplasms, Endocrine System Disease, Colorectol Neoplasms, Intestinal Neoplasms, Gastrointestinal Neoplasms, Digestive System Neoplasms, Gastrointestinal Disease, Colonic Disease, Intestinal Disease, Endocrine Gland Neoplasms, Head and Neck Neoplasms, Neuroendocrine Tumors, Neuroectodermal Tumors, Neoplasms, Germ Cell and Embryonal, Neoplasms by Histologic Type, Adenocarcinoma, Non Small Cell Lung Cancer, Solid Tumors, Rearrangements, TRIDENT-1, TKI, TKI naive, TKI pretreated, Anti-tumor activity, Repotrectinib, Advanced Solid Malignancies
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Active Surveillance, Bleomycin, Etoposide, Carboplatin or Cisplatin in Treating Pediatric and Adult Patients With Germ Cell Tumors
This phase III trial studies how well active surveillance help doctors to monitor subjects with low risk germ cell tumors for recurrence after their tumor is removed. When the germ cell tumors has spread outside of the organ in which it developed, it is considered metastatic. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as bleomycin, carboplatin, etoposide, and cisplatin, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. The trial studies whether carboplatin or cisplatin is the preferred chemotherapy to use in treating metastatic standard risk germ cell tumors.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Jonathan Wickiser
60058
All
Not specified
Phase 3
NCT03067181
STU 052017-035
Inclusion Criteria:
• There is no age limit for the low risk stratum (stage I ovarian immature teratoma and stage I non-seminoma or seminoma malignant GCT [all sites])
• Standard risk 1: Patient must be < 11 years of age at enrollment
• Standard risk 2: Patients must be >= 11 and < 25 years of age at enrollment
• Patients enrolling on one of the low risk arms must be newly diagnosed with a stage I germ cell tumor; for the standard risk arms, patients must be newly diagnosed with metastatic germ cell tumor (stage II or higher); histologic confirmation of a primary extracranial germ cell tumor in any of the categories outlined below is required of all patients at enrollment except for those who were initially diagnosed with stage I non-seminoma malignant GCT and later recur during observation post surgery off study; for these patients, if elevated tumor markers rise to > 5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) on at least 2 measurements taken at least 1 week apart, a diagnostic biopsy is not required for enrollment
• Low risk stage I immature teratoma (IT); site: ovarian; stage: Children's Oncology Group (COG) stage I, Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stage IA and IB; grade: 2 or 3; histology: pure immature teratoma (may contain microscopic foci of yolk sac tumor), mixed immature and mature teratoma, (no pathological evidence of MGCT); tumor markers: alpha-FP =< 1,000 ng/mL, beta-HCG institutional normal; all ages
• Low risk stage I non-seminoma MGCT; site: ovarian, testicular, or extragonadal; stage: COG stage I, FIGO stage IA and IB, American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) testicular stage IA, IB and IS; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma (pure or mixed); all ages
• Low risk stage I seminoma-MGCT; site: testicular; stage: COG stage I; AJCC testicular stage IA IB, and IS; histology: must contain at least one of the following: may contain immature/mature teratoma; may NOT contain yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; all ages
• Standard risk 1 (SR1); site: ovarian, testicular, or extragonadal; stage: COG stage II-IV, FIGO stage IC, FIGO stage II-IV (International Germ Cell Consensus Classification [IGCCC] criteria DO NOT apply); histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) < 11
• Standard risk 2 (SR2)
• Site: ovarian; stage: COG stage II and III, FIGO stage IC, II and III; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Site: testicular; stage: COG stage II-IV, AJCC stage II, III, IGCCC good risk; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; tumor markers: must be IGCCC good risk; post op: alpha-FP < 1,000 ng/mL, beta-HCG < 5,000 IU/mL and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) <
• 0 x normal; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Site: extragonadal; stage: COG stage II; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Notes:
• IGCCC criteria only apply to SR2 patients with a testicular primary tumor
• Use post-op tumor marker levels to determine IGCCC risk group
• Stage 1 seminoma patients are not eligible for the standard risk arms of the study
• For the low risk stage I non-seminoma MGCT and the standard risk arms, components of yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma can be mixed with other forms of GCT, such as seminoma or mature or immature teratoma; if yolk sac tumor is the only malignant component present, then it must be deemed by the pathologist to be greater than a "microscopic component" of yolk sac tumor
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, 2 or 3; use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age
• Organ function requirements apply ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy (SR1 and SR2 patients)
• Adequate renal function defined as:
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) OR
• A serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows (within 7 days prior to enrollment): (mg/dL)
• 1 month to < 6 months male: 0.4 female: 0.4
• 6 months to < 1 year male: 0.5 female: 0.5
• 1 to < 2 years male: 0.6 female: 0.6
• 2 to < 6 years male: 0.8 female: 0.8
• 6 to < 10 years male: 1 female: 1
• 10 to < 13 years male: 1.2 female: 1.2
• 13 to < 16 years: male: 1.5 female: 1.4
• >= 16 years male: 1.7 female: 1.4
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) or serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) < 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mm^3 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) AND
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients enrolling on the standard risk arms must be medically fit to receive protocol treatment and with no contraindications to protocol treatment
• Eligibility criteria to participate in the pilot study of the AYA-Hears instrument (patient reported outcomes [PROs] of ototoxicity) Note: participants in group 1 will not receive AGCT1531 protocol-directed therapy; all other AYA-HEARS patients must be enrolled on the AGCT1531 SR2 arm in order to participate
• >= 11 and < 25 years old at enrollment
• Able to fluently speak and read English
• Has received prior cisplatin- or carboplatin-based chemotherapy regimen for malignancy including diagnoses other than germ cell tumor
• Followed for cancer or survivorship care at one of the following institutions:
• Baylor College of Medicine/Dan L Duncan Comprehensive Cancer Center
• Dana Farber/Harvard Cancer Center
• Hospital for Sick Children
• Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario
• Oregon Health and Science University
• Seattle Children's Hospital
• Yale University
Exclusion Criteria:
• Patients with any diagnoses not listed including:
• Stage I testicular cancer patients who have undergone primary RPLND (retroperitoneal lymph node dissection)
• Pure dysgerminoma
• Pure mature teratoma
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage I, grade I
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage I, grade 2,3 with alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) >= 1000 ng/mL
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage II - IV or FIGO stage IC to IV
• "Poor risk" GCT (age >= 11 years old and COG stage IV ovarian, COG stage III or IV EG, or IGCCC intermediate or poor risk testicular), or
• Primary central nervous system (CNS) germ cell tumor
• Germ cell tumor with somatic malignant transformation
• Spermatocytic seminoma
• Patients must have had no prior systemic therapy for the current cancer diagnosis
• Patients must have had no prior radiation therapy with the exception of CNS irradiation of brain metastases; (this exception only applies to SR1 patients; any patients over age 11 with distant metastases to brain [stage IV disease] would be considered poor risk and therefore not eligible for this trial)
• Patients with significant, pre-existing co-morbid respiratory disease that contraindicate the use of bleomycin are ineligible for the standard risk arms of the trial
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
Other: Best Practice, Procedure: Biopsy, Procedure: Biospecimen Collection, Biological: Bleomycin Sulfate, Drug: Carboplatin, Drug: Cisplatin, Procedure: Computed Tomography, Drug: Etoposide, Procedure: Magnetic Resonance Imaging, Other: Pharmacogenomic Study, Procedure: Pulmonary Function Test, Other: Quality-of-Life Assessment, Other: Questionnaire Administration
Childhood Extracranial Germ Cell Tumor, Malignant Germ Cell Tumor, Germ Cell Tumor, Extragonadal Embryonal Carcinoma, Stage I Ovarian Choriocarcinoma, Stage II Ovarian Choriocarcinoma, Stage III Ovarian Choriocarcinoma, Stage IV Ovarian Choriocarcinoma, Testicular Mixed Choriocarcinoma and Embryonal Carcinoma, Testicular Mixed Choriocarcinoma and Teratoma, Testicular Mixed Choriocarcinoma and Yolk Sac Tumor, Stage I Testicular Choriocarcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage I Testicular Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage I Testicular Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Stage II Testicular Choriocarcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage II Testicular Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage II Testicular Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Stage III Testicular Choriocarcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage III Testicular Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage III Testicular Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Malignant Ovarian Teratoma, Stage I Ovarian Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage I Ovarian Teratoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage I Ovarian Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Stage II Ovarian Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage II Ovarian Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Stage III Ovarian Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage III Ovarian Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Stage IV Ovarian Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage IV Ovarian Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Other Female Genital, Other Male Genital, Ovary, Unknown Sites, Stage I Testicular Seminoma AJCC v6 and v7
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health; Parkland Health & Hospital System
INTERCEPT Blood System for RBCs Study in Regions at Potential Risk for Zika Virus Transfusion-Transmitted Infections (RedeS)
Stage A: To evaluate the safety and efficacy of red blood cells (RBCs) prepared with the INTERCEPT Blood System for Red Blood Cells Pathogen Reduction Treatment (PRT) in comparison to conventional RBCs in patients who require RBC transfusion support. Stage B: To provide early access to the INTERCEPT pathogen reduction system for RBC in regions where a substantial proportion of the population has been infected or is at risk of a transfusion-transmissible infection. The objectives and design of Stage B will be reassessed on the completion of Stage A, in consultation with the FDA.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Melissa.Hyatt@UTSouthwestern.edu
Ravindra Sarode
48082
All
4 Years and over
Phase 3
NCT03037164
STU 032018-059
Stage A:
• Age ≥ 4 years.
• Patients who require or are expected to require a transfusion of RBC component(s), including red cell exchange transfusion
• Signed and dated informed consent form.
• Female patients of child-bearing potential must:
• Have negative serum or urine pregnancy tests prior to study treatment to rule out pregnancy, and
• Agree to use to use at least one method of birth control that results in a low failure rate (i.e., less than 1% per year) when used consistently and correctly such as implants, injectables, combined oral contraceptives, some intrauterine devices (IUDs), sexual abstinence or vasectomized partner for the duration of study participation and an additional 28 days. For 28-day +6-month extension study in chronically transfused patients: • A diagnosis of a bone marrow failure syndrome requiring repeated RBC transfusion for congenital or acquired chronic anemia (e.g., sickle cell anemia, thalassemia, other hemoglobinopathies, myelodysplastic syndrome, aplastic anemia, chemotherapy or stem cell transplant etc.) For 28-day +6-month extension study in SCD patients requiring regular repeated RCE.
• Diagnosis of SCD, either HbSS, HbSC or HbSB0 thalassemia, confirmed by Hb electrophoresis, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) analysis or high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)
• Currently participating in an automated RCE transfusion program (for at least 3 months prior to enrollment) with 3-to-8 week intervals between RCE transfusion episodes Stage A: Exclusion Criteria
• Confirmed positive baseline serum/plasma antibody specific to IBS RBC (S 303 treated RBC) as determined by INTERCEPT S 303 antibody screening panel prior to receiving the first study transfusion
• Pregnant or breast feeding.
• Presence of an RBC warm autoantibody with evidence of active hemolysis.
• Positive DAT as defined below:
• A polyspecific-DAT reaction strength > 2+, or
• A polyspecific-DAT (any strength) in conjunction with pan-reactivity with a commercial IAT antibody screening panel that precludes the identification of underlying alloantibodies or indicates the presence of autoantibody.
• Have had an RBC transfusion within 7 days prior to randomization.
• Have received investigational products, including investigational blood products, pharmacologic agents or imaging materials, within 28 days prior to randomization. Prior receipt of conventional blood products tested with an investigational NAT test is not considered ground for exclusion.
• Patients presenting with or expected to have massive hemorrhage (≥10 RBC units within 24 hours) or expected to require massive transfusion protocols. Planned red cell exchange does not apply.
• Patients who require neonatal transfusions and intrauterine transfusions.
• Pre-existing antibody to RBC antigens that may make the provision of compatible study RBC components difficult.
• History of transfusion reactions requiring washed RBCs, volume reduced RBC, or RBCs with additive solution removed.
• Patients with documented IgA deficiency or a history of severe allergic reactions to blood products.
• For SCD patients to be enrolled into the repeated RCE 28-day +6-month arm of the study:
• A history of acute chest syndrome in the last 6 months, or hyperhemolysis syndrome at any time.
• Clinical evidence of splenic hyperfunction or splenic enlargement: ≥18 cm in longitudinal diameter (diagnosed at the Investigator's discretion according to the data available, with ultrasound data being preferable).
• Currently receiving chemotherapy for treatment of cancer. Hydroxyurea for SCD is acceptable if subject has been on stable therapy for 3 months and no changes to dosage are planned.
• Subject is in active treatment with renal dialysis.
• Any subject for whom a substantial change in the number of RBC components transfused is anticipated due to anticipated splenectomy, bone marrow transplant, surgery or other change in clinical status.
• Subject with known G6PD deficiency or requiring treatment with medications that are known to adversely affect RBC viability or bone marrow function.
Inclusion Criteria:
• Age ≥ 4 years.
• Patients who require or are expected to require a transfusion of RBC component(s), including red cell exchange transfusion
• Signed and dated informed consent form.
• Female patients of child-bearing potential must:
• Have negative serum or urine pregnancy tests prior to study treatment to rule out pregnancy, and
• Agree to use to use at least one method of birth control that results in a low failure rate (i.e., less than 1% per year) when used consistently and correctly such as implants, injectables, combined oral contraceptives, some intrauterine devices (IUDs), sexual abstinence or vasectomized partner for the duration of study participation and an additional 28 days. For 28-day +6-month extension study in chronically transfused patients: • A diagnosis of a bone marrow failure syndrome requiring repeated RBC transfusion for congenital or acquired chronic anemia (e.g., sickle cell anemia, thalassemia, other hemoglobinopathies, myelodysplastic syndrome, aplastic anemia, chemotherapy or stem cell transplant etc.) For 28-day +6-month extension study in SCD patients requiring regular repeated RCE.
• Diagnosis of SCD, either HbSS, HbSC or HbSB0 thalassemia, confirmed by Hb electrophoresis, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) analysis or high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)
• Currently participating in an automated RCE transfusion program (for at least 3 months prior to enrollment) with 3-to-8 week intervals between RCE transfusion episodes Stage A: Exclusion Criteria
• Confirmed positive baseline serum/plasma antibody specific to IBS RBC (S 303 treated RBC) as determined by INTERCEPT S 303 antibody screening panel prior to receiving the first study transfusion
• Pregnant or breast feeding.
• Presence of an RBC warm autoantibody with evidence of active hemolysis.
• Positive DAT as defined below:
• A polyspecific-DAT reaction strength > 2+, or
• A polyspecific-DAT (any strength) in conjunction with pan-reactivity with a commercial IAT antibody screening panel that precludes the identification of underlying alloantibodies or indicates the presence of autoantibody.
• Have had an RBC transfusion within 7 days prior to randomization.
• Have received investigational products, including investigational blood products, pharmacologic agents or imaging materials, within 28 days prior to randomization. Prior receipt of conventional blood products tested with an investigational NAT test is not considered ground for exclusion.
• Patients presenting with or expected to have massive hemorrhage (≥10 RBC units within 24 hours) or expected to require massive transfusion protocols. Planned red cell exchange does not apply.
• Patients who require neonatal transfusions and intrauterine transfusions.
• Pre-existing antibody to RBC antigens that may make the provision of compatible study RBC components difficult.
• History of transfusion reactions requiring washed RBCs, volume reduced RBC, or RBCs with additive solution removed.
• Patients with documented IgA deficiency or a history of severe allergic reactions to blood products.
• For SCD patients to be enrolled into the repeated RCE 28-day +6-month arm of the study:
• A history of acute chest syndrome in the last 6 months, or hyperhemolysis syndrome at any time.
• Clinical evidence of splenic hyperfunction or splenic enlargement: ≥18 cm in longitudinal diameter (diagnosed at the Investigator's discretion according to the data available, with ultrasound data being preferable).
• Currently receiving chemotherapy for treatment of cancer. Hydroxyurea for SCD is acceptable if subject has been on stable therapy for 3 months and no changes to dosage are planned.
• Subject is in active treatment with renal dialysis.
• Any subject for whom a substantial change in the number of RBC components transfused is anticipated due to anticipated splenectomy, bone marrow transplant, surgery or other change in clinical status.
• Subject with known G6PD deficiency or requiring treatment with medications that are known to adversely affect RBC viability or bone marrow function.
