Search Results
A Study of Zanubrutinib Plus Anti-CD20 Versus Lenalidomide Plus Rituximab in Participants With Relapsed/Refractory Follicular or Marginal Zone Lymphoma (MAHOGANY)
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu
Evaluating the Addition of the Immunotherapy Drug Atezolizumab to Standard Chemotherapy Treatment for Advanced or Metastatic Neuroendocrine Carcinomas That Originate Outside the Lung
This phase II/III trial compares the effect of immunotherapy with atezolizumab in combination with standard chemotherapy with a platinum drug (cisplatin or carboplatin) and etoposide versus standard therapy alone for the treatment of poorly differentiated extrapulmonary (originated outside the lung) neuroendocrine cancer that may have spread from where it first started to nearby tissue, lymph nodes, or distant parts of the body (advanced) or that has spread from where it first started (primary site) to other places in the body (metastatic). The other aim of this trial is to compare using atezolizumab just at the beginning of treatment versus continuing it beyond the initial treatment. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as atezolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Cisplatin and carboplatin are in a class of medications known as platinum-containing compounds that work by killing, stopping or slowing the growth of cancer cells. Etoposide is in a class of medications known as podophyllotoxin derivatives. It blocks a certain enzyme needed for cell division and DNA repair, and it may kill cancer cells. Giving atezolizumab in combination with a platinum drug (cisplatin or carboplatin) and etoposide may work better in treating patients with poorly differentiated extrapulmonary neuroendocrine cancer compared to standard therapy with a platinum drug (cisplatin or carboplatin) and etoposide alone.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Two Studies for Patients With Unfavorable Intermediate Risk Prostate Cancer Testing Less Intense Treatment for Patients With a Low Gene Risk Score and Testing a More Intense Treatment for Patients With a Higher Gene Risk Score
This phase III trial uses the Decipher risk score to guide intensification (for higher Decipher gene risk) or de-intensification (for low Decipher gene risk) of treatment to better match therapies to an individual patient's cancer aggressiveness. The Decipher risk score evaluates a prostate cancer tumor for its potential for spreading. In patients with low risk scores, this trial compares radiation therapy alone to the usual treatment of radiation therapy and hormone therapy (androgen deprivation therapy). Radiation therapy uses high energy x-rays or particles to kill tumor cells and shrink tumors. Androgen deprivation therapy blocks the production or interferes with the action of male sex hormones such as testosterone, which plays a role in prostate cancer development. Giving radiation treatment alone may be the same as the usual approach in controlling the cancer and preventing it from spreading, while avoiding the side effects associated with hormonal therapy. In patients with higher Decipher gene risk, this trial compares the addition of darolutamide to usual treatment radiation therapy and hormone therapy, to usual treatment. Darolutamide blocks the actions of the androgens (e.g. testosterone) in the tumor cells and in the body. The addition of darolutamide to the usual treatment may better control the cancer and prevent it from spreading.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Pathologically (histologically or cytologically) proven diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the prostate within 270 days prior to registration
• Unfavorable intermediate risk prostate cancer, defined as having ALL the following bulleted criteria:
• Has at least one intermediate risk factor (IRF):
• PSA 10-20 ng/mL
• Clinical stage T2b-c (digital rectal examination [DRE] and/or imaging) by American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 8th edition
• Gleason score 7 (Gleason 3+4 or 4+3 [ International Society of Urological Pathology (ISUP) Grade Group 2-3])
• Has ONE or more of the following 'unfavorable' intermediate-risk designators:
• > 1 immature reticulocyte fraction (IRF)
• Gleason 4+3=7 (ISUP Grade Group 3)
• >= 50% of biopsy cores positive
• Biopsies may include 'sextant' sampling of right/left regions of the prostate, often labeled base, mid-gland and apex. All such 'sextant' biopsy cores should be counted. Men may also undergo 'targeted' sampling of prostate lesions (guided by MRI, ultrasound or other approaches). A targeted lesion that is biopsied more than once and demonstrates cancer (regardless of number of targeted cores involved) should count as a single additional positive core sampled and positive. In cases of uncertainty, count the biopsy sampling as sextant core(s)
• Absence of high-risk features
• Appropriate stage for study entry based on the following diagnostic workup:
• History/physical examination within 120 days prior to registration;
• Negative bone imaging (M0) within 120 days prior to registration; Note: Tc-99m bone scan or sodium fluoride (NaF) positron emission tomography (PET) are allowed. Equivocal bone scan findings are allowed if plain films X-ray, computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are negative for metastasis at the concerned site(s). While a negative fluciclovine, choline, or prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA) PET may be counted as acceptable substitute for bone imaging, any suspicious findings must be confirmed and correlated with conventional imaging (Tc-99m bone scan, NaF PET, CT, X-ray, or MRI) to determine eligibility based on the latter modalities (e.g. M0 based on conventional imaging modalities)
• Clinically negative lymph nodes (N0) as established by conventional imaging (pelvic +/- abdominal CT or MR), within 120 days prior to registration. Patients with lymph nodes equivocal or questionable by imaging are eligible if the nodes are =< 1.0 cm in short axis and/or if biopsy is negative. Note: While a negative fluciclovine, choline, or prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA) PET may be counted as acceptable substitute for pelvic imaging, any suspicious findings must be confirmed by conventional imaging (CT, MRI or biopsy). If the findings do not meet pathological criteria based on the latter modalities (e.g. node =< 10 mm in short axis, negative biopsy), the patient will still be eligible
• Age >= 18
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0-2 within 120 days prior to registration
• Non-castrate testosterone level (> 50 ng/dL) within 120 days prior to registration
• Absolute neutrophil >= 1,000 cells/mm^3 (within 120 days prior to registration)
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL, independent of transfusion and/or growth factors (within 120 days prior to registration)
• Platelet count >= 100,000 cells/mm^3 independent of transfusion and/or growth factors (within 120 days prior to registration)
• Creatinine clearance (CrCl) >= 30 mL/min estimated by Cockcroft-Gault equation (within 120 days prior to registration)
• For African American patients specifically whose renal function is not considered adequate by the formula above, an alternative formula that takes race into account (Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration CKD-EPI formula) should be used for calculating the related estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) with a correction factor for African American race creatinine clearance for trial eligibility, where GFR >= 30 mL/min/1.73m^2 will be considered adequate
• Total bilirubin: 1.5 =< institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (within 120 days prior to registration) (Note: In subjects with Gilbert's syndrome, if total bilirubin is > 1.5 x ULN, measure direct and indirect bilirubin. If direct bilirubin is less than or equal to 1.5 x ULN, subject is eligible)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)(serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase [SGOT]) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT)(serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase [SGPT]): =< 2.5 x institutional ULN (within 120 days prior to registration)
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial; Note: HIV testing is not required for eligibility for this protocol
• For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated.
