Search Results
Elucidating the Neurocircuitry of Irritability With High-Field Neuroimaging to Identify Novel Therapeutic Targets (UNIKET)
The study is investigating dysfunctions in neurocircuitry in regards to irritability with healthy controls (HC) and individuals with Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) by performing MRIs. The MDD group will also be randomized to receive ketamine or midazolam to investigate changes post-treatment in neurocircuitry with regards to irritability.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Ann.House@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Male or female subjects, 18-65 years of age and body weight less than or equal to 120 kg on baseline visit.
• Participants must have a level of understanding of the English language sufficient to agree to all tests and examinations required by the study and must be able to participate fully in the informed consent process.
• For Healthy Controls: Subjects must be free of any lifetime psychiatric condition based on the Mini-International Neuropsychiatric Interview (MINI). For MDD: Subjects must meet Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) criteria for current unipolar depression [major depressive disorder (MDD) or persistent depressive disorder (PDD) in a current major depressive episode (MDE)] based on MINI.
• A woman of childbearing potential who is sexually active with a male must agree to use an acceptable method of contraception [defined as either one highly effective (permanent sterilization, intrauterine device or hormonal implant) or two other forms of contraception (such as oral contraceptive pill and condom)] to avoid pregnancy throughout the study. Throughout the study and for 90 days (one spermatogenesis cycle) after receiving the last dose of study drug (ketamine/midazolam) man who is sexually active with a woman of childbearing potential must use an acceptable method of contraception (described above) with his female partner and must agree not to donate sperm.
• Subjects must either be free of psychotropic medications (including antidepressants, antipsychotics, benzodiazepines, mood stabilizers, sedative/hypnotics, dopamine agonists, stimulants, buspirone, and triptans) and certain anticonvulsants (topiramate and levetiracetam) or be stable on these medications for four weeks prior to the baseline visit [first magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan].
• Subjects with MDD should be willing to participate in neuroimaging scans before and after infusions, and be willing to undergo infusions with study drug.
• Lifetime diagnosis of schizophrenia or any psychotic disorder, bipolar disorder, pervasive developmental disorder or intellectual development disorder.
• Current diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder, anorexia nervosa or bulimia. Comorbid anxiety, stress and trauma-related disorders are permitted as long as unipolar depression is the primary diagnosis.
• Diagnosis of a moderate or severe substance use disorder within the past 6 months per MINI; all subjects must have a negative urine toxicology test on the day of the MRI, prior to the scan.
• Female subjects who are pregnant, nursing, for may become pregnant. Women of childbearing potential must have a negative urine pregnancy test on the day of the fMRI, prior to scan, and on days of study drug infusion, prior to infusion.
• Any unstable medical illnesses including hepatic, renal, gastroenterologic, respiratory, cardiovascular (including ischemic heart disease), endocrinologic, immunologic, or hematologic disease.
• Inadequately treated obstructive sleep apnea (STOP-Bang score of 5-8 if untreated, if using positive airway pressure device then past-month apnea hypopnea index ≥ 15 per hour representing moderate or higher severity).
• Presence of a significant neurological disease such as Parkinson's disease, primary or secondary seizure disorders, intracranial tumors, or severe head trauma.
• Presence of neurocognitive or dementing disorders.
• Clinically significant abnormalities of laboratories, physical examination (including unstable hypertension - systolic blood pressure >170, diastolic blood pressure >100), or electrocardiogram at screening visit.
• Subjects judged to be at serious and imminent suicidal or homicidal risk by the PI or another study-affiliated psychiatrist.
• Any contraindications to MRI, including pacemakers or metallic objects in the body.
• Any claustrophobia or other conditions which may result in inability to lie still in the MRI scanner for 1 hour or more.
• Allergy to ketamine or midazolam in subjects with MDD.
• Must not be on any prohibited concomitant medication.