Device: INTERCEPT Blood System for Red Blood Cells, Device: Conventional (Control)
Anemia
INTERCEPT, Red Blood Cells, RBC, Pathogen Inactivation, Zika, Cerus, Pathogen Reduction
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Imatinib Mesylate and Combination Chemotherapy in Treating Patients With Newly Diagnosed Philadelphia Chromosome Positive Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
This randomized phase III trial studies how well imatinib mesylate works in combination with two different chemotherapy regimens in treating patients with newly diagnosed Philadelphia chromosome positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Imatinib mesylate has been shown to improve outcomes in children and adolescents with Philadelphia chromosome positive (Ph+) ALL when given with strong chemotherapy, but the combination has many side effects. This trial is testing whether a different chemotherapy regimen may work as well as the stronger one but have fewer side effects when given with imatinib. The trial is also testing how well the combination of chemotherapy and imatinib works in another group of patients with a type of ALL that is similar to Ph+ ALL. This type of ALL is called "ABL-class fusion positive ALL", and because it is similar to Ph+ ALL, is thought it will respond well to the combination of agents used to treat Ph+ ALL.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Tamra Slone
67555
All
1 Year to 21 Years old
Phase 3
NCT03007147
STU 082017-074
Inclusion Criteria:
• For patients enrolled on APEC14B1 prior to enrollment on AALL1631, the required diagnostic bone marrow sample has been fulfilled
• For patients who have not previously enrolled on APEC14B1 prior to enrollment on AALL1631, a baseline diagnostic sample (or peripheral blood sample with blasts if marrow sample unavailable) must be available to develop an MRD probe
• In addition, laboratory reports detailing evidence of BCR-ABL1 fusion or ABL-class fusion must be submitted for rapid central review within 72 hours of study enrollment
• >= 1 year (365 days) and =< 21 years at ALL diagnosis
• Ph+ (BCR-ABL1 fusion): newly diagnosed de novo ALL (B-ALL or T-ALL) or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia (MPAL meeting 2016 World Health Organization [WHO] definition) with definitive evidence of BCR-ABL1 fusion by karyotype, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and/or molecular methodologies
• ABL-class fusion: newly diagnosed B-ALL with definitive evidence of ABL-class fusions. ABL-class fusions are defined as those involving the following genes: ABL1, ABL2, CSF1R, PDGFRB, PDGFRA. Methods of detection include fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH, e.g. using break-apart or colocalization signals probes), multiplex or singleplex reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), whole transcriptome or panel-based ribonucleic acid (RNA)-sequencing (e.g. TruSight RNA Pan-Cancer Panel; Illumina, San Diego, CA, USA or similar)
• Ph+ patients must have previously started Induction therapy, which includes vincristine, a corticosteroid, pegaspargase, with or without anthracycline, and/or other standard cytotoxic chemotherapy
• Ph+ patients have not received more than 14 days of multiagent Induction therapy beginning with the first dose of vinCRIStine
• Ph+ patients may have started imatinib prior to study entry but have not received more than 14 days of imatinib
• ABL-class fusion patients must have previously completed the 4 or 5 weeks of multiagent Induction chemotherapy (Induction IA phase)
• ABL-class fusion patients may have started imatinib during Induction IA, at the same time of or after the first vinCRIStine dose
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2
• Direct bilirubin =< 2.0 mg/dL
• Shortening fraction of >= 27% by echocardiogram
• Ejection fraction of >= 50% by radionuclide angiogram or echocardiogram
• Corrected QT interval, QTc < 480 msec
• Note: Repeat echocardiogram and electrocardiogram are not required if they were performed at or after initial ALL diagnosis, before study enrollment
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or serum creatinine within normal limits based on age/gender, as follows:
• 1 to < 2 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.6 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 2 to < 6 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 6 to < 10 years: maximum serum creatinine 1 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 10 to < 13 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 13 to < 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• >= 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.7 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
Exclusion Criteria:
• Known history of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
• ALL developing after a previous cancer treated with cytotoxic chemotherapy
• Active, uncontrolled infection, or active systemic illness that requires ongoing vasopressor support or mechanical ventilation
• Down syndrome
• Pregnancy and breast feeding
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of treatment according to protocol
• Patients with congenital long QT syndrome, history of ventricular arrhythmias or heart block
• Prior treatment with dasatinib, or any TKI other than imatinib
Procedure: Allogeneic Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation, Drug: Calaspargase Pegol, Drug: Cyclophosphamide, Drug: Cytarabine, Drug: Daunorubicin Hydrochloride, Drug: Dexamethasone, Drug: Dexrazoxane Hydrochloride, Drug: Doxorubicin, Drug: Etoposide, Biological: Filgrastim, Drug: Ifosfamide, Drug: Imatinib Mesylate, Other: Laboratory Biomarker Analysis, Drug: Leucovorin Calcium, Drug: Mercaptopurine, Drug: Mercaptopurine, Drug: Methotrexate, Drug: Methylprednisolone, Drug: Pegaspargase, Drug: Prednisolone, Other: Questionnaire Administration, Drug: Therapeutic Hydrocortisone, Drug: Thioguanine, Drug: Vincristine Sulfate
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia, T Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
Children’s Health
Combination Chemotherapy, Bevacizumab, and/or Atezolizumab in Treating Patients With Deficient DNA Mismatch Repair Metastatic Colorectal Cancer, the COMMIT Study
This phase III trial studies how well combination chemotherapy, bevacizumab, and/or atezolizumab work in treating patients with deficient deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) mismatch repair colorectal cancer that has spread from where it first started (primary site) to other places in the body (metastatic). Chemotherapy drugs, such as fluorouracil, oxaliplatin, and leucovorin calcium, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Bevacizumab may stop or slow colorectal cancer by blocking the growth of new blood vessels necessary for tumor growth. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as atezolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Giving combination chemotherapy, bevacizumab, and atezolizumab may work better in treating patients with colorectal cancer.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Syed Kazmi
177531
All
18 Years and over
Phase 3
NCT02997228
STU 072018-005
Inclusion Criteria:
• The patient must have signed and dated an Institutional Review Board (IRB)-approved consent form that conforms to federal and institutional guidelines
• Age >= 18 years
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0, 1 or 2
• Diagnosis of metastatic adenocarcinoma of colon or rectum without previous chemotherapy or any other systemic therapy for metastatic colorectal cancer except for one cycle of FOLFOX or capecitabine and oxaliplatin (CAPOX), either with or without bevacizumab prior to enrollment. Upon enrollment, the preceding single cycle of FOLFOX or FOLFOX + bevacizumab, if the patient received one, will not count towards patients' assessments per protocol. Cycle 1 day 1 (C1D1) of atezolizumab or C1D1 of mFOLFOX6/bevacizumab + atezolizumab will correspond to the first day the patient received therapy on trial
• Tumor determined to be mismatch-repair deficient (dMMR) by Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified immunohistochemical (IHC) assay with a panel of all four IHC markers, including MLH1, MSH2, PMS2, and MSH6; alternatively, MSI-H diagnosed by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-based assessment of microsatellite alterations (either Bethesda markers or Pentaplex panel) or by next-generation sequencing (NGS) are eligible
• Documentation by PET/CT scan, CT scan, or MRI that the patient has measurable metastatic disease per RECIST 1.1
• No immediate need for surgical intervention for the primary tumor or palliative diversion/bypass
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) must be >= 1500/mm^3 (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Platelet count must be >= 100,000/mm^3 (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Hemoglobin must be >= 8 g/dL (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Total bilirubin must be =< 4 x ULN (upper limit of normal) (obtained within 28 days prior randomization); and
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) must be =< 3 x ULN for the lab with the following exception: for patients with documented liver metastases, AST and ALT must be =< 5 x ULN (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Calculated creatinine clearance >= 30 mL/min (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• A urine sample tested for proteinuria by either the dipstick method, urinalysis (UA), or a urine protein creatinine (UPC) ratio:
• The dipstick method must indicate 0-1+ protein; if dipstick reading is >= 2+, a 24-hour urine must be done and it must demonstrate < 1.0 g of protein per 24 hours or a UPC ratio < 1.0
• A urine protein creatinine (UPC) ratio must be < 1.0; if the UPC ratio is >= 1.0 a 24-hour urine must be done and it must demonstrate < 1.0 g of protein per 24 hours
• Urinalysis must indicate < 30 mg/dl. If urinalysis >= 30 mg/dl, a 24-hour urine must be done and it must demonstrate < 1.0 g of protein per 24 hours or a UPC ratio < 1.0
• International normalized ratio of prothrombin time (INR) and prothrombin time (PT) must be =< 1.5 x ULN for the lab within 28 days before randomization; patients who are therapeutically treated with an agent such as warfarin may participate if they are on a stable dose and no underlying abnormality in coagulation parameters exists per medical history, regardless of PT/INR results
• Pregnancy test done within 28 days prior randomization must be negative (for women of childbearing potential only); pregnancy testing should be performed according to institutional standards; administration of atezolizumab or mFOLFOX6/bevacizumab/atezolizumab may have an adverse effect on pregnancy and poses a risk to the human fetus, including embryo-lethality; should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she or her partner is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately
• Women of child-bearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception methods that result in a failure rate of < 1% per year during the treatment period (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and for 5 months (150 days) after the last dose of atezolizumab, 6 months after the last dose of bevacizumab, and 6 months after the last dose of mFOLFOX6; a woman is considered to be of childbearing potential if she is not postmenopausal, has not reached a postmenopausal state (>= 12 continuous months of amenorrhea with no identified cause other than menopause), and has not undergone surgical sterilization (removal of ovaries and/or uterus); examples of contraceptive methods with a failure rate of < 1% per year include: bilateral tubal ligation; male partner sterilization; intrauterine devices; the reliability of sexual abstinence should be evaluated in relation to the duration of the clinical study and the preferred and usual lifestyle of the patient; periodic abstinence (e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, or postovulation methods) and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception; men must refrain from donating sperm during this same period
Exclusion Criteria:
• Known hypersensitivity to Chinese hamster ovary cell products or other recombinant human antibodies, fluoropyrimidines, folic acid derivatives or oxaliplatin
• Uncontrolled high blood pressure defined as systolic blood pressure (BP) > 150 mmHg or diastolic BP > 100 mmHg with or without anti-hypertensive medication; patients with initial BP elevations are eligible if initiation or adjustment of BP medication lowers pressure to meet entry criteria
• Documented New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV congestive heart failure
• Serious or non-healing wound, skin ulcer, or bone fracture
• History of inherited bleeding diathesis, gastrointestinal (GI) perforation, significant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm requiring surgical repair or recent arterial thrombosis or symptomatic peripheral ischemia, transient ischemic attack [TIA], cerebrovascular accident [CVA] or arterial thrombotic event), abdominal fistula, intra-abdominal abscess, or active GI bleeding (with cause not addressed) within 6 months prior to randomization, or other medical condition in the opinion of the treating oncologist that makes the risk of cardiovascular or bleeding complications with bevacizumab use unacceptably high
• Other malignancies are excluded unless the patient has completed therapy for the malignancy >= 12 months prior to randomization and is considered disease-free; patients with the following cancers are eligible if diagnosed and treated within the past 12 months: in situ carcinomas or basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
• Known DPD (dihydro pyrimidine dehydrogenase) deficiency
• Symptomatic peripheral sensory neuropathy >= grade 2 (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] version [v] 5.0)
• Prior treatment with oxaliplatin chemotherapy within 6 months prior to randomization
• History of grade 2 hemoptysis (defined as 2.5 mL of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to screening
• Prior treatment with anti-PD-1, or anti-PD-L1 therapeutic antibody or pathway-targeting agents; patients who have received prior treatment with anti-CTLA-4 may be enrolled provided the following requirements are met:
• Minimum of 12 weeks from the first dose of anti-CTLA-4 and > 6 weeks from the last dose to randomization
• No history of severe immune-related adverse effects (CTCAE grade 3 and 4) from anti-CTLA-4
• Treatment with systemic immunosuppressive medications (including, but not limited to, prednisone, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, thalidomide, and anti-tumor necrosis factor [anti-TNF] agents) within 14 days prior to randomization; however,
• Patients who have received acute, low dose, systemic immunosuppressant medications (e.g., a one-time dose of dexamethasone for nausea; or chronic daily treatment with corticosteroids with a dose of =< 10 mg/day methylprednisolone equivalent) may be enrolled
• The use of inhaled corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids (e.g., fludrocortisone) for patients with orthostatic hypotension or adrenocortical insufficiency is allowed
• Known clinically significant liver disease, including active viral, alcoholic, or other hepatitis; cirrhosis; fatty liver; and inherited liver disease; however,
• Patients with past or resolved hepatitis B infection (defined as having a negative hepatitis B surface antigen [HbsAg] test and a positive anti-HBc [antibody to hepatitis B core antigen] antibody test) are eligible if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for hepatits B virus (HBV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is negative per local guidelines
• Patients positive for hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody are eligible only if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is negative for HCV RNA per local guidelines
• History or risk of autoimmune disease, including, but not limited to, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, vascular thrombosis associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, Wegener's granulomatosis, Sjogren's syndrome, Bell's palsy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune thyroid disease, vasculitis, or glomerulonephritis; however,
• Patients with a history of autoimmune hypothyroidism on a stable dose of thyroid replacement hormone may be eligible
• Patients with controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus on a stable insulin regimen may be eligible
• Patients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus or vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions:
• Patients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestations
• Rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA)
• Disease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, fluocinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%)
• No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)
• History of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, organizing pneumonia (i.e., bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, etc.), or active or recently active (within 90 days of randomization) pneumonitis (including drug induced) that required systemic immunosuppressive therapy (i.e. corticosteroids, etc.). History of radiation pneumonitis in the radiation field (fibrosis) is permitted
• History of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteins
• Patients with known active tuberculosis (TB) are excluded
• Severe infections within 28 days prior to randomization, including but not limited to, hospitalization for complications of infection, bacteremia, or severe pneumonia
• Signs or symptoms of infection within 14 days prior to randomization
• Received oral or intravenous (IV) antibiotics within 14 days prior to randomization; patients receiving prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., for prevention of a urinary tract infection or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) are eligible
• Major surgical procedure, open biopsy, or significant traumatic injury within 28 days prior to randomization or anticipation of need for a major surgical procedure during the course of the study
• The administration of a live, attenuated vaccine within 28 days prior to randomization
• Pregnant women are excluded from this study because atezolizumab is an agent with the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects; because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with atezolizumab, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with atezolizumab; these potential risks may also apply to other agents used in this study; (Note: pregnancy testing should be performed within 28 days prior to randomization according to institutional standards for women of childbearing potential)
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
• Patients with prior allogeneic bone marrow transplantation or prior solid organ transplantation
Drug: Atezolizumab, Biological: Bevacizumab, Procedure: Biospecimen Collection, Procedure: Computed Tomography, Drug: Fluorouracil, Drug: Leucovorin, Procedure: Magnetic Resonance Imaging, Drug: Oxaliplatin, Procedure: Positron Emission Tomography, Other: Quality-of-Life Assessment, Other: Questionnaire Administration
Stage IV Colorectal Cancer AJCC v7, Metastatic Colorectal Adenocarcinoma
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
DExterous Hand Control Through Fascicular Targeting (DEFT) - (Human Subjects)
Our goal is to temporarily implant the following groups for 540 +/- 30 days: 1. Forearm FAST electrodes 1. Five human partial hand amputees (amputated at the level of the hand) with 2 FAST electrodes in the ulnar nerve and 2-5 FAST electrodes in the median nerve. 2. Five human hand and forearm amputees (amputated at the level of the forearm) with 2 FAST electrodes in the ulnar nerve and 2-5 FAST electrodes in the median nerve . 2. Arm FAST electrodes 1. Five human partial hand amputees (amputated at the level of the hand) with 2 FAST electrodes in the ulnar nerve and 2-5 FAST electrodes in the median nerve. 2. Five human hand and forearm amputees (amputated at the level of the forearm) with 2 FAST electrodes in the ulnar nerve and 2-5 FAST electrodes in the median nerve. 3. Five human hand, forearm and arm amputees (amputated at the level of the arm) with 2 FAST electrodes in the ulnar nerve and 2-5 FAST electrodes in the median nerve.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, JENNIFER.BARILLAS@UTSouthwestern.edu
Jonathan Cheng
98715
All
18 Years to 95 Years old
N/A
NCT02994160
STU 092014-061
Criteria for Inclusion of Subjects:
Hand, forearm and arm amputees:
• Male or female, age 18 and older, of any race or ethnicity
• Able and willing to sign Consent
• Able and willing to participate in all study activities including implantation, testing and explantation of the study device.
• Able to communicate effectively in English without an interpreter After preliminary screening subjects will be assessed for the following inclusion criteria: Overall and phantom pain are well-controlled and not incapacitating Criteria for Exclusion of Subjects:
• If MR neurogram and EMG/NCS study show nerve or muscle dysfunction/injury at a higher level than anticipated based on the appearance of the physical amputation stump, the subject may be excluded from the study due to adverse neuromuscular anatomy which would preclude use of the proposed experimental electrode implants. The radiographs will be used to confirm suitability of the amputation stump configuration. If the bony anatomy of the amputation stump is found to be unsuitable, the patient may be excluded from the study.
• Subjects who have a history of cardiac arrhythmia will be excluded from the study.