• Note: Known positive test for hepatitis B virus surface antigen (HBV sAg) indicating acute or chronic infection would make the patient ineligible unless the viral load becomes undetectable on suppressive therapy. Patients who are immune to hepatitis B (anti-Hepatitis B surface antibody positive) are eligible (e.g. patients immunized against hepatitis B)
• For patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
• Note: Known positive test for hepatitis C virus ribonucleic acid (HCV RNA) indicating acute or chronic infection would make the patient ineligible unless the viral load becomes undetectable on suppressive therapy
• The patient or a legally authorized representative must provide study-specific informed consent prior to study entry and, for patients treated in the United States (U.S.), authorization permitting release of personal health information
• Previous radical surgery (prostatectomy) or any form of curative-intent ablation whether focal or whole-gland (e.g., cryosurgery, high intensity focused ultrasound [HIFU], laser thermal ablation, etc.) for prostate cancer
• Definitive clinical or radiologic evidence of metastatic disease (M1)
• Prior invasive malignancy (except non-melanomatous skin cancer) unless disease free for a minimum of 3 years. History of or current diagnosis of hematologic malignancy is not allowed
• Prior radiotherapy to the prostate/pelvis region that would result in overlap of radiation therapy fields
• Previous bilateral orchiectomy
• Previous hormonal therapy, such as luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists (e.g., leuprolide, goserelin, buserelin, triptorelin) or LHRH antagonist (e.g. degarelix), anti-androgens (e.g., flutamide, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate). ADT started prior to study registration is not allowed
• Prior use of 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors is allowed, however, it must be stopped prior to enrollment on the study with at least a 30 day washout period before baseline study PSA measure and registration
• Active testosterone replacement therapy; any replacement therapy must be stopped at least 30 days prior to registration
• Severe, active co-morbidity defined as follows:
• Current severe or unstable angina;
• New York Heart Association Functional Classification III/IV (Note: Patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification)
• History of any condition that in the opinion of the investigator, would preclude participation in this study
• Inability to swallow oral pills
• High risk features, which includes any of the following:
• Gleason 8-10 [ISUP Grade Group 4-5]
• PSA > 20
• cT3-4 by digital exam OR gross extra-prostatic extension on imaging [indeterminate MRI evidence will not count and the patient will be eligible]
A Study Evaluating the Efficacy, Safety, Pharmacokinetics, and Pharmacodynamics of Crovalimab as Adjunct Treatment in Prevention of Vaso-Occlusive Episodes (VOE) in Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) (CROSSWALK-c)
This study is designed to evaluate the efficacy, safety and pharmacokinetics of crovalimab compared with placebo as adjunct therapy in the prevention of VOEs in participants with SCD.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Laurie.Rodgers-Augustyniak@childrens.com
Elucidating the Neurocircuitry of Irritability With High-Field Neuroimaging to Identify Novel Therapeutic Targets (UNIKET)
The study is investigating dysfunctions in neurocircuitry in regards to irritability with healthy controls (HC) and individuals with Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) by performing MRIs. The MDD group will also be randomized to receive ketamine or midazolam to investigate changes post-treatment in neurocircuitry with regards to irritability.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Ann.House@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Male or female subjects, 18-65 years of age and body weight less than or equal to 120 kg on baseline visit.
• Participants must have a level of understanding of the English language sufficient to agree to all tests and examinations required by the study and must be able to participate fully in the informed consent process.
• For Healthy Controls: Subjects must be free of any lifetime psychiatric condition based on the Mini-International Neuropsychiatric Interview (MINI). For MDD: Subjects must meet Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) criteria for current unipolar depression [major depressive disorder (MDD) or persistent depressive disorder (PDD) in a current major depressive episode (MDE)] based on MINI.
• A woman of childbearing potential who is sexually active with a male must agree to use an acceptable method of contraception [defined as either one highly effective (permanent sterilization, intrauterine device or hormonal implant) or two other forms of contraception (such as oral contraceptive pill and condom)] to avoid pregnancy throughout the study. Throughout the study and for 90 days (one spermatogenesis cycle) after receiving the last dose of study drug (ketamine/midazolam) man who is sexually active with a woman of childbearing potential must use an acceptable method of contraception (described above) with his female partner and must agree not to donate sperm.
• Subjects must either be free of psychotropic medications (including antidepressants, antipsychotics, benzodiazepines, mood stabilizers, sedative/hypnotics, dopamine agonists, stimulants, buspirone, and triptans) and certain anticonvulsants (topiramate and levetiracetam) or be stable on these medications for four weeks prior to the baseline visit [first magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan].
• Subjects with MDD should be willing to participate in neuroimaging scans before and after infusions, and be willing to undergo infusions with study drug.
• Lifetime diagnosis of schizophrenia or any psychotic disorder, bipolar disorder, pervasive developmental disorder or intellectual development disorder.
• Current diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder, anorexia nervosa or bulimia. Comorbid anxiety, stress and trauma-related disorders are permitted as long as unipolar depression is the primary diagnosis.
• Diagnosis of a moderate or severe substance use disorder within the past 6 months per MINI; all subjects must have a negative urine toxicology test on the day of the MRI, prior to the scan.
• Female subjects who are pregnant, nursing, for may become pregnant. Women of childbearing potential must have a negative urine pregnancy test on the day of the fMRI, prior to scan, and on days of study drug infusion, prior to infusion.
• Any unstable medical illnesses including hepatic, renal, gastroenterologic, respiratory, cardiovascular (including ischemic heart disease), endocrinologic, immunologic, or hematologic disease.
• Inadequately treated obstructive sleep apnea (STOP-Bang score of 5-8 if untreated, if using positive airway pressure device then past-month apnea hypopnea index ≥ 15 per hour representing moderate or higher severity).
• Presence of a significant neurological disease such as Parkinson's disease, primary or secondary seizure disorders, intracranial tumors, or severe head trauma.
• Presence of neurocognitive or dementing disorders.
• Clinically significant abnormalities of laboratories, physical examination (including unstable hypertension - systolic blood pressure >170, diastolic blood pressure >100), or electrocardiogram at screening visit.
• Subjects judged to be at serious and imminent suicidal or homicidal risk by the PI or another study-affiliated psychiatrist.
• Any contraindications to MRI, including pacemakers or metallic objects in the body.
• Any claustrophobia or other conditions which may result in inability to lie still in the MRI scanner for 1 hour or more.
• Allergy to ketamine or midazolam in subjects with MDD.
• Must not be on any prohibited concomitant medication.
Intraventricular Administration of Rhenium-186 NanoLiposome for Leptomeningeal Metastases (ReSPECT-LM)
This is an open-label Phase I clinical study that will administer a single dose of 186RNL via intraventricular catheter for treatment of Leptomeningeal Metastases (LM).
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• At least 18 years of age at time of screening.
• Ability to understand the purposes and risks of the study and has signed a written informed consent document approved by the site-specific IRB.
• Subject has proven and documented LM that meets the requirements for the study: a. Current EANO-ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Type 1 and 2 LM of any primary type. 2D is excluded.
• Karnofsky performance status of 60 to 100.
• Acceptable liver function:
• Bilirubin 1.5 times upper limit of normal
• AST (SGOT) and ALT (SGPT) ≤ 3.0 times upper limit of normal for subjects with normal liver
• AST (SGOT) and ALT (SGPT) ≤ 5.0 times upper limit of normal for subjects with liver metastasis
• Acceptable renal function with serum creatinine ≤ 2 times upper limit of normal
• Acceptable hematologic status (without hematologic support):
• ANC ≥ 1000 cells µL
• Platelet count ≥ 75,000/µL
• Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL
• All women of childbearing potential must have a negative serum pregnancy test at screening. Male and female subjects must agree to use effective means of contraception (for example, surgical sterilization or the use of barrier contraception with either a condom or diaphragm in conjunction with spermicidal gel or an IUD) with their partner from entry into the study through 6 months after the last dose.
• Subjects with a creatinine clearance greater than or equal to 60 mL/min (using the Cockcroft-Gault Equation) for males and females.
• The subject has not recovered to National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE v5.0) Grade ≤ 1 from AEs due to antineoplastic agents, investigational drugs, or other medications that were administered prior to study. Prior AEs due to alopecia, anemia, and lymphopenia are not required to be recovered to Grade ≤ 1 prior to 186RNL treatment, assuming other inclusion criteria are satisfied.
• Obstructive or symptomatic communicating hydrocephalus.
• Ventriculo-peritoneal or ventriculo-atrial shunts without programable valves or contraindications to placement of Ommaya reservoir.
• Females of childbearing potential who are pregnant, breast feeding, or may possibly be pregnant without a negative serum pregnancy test (see inclusion criteria).
• Serious intercurrent illness, such as progressive systemic (extra leptomeningeal) disease, clinically significant cardiac arrhythmias, uncontrolled systemic infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure or unstable angina pectoris within 3 months prior study drug, myocardial infarction, stroke, transient ischemic attack within 6 months, seizure disorder with any seizure occurring within 14 days prior to consenting or encephalopathy.
• Active severe non hematologic organ toxicity such as renal, cardiac, hepatic, pulmonary, or gastrointestinal systemic toxicity grade 3 or above.
• Significant coagulation abnormalities such as inherited bleeding diathesis or acquired coagulopathy with unacceptable risks of bleeding.
• Patients who had any dose to the spinal cord or whole brain radiation therapy, regardless of when the radiation treatment was delivered. Prior, non-CNS radiation for primary tumor is allowed.