• Male or female, age 18 and older, of any race or ethnicity
• Able and willing to sign Consent
• Able and willing to participate in all study activities including implantation, testing and explantation of the study device.
• Able to communicate effectively in English without an interpreter After preliminary screening subjects will be assessed for the following inclusion criteria: Overall and phantom pain are well-controlled and not incapacitating Criteria for Exclusion of Subjects:
• If MR neurogram and EMG/NCS study show nerve or muscle dysfunction/injury at a higher level than anticipated based on the appearance of the physical amputation stump, the subject may be excluded from the study due to adverse neuromuscular anatomy which would preclude use of the proposed experimental electrode implants. The radiographs will be used to confirm suitability of the amputation stump configuration. If the bony anatomy of the amputation stump is found to be unsuitable, the patient may be excluded from the study.
• Subjects who have a history of cardiac arrhythmia will be excluded from the study.
Other: Fast electrode
Amputation, Traumatic, Hand, Brain and Nervous System
peripheral nerve, intraneural electrode, hand amputation, forearm amputation
UT Southwestern
Inotuzumab Ozogamicin in Treating Younger Patients With B-Lymphoblastic Lymphoma or Relapsed or Refractory CD22 Positive B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
This phase II trial studies how well inotuzumab ozogamicin works in treating younger patients with B-lymphoblastic lymphoma or CD22 positive B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that has come back (relapsed) or does not respond to treatment (refractory). Inotuzumab ozogamicin is a monoclonal antibody, called inotuzumab, linked to a toxic agent called ozogamicin. Inotuzumab attaches to CD22 positive cancer cells in a targeted way and delivers ozogamicin to kill them.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Tamra Slone
67555
All
1 Year to 21 Years old
Phase 2
NCT02981628
STU 062017-028
Inclusion Criteria:
• Patients must be >= 1 year and < 22 years of age at the time of enrollment
• Patients must have B-ALL, or previously diagnosed B lymphoblastic lymphoma (B-LL), with >= 5% (M2 or M3) bone marrow blasts with or without extramedullary disease
• NOTE: Relapsed patients previously diagnosed with B-lymphoblastic lymphoma (B-LL) are eligible if they have an M2 or M3 marrow at the time of enrollment on this study
• Patients with ALL or B-LL who have M2 morphology must have local confirmatory testing showing >= 5% blasts by flow cytometry, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) testing or other molecular method
• Leukemic blasts must demonstrate surface expression of CD22 at the time of relapse by local/institutional flow cytometry of a bone marrow aspirate sample; (assessment of CD22 using a bright fluorophore such as phycoerythrin [PE] is strongly recommended)
• In the case of an inadequate aspirate sample (dry tap) or if bone marrow aspirate is unable to be performed due to patient clinical status, flow cytometry of peripheral blood specimen may be substituted if the patient has at least 1,000/uL circulating blasts; alternatively, CD22 expression may be documented by immunohistochemistry of a bone marrow biopsy specimen
• Patients with one of the following:
• Second or greater relapse;
• Primary refractory disease with at least 2 prior induction attempts;
• First relapse refractory to at least one prior re-induction attempt
• Any relapse after HSCT (Cohort 1 ONLY) Patients with Down syndrome are eligible ONLY for Cohort 1 with:
• Any of above disease status, OR
• First relapse with no prior re-induction attempt NOTE: Patients with Down syndrome or prior HSCT are NOT eligible for Cohort 2 combination therapy
• Patients with Philadelphia chromosome (Ph)+ ALL must have had two prior therapy attempts including two different tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs)
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anti-cancer therapy, defined as resolution of all such toxicities to =< grade 2 or lower per the inclusion/exclusion criteria prior to entering this study. Apply to Cohort 2:
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anti-cancer agents known to be myelosuppressive. For agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned Research Coordinator prior to enrollment.
• A waiting period prior to enrollment is not required for patients receiving standard cytotoxic maintenance chemotherapy (i.e., corticosteroid, vincristine, 6MP, and/or methotrexate).
• A waiting period is not required for patients receiving a single dose of intrathecal methotrexate, hydrocortisone, and/or cytarabine within 7 days prior to enrollment
• >= 14 days must have elapsed after the completion of other cytotoxic therapy, with the exception of hydroxyurea, for patients not receiving standard maintenance therapy. For patients who previously received calaspargase pegol, >= 21 days must have elapsed after the last dose. Additionally, patients must have fully recovered from all acute toxic effects of prior therapy.
• Note: Cytoreduction with hydroxyurea must be discontinued >= 24 hours prior to the start of protocol therapy.
• Anti-cancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g., not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil count [ANC] counts): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent. For agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment.
• Anti-cancer agents that are antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1. There is an exception for blinatumomab infusions, for which patients must have been off for at least 3 days and all drug related toxicity must have resolved to grade 2 or lower as outlined in the inclusion/exclusion criteria.
• Corticosteroids: If used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid. A waiting period prior to enrollment is not required for patients receiving corticosteroid for leukemia therapy/cytoreduction.
• Radiotherapy: >= 2 weeks must have elapsed since local palliative radiation therapy (XRT) (small port); >= 3 months must have elapsed if prior cranial or craniospinal XRT was received, if >= 50% of the pelvis was irradiated, or if total body irradiation (TBI) was received; >= 6 weeks must have elapsed if other substantial bone marrow irradiation was given.
• Stem cell transplant or rescue without TBI: For Cohort 1, at least 90 days must have elapsed since stem cell transplant and at least 30 days from donor lymphocyte infusion. Patient must have had no more than one previous HSCT and currently have no evidence of active graft vs. host disease (GVHD). For Cohort 2, no prior HSCT is allowed.
• Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T cell therapy: At least 30 days must have elapsed from the last CAR-T cell infusion
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2; use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or
• A serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• 1 to < 2 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.6 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 2 to < 6 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 6 to < 10 years: maximum serum creatinine 1 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 10 to < 13 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 13 to < 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• >= 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.7 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• Direct bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age, and
• Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) =< 5 x ULN for age; for the purpose of this study, the ULN for ALT will be 45 U/L
Exclusion Criteria:
• Patients with any prior history of SOS irrespective of severity
• Patients with isolated central nervous system (CNS), testicular, or any other extramedullary site of relapse
• Patients who have been previously treated with inotuzumab ozogamicin
• Patients who have previously received HSCT (Cohort 2 only)
• Patients with Down syndrome (Cohort 2 only)
• History of allergic reaction attributed to compounds of similar or biologic composition to inotuzumab ozogamicin or other agents in the study
• Note: Patients with history of allergy to pegaspargase/calaspargase pegol are eligible for enrollment on Cohort 2 if Erwinia formulation of asparaginase can be obtained
• Patients with active optic nerve and/or retinal involvement are not eligible; patients who are presenting with visual disturbances should have an ophthalmologic exam and, if indicated, a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to assess optic nerve or retinal involvement
• Patients who are currently receiving another investigational drug
• Patients who are currently receiving or plan to receive other anti-cancer agents (except hydroxyurea, which may be continued until 24 hours prior to start of protocol therapy, and intrathecal chemotherapy)
• Anti-GVHD or agents to prevent organ rejection post-transplant; patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus, or other agents to prevent either graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant or organ rejection post-transplant are not eligible for this trial; at least 3 half-lives must have elapsed after the last dose of GVHD or anti-rejection medications
• Patients who are currently receiving or plan to receive corticosteroids except as described below
• Systemic corticosteroids may be administered for cytoreduction up to 24 hours prior to the start of protocol therapy, (Cohort 1 only) for all patients, corticosteroids may be administered as a premedication for inotuzumab ozogamicin and as treatment for allergic reactions or for physiologic replacement/stress dosing of hydrocortisone for documented adrenal insufficiency; corticosteroids are not allowed for other indications
• Patients with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B or C infections; testing to prove negative status is not required for enrollment unless it is deemed necessary for usual medical care of the patient
• Patients who have an active uncontrolled infection defined as:
• Positive bacterial blood culture within 48 hours of study enrollment;
• Fever above 38.2 degree Celsius (C) within 48 hours of study enrollment with clinical signs of infection; fever that is determined to be due to tumor burden is allowed if patients have documented negative blood cultures for at least 48 hours prior to enrollment and no concurrent signs or symptoms of active infection or hemodynamic instability
• A positive fungal culture within 30 days of study enrollment or active therapy for presumed invasive fungal infection
• Patients may be receiving IV or oral antibiotics to complete a course of therapy for a prior documented infection as long as cultures have been negative for at least 48 hours and signs or symptoms of active infection have resolved; for patients with clostridium (C.) difficile diarrhea, at least 72 hours of antibacterial therapy must have elapsed and stools must have normalized to baseline
• Active viral or protozoal infection requiring IV treatment
• Patients known to have one of the following concomitant genetic syndromes: Bloom syndrome, ataxia-telangiectasia, Fanconi anemia, Kostmann syndrome, Schwachman (Schwachman-Diamond-Blackfan) syndrome or any other known bone marrow failure syndrome
• There have been no human studies of inotuzumab ozogamicin in pregnant women and no reports of exposure in utero; based on nonclinical safety studies, inotuzumab ozogamicin has the potential to impair human male and female fertility and to adversely affect human embryo fetal development; women of childbearing potential should be advised to avoid becoming pregnant while receiving inotuzumab ozogamicin; there is no information regarding the presence of inotuzumab ozogamicin in human milk, the effects on the breast-fed infant, or the effects on milk production; because of the potential for adverse reactions in breast-fed infants, women should not breast-feed during treatment with inotuzumab ozogamicin and for at least 2 months after the final dose
• Female patients of childbearing potential are not eligible unless a negative pregnancy test result has been obtained within 7 days prior to enrollment
• Female patients who are sexually active and of reproductive potential are not eligible unless they agree to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation and for 8 months after the last dose of inotuzumab ozogamicin
• Men with female partners of childbearing potential should use effective contraception during treatment with inotuzumab ozogamicin and for at least 5 months after the last dose of inotuzumab ozogamicin
• Lactating females are not eligible unless they agree not to breastfeed their infants
Procedure: Biospecimen Collection, Procedure: Bone Marrow Aspiration and Biopsy, Drug: Calaspargase Pegol, Drug: Cyclophosphamide, Drug: Cytarabine, Procedure: Diagnostic Imaging, Biological: Inotuzumab Ozogamicin, Drug: Leucovorin Calcium, Procedure: Lumbar Puncture, Drug: Methotrexate, Drug: Pegaspargase, Drug: Vincristine
Recurrent B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Recurrent B Lymphoblastic Lymphoma, Refractory B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Refractory B Lymphoblastic Lymphoma, Leukemia, Other
Children’s Health
Milrinone in Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
Infants with congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) usually have pulmonary hypoplasia and persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN) leading to hypoxemic respiratory failure (HRF). Pulmonary hypertension associated with CDH is frequently resistant to conventional pulmonary vasodilator therapy including inhaled nitric oxide (iNO). Increased pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) can lead to right ventricular overload and dysfunction. In patients with CDH, left ventricular dysfunction, either caused by right ventricular overload or a relative underdevelopment of the left ventricle, is associated with poor prognosis. Milrinone is an intravenous inotrope and lusitrope (enhances cardiac systolic contraction and diastolic relaxation respectively) with pulmonary vasodilator properties and has been shown anecdotally to improve oxygenation in PPHN. Milrinone is commonly used during the management of CDH although no randomized trials have been performed to test its efficacy. Thirty percent of infants with CDH in the Children's Hospital Neonatal Database (CHND) and 22% of late-preterm and term infants with CDH in the Pediatrix database received milrinone. In the recently published VICI trial, 84% of patients with CDH received a vasoactive medication. In the current pilot trial, neonates with an antenatal or postnatal diagnosis of CDH will be randomized to receive milrinone or placebo to establish safety of this medication in CDH and test its efficacy in improving oxygenation.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Michelle.Webbon@UTSouthwestern.edu
Abhishek Makkar
153943
All
0 Hours to 168 Hours old
Phase 2
NCT02951130
STU 042017-055
Eligibility criteria:
Infants are eligible if they meet all of the following criteria:
• ≥ 36 0/7 weeks PMA by best obstetric estimate AND birth weight of ≥ 2000g
• postnatal age ≤7 days (168 hours of age)
• invasive mechanical ventilation (defined as ventilation with an endotracheal tube) and
• one arterial blood gas with an OI ≥ 10 (after tracheal tube obstruction and other easily resolvable mechanical causes for increased OI are ruled out) on the most recent arterial blood gas within 12 hours prior to the time of randomization.
• if an arterial blood gas is not available at the time of randomization, a preductal OSI of ≥ 5 can be used as an inclusion criterion instead of OI ≥ 10; (the OSI should be based on the most recent preductal pulse oximetry recording and must be within 12 hours of randomization)
• postnatal blood gas with PCO2 ≤ 80 mmHg (arterial, capillary or venous blood gas) on the most recent blood gas sample obtained within 12 hours prior to randomization Note: Criteria (iv) to (vi) must be met at the most recent analysis within 12 hours prior to randomization.
• known hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• Note 1: infants of diabetic mothers with asymmetric septal hypertrophy can be included as long as there is no evidence of obstruction to left ventricular outflow tract on echocardiogram,
• Note 2: infants with other acyanotic congenital heart disease (CHD) and CDH may be included in the study and will be a predetermined subgroup for analysis)
• cyanotic CHD - transposition of great arteries (TGA), total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR), partial anomalous pulmonary venous return (PAPVR), truncus arteriosus (TA), tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), single ventricle physiology - hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS), tricuspid atresia, critical pulmonic stenosis or atresia etc.,
• enrolled in conflicting clinical trials (such as a randomized controlled blinded trial of another pulmonary vasodilator therapy); Note: mothers enrolled in fetal tracheal occlusion studies such as FETO may be enrolled if permitted by investigators of the fetal tracheal occlusion study; [FETO refers to fetoscopic endoluminal tracheal occlusion and involves occlusion of fetal trachea with a balloon device at mid-gestation and subsequent removal in later gestation]
• infants with bilateral CDH o Note 3: infants with anterior and central defects are included in the study
• associated abnormalities of the trachea or esophagus (trachea-esophageal fistula, esophageal atresia, laryngeal web, tracheal agenesis)
• renal dysfunction (with serum creatinine > 2 mg/dL not due to maternal factors) or severe oligohydramnios associated with renal dysfunction at randomization; renal dysfunction may be secondary to renal anomalies or medical conditions such as acute tubular necrosis
• severe systemic hypotension (mean blood pressure < 35 mm Hg for at least 2 h with a vasoactive inotrope score of > 30)
• decision is made to provide comfort/ palliative care and not full treatment
• Intracranial bleed (including the following findings on the cranial ultrasound)
• Cerebral parenchymal hemorrhage
• Blood/echodensity in the ventricle with distension of the ventricle
• Periventricular hemorrhagic infarction
• Posterior fossa hemorrhage
• Cerebellar hemorrhage
• persistent thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 80,000/mm3) despite blood product administration on the most recent blood draw prior to randomization
• coagulopathy (PT INR > 1.7) despite blood product administration on the most recent blood draw (if checked - there is no reason to check PT for the purpose of this study)
• aneuploidy associated with short life span (such as trisomy 13 or 18) will not be included in the study (infants with trisomy 21 can be included in the study)
• elevated arterial, venous or capillary PCO2 > 80 mmHg in spite of maximal ventilator support (including high frequency ventilation) on the most recent blood gas obtained within 12 hours prior to randomization
• use of milrinone infusion prior to randomization (the use of other inhaled pulmonary vasodilators such as iNO, inhaled epoprosternol, inhaled PGE1 and oral such as endothelin receptor antagonists is permitted - Note: it is unlikely to be on oral pulmonary vasodilators early in the course of CDH)
• ongoing therapy with parenteral (intravenous or subcutaneous) pulmonary vasodilators such as IV/SQ prostacyclin analogs (Epoprostenol - Flolan or Treprostinil - Remodulin or PGE1 - Alprostadil) or IV phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors (sildenafil - Revatio) at the time of randomization. In addition, initiation of therapy with these two classes of parenteral medications during the first 24 hours of study drug initiation is not permitted and will be considered a protocol deviation. The risk of systemic hypotension is high during the first 24 hours of study-drug (milrinone) infusion and hence parenteral administration of other pulmonary vasodilators is avoided to minimize risk of hypotension.
• Subjects already on ECMO or patients who are being actively considered for ECMO by the neonatal or surgical team
• attending (neonatal, critical care or surgical) refusal for participation in the trial (including concern about presence of hemodynamic instability)
• ≥ 36 0/7 weeks PMA by best obstetric estimate AND birth weight of ≥ 2000g
• postnatal age ≤7 days (168 hours of age)
• invasive mechanical ventilation (defined as ventilation with an endotracheal tube) and
• one arterial blood gas with an OI ≥ 10 (after tracheal tube obstruction and other easily resolvable mechanical causes for increased OI are ruled out) on the most recent arterial blood gas within 12 hours prior to the time of randomization.
• if an arterial blood gas is not available at the time of randomization, a preductal OSI of ≥ 5 can be used as an inclusion criterion instead of OI ≥ 10; (the OSI should be based on the most recent preductal pulse oximetry recording and must be within 12 hours of randomization)
• postnatal blood gas with PCO2 ≤ 80 mmHg (arterial, capillary or venous blood gas) on the most recent blood gas sample obtained within 12 hours prior to randomization Note: Criteria (iv) to (vi) must be met at the most recent analysis within 12 hours prior to randomization.
Exclusion Criteria:
Infants are ineligible if they meet any of the following criteria:
• known hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• Note 1: infants of diabetic mothers with asymmetric septal hypertrophy can be included as long as there is no evidence of obstruction to left ventricular outflow tract on echocardiogram,
• Note 2: infants with other acyanotic congenital heart disease (CHD) and CDH may be included in the study and will be a predetermined subgroup for analysis)
• cyanotic CHD - transposition of great arteries (TGA), total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR), partial anomalous pulmonary venous return (PAPVR), truncus arteriosus (TA), tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), single ventricle physiology - hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS), tricuspid atresia, critical pulmonic stenosis or atresia etc.,
• enrolled in conflicting clinical trials (such as a randomized controlled blinded trial of another pulmonary vasodilator therapy); Note: mothers enrolled in fetal tracheal occlusion studies such as FETO may be enrolled if permitted by investigators of the fetal tracheal occlusion study; [FETO refers to fetoscopic endoluminal tracheal occlusion and involves occlusion of fetal trachea with a balloon device at mid-gestation and subsequent removal in later gestation]
• infants with bilateral CDH o Note 3: infants with anterior and central defects are included in the study
• associated abnormalities of the trachea or esophagus (trachea-esophageal fistula, esophageal atresia, laryngeal web, tracheal agenesis)
• renal dysfunction (with serum creatinine > 2 mg/dL not due to maternal factors) or severe oligohydramnios associated with renal dysfunction at randomization; renal dysfunction may be secondary to renal anomalies or medical conditions such as acute tubular necrosis
• severe systemic hypotension (mean blood pressure < 35 mm Hg for at least 2 h with a vasoactive inotrope score of > 30)
• decision is made to provide comfort/ palliative care and not full treatment
• Intracranial bleed (including the following findings on the cranial ultrasound)
• Cerebral parenchymal hemorrhage
• Blood/echodensity in the ventricle with distension of the ventricle
• Periventricular hemorrhagic infarction
• Posterior fossa hemorrhage
• Cerebellar hemorrhage
• persistent thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 80,000/mm3) despite blood product administration on the most recent blood draw prior to randomization
• coagulopathy (PT INR > 1.7) despite blood product administration on the most recent blood draw (if checked - there is no reason to check PT for the purpose of this study)
• aneuploidy associated with short life span (such as trisomy 13 or 18) will not be included in the study (infants with trisomy 21 can be included in the study)
• elevated arterial, venous or capillary PCO2 > 80 mmHg in spite of maximal ventilator support (including high frequency ventilation) on the most recent blood gas obtained within 12 hours prior to randomization
• use of milrinone infusion prior to randomization (the use of other inhaled pulmonary vasodilators such as iNO, inhaled epoprosternol, inhaled PGE1 and oral such as endothelin receptor antagonists is permitted - Note: it is unlikely to be on oral pulmonary vasodilators early in the course of CDH)
• ongoing therapy with parenteral (intravenous or subcutaneous) pulmonary vasodilators such as IV/SQ prostacyclin analogs (Epoprostenol - Flolan or Treprostinil - Remodulin or PGE1 - Alprostadil) or IV phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors (sildenafil - Revatio) at the time of randomization. In addition, initiation of therapy with these two classes of parenteral medications during the first 24 hours of study drug initiation is not permitted and will be considered a protocol deviation. The risk of systemic hypotension is high during the first 24 hours of study-drug (milrinone) infusion and hence parenteral administration of other pulmonary vasodilators is avoided to minimize risk of hypotension.
• Subjects already on ECMO or patients who are being actively considered for ECMO by the neonatal or surgical team
• attending (neonatal, critical care or surgical) refusal for participation in the trial (including concern about presence of hemodynamic instability)
Drug: Milrinone, Drug: Placebo (5% Dextrose)
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia, Persistent Pulmonary Hypertension of the Newborn, Hypoxemic Respiratory Failure, Pulmonary Hypoplasia, Cardiovascular, Other Respiratory and Intrathoracic Organs
CDH, PPHN, HRF
Children’s Health; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Dallas 2K: A Natural History Study of Depression (D2K)
The Dallas 2K is a 10-year natural history, longitudinal, prospective study of a cohort of 2,000 participants that will help uncover the socio-demographic, lifestyle, clinical, psychological and neurobiological factors that contribute to anti-depressant treatment response: remission, recurrence, relapse and individual outcomes in depressive disorders. Hence, the expected duration of this study is 20 years in length. Since this is an observational study, investigators will explore a comprehensive panel of carefully selected participant specific parameters: socio-demographic (age, ethnicity, economic); lifestyle (physical activity, substance use); clinical (medical history, anxious depression, early life trauma), biological (biomarkers in blood, saliva, urine), behavioral (cognitive, emotional), neurophysiological (EEG), and neuroimaging (structural, functional brain circuitry) with the goal to develop the most robust predictive models of treatment response and of depression outcomes. There is no medication or non-medication treatment or intervention provided by this study. Subjects will have elevated symptomatology of nonpsychotic chronic or recurrent depressive disorder and will be currently receiving or will be prescribed standard of care medication or non-medication based treatments by their providers/clinicians. The study cohort will reflect the wide range of patients seen in typical primary or psychiatric care settings, and may include unipolar or bipolar disorders and dysthymia (a more chronic form of depression). The cohort will be broadly representative of and generalizable to the US general population as a whole.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Carmen.Cruz@UTSouthwestern.edu
Madhukar Trivedi
17410
All
10 Years and over
N/A
NCT02919280
STU 112015-021
Criteria for Inclusion of participants:
A potential participant will be eligible for participation in this study if the following
criteria are met:
• Male and female adult or youth aged 10 and older of any race or ethnicity.
• Ability to speak, read, and understand English. However, the parent(s) or legal guardians of minors may either speak English or Spanish as the consenting process can be conducted bilingually.
• A lifetime or a current diagnosis of a mood disorder based upon a semi-structured diagnostic interview.
• Adults age 18 and older must be able to provide written informed consent; for youth younger than age 18, a parent or legal guardian must provide written informed consent, and the child or teen must provide written informed assent. Eligibility for Healthy Controls For comparison purposes, potential health control participants who do NOT have a psychiatric diagnosis will be enrolled as part of the healthy control arm of this study.
• Male and female adult or youth aged 10 and older of any race or ethnicity.
• Ability to speak, read, and understand English. However, the parent(s) or legal guardians of minors may either speak English or Spanish as the consenting process can be conducted bilingually.
• Adults age 18 and older must be able to provide written informed consent; for youth younger than age 18, a parent or legal guardian must provide written informed consent, and the child or teen must provide written informed assent. Criteria for Exclusion of Participants A potential participant will NOT be eligible for participation in this study if any of the following criteria are met:
• History of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorders or chronic psychotic disorders based upon a semi-structured diagnostic interview.
• Diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or hepatitis B or C (human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing is not required for this study).
• Unable to provide a stable home address and contact information.
• Has any condition for which, in the opinion of the investigator or designee, study participation would not be in their best interest (including but not limited to cognitive impairment, unstable general medical condition, intoxication, active psychosis) or that could prevent, limit, or confound the protocol-specified assessments.
• Requires immediate hospitalization for psychiatric disorder or suicidal risk as assessed by a licensed study clinician. Eligibility for Healthy Controls A potential Healthy Control participant will NOT be eligible for participation in this study if any of the following criteria are met:
• A lifetime or a current history of a mood disorder based upon a semi-structured diagnostic interview.
• Meets any exclusion criteria as part of the main D2K study interview.
• Male and female adult or youth aged 10 and older of any race or ethnicity.
• Ability to speak, read, and understand English. However, the parent(s) or legal guardians of minors may either speak English or Spanish as the consenting process can be conducted bilingually.
• A lifetime or a current diagnosis of a mood disorder based upon a semi-structured diagnostic interview.
• Adults age 18 and older must be able to provide written informed consent; for youth younger than age 18, a parent or legal guardian must provide written informed consent, and the child or teen must provide written informed assent. Eligibility for Healthy Controls For comparison purposes, potential health control participants who do NOT have a psychiatric diagnosis will be enrolled as part of the healthy control arm of this study.
• Male and female adult or youth aged 10 and older of any race or ethnicity.
• Ability to speak, read, and understand English. However, the parent(s) or legal guardians of minors may either speak English or Spanish as the consenting process can be conducted bilingually.
• Adults age 18 and older must be able to provide written informed consent; for youth younger than age 18, a parent or legal guardian must provide written informed consent, and the child or teen must provide written informed assent. Criteria for Exclusion of Participants A potential participant will NOT be eligible for participation in this study if any of the following criteria are met:
• History of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorders or chronic psychotic disorders based upon a semi-structured diagnostic interview.
• Diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or hepatitis B or C (human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing is not required for this study).
• Unable to provide a stable home address and contact information.
• Has any condition for which, in the opinion of the investigator or designee, study participation would not be in their best interest (including but not limited to cognitive impairment, unstable general medical condition, intoxication, active psychosis) or that could prevent, limit, or confound the protocol-specified assessments.
• Requires immediate hospitalization for psychiatric disorder or suicidal risk as assessed by a licensed study clinician. Eligibility for Healthy Controls A potential Healthy Control participant will NOT be eligible for participation in this study if any of the following criteria are met:
• A lifetime or a current history of a mood disorder based upon a semi-structured diagnostic interview.
• Meets any exclusion criteria as part of the main D2K study interview.
Other: Observational Study
Depression, Depression, Bipolar
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health; Parkland Health & Hospital System
A Longitudinal Observational Study of Patients With Nonalcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH) and Related Conditions Across the Entire Spectrum of Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)
TARGET-NASH is a longitudinal observational cohort study of patients being managed for NASH and related conditions across the entire spectrum NAFLD in usual clinical practice. TARGET-NASH is a research registry of patients with NAFL or NASH within academic and community real-world practices maintained in order to assess the safety and effectiveness of current and future therapies.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, maurice.turk@childrens.com
Sarah Barlow
86752
All
2 Years and over
NCT02815891
STU 042018-018
Inclusion Criteria:
• Adults and children (age 2 or older) being managed or treated for nonalcoholic fatty liver disease. Diagnosis is based on the clinical judgement of the care provider.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Inability to provide informed assent/consent.
Nonalcoholic Steatohepatitis, Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver, Liver
Children’s Health
Real-time Intraoperative Breast Cancer Visualization for Margin Assessment
The investigators' preclinical data have demonstrated the feasibility of fluorescence-guided tumor resection by Cancer Vision Goggles (CVG) with LS301 in animal models. In this study, the investigators will conduct intraoperative imaging procedures that have minimal interference with ongoing surgery. The underlying hypothesis is that the accurate detection of all cancer cells highlighted by LS301 during surgery will reduce the number of breast cancer patients with margin positivity to less than 5%, compared to the current surgical paradigm of greater than 20%. The pilot study will obtain critical data required to address the larger question of surgical margin assessment in a full Phase I clinical trial. Phase 1: to determine the safety and optimal imaging dose of LS301 injected in breast cancer patients. Phase 2: to determine the ability of this novel fluorescence imaging agent to predict the presence of positive margins around partial mastectomy specimens and positive SLNs during surgical therapy for breast cancer.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Deborah Farr
161756
All
18 Years and over
Phase 1/Phase 2
NCT02807597
STU-2022-0385
Inclusion Criteria:
• Newly diagnosed Stage I-II breast cancer patients undergoing breast-conserving therapy and SLN biopsy.
• Negative nodal basin clinical exam.
• At least 18 years of age.
• Able to understand and willing to sign a written informed consent document.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Contraindications for surgery.
• Receiving any investigational agents.
• History of allergic reactions attributed to ICG or other agents used in the study, include known iodide or seafood allergy. The investigators do not expect many of these adverse reactions with LS301 because it is not radioactive and does not possess iodinated counter ions.
• Presence of underlying lung disease
• Pregnant. Female patients of childbearing potential must have a negative serum or urine pregnancy test no more than 7 days before start of participation.
• Breastfeeding. Patients who are breastfeeding are excluded from this study because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with LS301.
Drug: LS301, Device: Cancer Vision Goggles and standard fluorescence imaging systems, Procedure: Surgery
Breast Cancer, Cancer of the Breast, Breast - Female, Breast - Male
UT Southwestern
COMPASSION S3 - Evaluation of the SAPIEN 3 Transcatheter Heart Valve in Patients With Pulmonary Valve Dysfunction
This study will demonstrate the safety and effectiveness of the Edwards Lifesciences SAPIEN 3/SAPIEN 3 Ultra RESILIA Transcatheter Heart Valve (THV) Systems in subjects with a dysfunctional right ventricular outflow tract (RVOT) conduit or previously implanted valve in the pulmonic position with a clinical indication for intervention.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, kirstie.ledoux@childrens.com
Surendranath Veeram Reddy
109868
All
Not specified
N/A
NCT02744677
STU-2023-0688
Inclusion Criteria:
• Weight ≥ 20 kg (44 lbs.)
• Dysfunctional RVOT conduit or previously implanted valve in the pulmonic position with a clinical indication for intervention and with a landing zone diameter ≥ 16.5 mm and ≤ 29 mm immediately prior to study device insertion as per the Instructions for Use
• Subject presents with at least moderate PR and/or mean RVOT gradient ≥ 35 mmHg.
• The subject/subject's legally authorized representative has been informed of the nature of the study, agrees to its provisions and has provided written informed consent.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Active infection requiring current antibiotic therapy (if temporary illness, subject may be a candidate 2 weeks after discontinuation of antibiotics)
• History of or active endocarditis (active treatment with antibiotics) within the past 180 days
• Leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia or any known blood clotting disorder
• Inappropriate anatomy for femoral introduction and delivery of the study valve
• Need for concomitant atrial septal defect or ventricular septal defect closure or other concomitant interventional procedures other than pulmonary artery or branch pulmonary artery stenting or angioplasty
• Angiographic evidence of coronary artery compression that would result from transcatheter pulmonic valve implantation (TPVI)
• Interventional/surgical procedures within 30 days prior to the TPVI procedure.
• Any planned surgical, percutaneous coronary or peripheral procedure to be performed within the 30 day follow-up from the TPVI procedure.
• History of or current intravenous drug use
• Major or progressive non-cardiac disease resulting in a life expectancy of less than one year
• Known hypersensitivity to aspirin or heparin and cannot be treated with other antiplatelet and/or antithrombotic medications
• Known hypersensitivity to cobalt-chromium, nickel or contrast media that cannot be adequately premedicated
• Participating in another investigational drug or device study that has not reached its primary endpoint.
• Female who is lactating or pregnant
Device: SAPIEN 3/SAPIEN 3 Ultra RESILIA THV, Device: SAPIEN 3 THV, Device: SAPIEN 3 Ultra RESILIA THV
Pulmonary Valve Insufficiency, Complex Congenital Heart Defect, Dysfunctional RVOT Conduit, Pulmonary Valve Degeneration
Tetralogy of Fallot, Aortic Valve Defect/Disease Resulting in Ross Procedure, Pulmonary Atresia, Pulmonary Stenosis, Truncus Arteriosus, Transposition of the Great Arteries, Transcatheter pulmonary valve implantation, Transcatheter pulmonary valve replacement, TPV, TPVR, TPVI
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
Neuroblastoma Maintenance Therapy Trial (NMTT)
Difluoromethylornithine (DFMO) will be used in an open label, single agent, multicenter, study for patients with neuroblastoma in remission. In this study subjects will receive 730 Days of oral difluoromethylornithine (DFMO) at a dose of 750 mg/m2 ± 250 mg/m2 BID (strata 1, 2, 3, and 4) OR 2500 mg/m2 BID (stratum 1B) on each day of study. This study will focus on the use of DFMO in high risk neuroblastoma patients that are in remission as a strategy to prevent recurrence.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Tanya Watt
128737
All
1 Year to 30 Years old
Phase 2
NCT02679144
STU 022016-028
Inclusion Criteria:
• All patients must have a pathologically confirmed diagnosis of neuroblastoma, < 30.99 years of age and classified as high risk at the time of diagnosis. Exception: patients who are initially diagnosed as non-high-risk neuroblastoma, but later converted (and/or relapsed) to high risk neuroblastoma are also eligible.
• All patients must be in complete remission (CR):
• No evidence of residual disease on scan
• No evidence of disease metastatic to bone marrow.