• Systemic chemotherapeutic agents with CNS penetration (such as temozolomide, carmustine, lomustine, capecitabine, carboplatin, vinorelbine, bevacizumab, irinotecan or topotecan) are excluded if given within 14 days or 5 half-lives, whichever is shorter, prior to 186RNL treatment.
• If the washout period is satisfied, the patient may be enrolled, providing all other I/E criteria are satisfied.
• If the patient is undergoing systemic chemotherapy with CNS penetration (such as temozolomide, carmustine, lomustine, capecitabine, carboplatin, vinorelbine, bevacizumab, irinotecan or topotecan) and they develop or have progressive/persistent LM while on the agent, they may be included in the trial at the PI's discretion.
• Systemic therapy (including investigational agents and small-molecule kinase inhibitors) is excluded if given within 14 days or 5 half-lives, whichever is shorter, prior to 186RNL treatment. a. If the washout period is satisfied, the patient may be enrolled, providing all other I/E criteria are satisfied.
• Nitrosoureas or mitomycin C within 42 days, or metronomic/protracted low-dose chemotherapy within 14 days, or other cytotoxic chemotherapy within 28 days, are excluded if given within the above timepoints prior to 186RNL treatment. a. If the washout period is satisfied, the patient may be enrolled, providing all other I/E criteria are satisfied.
• Impaired CSF Flow Study, within 4 +/- 3 days of 186RNL treatment, based on study imaging and as determined by the investigator.
Effect of SGLT2i on Cardiovascular Biomarkers in Patients With Type 2 Diabetes and CKD Stage 3b-4
This is a prospective, observational study to assess the effect of SGLT2 inhibitors on surrogate markers of kidney and cardiovascular health in patients with stage 3b and 4 chronic kidney disease (CKD). This study includes three clinic in person visits and weekly telephone visits for 12 weeks. 1. Recruit 28 patients with CKD stages 3b-4 and follow up for 12 weeks 2. Determine the effect of interventions on the primary outcome variable serum klotho measured by immunoprecipitation-immunoblot
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, ZHENGNAN.WANG@UTSouthwestern.edu
• 18-80 years of age
• All races and ethnicities
• All genders
• Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• History of hypertension defined as > 130 or > 80 mmHg or normotensive on pharmacologic therapy
• Estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) (CKD Epi equation) of 15-44 ml/min/1.73 m2 (Stages 3b-4 CKD)
• Urinary albumin creatinine ratio of > 200 mg/g <5000mg/g
• Ability of study participant or legally authorized representative to provide informed written consent
• Able to maintain stable dose of any vitamin D and any calcium supplements for 180 days post randomization.
• Autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease, lupus nephritis or anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)-associated vasculitis
• Receiving cytotoxic therapy, immunosuppressive therapy or other immunotherapy for primary or secondary renal disease within 6 months prior to enrolment
• History of organ transplantation
• Receiving therapy with a sodium glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor within 8 weeks prior to enrolment or previous intolerance of an SGLT2 inhibitor
• Type 1 diabetes (T1D)
• Active use of SGLT2 inhibitor
• History of persistent hypercalcemia (serum total Calcium > 10.5 mg/dl)
• Body mass index > 45 kg/m2
• Active on kidney transplant list
• Inability to provide informed consent
• Any condition outside the renal and cardiovascular disease area, such as but not limited to malignancy, with a life expectancy of less than 2 years based on investigator´s clinical judgement
• Active malignancy requiring treatment at the time of screening (with the exception of successfully treated basal cell or treated squamous cell carcinoma).
• Hepatic impairment (aspartate transaminase [AST] or alanine transaminase [ALT] >3x the upper limit of normal [ULN]; or total bilirubin >2x ULN at time of enrolment)
• Women of child-bearing potential (ie, those who are not chemically or surgically sterilized or who are not post-menopausal) who are not willing to use a medically accepted method of contraception that is considered reliable in the judgment of the investigator or women who have a positive pregnancy test at enrolment or randomization or women who are breast-feeding
• Participation in another clinical study with an investigational product (IP) during the last month prior to Enrolment
• Inability of the patient, in the opinion of the investigator, to understand and/or comply with procedures and/or follow-up OR any conditions that, in the opinion of the investigator, may render the patient unable to complete the study. Patients who cannot complete the patient reported outcome (PRO) assessments can still participate in the study
Optimizing the Use of Ketamine to Reduce Chronic Postsurgical Pain (KALPAS)
The study utilizes a 3-arm placebo-controlled RCT to study the effectiveness of ketamine in reducing chronic post-mastectomy pain. Participants randomized to the first arm will receive a 0.35 mg/kg dose after induction, followed by a 0.25 mg/kg/hr infusion during surgery (up to a maximum of 6 hours) and continued for 2 hours postoperatively. Participants in the second arm will receive a single dose of 0.6 mg/kg of ketamine in the post-anesthesia care unit, and the final group will serve as the control group and receive saline (no ketamine).
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Durvalumab (MEDI4736) and Tremelimumab for Hepatocellular Carcinoma in Patients Listed for a Liver Transplant
Immunotherapy can safely downstage patients and achieve durable systemic disease control to improve clinical outcomes in HCC patients undergoing liver transplant.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Hepatocellular carcinoma, diagnosed either by biopsy or by combination of cirrhosis and imaging criteria (contrast-enhanced CT or MRI).
• Tumor within UCSF criteria for transplant: either one lesion ≤6.5 cm; or up to 3 lesions, none >4.5 cm, with a total diameter ≤8 cm, with no vascular invasion and no evidence of extrahepatic disease.
• Patient evaluated by institutional Liver Transplant team and listed for transplant.
• At least 1 lesion, not previously irradiated, that qualifies as a RECIST 1.1 target lesion (TL) at baseline. Tumor assessment by computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) must be performed within 28 days prior to randomization.
• No prior therapy for HCC at any time.
• Age ≥18 years at the time of study entry.
• ECOG score of 0 or 1
• Child-Pugh Score of 5, 6, or 7
• Body weight >30 kg
• Patients must have adequate organ and marrow function as defined in protocol
• Capable of giving signed informed consent which includes compliance with the requirements and restrictions listed in the informed consent form (ICF) and in this protocol.
• Patient is willing and able to comply with the protocol for the duration of the study including undergoing treatment and scheduled visits and examinations including follow up.
• Extrahepatic disease.
• Variceal bleeding during 3 months prior to registration.
• Any autoimmune disease deemed a risk in the setting of immunotherapy per treating physician's judgment.
• Any other illness or patient condition deemed a medical or logistical barrier for protocol therapy per treating physician's judgment.
• Concurrent enrollment in another clinical study, unless it is an observational (non-interventional) clinical study or during the follow-up period of an interventional study
• Participation in another clinical study with an investigational product during the last 12 months Patients who have received other investigational agents previously who are no longer receiving these investigational agents may be eligible at the discretion of the PI.
• Major surgical procedure (as defined by the Investigator) within 28 days prior to the first dose of IP. Note: Local surgery of isolated lesions for palliative intent is acceptable.
• History of allogenic organ transplantation.
• History of another primary malignancy except for:
• Malignancy treated with curative intent and with no known active disease ≥5 years before the first dose of IP and of low potential risk for recurrence
• Adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancer or lentigo maligna without evidence of disease
• Adequately treated carcinoma in situ without evidence of disease
• Active or prior documented autoimmune or inflammatory disorders (including inflammatory bowel disease [e.g., colitis or Crohn's disease], diverticulitis [with the exception of diverticulosis], systemic lupus erythematosus, Sarcoidosis syndrome, or Wegener syndrome [granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Graves' disease, rheumatoid arthritis, hypophysitis, uveitis, etc.]). The following are exceptions to this criterion:
• Patients with vitiligo or alopecia
• Patients with hypothyroidism (e.g., following Hashimoto syndrome) stable on hormone replacement
• Any chronic skin condition that does not require systemic therapy
• Patients without active disease in the last 5 years may be included but only after consultation with the study physician
• Patients with celiac disease controlled by diet alone
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness, including but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, uncontrolled hypertension, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, interstitial lung disease, serious chronic gastrointestinal conditions associated with diarrhea, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirement, substantially increase risk of incurring AEs or compromise the ability of the patient to give written informed consent
• History of leptomeningeal carcinomatosis
• History of active primary immunodeficiency
• Active infection including tuberculosis (clinical evaluation that includes clinical history, physical examination and radiographic findings, and TB testing in line with local practice), hepatitis B (known positive HBV surface antigen (HBsAg) result), hepatitis C, Patients with a past or resolved HBV infection (defined as the presence of hepatitis B core antibody [anti-HBc] and absence of HBsAg) are eligible. Patients positive for hepatitis C (HCV) antibody are eligible only if polymerase chain reaction is negative for HCV RNA.