• Specific Criteria by Stratum: Stratum 1/1B: All patients must have completed standard upfront therapy that replicates treatment which patients who were enrolled on ANBL0032 received, including: intensive induction chemotherapy and (if feasible) resection of primary tumor, followed by: consolidation with high-dose chemotherapy with stem cell transplant and radiotherapy, followed by: immunotherapy with Ch14.18/IL-2/GM-CSF (dinutuximab) and retinoic acid;. All subjects on Stratum 1/B must have also met the following criteria: • A pre-transplant disease status evaluation that met International Neuroblastoma Response Criteria (INRC) for CR (complete response), VGPR (very good partial response), or PR (partial response) for primary site, soft tissue metastases and bone metastases. Patients who meet those criteria must also meet the protocol-specified criteria for bone marrow response prior to transplant as outlined below: No more than 10% tumor involvement (based on total nucleated cellular content) seen on any specimen from a bilateral bone marrow aspirate/biopsy. Stratum 2: Neuroblastoma that is in first complete remission following standard upfront therapy different from that described for Stratum 1. Stratum 3: Neuroblastoma that failed to have a response of at least PR following induction chemotherapy and surgical resection of the primary tumor, but that has achieved CR following additional therapy. Stratum 4: Patients who have achieved a second or subsequent CR following relapse(s).
• Pre-enrollment tumor survey: Prior to enrollment on this study, a determination of mandatory disease staging must be performed:
• Tumor imaging studies including
• Bilateral bone marrow aspirates and biopsy
• This disease assessment is required for eligibility and preferably should be done within 2 weeks prior to enrollment, but must be done within a maximum of 4 weeks before enrollment.
• Timing from prior therapy: Stratum 1/1B: Enrollment no later than 60 days after completion of upfront therapy, (last dose of cis-retinoic acid) with a maximum of 6 cycles of cis-retinoic acid maintenance therapy. Stratum 2, 3 and 4: Enrollment no later than 60 days from last dose of the most recent therapy.
• Patients must have a Lansky or Karnofsky Performance Scale score of > 50% and patients must have a life expectancy of ≥ 2 months.
• All clinical and laboratory studies for organ functions to determine eligibility must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment unless otherwise indicated below.
• Patients must have adequate organ functions at the time of registration:
• Hematological: Total absolute phagocyte count ≥1000/μL
• Liver: Subjects must have adequate liver function
• Renal: Adequate renal function
• Females of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test. Patients of childbearing potential must agree to use an effective birth control method. Female patients who are lactating must agree to stop breast-feeding.
• Written informed consent in accordance with institutional and FDA (food and drug administration) guidelines must be obtained from all subjects (or patients' legal representative).
Exclusion Criteria:
• BSA (Body Surface Area) of <0.25 m2.
• Investigational Drugs: Subjects who are currently receiving another investigational drug are excluded from participation.
• Anti-cancer Agents: Subjects who are currently receiving other anticancer agents are not eligible. Subjects must have fully recovered from hematological and bone marrow suppression effects of prior chemotherapy.
• Infection: Subjects who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible until the infection is judged to be well controlled in the opinion of the investigator.
• Subjects who, in the opinion of the investigator, may not be able to comply with the safety monitoring requirements of the study, or in whom compliance is likely to be suboptimal, should be excluded.
Drug: Difluoromethylornithine (DFMO)
Neuroblastoma, Brain and Nervous System
Children’s Health
Genetic and Metabolic Disease in Children
This is a prospective, non-randomized, non-blinded observational study. The overarching goal is to discover new disease-associated genes in children, while establishing a specific focus on disorders where molecular characterization is most likely to lead to novel therapies. This study will merge detailed phenotypic characterization of patients presenting to the Pediatric Genetics and Metabolism Division in the Department of Pediatrics/Children's Medical Center at Dallas and collaborating clinics with Next-Generation sequencing techniques to identify disease-producing mutations. The primary objective of the study is to identify novel pathogenic mutations in children with rare Mendelian disorders. A secondary objective of the study is to establish normative ranges of a large number of metabolites from healthy newborns and older children.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Phyllis.McDaniel@UTSouthwestern.edu
Ralph DeBerardinis
99018
All
1 Day and over
N/A
NCT02650622
STU 112014-001
Inclusion criteria of Cohort 1- Newborn:
• Subjects aged 1-2 days
• Subjects with gestational age 37-42 weeks
• Subjects with stable clinical status (admitted to normal newborn nursery) Inclusion criteria of Cohort 2 - Older children: • Subjects aged 0-18 years Inclusion criteria of Cohort 3 - Diseased children: Subjects (no age limit) with ANY phenotype as below:
• Confirmed metabolic or genetic diseases
• Suspected metabolic or genetic diseases
• Episodic metabolic decompensation (e.g. hypoglycemia, hyperammonemia, metabolic acidosis)
• Developmental regression
• Major congenital malformation
• Other unexplained symptoms of potential genetic origin Exclusion criteria of Cohort 1 - Newborn:
• Subjects with gestational age <37 weeks or >42 weeks
• Subjects with overt signs of metabolic dysfunction, distress or genetic diseases including hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia, sepsis/shock, hypoxemia, or major congenital malformation
• Subjects with mothers whose pregnancies were complicated by gestational diabetes, gestational hyperglycemia, gestational hypertension, preeclampsia, or any other major disorders. Exclusion criteria of Cohort 2 - Older children:
• Subjects with confirmed metabolic or genetic diseases
• Subjects with suspected metabolic or genetic diseases
• Subjects with episodic metabolic decompensation (e.g. hypoglycemia, hyperammonemia, metabolic acidosis)
• Subjects with developmental regression
• Subjects with major congenital malformation Exclusion criteria of Cohort 3 - Diseased children No.
• Subjects aged 1-2 days
• Subjects with gestational age 37-42 weeks
• Subjects with stable clinical status (admitted to normal newborn nursery) Inclusion criteria of Cohort 2 - Older children: • Subjects aged 0-18 years Inclusion criteria of Cohort 3 - Diseased children: Subjects (no age limit) with ANY phenotype as below:
• Confirmed metabolic or genetic diseases
• Suspected metabolic or genetic diseases
• Episodic metabolic decompensation (e.g. hypoglycemia, hyperammonemia, metabolic acidosis)
• Developmental regression
• Major congenital malformation
• Other unexplained symptoms of potential genetic origin Exclusion criteria of Cohort 1 - Newborn:
• Subjects with gestational age <37 weeks or >42 weeks
• Subjects with overt signs of metabolic dysfunction, distress or genetic diseases including hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia, sepsis/shock, hypoxemia, or major congenital malformation
• Subjects with mothers whose pregnancies were complicated by gestational diabetes, gestational hyperglycemia, gestational hypertension, preeclampsia, or any other major disorders. Exclusion criteria of Cohort 2 - Older children:
• Subjects with confirmed metabolic or genetic diseases
• Subjects with suspected metabolic or genetic diseases
• Subjects with episodic metabolic decompensation (e.g. hypoglycemia, hyperammonemia, metabolic acidosis)
• Subjects with developmental regression
• Subjects with major congenital malformation Exclusion criteria of Cohort 3 - Diseased children No.
Procedure: Skin Biopsy
Genetic Diseases, Metabolic Diseases, Other
Metabolism, Genetics, Metabolomics, Genomics
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Stereotactic Radiosurgery (SRS) Dose-Escalation Study for Brain Metastasis (SRS)
SRS dose escalation for brain metastases in radiation-naïve patients will establish true tolerable doses, which may exceed the current standard doses. This may lead to an improvement in local control, patient survival, and/or quality-of life.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Robert Timmerman
69821
All
18 Years and over
N/A
NCT02645487
STU 022015-106
Inclusion Criteria
• Biopsy-proven non-hematopoietic malignancy, except for small cell lung cancer, germ cell cancer, or unknown primary tumor.
• Radiographic evidence by MRI (or by CT scan with CT contrast if ineligible or intolerant of MRI) of brain metastasis. (If patient is unable to tolerate MRI contrast, an MRI without contrast is acceptable if lesions are visible)
• All brain metastases must be outside the brain stem (midbrain, pons and medulla).
• Patient must have 10 or less brain metastases.
• The maximum diameter of any lesion must be less than or equal to 3.0 cm.
• Previous treatment with surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, immunotherapy or any targeted agents are allowed provided that:
• Radiation was not to the brain.
• Surgery to the brain was > 7 days prior to SRS and there remains at least one additional brain metastasis that can be targeted with SRS
• Age ≥ 18 years.
• ECOG Performance Score of 2 or better/Karnofsky Performance Status score of 50-60 or better.
• All men, as well as women of child-bearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry and for the duration of study participation. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, marital status, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months).
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent. Exclusion Criteria
• Patients had craniotomy and surgery to the brain within 7 days from the date of SRS.
• Patients with leptomeningeal metastasis. NOTE: For the purposes of exclusion, LMD is a clinical diagnosis, defined as positive CSF cytology and/or equivocal radiologic or clinical evidence of leptomeningeal involvement. Patients with leptomeningeal symptoms in the setting of leptomeningeal enhancement by imaging (MRI) would be considered to have LMD even in the absence of positive CSF cytology, unless a parenchymal lesion can adequately explain the neurologic symptoms and/or signs. In contrast, an asymptomatic or minimally symptomatic patient with mild or nonspecific leptomeningeal enhancement (MRI) would not be considered to have LMD. In that patient, CSF sampling is not required to formally exclude LMD, but can be performed at the investigator's discretion based on level of clinical suspicion.
• Patients with a contraindication to both MRI (with or without contrast) and CT scan (with contrast)
• Patients with life expectancy < 3 months.
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that, in the opinion of the investigator, would limit compliance with study requirements.
• Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing at the time of SRS treatment due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.
• Biopsy-proven non-hematopoietic malignancy, except for small cell lung cancer, germ cell cancer, or unknown primary tumor.
• Radiographic evidence by MRI (or by CT scan with CT contrast if ineligible or intolerant of MRI) of brain metastasis. (If patient is unable to tolerate MRI contrast, an MRI without contrast is acceptable if lesions are visible)
• All brain metastases must be outside the brain stem (midbrain, pons and medulla).
• Patient must have 10 or less brain metastases.
• The maximum diameter of any lesion must be less than or equal to 3.0 cm.
• Previous treatment with surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, immunotherapy or any targeted agents are allowed provided that:
• Radiation was not to the brain.
• Surgery to the brain was > 7 days prior to SRS and there remains at least one additional brain metastasis that can be targeted with SRS
• Age ≥ 18 years.
• ECOG Performance Score of 2 or better/Karnofsky Performance Status score of 50-60 or better.
• All men, as well as women of child-bearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry and for the duration of study participation. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, marital status, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months).
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent. Exclusion Criteria
• Patients had craniotomy and surgery to the brain within 7 days from the date of SRS.
• Patients with leptomeningeal metastasis. NOTE: For the purposes of exclusion, LMD is a clinical diagnosis, defined as positive CSF cytology and/or equivocal radiologic or clinical evidence of leptomeningeal involvement. Patients with leptomeningeal symptoms in the setting of leptomeningeal enhancement by imaging (MRI) would be considered to have LMD even in the absence of positive CSF cytology, unless a parenchymal lesion can adequately explain the neurologic symptoms and/or signs. In contrast, an asymptomatic or minimally symptomatic patient with mild or nonspecific leptomeningeal enhancement (MRI) would not be considered to have LMD. In that patient, CSF sampling is not required to formally exclude LMD, but can be performed at the investigator's discretion based on level of clinical suspicion.
• Patients with a contraindication to both MRI (with or without contrast) and CT scan (with contrast)
• Patients with life expectancy < 3 months.
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that, in the opinion of the investigator, would limit compliance with study requirements.
• Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing at the time of SRS treatment due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.
Radiation: Stereotactic Radiosurgery
Brain Neoplasms, Adult, Malignant, Lymphoma, Sarcoma, Multiple Myeloma, Brain and Nervous System, Other, Eye and Orbit, Anklylosing Spondylitis, Anus, Bones and Joints, Breast - Female, Breast - Male, Cardiovascular, Cervix, Colon, Corpus Uteri, Ear, Esophagus, Gall Bladder, Head and Neck, Kidney, Larynx, Lip, Oral Cavity and Pharynx, Liver, Lung/Thoracic, Melanoma, skin, Nose, Other Digestive Organ, Other Endocrine System, Other Female Genital, Other Male Genital, Other Respiratory and Intrathoracic Organs, Other Skin, Other Urinary, Ovary, Pancreas, Prostate, Rectum, Stomach, Throat, Thyroid, Urinary Bladder, Uterine (Endometrial), Vulva, Hodgkins Lymphoma, Lymphoid Leukemia, Small Intestine, Soft Tissue
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
JoLT-Ca Sublobar Resection (SR) Versus Stereotactic Ablative Radiotherapy (SAbR) for Lung Cancer (STABLE-MATES)
To Determine if SAbR improves survival over SR in High Risk Operable Stage I NSCLC
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Robert Timmerman
69821
All
18 Years and over
Phase 3
NCT02468024
STU 022015-069
Inclusion Criteria:
• Age > 18 years.
• ECOG performance status (PS) 0, 1, or 2.
• Radiographic findings consistent with non-small cell lung cancer, including lesions with ground glass opacities with a solid component of 50% or greater. Those with ground glass opacities and <50% solid component will be excluded.
• The primary tumor in the lung must be biopsy confirmed non-small cell lung cancer within 180 days prior to randomization.
• Tumor ≤ 4 cm maximum diameter, including clinical stage IA and selected IB by PET/CT scan of the chest and upper abdomen performed within 180 days prior to randomization. Repeat imaging within 90 days prior to randomization is recommended for re-staging but is not required based on institutional norms.
• All clinically suspicious mediastinal N1, N2, or N3 lymph nodes (> 1 cm short-axis dimension on CT scan and/or positive on PET scan) confirmed negative for involvement with NSCLC by one of the following methods: mediastinoscopy, anterior mediastinotomy, EUS/EBUS guided needle aspiration, CT-guided, video-assisted thoracoscopic or open lymph node biopsy within 180 days of randomization.
• Tumor verified by a thoracic surgeon to be in a location that will permit sublobar resection.
• Tumor located peripherally within the lung. NOTE: Peripheral is defined as not touching any surface within 2 cm of the proximal bronchial tree in all directions. See below. Patients with non-peripheral (central) tumors are NOT eligible.
• No evidence of distant metastases.
• Availability of pulmonary function tests (PFTs - spirometry, DLCO, +/- arterial blood gases) within 180 days prior to registration. Patients with tracheotomy, etc, who are physically unable to perform PFTs (and therefore cannot be tested for the Major criteria in 3.1.11 below) are potentially still eligible if a study credentialed thoracic surgeon documents that the patient's health characteristics would otherwise have been acceptable for eligibility as a high risk but nonetheless operable patient (in particular be eligible for sublobar resection).
• Patient at high-risk for surgery by meeting a minimum of one major criteria or two minor criteria
• Major Criteria
• FEV1 ≤ 50% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• DLCO ≤ 50% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• Minor Criteria
• Age ≥75
• FEV1 51-60% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• DLCO 51-60% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• Pulmonary hypertension (defined as a pulmonary artery systolic pressure greater than 40mm Hg) as estimated by echocardiography or right heart catheterization
• Study credentialed thoracic surgeon believes the patient is potentially operable but that a lobectomy or pneumonectomy would be poorly tolerated by the patient for tangible or intangible reasons. The belief must be declared and documented in the medical record prior to randomization.
• Poor left ventricular function (defined as an ejection fraction of 40% or less)
• Resting or Exercise Arterial pO2 ≤ 55 mm Hg or SpO2 ≤ 88%
• pCO2 > 45 mm Hg
• Modified Medical Research Council (MMRC) Dyspnea Scale ≥ 3.
• No prior intra-thoracic radiation therapy for previously identified intra-thoracic primary tumor (e.g. previous lung cancer) on the ipsilateral side. NOTE: Previous radiotherapy as part of treatment for head and neck, breast, or other non-thoracic cancer is permitted so long as possible radiation fields would not overlap. Previous chemotherapy or surgical resection specifically for the lung cancer being treated on this protocol is NOT permitted.
• No prior lung resection on the ipsilateral side.
• Non-pregnant and non-lactating. Women of child-bearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test prior to registration. Peri-menopausal women must be amenorrheic > 12 months prior to registration to be considered not of childbearing potential.
• No prior invasive malignancy, unless disease-free for ≥ 3 years prior to registration (exceptions: non-melanoma skin cancer, in-situ cancers).
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
Exclusion Criteria:
• evidence of distant metastases
• prior intra-thoracic radiation therapy. NOTE: Previous radiotherapy as part of treatment for head and neck, breast, or other non-thoracic cancer is permitted so long as possible radiation fields would not overlap. Previous chemotherapy or surgical resection specifically for the lung cancer being treated on this protocol is NOT permitted. No prior lung resection on the ipsilateral side.
• pregnant and lactating women
• prior invasive malignancy, unless disease-free for ≥ 3 years prior to registration (exceptions: non-melanoma skin cancer, in-situ cancers).
Procedure: Lung Surgery, Radiation: Radiation therapy
Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer, Lung/Thoracic
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
CAR-T Long Term Follow Up (LTFU) Study (PAVO)
Per Health Authorities guidelines for gene therapy medicinal products that utilize integrating vectors (e.g. lentiviral vectors), long term safety and efficacy follow up of treated patients is required. The purpose of this study is to monitor all patients exposed to CAR-T therapied for 15 years following their last CAR-T (e.g. CTL019) infusion to assess the risk of delayed adverse events (AEs), monitor for replication competent lentivirus (RCL) and assess long-term efficacy, including vector persistence.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Samuel John
125571
All
Not specified
Phase 3
NCT02445222
STU 032015-068
Inclusion Criteria:
• All patients who have received a CAR-T therapy and completed or discontinued early from a Novartis sponsored treatment protocol that utilized CAR-T cells or from any CAR-T trial sponsored by the University of Pennsylvania with which Novartis has a contractual agreement to co-develop the CAR technology.
• Patients who have provided informed consent for the long term follow up study prior to their study participation .
Exclusion Criteria:
• There are no specific exclusion criteria for this study.
Genetic: Previously treated CAR-T patients
Long Term Safety of Patients Receiving CAR-T in an Eligible Clinical Trial or Managed Access Program, Leukemia, Other
Children’s Health
Study to Determine the Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamic Effects of Phenylephrine on BP Via IV
The primary objective of this study is to evaluate the dose effect of Phenylephrine Hydrochloride Injection on the treatment of clinically relevant decreased blood pressure in the pediatric population, ≥12 to 16 year old patients undergoing general and neuraxial anesthesia. The secondary objectives are to describe changes in blood pressure and heart rate, time to onset and to maximal response, and the duration of response; to assess the safety of the product in this population; and to characterize the pharmacokinetics of phenylephrine hydrochloride.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Kiley.Poppino@UTSouthwestern.edu
Peter Szmuk
80418
All
12 Years to 16 Years old
Phase 4
NCT02323399
STU 082014-004
Inclusion Criteria:
• Subject's age is between ≥12 and 16 years, inclusive
• Subject is scheduled for a procedure that requires general or neuraxial anesthesia
• Subjects must have normal or clinically acceptable physical exam
• Subjects with controlled diabetes prior to entry must have a mean systolic/diastolic office blood pressure ≤128/78 mmHg (sitting, after 5 minutes of rest)
• Females must have a urine or serum pregnancy test (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin) that is negative at Screening and Day 1
• Subject's parent or legal guardian gives informed consent and subject gives assent.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Subject has a contraindication to vasoconstrictor therapy for control of blood pressure
• Subject has participated in other clinical trials for investigational drugs and/or devices within 30 days prior to enrollment
• Subject has any serious medical condition which, in the opinion of the investigator, is likely to interfere with study procedures
• Subjects who have a history of any clinically significant local or systemic infectious disease within four weeks prior to initial treatment administration
• Subjects who are positive for hepatitis B surface antigen or hepatitis C antibody
• Subjects taking antihypertensive medication
• Subject is moribund (death is likely to occur in less than 48 hours)
• Females who are pregnant, nursing or unwilling to use/practice adequate contraception.
Drug: Phenylephrine
Hypotension
Children’s Health
Crizotinib in Treating Patients With Stage IB-IIIA Non-small Cell Lung Cancer That Has Been Removed by Surgery and ALK Fusion Mutations (An ALCHEMIST Treatment Trial)
This randomized phase III trial studies how well crizotinib works in treating patients with stage IB-IIIA non-small cell lung cancer that has been removed by surgery and has a mutation in a protein called anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK). Mutations, or changes, in ALK can make it very active and important for tumor cell growth and progression. Crizotinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking the ALK protein from working. Crizotinib may be an effective treatment for patients with non-small cell lung cancer and an ALK fusion mutation.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
David Gerber
53487
All
18 Years and over
Phase 3
NCT02201992
STU 082014-087
Inclusion Criteria:
• Patients must have undergone complete surgical resection of their stage IB (>= 4 cm), II, or non-squamous IIIA NSCLC per American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 7th edition and have had negative margins; N3 disease is not allowed
• Baseline chest computed tomography (CT) with or without contrast must be performed within 6 months (180 days) prior to randomization to ensure no evidence of disease; if clinically indicated additional imaging studies must be performed to rule out metastatic disease
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0 or 1
• Patients must be registered to the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) trial prior to randomization
• Positive for translocation or inversion events involving the ALK gene locus (e.g. resulting in echinoderm microtubule associated protein like 4 [EML4]-ALK fusion) as determined by the Vysis Break Point fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) assay and defined by an increase in the distance between 5? and 3? ALK probes or the loss of the 5? probe; this must have been performed:
• By a local Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory: report must indicate the results as well as the CLIA number of the laboratory which performed the assay; tissue must be available for submission for central, retrospective confirmation of the ALK fusion status via ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) OR
• Patient registered to and the ALK fusion status performed centrally on the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216)
• Women must not be pregnant or breast-feeding
• All females of childbearing potential must have a blood or urine pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to randomization to rule out pregnancy; a female of childbearing potential is any woman, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria: 1) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or 2) has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months)
• Women of childbearing potential and sexually active males must be strongly advised to practice abstinence or use an accepted and effective method of contraception
• Patients must NOT have uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, serious ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• No known interstitial fibrosis or interstitial lung disease
• No prior treatment with crizotinib or another ALK inhibitor
• No ongoing cardiac dysrhythmias of grade >= 2 National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version 4.0, uncontrolled atrial fibrillation (any grade), or corrected QT (QTc) interval > 470 msec
• No use of medications, herbals, or foods that are known potent cytochrome P450, subfamily 3A, polypeptide 4 (CYP3A4) inhibitors or inducers, included but not limited to those outlined
• Patients must be adequately recovered from surgery at the time of randomization
• The minimum time requirement between date of surgery and randomization must be at least 4 weeks (28 days)
• The maximum time requirement between surgery and randomization must be:
• 3 months (90 days) if no adjuvant chemotherapy was administered
• 8 months (240 days) if adjuvant chemotherapy was administered
• 10 months (300 days) if adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation therapy were administered
• Patients must have completed any prior adjuvant chemotherapy or radiation therapy 2 or more weeks (6 or more weeks for mitomycin and nitrosoureas) prior to randomization and be adequately recovered at the time of randomization
• NOTE: Patients taking low dose methotrexate for non-malignant conditions and other cytotoxic agents for non-malignant conditions are allowed to continue treatment while on study
• NOTE: Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy or radiation therapy for the resected lung cancer is not permitted
• Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Total serum bilirubin =< 1.5 x ULN
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1500/mm^3
• Platelets >= 30,000/mm^3
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL
• Serum creatinine =< 2 x ULN
• Prior to randomization patients with any non-hematologic toxicity from surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation must have recovered to grade =< 1 with the exception of alopecia and the criteria outlined
• Patients must not have any history of locally advanced or metastatic cancer requiring systemic therapy within 5 years from randomization, with the exception of in-situ carcinomas and non-melanoma skin cancer; patients must have no previous primary lung cancer diagnosed concurrently or within the past 2 years
• Patients may not be receiving any other investigational agents while on study
Other: Clinical Observation, Drug: Crizotinib, Other: Laboratory Biomarker Analysis
Stage IIIA Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer AJCC v7, Stage IB Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma AJCC v7, Stage IIA Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma AJCC v7, Stage IIB Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinoma AJCC v7, Stage II Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer AJCC v7, ALK Gene Rearrangement, ALK Gene Translocation, ALK Positive, Lung/Thoracic
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Genetic Testing in Screening Patients With Stage IB-IIIA Non-small Cell Lung Cancer That Has Been or Will Be Removed by Surgery (The ALCHEMIST Screening Trial)
This ALCHEMIST trial studies genetic testing in screening patients with stage IB-IIIA non-small cell lung cancer that has been or will be removed by surgery. Studying the genes in a patient's tumor cells may help doctors select the best treatment for patients that have certain genetic changes.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
David Gerber
53487
All
18 Years and over
N/A
NCT02194738
STU 092014-004
Inclusion Criteria:
• PATIENT PRE-REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:
• For pre-surgical patients
• Suspected diagnosis of resectable non-small cell lung cancer; cancers with a histology of "adenosquamous" are considered a type of adenocarcinoma and thus a "nonsquamous" histology; patients with squamous cell carcinoma are eligible
• Suspected clinical stage of IIIA, II (IIA or IIB) or large IB (defined as size >= 4 cm); Note: IB tumors < 4 cm are NOT eligible; stage IB cancer based on pleural invasion is not eligible unless the tumor size is >= 4 cm; the 7th edition of American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) staging will be utilized
• For post-surgical patients
• Completely resected non-small cell lung cancer with negative margins (R0); patients with squamous cell carcinoma are eligible only if they have not received adjuvant therapy
• Pathologic stage IIIA, II (IIA or IIB) or large IB (defined as size >= 4 cm); Note: IB tumors < 4 cm are NOT eligible; stage IB cancer based on pleural invasion is not eligible unless the tumor size is >= 4 cm; the 7th edition of AJCC staging will be utilized
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-1
• Age ≥ 18 years
• No patients who have received neoadjuvant therapy (chemo- or radio-therapy) for this lung cancer
• No locally advanced or metastatic cancer requiring systemic therapy within 5 years prior to registration; no secondary primary lung cancer diagnosed concurrently or within 2 year prior to registration
• No prior treatment with agents targeting EGFR mutation, ALK rearrangement, and PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4
• No patients known to be pregnant or lactating
• Patients who have had local genotyping are eligible, regardless of the local result
• No patients with recurrence of lung cancer after prior resection
• Note: Post-surgical patients should proceed to registration immediately following preregistration
• PATIENT REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:
• Tissue available for the required analyses (either clinical tissue block or slides and scrolls)
• Completely resected NSCLC with negative margins (R0); cancers with a histology of "adenosquamous" are considered a type of adenocarcinoma and thus a "nonsquamous" histology
• Pathologic stage IIIA, IIA or IIB, or large IB (defined as size >= 4 cm); Note: IB tumors < 4 cm are NOT eligible; stage IB cancer based on pleural invasion is not eligible unless the tumor size is >= 4 cm; the 7th edition of AJCC staging will be utilized
• Patients with squamous cell carcinoma are eligible only if they have not received adjuvant therapy
• In order to allow for time for central genotyping and eligibility for the ALCHEMIST treatment trial, patients must register within the following eligibility windows:
• Squamous patients:
• No adjuvant therapy permitted, register patient within 77 days following surgery
• Non-squamous patients:
• If no adjuvant therapy, register patient within 75 days following surgery
• If adjuvant chemotherapy or radiotherapy only, register patient within 225 days following surgery
• If adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation, register patient within 285 days following surgery
Procedure: Biospecimen Collection, Drug: Carboplatin, Drug: Cisplatin, Other: Clinical Observation, Procedure: Computed Tomography, Drug: Crizotinib, Other: Cytology Specimen Collection Procedure, Procedure: Echocardiography, Drug: Erlotinib, Drug: Gemcitabine Hydrochloride, Biological: Nivolumab, Drug: Paclitaxel, Biological: Pembrolizumab, Drug: Pemetrexed, Drug: Pemetrexed Disodium, Other: Placebo Administration, Procedure: Positron Emission Tomography
Stage IB Lung Non-Small Cell Carcinoma AJCC v7, Stage II Lung Non-Small Cell Cancer AJCC v7, Stage IIIA Lung Non-Small Cell Cancer AJCC v7, Stage IIIB Lung Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IIA Lung Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IIB Lung Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IIIA Lung Cancer AJCC v8
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Metabolic Biomarkers in Thoracic Cancers
The purpose of this research study is to develop a method of using magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to evaluate lung tumors and other thoracic malignancies. An MRI is a scanning device that uses magnets to make images (pictures) of the body. This study is being done to determine what series of reactions (metabolic pathways) pulmonary nodules use as they burn sugar as fuel for growth. The manner in which the tumor burns (metabolizes) sugar for fuel is being investigated by using a natural, slightly modified, sugar solution (13C-glucose) and studying a small sample of the tumor once it is removed at the time of surgery.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Kemp Kernstine
125019
All
18 Years and over
N/A
NCT02095808
STU 052012-065
Inclusion Criteria:
• Patients must have known or probable malignant lesions requiring surgical biopsy or excision.
• Subjects of all races and ethnic origins over 18 years of age.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Not a surgical candidate.
• Poorly controlled diabetes.
Procedure: Imaging Biomarkers
Lung Cancer, Lung/Thoracic
UT Southwestern
Adjuvant Curcumin to Assess Recurrence Free Survival in Patients Who Have Had a Radical Prostatectomy
This is a prospective study to determine if the adjuvant use of Curcumin improves recurrence-free survival.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Yair Lotan
59883
Male
30 Years to 80 Years old
Phase 3
NCT02064673
STU 042013-080
Inclusion Criteria:
• Status post radical prostatectomy for histologically confirmed adenocarcinoma of the prostate
• pathologically confirmed T1-T3 disease
• no sign of lymph node or metastatic disease
• pT1-pT3pNxMx patients in whom standard NCCN or AUA guidelines would suggest are at low risk for pelvic lymph node or metastatic disease and who would not require confirmatory imaging for metastatic disease. This includes patients with Gleason 6 or 7(T2 disease) and PSA less than 20.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group(ECOG) status 0-2
• adequate renal and liver function as well as bone marrow reserve (measured serum creatinine <2mg/dl, bilirubin ≤ 1.5 mg/dl, ANC ≥ 1.5 x 10 (3) uL, platelets ≥ 50 x K/uLL, and hemoglobin ≥ 10 g/dL)
• 30-80 y/o at time of diagnosis with a life expectancy of >= 3 yrs
• focally positive surgical margins are permitted
• no plan to receive adjuvant hormone or radiation therapy
• PSA at the time of enrollment must be undetectable
• life expectancy of 3 years
Exclusion Criteria:
• must not have exceeded 3 months from time of surgery to enrollment into study
• T3b or T4 or node positive disease
• macroscopic residual disease after surgery
• hormone therapy before surgery
• history of gallbladder problems or gallstones, or biliary obstruction, unless patient had cholecystectomy
• radiation therapy as primary treatment after surgery
• INR value greater than 1.5
• AST/ALT are equal or greater than 2 times the upper limit of normal
• antiplatelet or anticoagulant agents- patients taking 81mg of Aspirin will be allowed with close observation
• history of gastric or duodenal ulcers or untreated hyperacidity syndromes
• patients who are currently taking curcumin and are unwilling to stop or plan to take curcumin during the study
Drug: Curcumin, Drug: placebo
Prostate Cancer, Prostate
prostate cancer, radical prostatectomy
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Maximum Tolerated Dose, Safety, and Efficacy of Rhenium Nanoliposomes in Recurrent Glioma (ReSPECT)
This is a multi-center, sequential cohort, open-label, volume and dose escalation study of the safety, tolerability, and distribution of 186RNL given by convection enhanced delivery to patients with recurrent or progressive malignant glioma after standard surgical, radiation, and/or chemotherapy treatment. The study uses a modified Fibonacci dose escalation, followed by an expansion at the maximum tolerated dose (MTD) to determine efficacy. The starting absorbed dose is 1mCi in a volume of 0.660mL.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Toral Patel
55706
All
18 Years and over
Phase 1/Phase 2
NCT01906385
STU-2020-0096
Inclusion Criteria:
• At least 18 years of age.
• Ability to understand the purposes and risks of the study and has signed a written informed consent form approved by the investigator's IRB/Ethics Committee.
• Histologically confirmed Grade III/IV recurrent Glioma (following 2021 WHO CNS5 glioma nomenclature, e.g., Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant grade 3 or 4; Glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype grade 4).
• Progression by RANO criteria or other clinically accepted neurooncology evaluation, following standard treatment options with known survival benefit for any recurrence (e.g., surgery, temozolomide, radiation, and tumor treating fields). Patient may be included in study if medically unable or unwilling to follow standard treatment options for any recurrence.
• Patients who receive treatment with antiepileptic medications must have a two-week history of stable dose of antiepileptic without seizures prior to study start (dosing).
• Patients with corticosteroid requirements to control cerebral edema must be maintained at a stable or decreasing dose for a minimum of two weeks without progression of clinical symptoms prior to study start (dosing).
• Patients with Grade III/IV Glioma (following 2021 WHO CNS5 glioma nomenclature, e.g., Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant grade 3 or 4; Glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype grade 4) which falls within the treatment field volume.