• Current or prior use of immunosuppressive medication within 14 days before the first dose of durvalumab or tremelimumab. The following are exceptions to this criterion:
• Intranasal, inhaled, topical steroids, or local steroid injections (e.g., intra articular injection)
• Systemic corticosteroids at physiologic doses not to exceed 10 mg/day of prednisone or its equivalent
• Steroids as premedication for hypersensitivity reactions (e.g., CT scan premedication)
• Receipt of live attenuated vaccine within 30 days prior to the first dose of IP. Note: Patients, if enrolled, should not receive live vaccine while receiving IP and up to 30 days after the last dose of IP.
• Female patients who are pregnant or breastfeeding or male or female patients of reproductive potential who are not willing to employ effective birth control from screening to 180 days after the last dose of durvalumab + tremelimumab combination therapy.
• Known allergy or hypersensitivity to any of the study drugs or any of the study drug excipients.
• Prior randomization or treatment in a previous durvalumab and/or tremelimumab clinical study regardless of treatment arm assignment.
• Judgment by the investigator that the patient is unsuitable to participate in the study and the patient is unlikely to comply with study procedures, restrictions and requirements.
Safety and Efficacy of Atorvastatin v. Placebo on HCC Risk (TORCH)
Prospective randomized, multi-center, double blind placebo-controlled trial to assess the chemopreventive impact of atorvastatin (20 mg oral) vs placebo in up to 60 adults with advanced fibrosis at high risk of developing HCC.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Willing and able to provide informed consent
• Male or female age \> 18 years at time of consent
• Clinically or histologically diagnosed advanced liver fibrosis or cirrhosis, as defined by one or more of the following: * Liver biopsy demonstrating advanced fibrosis or cirrhosis (METAVIR 3-4) * Fibroscan or MR elastography consistent with advanced fibrosis or cirrhosis * Imaging showing cirrhotic-appearing liver with signs of portal hypertension * Advanced fibrosis or cirrhosis documented clinically by a treating physician
• High-risk for HCC at screening according to the FIB-4 index
• PLSec score ≥ 3 measured in screening blood samples from the FIB-4-high individuals.
• Liver imaging within 6 months of Day 1 is required in cirrhotic subjects only, to exclude HCC
• Female subjects of childbearing potential who engage in heterosexual intercourse must agree to use protocol specified method(s) of contraception
• Willing and able to undergo protocol blood sampling
• Subject must be able to comply with dosing instructions for study drug administration and able to complete study schedule of assessments
• Diagnosis of any of the following forms of chronic liver disease: * alpha-1-antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency, Wilson disease, hemochromatosis, iron overload, prior known or suspected drug-induced liver injury (DILI) * Patients with PBC, PSC, AIH, or stable hemochromatosis may be included if their liver disease etiology overlaps with that of steatotic liver disease (SLD)
• Current or prior history of any of the following:
• Clinically significant illness or any other major medical disorder that in the opinion of the investigator, may interfere with subject treatment, assessment or compliance with the protocol
• Known positivity for HIV infection
• Active, untreated HCV infection
• Patients with prior history of HCV who achieved sustained virologic response (SVR) \>12 from Day 1 may be included in the study
• Uncontrolled chronic HBV
• Patients with well controlled disease with \>12 months of stable medication use (or no medication use, in those persons for whom anti-HBV therapy is not indicated)
• Clinical hepatic decompensation, defined as Child's Pugh class \>B7 or C cirrhosis
• Patients with Child's Pugh score of 7, class B, may be included in the study
• History of biliary diversion
• Solid organ transplant
• Malignancy within the 5 years prior to screening, with the exception of specific cancers that have been cured by surgical resection (basal cell skin cancer, etc). Subjects under evaluation for possible malignancy are not eligible
• Pregnant or Nursing Females (a negative serum pregnancy test is required at screening for WOCBP)
• Life threatening SAE during the screening period
• Subjects having the following laboratory parameters at screening * ALT \> 10 x ULN * AST \> 10 x ULN * Hemoglobin \< 8.5 g/dl * Serum creatinine \> 2.0 mg/dL * CK \> 3x ULN
• Females who may wish to become pregnant and/or plan to undergo egg harvesting during the study and up to 30 days of the last dose of study drug
• WOCBP must abstain from breastfeeding and be willing to use effective birth control during through the week 4 post treatment follow-up visit
• Clinically relevant alcohol or drug abuse within 12 months of screening
• Use of any prohibited concomitant medications as described in Section 9.1.1
• Use of a statin medication within 90 days of Day 1 visit
• Subjects who are on a current statin at time of consent must be willing to undergo a 90-day washout period prior to randomization
• Known hypersensitivity to atorvastatin
• Current or planned participation in an investigational new drug (IND) trial from 30-days prior to randomization through the week 4 post treatment follow-up visit
Personalized Ultra-fractionated Stereotactic Adaptive Radiotherapy for Metastatic Cervical Cancer
To improve overall survival in patients with metastatic cervical cancer by loco-regional therapy with personalized ultra-fractionated radiation
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• At least 18 years of age.
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
• Newly diagnosed FIGO IVB cervical cancer with radiographic evidence of metastatic disease for whom systemic therapy is standard of care, who are within 6 months of systemic therapy treatment, OR
• Patients with recurrent/metastatic disease with measurable disease in the pelvis for whom systemic therapy is standard of care, and who are within 6 months of initiation of systemic therapy.
• Patients with brain metastasis are allowed as long as they are clinically stable and/or the mets are treated or are amenable to treatment with radiation and/or surgery.
• Eastern Cooperative Group (ECOG) performance status of 0-3.
• Women of child-bearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) starting with the first radiation pulse through 90 days after the last fraction of radiation. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. Medically acceptable birth control (contraceptives) includes: 1) approved hormonal contraceptives (such as birth control pills, patch or ring; Depo-Provera, Implanon), or 2) barrier methods (such as a condom or diaphragm) used with a spermicide (a substance that kills sperm). A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, marital status, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months)
• Prior radiation treatment to the pelvis.
• Subjects may not be receiving any other investigational agents for the treatment of the cancer under study.
• Patients with active Inflammatory Bowel disease or Collagen vascular disease -SLE, scleroderma or on active immunosuppressant (exclusions per PI discretion).
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that, in the opinion of the investigator, would limit compliance with study requirements.
• Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.
• Presence of brain metastases that are not amenable to treatment with radiation or surgery, or brain metastasis leading to clinical instability.
CD40 Agonist, Flt3 Ligand, and Chemotherapy in HER2 Negative Breast Cancer
This research study is being done to find out if the immunotherapy drugs called CDX-301 and CDX-1140 in combination with the standard chemotherapy treatment pegylated liposomal doxorubicin (PLD, Doxil) are safe and effective at controlling the cancer in patients with metastatic triple Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2 (HER2) negative breast cancer, and to determine a safe dose and treatment schedule of the three drugs. This research study will also test how your immune system responds to these treatments alone and in combination.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
A Randomized, Controlled Trial to Evaluate the Safety and Effectiveness of the Route 92 Medical Reperfusion System (SUMMIT MAX)
The SUMMIT MAX study is a prospective, randomized, controlled, interventional clinical trial to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of the Route 92 Medical MonoPoint® Reperfusion System for aspiration thrombectomy in acute ischemic stroke patients.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Vida.Rhodes@UTSouthwestern.edu
• The consent process has been completed and documented according to applicable country regulations and as approved by the IRB / Ethics Committee
• Age >=18 years and <= 85
• Patient presenting with clinical signs consistent with an acute ischemic stroke
• Baseline National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) score >= 6
• Pre-stroke modified Rankin Score (mRS) <= 1
• Baseline ASPECTS >= 6
• Endovascular treatment initiated (defined as time of first angiogram) within 8 hours from time last known well
• If indicated, thrombolytic therapy shall be initiated per clinical guidelines. If eligible for thrombolytic therapy, subjects should be treated as soon as possible and lytic use should not be delayed regardless of potential eligibility for mechanical neurothrombectomy.
• The patient is indicated for aspiration neurothrombectomy with the Route 92 Medical Reperfusion System as determined by the Investigator
• Angiographic confirmation of a large vessel occlusion of the M1 segment of the middle cerebral artery or distal internal carotid artery
• Known pregnancy or breast feeding
• In the Investigator's opinion, any known comorbidity (including COVID-19 positivity) that may complicate treatment or prevent improvement or follow-up
• Known serious, advanced, or terminal illness with anticipated life expectancy < 12 months
• Known history of severe allergy to contrast medium
• Known to have suffered a stroke in the past 90 days
• Known connective tissue disorder affecting the arteries (e.g. Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome)
• Any known previous cerebral hemorrhagic event
• Any known pre-existing coagulation deficiency
• Known hemorrhagic diathesis, coagulation factor deficiency, or oral anticoagulant therapy with INR >3.0
• Known baseline platelet count <50,000/µL
• Known baseline blood glucose of <50 mg/dL or >400 mg/dL
• Known to be participating in another study involving an investigational device or drug
• Clinical symptoms suggestive of bilateral stroke or stroke in multiple territories.
• Computed Tomography (CT) or Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) evidence of recent/ fresh cerebral hemorrhage (the presence of microbleeds is allowed)
• Baseline CT or MRI showing intracranial tumor (except small meningioma <= 2cm) or significant mass effect with midline shift due to the tumor
• Presumed septic thrombus, or suspicion of bacterial endocarditis
• Inability to access the cerebral vasculature in the opinion of the neurointerventional team
• Unlikely to be available for a 90-day follow-up (e.g. no fixed home address)
• Evidence of carotid dissection
• Evidence of cervical carotid artery high-grade stenosis or occlusion (i.e., tandem occlusion)
• Active or recent history of drug abuse (within last 6 months)
• Known history or presence of aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation (AVM) in the territory of the target lesion
• For all patients, severe sustained hypertension with SBP >200 and/or DBP >120; for patients treated with IV tPA, sustained hypertension despite treatment with SBP >185 and/or DBP >110
• Treatment with heparin within 48 hours with a partial thromboplastic time more than two times the laboratory normal
• Renal failure with serum creatinine >3.0 or Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) <30
• Ongoing seizure due to stroke
• Evidence of active systemic infection
• Known cancer with metastases
• Cervical carotid stenosis requiring balloon angioplasty or stenting at the time of the procedure
• Angiographic evidence of multiple cerebrovascular occlusions (e.g., bilateral anterior circulation, anterior/posterior circulation)
• Angiographic evidence of known or suspected underlying intracranial vasculopathy or atherosclerotic lesions responsible for the target occlusion
• Angiographic evidence or suspicion of aortic dissection
Basimglurant in Children, Adolescents, and Young Adults With TSC
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu
• Willingness to undergo serum or urinary pregnancy testing at screening and during the trial period.
• Willingness to use contraception. Exclusion Criteria (summary): * Neurologic disease other than TSC * Recent anoxic episode * Patient weight below 15kg * Clinically significant unstable medical condition(s) * Pregnancy or lactation
ZEUS - A Research Study to Look at How Ziltivekimab Works Compared to Placebo in People With Cardiovascular Disease, Chronic Kidney Disease and Inflammation (ZEUS)
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu
• Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) greater than or equal to (\>=) 15 and below 60 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 (using the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration (CKD-EPI) creatinine equation)
• Urinary albumin-to-creatinine ratio (UACR) \>= 200 milligrams per gram (mg/g) and eGFR \>= 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 (using the CKD-EPI creatinine equation) * Serum high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hs-CRP) greater than or equal to 2 milligram per liter (mg/L) * Evidence of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) by one or more of the following: a) Coronary heart disease defined as at least one of the following: i. Documented history of MI ii. Prior coronary revascularisation procedure iii. greater than or equal to 50% stenosis in major epicardial coronary artery documented by cardiac catheterisation or CT coronary angiography b) Cerebrovascular disease defined as at least one of the following: i. Prior stroke of atherosclerotic origin ii. Prior carotid artery revascularisation procedure iii. greater than or equal to 50% stenosis in carotid artery documented by X-ray angiography, MR angiography, CT angiography or Doppler ultrasound. c) Symptomatic peripheral artery disease (PAD) defined as at least one of the following: i. Intermittent claudication with an ankle-brachial index (ABI) below or equal to 0.90 at rest ii. Intermittent claudication with a greater than or equal to 50% stenosis in peripheral artery (excluding carotid) documented by X-ray angiography, MR angiography, CT angiography or Doppler ultrasound iii. Prior peripheral artery (excluding carotid) revascularisation procedure iv. Lower extremity amputation at or above ankle due to atherosclerotic disease (excluding e.g. trauma or osteomyelitis).
A Comparison of TULSA Procedure vs. Radical Prostatectomy in Participants With Localized Prostate Cancer (CAPTAIN)
Men with localized, intermediate risk prostate cancer will be randomized to undergo either radical prostatectomy or the TULSA procedure, with a follow-up of 10 years in this multi-centered randomized control trial. This study will determine whether the TULSA procedure is as effective and more safe compared to radical prostatectomy.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
A Study of Intravesical Enfortumab Vedotin For Treatment of Patients With Non-muscle Invasive Bladder Cancer (NMIBC)
This study will test a drug called enfortumab vedotin in participants with a type of bladder cancer called non-muscle invasive bladder cancer (NMIBC). This study will also evaluate what the side effects are and if the drug works to treat NMIBC. A side effect is anything a drug does to your body besides treating your disease. In this study enfortumab vedotin will be put into the bladder using a catheter. A catheter is a thin tube that can be put into your bladder.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Study of GS-1811 Given Alone or With Zimberelimab in Adults With Advanced Solid Tumors
This is a first-in-human (FIH) study to evaluate the safety and tolerability and to determine the maximum tolerated dose (MTD) and/or the recommended Phase 2 dose (RP2D) of GS-1811 as monotherapy and in combination with zimberelimab in participants with advanced solid tumors. This study will be conducted in 6 parts (Parts A, B, and E: monotherapy, Parts C and D: combination therapy, and Part F for both monotherapy and combination therapy) in participants with advanced solid tumors who have received, been intolerant to, or been ineligible for all treatments known to confer clinical benefit or in participants with select solid tumors.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
[18F]PT2385 PET/CT in Patients With Renal Cell Carcinoma
This is an exploratory study to assess [18F]PT2385 Positron Emission Tomography/Computed Tomography (PET/CT) in patients with renal cell carcinoma (RCC). This is an open-label, nontherapeutic trial. The main objective is to correlate hypoxia-inducible factor-2alpha (HIF2α) levels as determined by an investigational [18F]PT2385 PET/CT scan with the levels on subsequently obtained tissue by HIF2α immunohistochemistry (IHC). There will be three cohorts. The first pre-surgical cohort will have [18F]PT2385 PET/CT prior to nephrectomy. The uptake and retention on Positron Emission Tomography (PET), quantified as standardized uptake value (SUV) max and mean, abbreviated SUV henceforth will be correlated with HIF2α levels by IHC on the primary tumor. The second cohort will comprise patients with metastatic clear cell renal carcinoma (ccRCC). SUV will be correlated with HIF2α levels measured by IHC on a biopsy sample from a metastasis. Both low- and high-avidity sites will be biopsied and tracer uptake correlated with HIF2α IHC. A third cohort will include patients with Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome and any of the following disease manifestations - RCC, central nervous system (CNS) hemangioblastoma, and/or pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor(s). Investigational imaging will evaluate HIF2α expression within a tumor type and across different tumor types. A biopsy is encouraged but not mandatory for this cohort.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent that includes study interventions (PET/CT and, if cohort 2, mandatory biopsy).