• ECOG performance status of 0 to 2; Karnofsky Performance Status ≥ 60.
• Life expectancy of at least 2 months.
• Acceptable liver function:
• Bilirubin ≤ 1.5 times upper limit of normal
• AST (SGOT) and ALT (SGPT) ≤ 3.0 times upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Acceptable renal function: a. Serum creatinine ≤1.5xULN
• Acceptable hematologic status (without hematologic support):
• ANC ≥1000 cells/uL
• Platelet count ≥100,000/uL
• Hemoglobin ≥9.0 g/dL
• All women of childbearing potential must have a negative serum pregnancy test and male and female subjects must agree to use effective means of contraception (for example, surgical sterilization or the use of barrier contraception with either a condom or diaphragm in conjunction with spermicidal gel or an IUD) with their partner from entry into the study through 6 months after the last dose.
Exclusion Criteria:
• The subject has evidence of acute intracranial or intratumoral hemorrhage either by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computerized tomography (CT) scan. Subjects with resolving hemorrhage changes, punctate hemorrhage, or hemosiderin are eligible.
• The subject is unable or contraindicated to undergo MRI scan (e.g., has pacemaker or medically unstable).
• The subject has not recovered to CTCAE v4.0 Grade ≤1 from AEs (except alopecia, anemia, and lymphopenia) due to antineoplastic agents, investigational drugs, or other medications that were administered prior to study.
• The subject is pregnant or breast-feeding.
• The subject has serious intercurrent illness, as determined by the treating physician, which would compromise either patient safety or study outcomes such as:
• hypertension (two or more blood pressure readings performed at screening of >150 mmHg systolic or >100 mmHg diastolic) despite optimal treatment
• active medically significant infection unresponsive to antibiotics (e.g., non- healing wound, ulcer), uncontrolled systemic infection, or bone fracture
• clinically significant cardiac arrhythmias not controlled by appropriate medications
• untreated hypothyroidism
• symptomatic congestive heart failure or unstable angina pectoris within 3 months prior to study drug
• myocardial infarction, stroke, or transient ischemic attack within 6 months prior to study drug
• known active malignancy (other than glioma) except non-melanoma skin cancer or carcinoma in-situ in the cervix unless PI determines it would not impact patient safety or efficacy determinations
• The subject has inherited bleeding diathesis or coagulopathy with the risk of bleeding.
• The subject has received any of the following prior anticancer therapy:
• Prior treatment with Bevacizumab
• Non-standard radiation therapy such as brachytherapy, systemic radioisotope therapy, or intra-operative radiotherapy (IORT) to the target site
• Radiation therapy within 12 weeks of screening
• Systemic therapy (including investigational agents and small-molecule kinase inhibitors) or non-cytotoxic hormonal therapy (e.g., tamoxifen) within 14 days or 5 half-lives, whichever is shorter, prior to study start (dosing)
• Biologic agents (antibodies, immune modulators, vaccines, cytokines) within 21 days prior to study start (dosing)
• Nitrosoureas or mitomycin C within 42 days, or metronomic/protracted low- dose chemotherapy within 14 days, or other cytotoxic chemotherapy within 28 days, prior to study start (dosing)
• Prior treatment with carmustine wafers
• Patients who are currently receiving any other investigational agents and/or who have received an investigational agent in 28 days prior to study start (dosing)
• Multifocal progression or involvement of the leptomeninges.
• Psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with the study requirements
• Infratentorial disease
• The subject has a tumor located within 1-2 cm of a ventricle AND it is determined by the surgeon, PI, and sponsor to be a risk for drug extravasation to the subarachnoid space if given catheter placement and drug administration.
• Phase 2 only: The subject should have a tumor volume of ≤20 cm3 to be included in the Phase 2 portion of the study. Subjects with tumor volumes of greater than 20 cm3 are excluded from the Phase 2 portion of the study.
Drug: Rhenium Liposome Treatment
Glioma, Brain and Nervous System
Glioma, Brain Tumor, Radiotherapy, Glioblastoma, Recurrent Glioblastoma, Rhenium, Rhenium Nanoliposome, Brain Cancer, GBM, High Grade Glioma, Glioblastoma Multiform, Grade IV Astrocytoma
UT Southwestern
Morphea in Adults and Children (MAC) Cohort Study: A Morphea Registry and DNA Repository (MAC)
The Morphea in Adults and Children (MAC) cohort is the first registry for both children and adults with morphea (also known as localized scleroderma) in the country. The purpose of the registry is to learn more about morphea, specifically: - How morphea behaves over time - How frequently specific problems occur along with morphea (for example, arthritis) - Whether morphea has an autoimmune background
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Aleuna.Lee@UTSouthwestern.edu
Heidi Jacobe
54629
All
up to 90 Years old
N/A
NCT01808937
STU 112010-028
Inclusion Criteria:
• Patient must have a clinical diagnosis of morphea confirmed by the primary investigator and by histopathological examination.
• Ages 0-90 years old
• Children must weigh more than 20 lbs. in order to satisfy Children's Medical Center policy for the maximum amount of blood drawn in a 24 hour period.
• Patient or legal guardian must be able to speak and read at a 6th grade reading level.
• Both male and female patients will be eligible
• All races and ethnic backgrounds will be included
• Relationships to proband: All patients with morphea will be included. A patient's family history will be reviewed and if there is a family history of morphea or systemic sclerosis then we will give the study patient the investigator's contact information and ask the family member to call the study team to answer any questions and enroll them in the study if they choose to do so.
• Ability to give informed consent: Patients must be able to give informed consent or they will give assent with parent or guardian consent as a minor to be a part of the morphea registry.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Patients who have been coded as morphea (701.0), but do not have morphea/localized scleroderma (examples: steroid atrophy, acquired keratoderma, keloids, nephrogenic fibrosing dermopathy, systemic sclerosis, lichen sclerosis)
Other: Morphea
Scleroderma, Localized, Morphea, Scleroderma, Circumscribed, Frontal Linear Scleroderma en Coup de Sabre, Scleroderma, Linear, Other Skin
Children’s Health
Cutaneous Lupus Registry
Approximately 1.4 million individuals in the United States have systemic lupus erythematosus, and about 85% of these individuals develop skin lesions at some point of their disease. Cutaneous lupus erythematosus represents the skin manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus, and can appear in people with or without systemic lupus. It is a mentally, physically, and emotionally debilitating disease that affects both the quality of life and social well-being of those affected. The cause of cutaneous lupus is not completely understood, but likely includes multiple factors from our genes and the environment. Multiple genetic studies with small numbers of cutaneous lupus patients have been performed to determine which genes are associated with cutaneous lupus. This study aims to accumulate even larger numbers of patients to confidently identify genes and the proteins they encode that could contribute greatly to the formation of cutaneous lupus. The discovery of these genes and proteins would help not only uncover how cutaneous lupus forms, but also improve our abilities to diagnose this disease and predict its course, and stimulate new drug development.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Tyler.Cepica@UTSouthwestern.edu
Benjamin Chong
99998
All
18 Years and over
N/A
NCT01266915
STU 082010-241
Inclusion Criteria:
• Diagnosed with cutaneous lupus erythematosus and/or systemic lupus erythematosus by clinical, laboratory, and histopathological findings
• Ability to speak and read English or Spanish at a 6th grade reading level (a translator will be available with additional consent forms in Spanish)
• Ability to give written informed consent
Exclusion Criteria:
• Less than 18 years of age, since the characteristics of the disease in these subjects could be very different
• Due to a medication, in which its discontinuation results in the resolution of cutaneous lupus, since the characteristics of the disease in these subjects could be very different
• Medical conditions who do not warrant a skin biopsy
• Unable to give written, informed consent or undergo a skin biopsy and/or venipuncture for any other reason
Lupus Erythematosus, Other Skin
SCLE, CLE, DLE
UT Southwestern
Radiation Therapy With Concomitant and Adjuvant Temozolomide Versus Radiation Therapy With Adjuvant PCV Chemotherapy in Patients With Anaplastic Glioma or Low Grade Glioma
Radiation therapy uses high-energy x-rays to kill tumor cells. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as temozolomide, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells or by stopping them from dividing. It is not yet known whether giving radiation with concomitant and adjuvant temozolomide versus radiation with adjuvant PCV is more effective in treating anaplastic glioma or low grade glioma.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Michael Youssef
200728
All
18 Years and over
Phase 3
NCT00887146
STU 052013-059
Pre-Registration
• United States (US) and Canadian sites: * This review is mandatory prior to registration to confirm eligibility; patients must be willing to submit tissue samples for mandatory central pathology review submission; it should be initiated as soon after surgery as possible
• Tissue must have been determined to have local 1p/9q co-deletion and IDH mutation prior to submission for central path review
• Tumor tissue must show co-deletion of chromosomes 1p and 19q; for eligibility, the 1p/19q analysis results will be accepted from the local site, as determined by either a locally available or reference laboratory (for US, must be Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act [CLIA] certified); acceptable methods for determination of 1p/19q loss include fluorescent in-situ hybridization (FISH), by genomic sequencing or methylomic analyses; US and Canadian sites must send a copy of the official report to the pathology coordinator and quality assurance specialist (QAS)
• Tumor must also show evidence of IDH mutation by immunohistochemistry or genomic analyses; this should be performed at the local site (US: performed in a CLIA certified laboratory); the site must send a copy of the official report to the pathology coordinator and QAS Registration
• Newly diagnosed and =< 3 months from surgical diagnosis; patients are also eligible if they have had a prior surgical procedure > 3 months earlier for low grade glioma, as long as the patient has not received prior radiation or prior chemotherapy
• Histological evidence of World Health Organization (WHO) grade III anaplastic glioma or WHO grade II low grade glioma with locally diagnosed combined 1p/19q loss and the presence of an either IDH1 or IDH2, both as established by a local or referenced laboratory qualified for the study * Note: mixed gliomas are eligible, regardless of the degree of astrocytic or oligodendrocytic predominance, as long as the tumor is also co-deleted for 1p and 19q
• Patients with codeleted low grade gliomas must also be considered "high risk" by exhibiting one or more of the following characteristics:
• Age >= 40 and any surgical therapy
• Age < 40 with prior and subtotal resection or biopsy (i.e., anything less than gross total resection)
• Documented growth following prior surgery (NOTE: patients with prior surgery cannot have received prior radiation, chemotherapy or targeted therapy)
• Intractable seizures
• Surgery (partial or gross total resection or biopsy) must be performed >= 2 weeks prior to registration; patient must have recovered adequately from the effects of surgery
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500/mm^3 obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Platelet (PLTs) count >= 100,000/mm^3 obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Hemoglobin (Hgb) > 9.0 g/dL obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) =< 3 x ULN obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Creatinine =< 1.5 x ULN obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Negative serum or urine pregnancy test done =< 7 days prior to registration, for women of childbearing potential only
• Willingness and ability to personally complete neurocognitive testing (without assistance) and willingness to complete the QOL testing, (either personally or with assistance)
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS) of 0, 1 or 2
• Written informed consent
• Willingness to return to enrolling institution for follow-up during the active monitoring phase (that is, the active treatment and observation portion) of the study); patients who have been formally transferred to another active and approved site participating in this study would not need to return to the enrolling institution for this purpose
• Willingness to allow the provision of tissue samples for correlative research, as long as adequate tissues are available; patients will not be excluded from participation in the study, if they are willing to allow provision of tissues for the correlative research, but there are insufficient quantities of tissue for the correlative analyses (e.g., a patient otherwise eligible and willing who had biopsy only) Willingness to allow the provision of blood samples for correlative research; patients are not excluded from participation in the study, if they are willing to provide the mandatory biospecimens for translational/correlative research, but for logistical reasons the specimens(s) were not obtainable or if the volume collected was insufficient Registration
• The following categories are ineligible:
• Pregnant women
• Nursing women
• Men or women of childbearing potential who are unwilling to employ adequate contraception or contraceptive method during this study and 6 months following the completion of chemotherapy treatments
• History of prior radiation therapy or chemotherapy for glioma; note: patients who have a history of prior low grade glioma (with or without a distant history of prior surgery for that glioma), but who have never received prior chemotherapy or radiation therapy for the glioma are eligible for the study
• Co-morbid systemic illnesses or other severe concurrent disease which, in the judgment of the investigator, would make the patient inappropriate for entry into this study or interfere significantly with the proper assessment of safety and toxicity of the prescribed regimens
• Concomitant serious immunocompromised status (other than that related to concomitant steroids) that would compromise the safety of the patient on the study
• Patients known to be human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive and currently receiving retroviral therapy are not eligible; note: patients known to be HIV positive, but without clinical evidence of an immunocompromised state, are eligible for the study
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• Receiving any other investigational agent that would be considered as a treatment for the primary neoplasm
• Other active malignancy within 5 years of registration; exceptions: non-melanotic skin cancer or carcinoma-in-situ of the cervix; note: if there is a history of prior malignancy, the patient is not eligible if they are receiving other specific treatment (with the exclusion of hormonal therapy or Her-2 inhibitors) for their cancer or if they have received prior total body irradiation which included the brain
• History of myocardial infarction =< 6 months, or congestive heart failure requiring use of ongoing maintenance therapy for life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias
• Recent history of hepatitis infection or if the treating physician determined that the patient would be at significant risk of reactivation of hepatitis
Inclusion Criteria:
• United States (US) and Canadian sites: * This review is mandatory prior to registration to confirm eligibility; patients must be willing to submit tissue samples for mandatory central pathology review submission; it should be initiated as soon after surgery as possible
• Tissue must have been determined to have local 1p/9q co-deletion and IDH mutation prior to submission for central path review
• Tumor tissue must show co-deletion of chromosomes 1p and 19q; for eligibility, the 1p/19q analysis results will be accepted from the local site, as determined by either a locally available or reference laboratory (for US, must be Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act [CLIA] certified); acceptable methods for determination of 1p/19q loss include fluorescent in-situ hybridization (FISH), by genomic sequencing or methylomic analyses; US and Canadian sites must send a copy of the official report to the pathology coordinator and quality assurance specialist (QAS)
• Tumor must also show evidence of IDH mutation by immunohistochemistry or genomic analyses; this should be performed at the local site (US: performed in a CLIA certified laboratory); the site must send a copy of the official report to the pathology coordinator and QAS Registration
Inclusion Criteria:
• Newly diagnosed and =< 3 months from surgical diagnosis; patients are also eligible if they have had a prior surgical procedure > 3 months earlier for low grade glioma, as long as the patient has not received prior radiation or prior chemotherapy
• Histological evidence of World Health Organization (WHO) grade III anaplastic glioma or WHO grade II low grade glioma with locally diagnosed combined 1p/19q loss and the presence of an either IDH1 or IDH2, both as established by a local or referenced laboratory qualified for the study * Note: mixed gliomas are eligible, regardless of the degree of astrocytic or oligodendrocytic predominance, as long as the tumor is also co-deleted for 1p and 19q
• Patients with codeleted low grade gliomas must also be considered "high risk" by exhibiting one or more of the following characteristics:
• Age >= 40 and any surgical therapy
• Age < 40 with prior and subtotal resection or biopsy (i.e., anything less than gross total resection)
• Documented growth following prior surgery (NOTE: patients with prior surgery cannot have received prior radiation, chemotherapy or targeted therapy)
• Intractable seizures
• Surgery (partial or gross total resection or biopsy) must be performed >= 2 weeks prior to registration; patient must have recovered adequately from the effects of surgery
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500/mm^3 obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Platelet (PLTs) count >= 100,000/mm^3 obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Hemoglobin (Hgb) > 9.0 g/dL obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) =< 3 x ULN obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Creatinine =< 1.5 x ULN obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Negative serum or urine pregnancy test done =< 7 days prior to registration, for women of childbearing potential only
• Willingness and ability to personally complete neurocognitive testing (without assistance) and willingness to complete the QOL testing, (either personally or with assistance)
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS) of 0, 1 or 2
• Written informed consent
• Willingness to return to enrolling institution for follow-up during the active monitoring phase (that is, the active treatment and observation portion) of the study); patients who have been formally transferred to another active and approved site participating in this study would not need to return to the enrolling institution for this purpose
• Willingness to allow the provision of tissue samples for correlative research, as long as adequate tissues are available; patients will not be excluded from participation in the study, if they are willing to allow provision of tissues for the correlative research, but there are insufficient quantities of tissue for the correlative analyses (e.g., a patient otherwise eligible and willing who had biopsy only) Willingness to allow the provision of blood samples for correlative research; patients are not excluded from participation in the study, if they are willing to provide the mandatory biospecimens for translational/correlative research, but for logistical reasons the specimens(s) were not obtainable or if the volume collected was insufficient Registration
Exclusion Criteria:
• The following categories are ineligible:
• Pregnant women
• Nursing women
• Men or women of childbearing potential who are unwilling to employ adequate contraception or contraceptive method during this study and 6 months following the completion of chemotherapy treatments
• History of prior radiation therapy or chemotherapy for glioma; note: patients who have a history of prior low grade glioma (with or without a distant history of prior surgery for that glioma), but who have never received prior chemotherapy or radiation therapy for the glioma are eligible for the study
• Co-morbid systemic illnesses or other severe concurrent disease which, in the judgment of the investigator, would make the patient inappropriate for entry into this study or interfere significantly with the proper assessment of safety and toxicity of the prescribed regimens
• Concomitant serious immunocompromised status (other than that related to concomitant steroids) that would compromise the safety of the patient on the study
• Patients known to be human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive and currently receiving retroviral therapy are not eligible; note: patients known to be HIV positive, but without clinical evidence of an immunocompromised state, are eligible for the study
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• Receiving any other investigational agent that would be considered as a treatment for the primary neoplasm
• Other active malignancy within 5 years of registration; exceptions: non-melanotic skin cancer or carcinoma-in-situ of the cervix; note: if there is a history of prior malignancy, the patient is not eligible if they are receiving other specific treatment (with the exclusion of hormonal therapy or Her-2 inhibitors) for their cancer or if they have received prior total body irradiation which included the brain
• History of myocardial infarction =< 6 months, or congestive heart failure requiring use of ongoing maintenance therapy for life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias
• Recent history of hepatitis infection or if the treating physician determined that the patient would be at significant risk of reactivation of hepatitis
Drug: concomitant temozolomide (TMZ), Radiation: radiotherapy, Drug: procarbazine, Drug: adjuvant temozolomide (TMZ), Drug: CCNU, Drug: vincristine
Brain and Central Nervous System Tumors, Brain and Nervous System
adult anaplastic astrocytoma, adult anaplastic oligodendroglioma, adult mixed glioma
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Diaphragmatic Hernia Research & Exploration, Advancing Molecular Science (DHREAMS)
The goal of this study is to identify genes that convey susceptibility to congenital diaphragmatic hernia in humans. The identification of such genes, and examination of their structure and function, will enable a delineation of molecular pathogenesis and, ultimately, prevention or treatment of congenital diaphragmatic hernia. There are many different possible modes of inheritance for congenital anomalies, including autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, and multifactorial. Multi-factorial inheritance is responsible for many common medical disorders, including hypertension, myocardial infarction, diabetes and cancer. This type of inheritance pattern appears to involve environmental factors as well as a combination of genetic variations that together can predispose to or produce congenital anomalies, such as congenital diaphragmatic hernia. Our study is designed to establish a small, well-defined genetic resource consisting of 1) Nuclear families suitable for linkage analysis by parametric,non-parametric (e.g. sib pairs, TDT) and association techniques, 2) Individuals with congenital diaphragmatic hernia who can be directly screened for allelic variation in candidate genes, and 3) Individuals who can serve as controls (are unaffected by congenital diaphragmatic hernia). Neonates and their families will be collected from homogenous and heterogeneous populations. By characterizing diverse populations, it should be possible to increase the likelihood of demonstration of genetic variation in selected candidate genes that can then be used in association and linkage studies in individual subjects with congenital diaphragmatic hernia.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Simi.Pottoore@Childrens.com
Lauren Gillory
192149
All
Not specified
N/A
NCT00950118
STU-2021-1094
Inclusion Criteria:
• All individuals affected with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH), or with a family history of a CDH
Exclusion Criteria:
• Individuals with no personal history of a CDH or family history of a family member affected with congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH), Genes, Genetic, Genetic testing, exome sequencing, genome sequencing, RNAseq
Children’s Health
Vincristine Sulfate Liposome Injection (Marqibo®) in Combination With UK ALL R3 Induction Chemotherapy for Children, Adolescents, and Young Adults With Relapsed ALL
This is a pilot study utilizing Marqibo® (vincristine sulfate liposome injection) combined with dexamethasone, mitoxantrone and asparaginase (UK ALL R3) for relapsed acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Tamra Slone
67555
All
1 Year to 21 Years old
Phase 1
NCT02879643
STU 082016-009
Inclusion Criteria
Age
-Patients must be ≥ 1 and ≤ 21 years of age at the time of enrollment.