• Ability to lie still for a 30- to 60-minute PET/CT scan.
• One of the following:
• Cohort 1. Patients with suspected RCC planned for surgery.
• Cohort 2. Patients with metastatic ccRCC or VHL syndrome and RCC. Biopsy is required (planned resection for treatment reasons of a metastatic site is acceptable in lieu of the biopsy).
• Cohort 3. Patients with VHL syndrome with RCC, CNS hemangioblastoma, and/or pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor(s) planning to start belzutifan.
• Patients with liver dysfunction will be considered "patients of special interest," and enrollment is allowed with or without criteria outlined for Cohorts 1-3. Liver dysfunction is defined clinically and is typically supported by abnormalities in imaging or laboratory studies (alanine / aspartate amino-transferase, bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, or international normalized range (INR) for prothrombin time).
• Women of child-bearing potential must agree to undergo and have documented a negative pregnancy test on the day of [18F]PT2385 administration. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a tubal ligation, or celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months).
• Uncontrolled severe and irreversible intercurrent illness or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements.
• Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.
• Claustrophobia or other contraindications to PET/CT.
• Subjects must not weigh more than the maximum weight limit for the table for the PET/CT scanner where the study is being performed (>200 kilograms or 440 pounds).
• For cohort 2 patients, lack of suitable sites for mandatory biopsy. For example, patients with metastatic disease restricted to the lungs that would require percutaneous biopsies with associated risk of bleeding and pneumothorax will be excluded.
Investigating Medication vs. Prostatic Urethral Lift: Assessment and Comparison of Therapies for BPH (IMPACT)
This prospective, multicenter, two-arm, 1:1 randomized controlled trial (RCT) will enroll approximately 250 males at approximately 25 sites located within the United States. All enrolled subjects will be 45 years of age or older diagnosed with symptomatic benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). They will be randomized to one of two readily available, marketed BPH therapies; Prostatic Urethral Lift procedure with the UroLift System (PUL Arm) or 0.4mg tamsulosin HCl (MED Arm).
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Catherine.Robinson@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Male 45 years of age or older
• Diagnosis of BPH
• Experiencing symptoms of BPH as indicated by an IPSS ≥8 and ≤30
• Willing to wash out of current BPH medication(s), as applicable
• An appropriate candidate for both BPH therapies evaluated in this study.
• Ability to understand and consent to participate in this study
• Willing and able to participate in follow-up evaluations
• Use of alpha blocker for BPH unless washed-out for 30 days
• Use of daily phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor (PDE5i) for BPH unless washed-out for 30 days
• 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors for BPH used within 6 months of therapy initiation
• Current urinary tract infection or prostatitis
• Current gross hematuria
• Urinary incontinence presumed due to incompetent sphincter
• Catheter-dependent urinary retention within 1 month prior to enrollment
• Prostate volume greater than 100 cc as measured by TRUS
• Prostate specific antigen level of greater than 10 ng/ml within one year of enrollment unless prostate cancer has been ruled out
• History of neurogenic or atonic bladder
• History prostate cancer treatment
• Known to be hypersensitive to tamsulosin HCl or any component of tamsulosin HCl capsules
• Known allergy to nickel, titanium, or stainless steel
• Prior minimally invasive or surgical intervention for BPH
• Urethral conditions that may prevent insertion of delivery system into bladder.
• Currently enrolled in any other investigational clinical research trial that has not completed the primary endpoint
• History of medical, surgical or other conditions that, in the opinion of the investigator, would interfere with the treatment or evaluation of the subject
An Open-Label, Phase 2 Trial of Nanatinostat in Combination With Valganciclovir in Patients With Epstein-Barr Virus-Positive (EBV+) Relapsed/Refractory Lymphomas (NAVAL-1)
A Phase 2 study to evaluate the efficacy of nanatinostat in combination with valganciclovir in patients with relapsed/refractory EBV-positive lymphomas
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
NP-G2-044 as Monotherapy and Combination Therapy in Patients With Advanced or Metastatic Solid Tumor Malignancies
Multicenter, open-label study in patients with advanced or metastatic solid tumor malignancies to evaluate the safety, tolerability, and preliminary anti-tumor efficacy, PK, and pharmacodynamics of continuously dosed NP-G2-044 monotherapy and NP-G2-044 in combination with anti-PD-1 therapy.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Male or female ≥18 years of age;
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status of 0 or 1;
• Life expectancy of \> 6 months;
• Abilty to swallow capsules and tablets;
• Adequate organ and bone marrow function, defined by the following: ANC \>1500 cells/μL; Hemoglobin \>9.0 g/dL; Platelet count \>100,000 cells/μL; Total bilirubin ≤1.5 mg/dL; Albumin ≥3.0 g/dL; Alanine aminotransferase, aspartate aminotransferase, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase ≤2.5 × upper limit of normal (ULN); Creatinine clearance ≥50 mL/min; and Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time ≤1.5 × ULN.
• Female patients of childbearing potential must have a negative serum or urine pregnancy test at Screening and within 24 hours (if urine test) or 72 hours (if serum test) before the first dose of NP-G2-044. If the urine test is positive or cannot be confirmed as negative, a serum pregnancy test will be required and must be negative for the patient to be eligible; Note: A woman is considered to be childbearing potential unless she is postmenopausal (≥1 year without menses and confirmed with a follicle-stimulating hormone \[FSH\] test) or surgically sterilized via bilateral oophorectomy, hysterectomy, bilateral tubal ligation, or successful Essure® placement with a documented confirmation test at least 3 months after the procedure.
• Male patients must be surgically sterile or willing to use a highly effective double-barrier contraception method (eg, male condom with diaphragm or male condom with cervical cap) upon study entry, while on NP-G2-044, and for a period of at least 4 months following the last dose of NP-G2-044; and
• Able to understand and voluntarily sign a written informed consent form (ICF) and willing and able to comply with protocol requirements. Inclusion Criteria for NP-G2-044 Monotherapy: Patients must meet all the following criteria to receive NP-G2-044 monotherapy in the study:
• Have a histopathologically confirmed advanced or metastatic solid tumor malignancy for which standard therapies are no longer effective, not tolerated or ineligible for the patient to receive;
• Have measurable disease per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1.;
• For monotherapy expansion cohort A (after the Mono-RP2D has been identified), patients must have:
• Gynecologic malignancies including ovarian, endometrial/uterine, fallopian tube, cervical, vulvar, and vaginal cancers; or
• Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)-high (2+ or 3+ staining per DAKO criteria or genomic sequencing data showing 3 or more copies of the EGFR gene) triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC).
• For Monotherapy Expansion Cohort B, patient must have advanced or metastatic solid tumors malignancy Inclusion Criteria for NP-G2-044 Combination Therapy Patients must meet 1 of the following criteria to receive NP-G2-044 in combination with anti-PD-1 therapy in the study:
• Have initiated anti-PD-1 therapy in accordance with the package insert and have been receiving the anti-PD-1 therapy for ≥3 months (with therapy currently ongoing) and have stable disease, or had an initial period of stable disease and now have an initial scan demonstrating progressive disease per RECIST 1.1. or Have discontinued prior anti-programmed death-1/programmed death ligand-1 (PD- \[L\]1) therapy and are now eligible for de novo NP-G2-044 plus standard of care anti-PD 1 therapy.
• Received chemotherapy or radiotherapy within 4 weeks or 5 half-lives, whichever is shorter, of the first dose of NP-G2-044; Note: Prior immunotherapy is allowed for patients receiving NP-G2-044 monotherapy.
• Unresolved toxicities from previous anti-cancer therapy, defined as toxicities (other than NCI CTCAE v5.0 Grade ≤2 alopecia or neuropathy) not yet resolved to NCI CTCAE v5.0 Grade ≤1; Note: Patients who experienced a Grade ≥3 anti-PD-1-related AE per NCI CTCAE v5.0 are excluded unless recovered and reviewed by the Novita Medical Monitor or designee.
• Receiving any other investigational agent(s) or have received an investigational agent within 4 weeks of the first dose of NP-G2-044; Note: Patients who have progressed on NP-G2-044 treatment prior to this study are not eligible
• Known untreated brain metastases or treated brain metastases that have not been radiographically and clinically stable (ie, not requiring steroids) ≥4 weeks prior to study enrollment;
• QTc by Fridericia method \>470 msec or electrocardiogram (ECG) with evidence of clinically meaningful conduction abnormalities or active ischemia as determined by the Investigator;
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, symptomatic congestive heart failure, hypertension, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, autoimmune or inflammatory diseases, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements;
• Pregnant, lactating, or is planning to attempt to become pregnant or impregnate someone during the study or within 90 days after dosing of NP-G2-044;
• Received prior allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation or allogenic bone marrow transplantation;
• Received prior solid organ transplantation;
• Ongoing immunosuppressive therapy (≥10 mg/day of prednisone or its equivalent);
• Requires the use of a strong inhibitor or inducer of cytochrome P450 (CYP)3A4, CYP1A2, or CYP2D6 during the study;
• History of clinically meaningful gastrointestinal bleeding, intestinal obstruction, or gastrointestinal perforation within 6 months of study enrollment; or
• Excluded by the Sponsor due to medical history, physical examination findings, clinical laboratory results, prior medications, or other entrance criteria.
Blood Purification for the Treatment of Pathogen Associated Shock (PURIFY-RCT)
This study is a multi-center, randomized controlled feasibility trial to evaluate the initial safety and efficacy of a novel extracorporeal blood purification (EBP) therapy in critically ill patients with pathogen associated shock across 15 U.S. sites. Adults (18 years old and older) admitted to the ICU with all of the following: • Pathogen associated shock defined as: - The need for vasopressors to maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥ 65 mmHg despite adequate fluid resuscitation - Presence of a pathogen detected in the bloodstream within 72 hours of screening using commercially available in-vitro diagnostic testing
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Alaa.Hazime@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Admitted to an ICU with pathogen associated shock defined as: * The need for vasopressors to maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥ 65 mmHg despite adequate fluid resuscitation, AND * Presence of a pathogen detected in the bloodstream within 72 hours of screening using commercially available in-vitro diagnostic testing
• Male or non-pregnant female adult
• At least 18 years of age at time of enrollment
• Pregnant or breast feeding
• Anticipated transfer to another hospital (that is not a study site) within 72 hours for any reason
• Not anticipated to survive more than 24 hours
• Known allergy to heparin sodium
• Patients who cannot tolerate placement of double-lumen catheter
• High risk of bleeding (platelet count \<50mm3 or International Normalized Ratio (INR) \>2) unless adequate line for treatment already placed (e.g. ECMO or RRT/CRRT)
• Inability to tolerate extracorporeal therapy (defined as MAP\<65 despite fluids and vasopressors)
• Advanced cancer (defined as stage IV) with life expectancy of less than 30 days
• Unable to obtain informed consent from either patient or legally authorized representative (LAR)
• Hypotension and volume depletion due to etiologies other than sepsis.
• Neutropenia with an absolute neutrophil count \<500mm3
• Patients must be treated with one of the antimicrobial agents listed in the Antimicrobial Management Guideline (Table 19). Patients who require treatment with an antimicrobial outside of this list while still receiving treatment with the investigational device must be excluded from the study.
• If a patient enters the study and later requires a change in the antimicrobial agent used to one which is not listed in the Antimicrobial Management Guideline while still receiving treatment with the investigational device, that patient must be removed from this trial. Clinical data for any patient removed from the trial for this reason will continue to be collected for safety evaluation".
• Patient is a prisoner or member of a different vulnerable population that should not be included in the study per the investigator or IRB/ethics committee.
• Advanced directive for "Do Not Resuscitate".
Safety Study of CC-93538 in Adult and Adolescent Participants With Eosinophilic Esophagitis
This study is an open-label, uncontrolled study design to evaluate the long-term safety and tolerability of treatment with CC-93538. The study will enroll participants who participated in the CC-93538-EE-001 or CC-93538-DDI-001 studies.
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu
• Subject experienced a severe EoE flare requiring endoscopic intervention and/or concomitant rescue therapy during the Induction Phase and has completed Week 24 of the Induction Phase; OR
• Subject completed the Induction Phase and does not qualify for entry to the Maintenance Phase for reasons other than a severe EoE flare; OR
• Subject experienced a severe EoE flare requiring endoscopic intervention and/or concomitant rescue therapy during the Maintenance Phase and completed Week 48 of the Maintenance Phase; OR
• Subject completed Week 48 of the Maintenance Phase * OR Subject must have participated in Study CC-93538-DDI-001 and completed assessments through the end of treatment visit * Demonstrated ≥ 80% and ≤ 120% overall compliance with required investigational product dosing during the prior studies. * Did not permanently discontinue investigational product in the prior studies and/or did not experience any clinically significant adverse events related to Investigational Product that would preclude further dosing in the opinion of the Investigator. * Females of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test prior to the first dose of open-label CC-93538 and agree to practice a highly effective method of contraception (as defined in the prior study) until 5 months after the last dose of open-label CC-93538.
Behavioral Activation Teletherapy to Increase Physical Activity (BAT)
This is a pilot study of acceptability, feasibility, and preliminary efficacy of a brief, 10-session Behavioral Activation intervention delivered via teletherapy to increase physical activity and treat depressive symptoms.
Shahera Ranjha shahera.ranjha@utsouthwestern.edu
Lynnel M Goodman, PhD lynnel.goodman@utsouthwestern.edu
Metabolic Remodeling in Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH)
Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is a progressive disease in which clinically relevant symptoms present a few years after the onset in rise of pulmonary arterial pressure. Increased PA pressure presents an overload on the right ventricle (RV), with RV failure being a common cause of mortality in PAH. Current therapeutic targets help reduce vascular resistance and RV afterload, however, RV dysfunction may continue to progress. Therefore, the reason for RV failure in PAH cannot be contributed to altered vascular hemodynamics alone but may be related to metabolic alterations and failure of adaptive mechanisms in the RV. Providing a better understanding of metabolic remodeling in RV failure may permit the development of RV-targeted pharmacological agents to maintain RV function despite increased pulmonary vascular pressures. This study will evaluate how cardiac metabolism changes in response to pulmonary vasodilator therapy in patients with pulmonary arterial hypertension.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Clarissa.Osagie@UTSouthwestern.edu
• WHO group 1 PAH, characterized by mean pulmonary artery pressure ≥25 mmHg, PVR >3 Woods units, and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left ventricular end diastolic pressure ≤15 mmHg. Participants must be further classified as idiopathic PAH (IPAH) or connective tissue disease associated PAH (CTD-PAH).
• New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification I - III criteria of heart failure.
• Vasodilator therapy naïve, with the intent to initiate pulmonary vasodilator therapy.
• Age 18 - 75.
• English speaking and able to provide informed consent.
• Recent syncope.
• Baseline 6MWD < 400 feet or NYHA class IV heart failure.
• Metabolic disorders such as uncontrolled diabetes (A1c > 8%) that may alter cardiac metabolism.
• Baseline use of oral steroids.
• FEV1/FVC <60%
• Contraindications to MRI, including those noted on the UTSW MRI Screening Form such as implants contraindicated at 3T, pacemakers, Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillators (ICD), or significant claustrophobia.
• Weight >210 lbs (exceeds current IND weight-based dosing guidelines) 8 . Women who are pregnant, lactating or planning on becoming pregnant during the study.