Diagnosis
• Cohort A: Patients must have a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia with ≥ 5% blasts in the bone marrow (M2 or M3), with or without extramedullary disease) or a diagnosis of lymphoblastic lymphoma.
• Cohorts B & C: Patients must have a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), lymphoblastic lymphoma, or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia with any level of detectable disease (minimal residual disease level acceptable) with or without extramedullary disease Performance Level -Karnofsky > 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky > 50% for patients ≤ 16 years of age. Prior Therapy
• Patients must have recovered from the acute toxic effects (≤ Grade 2 or baseline) of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy prior to entering this study, unless otherwise specified. Subjects with disease related cytopenias will be eligible.
• Patients must have relapsed or refractory disease after attaining at least a first remission. They may be in first to third relapse..
• Patients with Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) positive disease must have received at least two prior tyrosine kinase inhibitors.
• Patients who have experienced their relapse after a Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) are eligible, provided they have no evidence of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) and are at least 100 days post-transplant at the time of enrollment.
• Prior anthracycline lifetime cumulative exposure: Patients must have less than 320 mg/m2 (or 400 mg/m2 if prior cardioprotection) lifetime exposure of anthracycline chemotherapy.
• Cohort A: Patients must have less than 320 mg/m2 (or 400 mg/m2 if prior cardioprotection) lifetime exposure of anthracycline chemotherapy (See Appendix 2 for anthracycline calculation worksheet).
• Cohorts B & C: There is no limit on prior anthracycline exposure.
• Hematopoietic growth factors: It must have been at least seven days since the completion of therapy with granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (GCSF) or other growth factors at the time of enrollment. It must have been at least 14 days since the completion of therapy with pegfilgrastim (Neulasta®).
• Biologic anti-neoplastic agents: At least seven days after the last dose of a biologic agent. For agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond seven days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur. The duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair or vice chair.
• Monoclonal antibodies: At least three half-lives (or 30 days—whichever is longer) of the antibody must have elapsed after the last dose of monoclonal antibody. (e.g., Rituximab = 66 days, Epratuzumab = 69 days)
• Immunotherapy: At least 30 days after the completion of any type of immunotherapy, e.g. tumor vaccines, chimeric antigen receptor T-cells.
• Recent prior chemotherapy: At least 10 days after standard vincristine and the completion of any type of chemotherapy induction regimen. At least 3 weeks after radiation therapy. At least 30 days after the completion of any investigational neoplastic agent is also required. An investigational agent is defined as any drug that is not approved and licensed for sale by the FDA for institutions in the United States, by Health Canada for institutions in Canada and by The Therapeutic Goods Administration for institutions in Australia. Exceptions:
• There is no time restriction in regard to prior intrathecal chemotherapy provided there is complete recovery from any acute toxic effects of such; it is allowable to enroll a patient that has received IT Cytarabine (ARA-C), IT Methotrexate (MTX) or triple IT therapy within 14 days of enrollment as part of their evaluation to diagnose disease relapse. The IT therapy given within 14 days of initiation of protocol specified chemotherapy, may substitute for the day 1 IT in cohorts A and B
• Subjects with rapidly progressive disease may receive hydroxyurea until they begin study therapy;
• Patients who relapse while on maintenance-type ALL therapy or are receiving maintenance therapy for disease stabilization will not require a wash-out period before entry into this study. However, there must be at least 10 days after any dose of standard vincristine. Renal and Hepatic Function
• Renal function: Patient's serum creatinine must be ≤ 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) according to age. If the serum creatinine is greater than 1.5 times normal, the patient must have a calculated creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ≥ 70milliliter/min/1.73m2. Alternatively, a 24-hour creatinine clearance may also be used.
• Hepatic function: alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) must be < 5 x institutional upper limit of norm ULN. Total bilirubin must be ≤ 1.5 x ULN (except in the case of subjects with documented Gilbert's disease ≤ 5 × ULN). Cardiac Function -Patients must have a shortening fraction ≥ 27% or an ejection fraction ≥ 55% by echocardiogram, cardiac MRI or multigated acquisition scan (MUGA). Reproductive Function
• Female patients must not be pregnant and those of childbearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test confirmed within one week prior to enrollment.
• Female patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on this study.
• Male and female patients of childbearing potential must agree to use an effective method of contraception during the study. Exclusion Criteria Patients will be excluded if they have isolated testicular disease. Patients will be excluded if they have previously received Marqibo®. Patients will be excluded if they have a known allergy to any of the drugs used in the study, with the exception that patients with an allergy to PEG-asparaginase who can receive Erwinia asparaginase are eligible. Patients unable to receive any formulation of asparaginase may only enroll on cohort C Patients will be excluded if they have active, uncontrolled systemic fungal, bacterial, viral or other infection despite appropriate antibiotics or other treatment. Patients who require azole antifungal agents will be excluded. Azoles must be discontinued at least one week prior to the start of Marqibo®. Patients will be excluded if there is a plan to administer non-protocol chemotherapy, radiation therapy, another investigational agent or immunotherapy during the study period. Patients with pre-existing, persistent grade 2 or greater sensory or motor neuropathy from any cause will be excluded. Patients will be excluded if they have, significant concurrent disease, illness, psychiatric disorder or social issue that would compromise patient safety or adherence with the protocol treatment or procedures or interfere with consent, study participation, follow up, or interpretation of study results.Patients with Down syndrome will not be eligible for enrollment on Cohort A Patients with a known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) will will be excluded due to the increased risk of complications such as severe infection and unknown interaction of Marqibo® with antiretroviral drugs. Active hepatitis B or C infection as defined by seropositive for hepatitis B (hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)) or hepatitis C and elevated liver transaminases (defined as above the ULN per the institution normal ranges).
• Cohort A: Patients must have a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia with ≥ 5% blasts in the bone marrow (M2 or M3), with or without extramedullary disease) or a diagnosis of lymphoblastic lymphoma.
• Cohorts B & C: Patients must have a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), lymphoblastic lymphoma, or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia with any level of detectable disease (minimal residual disease level acceptable) with or without extramedullary disease Performance Level -Karnofsky > 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky > 50% for patients ≤ 16 years of age. Prior Therapy
• Patients must have recovered from the acute toxic effects (≤ Grade 2 or baseline) of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy prior to entering this study, unless otherwise specified. Subjects with disease related cytopenias will be eligible.
• Patients must have relapsed or refractory disease after attaining at least a first remission. They may be in first to third relapse..
• Patients with Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) positive disease must have received at least two prior tyrosine kinase inhibitors.
• Patients who have experienced their relapse after a Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) are eligible, provided they have no evidence of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) and are at least 100 days post-transplant at the time of enrollment.
• Prior anthracycline lifetime cumulative exposure: Patients must have less than 320 mg/m2 (or 400 mg/m2 if prior cardioprotection) lifetime exposure of anthracycline chemotherapy.
• Cohort A: Patients must have less than 320 mg/m2 (or 400 mg/m2 if prior cardioprotection) lifetime exposure of anthracycline chemotherapy (See Appendix 2 for anthracycline calculation worksheet).
• Cohorts B & C: There is no limit on prior anthracycline exposure.
• Hematopoietic growth factors: It must have been at least seven days since the completion of therapy with granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (GCSF) or other growth factors at the time of enrollment. It must have been at least 14 days since the completion of therapy with pegfilgrastim (Neulasta®).
• Biologic anti-neoplastic agents: At least seven days after the last dose of a biologic agent. For agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond seven days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur. The duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair or vice chair.
• Monoclonal antibodies: At least three half-lives (or 30 days—whichever is longer) of the antibody must have elapsed after the last dose of monoclonal antibody. (e.g., Rituximab = 66 days, Epratuzumab = 69 days)
• Immunotherapy: At least 30 days after the completion of any type of immunotherapy, e.g. tumor vaccines, chimeric antigen receptor T-cells.
• Recent prior chemotherapy: At least 10 days after standard vincristine and the completion of any type of chemotherapy induction regimen. At least 3 weeks after radiation therapy. At least 30 days after the completion of any investigational neoplastic agent is also required. An investigational agent is defined as any drug that is not approved and licensed for sale by the FDA for institutions in the United States, by Health Canada for institutions in Canada and by The Therapeutic Goods Administration for institutions in Australia. Exceptions:
• There is no time restriction in regard to prior intrathecal chemotherapy provided there is complete recovery from any acute toxic effects of such; it is allowable to enroll a patient that has received IT Cytarabine (ARA-C), IT Methotrexate (MTX) or triple IT therapy within 14 days of enrollment as part of their evaluation to diagnose disease relapse. The IT therapy given within 14 days of initiation of protocol specified chemotherapy, may substitute for the day 1 IT in cohorts A and B
• Subjects with rapidly progressive disease may receive hydroxyurea until they begin study therapy;
• Patients who relapse while on maintenance-type ALL therapy or are receiving maintenance therapy for disease stabilization will not require a wash-out period before entry into this study. However, there must be at least 10 days after any dose of standard vincristine. Renal and Hepatic Function
• Renal function: Patient's serum creatinine must be ≤ 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) according to age. If the serum creatinine is greater than 1.5 times normal, the patient must have a calculated creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ≥ 70milliliter/min/1.73m2. Alternatively, a 24-hour creatinine clearance may also be used.
• Hepatic function: alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) must be < 5 x institutional upper limit of norm ULN. Total bilirubin must be ≤ 1.5 x ULN (except in the case of subjects with documented Gilbert's disease ≤ 5 × ULN). Cardiac Function -Patients must have a shortening fraction ≥ 27% or an ejection fraction ≥ 55% by echocardiogram, cardiac MRI or multigated acquisition scan (MUGA). Reproductive Function
• Female patients must not be pregnant and those of childbearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test confirmed within one week prior to enrollment.
• Female patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on this study.
• Male and female patients of childbearing potential must agree to use an effective method of contraception during the study. Exclusion Criteria Patients will be excluded if they have isolated testicular disease. Patients will be excluded if they have previously received Marqibo®. Patients will be excluded if they have a known allergy to any of the drugs used in the study, with the exception that patients with an allergy to PEG-asparaginase who can receive Erwinia asparaginase are eligible. Patients unable to receive any formulation of asparaginase may only enroll on cohort C Patients will be excluded if they have active, uncontrolled systemic fungal, bacterial, viral or other infection despite appropriate antibiotics or other treatment. Patients who require azole antifungal agents will be excluded. Azoles must be discontinued at least one week prior to the start of Marqibo®. Patients will be excluded if there is a plan to administer non-protocol chemotherapy, radiation therapy, another investigational agent or immunotherapy during the study period. Patients with pre-existing, persistent grade 2 or greater sensory or motor neuropathy from any cause will be excluded. Patients will be excluded if they have, significant concurrent disease, illness, psychiatric disorder or social issue that would compromise patient safety or adherence with the protocol treatment or procedures or interfere with consent, study participation, follow up, or interpretation of study results.Patients with Down syndrome will not be eligible for enrollment on Cohort A Patients with a known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) will will be excluded due to the increased risk of complications such as severe infection and unknown interaction of Marqibo® with antiretroviral drugs. Active hepatitis B or C infection as defined by seropositive for hepatitis B (hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)) or hepatitis C and elevated liver transaminases (defined as above the ULN per the institution normal ranges).
Drug: Marqibo
ALL, Childhood, Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Acute, Childhood, Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Acute, Lymphoid Leukemia
Children’s Health
Artisan Aphakia Lens for the Correction of Aphakia in Children
The purpose of this study is to determine the safety and effectiveness of the Artisan Aphakia Lens in the treatment of aphakia in children.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Stephanie.Morales@UTSouthwestern.edu
Serena Wang
33601
All
2 Years to 21 Years old
Phase 3
NCT01547442
STU 082013-072
Inclusion Criteria:
• 2 to 21 years of age
• Have a visually significant cataract or need IOL replacement surgery
• Compromised capsular bag prohibiting implantation of standard posterior IOL
• Subject or parent/guardian must be able to comply with visit schedule and study requirements
• Subject's legal representative must be able to sign the Informed Consent
Exclusion Criteria:
• Under 2 years of age
• Unable to meet Postoperative evaluation requirements
• No useful vision or vision potential in fellow eye
• Mentally retarded patients
• History of corneal disease
• Abnormality of the iris or ocular structure
• ACD less than 3.2 mm
• Uncontrolled glaucoma
• IOP > 25 mmHg
• Chronic or recurrent uveitis
• Preexisting macular pathology that may complicate the ability to assess the benefit of this lens
• Retinal detachment or family history
• Retinal disease that may limit visual potential
• Optic nerve disease that may limit visual potential
• Diabetes mellitus
• Pregnant, lactating or plan to become pregnant
Device: Artisan Aphakia Intraocular Lens
Aphakia, Eye and Orbit
aphakia, secondary intraocular lens, congenital cataract, marfan syndrome, pediatric cataract, ectopia lentis, subluxated lens
Children’s Health