• Not suitable for study participation due to other reasons at the discretion of the investigators
Testing Combination Erdafitinib and Enfortumab Vedotin in Metastatic Bladder Cancer After Treatment With Chemotherapy and Immunotherapy
This phase Ib trial evaluates the best dose, potential benefits, and/or side effects of erdafitinib in combination with enfortumab vedotin in treating patients with bladder cancer that has spread from where it first started (primary site) to other places in the body (metastatic) and possesses genetic alterations in FGFR2/3 genes. Erdafitinib is in a class of medications called kinase inhibitors. It works by blocking the action of an abnormal FGFR protein that signals cancer cells to multiply. This may help keep cancer cells from growing and may kill them. Enfortumab vedotin is a monoclonal antibody, enfortumab, linked to an anticancer drug called vedotin. It works by helping the immune system to slow or stop the growth of cancer cells. Enfortumab attaches to a protein called nectin-4 on cancer cells in a targeted way and delivers vedotin to kill them. It is a type of antibody-drug conjugate. Giving erdafitinib in combination with enfortumab vedotin may shrink or stabilize metastatic bladder cancer with alterations in FGFR 2/3 genes.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Motor Network Physiology
The brain networks controlling movement are complex, involving multiple areas of the brain. Some neurological disorders, like Parkinson's disease (PD) and essential tremor (ET), cause abnormalities in these brain networks. Deep brain stimulation is a treatment that is used to treat these types of neurological diseases and is thought to help patients by modulating brain networks responsible for movement. Levodopa medication is also used to modulate this brain networks in patients with PD. The overall objective is to develop a unified theory of basal ganglia thalamocortical (BGTC) circuit dynamics that accounts for disease symptomatology, movement, and their inter-relationship. The underlying hypothesis, is that the rigidity and bradykinesia of PD are fundamentally related to excessive functional coupling across nodes in the BGTC motor circuit impeding effective information flow. In this research, the investigator will take advantage of the unique opportunity provided by awake deep brain stimulation surgery to learn more about how the brain functions in a diseased state and how deep brain stimulation changes these networks to make movement more normal. The investigator will simultaneously assess cortical and subcortical electrophysiology in relation to clinical symptoms and behavioral measures and in response to deep brain stimulation, cortical stimulation, and pharmacologic therapy in patients undergoing Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS) implantation surgery.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Sahil.Chilukuri@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Diagnosis of Parkinson's disease or Essential Tremor who have been recommended to undergo deep brain stimulation for management of their movement disorder
• Preoperative MRI without evidence of cortical or subdural adhesions or vascular abnormalities
• Willingness and ability to cooperate during conscious operative procedure for up to 40 minutes
• Patients with recent use (within one week) of anticoagulant or antiplatelet agents
• Neurocognitive testing indicating amnestic cognitive deficits
Aging and Disease Course: Contributions to Lifespan Neurobiology of Schizophrenia
The 2020 NIMH Strategic Plan for Research calls for investigations targeting neurobiology of mental illness across the lifespan. Growing evidence suggests that lifespan neurobiology of schizophrenia (SZ) incorporates two distinct dimensions: aging and disease course. However, their clinical correlates, associated biomarker trajectories, and implications for treatment are unknown. This study will investigate differential aspects of SZ neurobiology captured by aging and disease course, in order to develop specific biomarkers which may offer actionable targets for SZ stage-dependent intervention. The study is predicated on a novel mechanistic Model of SZ Trajectories across the Adult Lifespan, positing distinct biological fingerprints within the anterior limbic system for aging and disease course in SZ: (1) alterations in the circuit's function and structure that occur earlier in the lifespan and are larger in magnitude than the alterations expected with normal aging (accelerated aging dimension); and (2) regionally-specific anterior limbic "hyperactivity" in early SZ, with a subsequent transformation into "hypoactivity" in advanced SZ (disease course dimension). In a sample of SZ and matched healthy controls (n=168, 84/group) aged 18-75 years the investigators will ascertain a broad panel of biomarkers [via multimodal brain imaging: optimized 1H-MRS, high-resolution task-based fMRI, perfusion (Vascular Space Occupancy) and structural MRI], along with comprehensive cognitive and clinical assessments. All measures will be acquired at baseline and repeated at 2-year longitudinal follow-up. Using cutting-edge computational approaches, the study will examine (i) effects of aging and SZ course on anterior limbic system biomarkers; (ii) lifespan trajectories for different biomarkers; (iii) patterns of limbic system biomarkers in age- and SZ course-based subgroups (e.g., Younger vs. Older, Early-Course vs. Advanced SZ), as well as in data-driven subgroups (e.g., those with vs. without accelerated aging profiles); and (iv) associations between biomarkers and cognitive and clinical outcomes. This research will advance the field by providing novel biomarkers that capture unique neurobiological contributions of aging and disease course in SZ, and will motivate future studies on SZ mechanisms across the lifespan and development of precision treatments.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Monserrat.Feria-Vargas@UTSouthwestern.edu
• 18-65 years of age (SZ); 18-75 years of age (CON)
• Women and men
• All races and ethnicities
• Psychiatric diagnoses: Patient participants (SZ): Meet DSM-5 criteria for schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder Healthy control participants (CON): No personal history of lifetime psychiatric disorders, or a family history of psychotic disorders in 1st-or 2nd- degree relatives
• Able to read, speak, and understand English
• Able and willing to provide written informed consent; and willing to commit to the study protocol, including 2-year longitudinal follow-up
• Neurological or medical disorder that may affect brain function (history of stroke, head injury with a loss of consciousness >10 min, seizure disorder, AIDS, poorly controlled hypertension, poorly controlled diabetes, decompensated lung disease, etc.)
• Co-morbid DSM-5 diagnosis of drug/alcohol use disorder in prior 3 months
• Current treatment with benzodiazepine or non-benzodiazepine sedatives/hypnotics, and/or anticonvulsants
• Presence of ferromagnetic objects in body
• Weight or body size exceeding MRI scanner capacity [>300 lbs]
• Claustrophobia in MRI scanner
• Pregnant women
• Breastfeeding women (VASO scan will not be administered. All other imaging modalities are safe to administer.)
• Impaired kidney function: Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) < 30 ml/min/1.73m2 (VASO scan will not be administered due to an association between Gadolinium-based MR contrast use and Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis in individuals with severely impaired renal function. All other imaging modalities are safe to administer.)
• History of hypersensitivity to any MRI contrast agent (VASO scan will not be administered. All other imaging modalities are safe to administer.)
Global Linerixibat Itch Study of Efficacy and Safety in Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC) (GLISTEN)
This is a 2-part study in PBC participants with cholestatic pruritus and will evaluate the efficacy, safety and impact on health-related quality of life of linerixibat compared with placebo.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Uchenna.Agwunobi@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Male and female participants must be between 18 to 80 years of age inclusive, at the time of signing the informed consent.
• Participants who have documented PBC.
• Participants who have moderate to severe itch.
• Symptoms suggestive of active coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) infection whilst symptoms persist or known COVID-19 positive contacts within the past 14 days should be excluded for at least 14 days from the exposure.
• Total bilirubin >2.0 times Upper Limit of Normal (ULN) using the average of two Baseline measures.
• Screening Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) > 6 times ULN in a single Baseline measure or ALT > 5 times ULN using the average of two Baseline measures.
• Screening estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) <30 milliliter per minute per
• 73 square meter (mL/min/1.73m^2).
• History or presence of hepatic decompensation (e.g., variceal bleeding, hepatic encephalopathy or ascites).
• Presence of actively replicating viral hepatitis B or C (HBV, HCV) infection, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), alcoholic liver disease and/or confirmed hepatocellular carcinoma or biliary cancer.
• Current clinically significant diarrhea or active inflammatory ileal disease according to Investigator´s clinical judgment.
• Current symptomatic cholelithiasis or cholecystitis.
• Current diagnosis of primary skin disorders with itch symptoms (e.g., atopic dermatitis, psoriasis).
• Primary sleep disorders such as but are not limited to sleep apnea, narcolepsy, hypersomnia.
• Current/previous diagnosis of colorectal cancer.
• Initiation, discontinuation or change in dose of ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA), bezafibrate or fenofibrate in the 8 weeks prior to Screening.
• Use of obeticholic acid: within 8 weeks prior to Screening. (Participants may not initiate or restart during the study).
• Initiation, discontinuation, or change in dose of any of the following in the 8 weeks prior to Screening: bile acid binding resins, rifampicin, naltrexone, naloxone, nalfurafine, pregabalin, gabapentin, sertraline or other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRIs), antihistamines used for the treatment of itching.
• Administration of any other human ileal bile acid transporter (IBAT) inhibitor in the 12 weeks prior to screening.
• Any planned procedures intended to treat cholestatic pruritus such as nasobiliary drainage or ultraviolet light therapy from Screening and throughout the study.
• History of sensitivity or intolerance to the study treatment.