A Comparison of TULSA Procedure vs. Radical Prostatectomy in Participants With Localized Prostate Cancer (CAPTAIN)
Men with localized, intermediate risk prostate cancer will be randomized to undergo either radical prostatectomy or the TULSA procedure, with a follow-up of 10 years in this multi-centered randomized control trial. This study will determine whether the TULSA procedure is as effective and more safe compared to radical prostatectomy.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Male
• Age 40 to 80 years, with >10 years life expectancy
• Biopsy-confirmed, NCCN (favorable and unfavourable) intermediate-risk prostate acquired within last 12 months
• Stage ≤cT2c, N0, M0
• ISUP Grade Group 2 or 3 disease on TRUS-guided biopsy or in-bore biopsy
• PSA ≤20ng/mL within last 3 months
• Treatment-naïve
• Planned ablation volume is < 3 cm axial radius from urethra on mpMRI acquired within last 6 months
• Inability to undergo MRI or general anesthesia
• Suspected tumor is > 30 mm from the prostatic urethra
• Prostate calcifications is > 3 mm in maximum extent obstructing ablation of tumor
• Unresolved urinary tract infection or prostatitis
• History of proctitis, bladder stones, hematuria, history of acute urinary retention, severe neurogenic bladder
• Artificial urinary sphincter, penile implant, or intraprostatic implant
• Patients who are otherwise not deemed candidates for radical prostatectomy
• Inability or unwillingness to provide informed consent
• History of anal or rectal fibrosis or stenosis, or urethral stenosis, or other abnormality challenging insertion of devices
A Randomized, Controlled Trial to Evaluate the Safety and Effectiveness of the Route 92 Medical Reperfusion System (SUMMIT MAX)
The SUMMIT MAX study is a prospective, randomized, controlled, interventional clinical trial to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of the Route 92 Medical MonoPoint® Reperfusion System for aspiration thrombectomy in acute ischemic stroke patients.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Vida.Rhodes@UTSouthwestern.edu
• The consent process has been completed and documented according to applicable country regulations and as approved by the IRB / Ethics Committee
• Age >=18 years and <= 85
• Patient presenting with clinical signs consistent with an acute ischemic stroke
• Baseline National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) score >= 6
• Pre-stroke modified Rankin Score (mRS) <= 1
• Baseline ASPECTS >= 6
• Endovascular treatment initiated (defined as time of first angiogram) within 8 hours from time last known well
• If indicated, thrombolytic therapy shall be initiated per clinical guidelines. If eligible for thrombolytic therapy, subjects should be treated as soon as possible and lytic use should not be delayed regardless of potential eligibility for mechanical neurothrombectomy.
• The patient is indicated for aspiration neurothrombectomy with the Route 92 Medical Reperfusion System as determined by the Investigator
• Angiographic confirmation of a large vessel occlusion of the M1 segment of the middle cerebral artery or distal internal carotid artery
• Known pregnancy or breast feeding
• In the Investigator's opinion, any known comorbidity (including COVID-19 positivity) that may complicate treatment or prevent improvement or follow-up
• Known serious, advanced, or terminal illness with anticipated life expectancy < 12 months
• Known history of severe allergy to contrast medium
• Known to have suffered a stroke in the past 90 days
• Known connective tissue disorder affecting the arteries (e.g. Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome)
• Any known previous cerebral hemorrhagic event
• Any known pre-existing coagulation deficiency
• Known hemorrhagic diathesis, coagulation factor deficiency, or oral anticoagulant therapy with INR >3.0
• Known baseline platelet count <50,000/µL
• Known baseline blood glucose of <50 mg/dL or >400 mg/dL
• Known to be participating in another study involving an investigational device or drug
• Clinical symptoms suggestive of bilateral stroke or stroke in multiple territories.
• Computed Tomography (CT) or Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) evidence of recent/ fresh cerebral hemorrhage (the presence of microbleeds is allowed)
• Baseline CT or MRI showing intracranial tumor (except small meningioma <= 2cm) or significant mass effect with midline shift due to the tumor
• Presumed septic thrombus, or suspicion of bacterial endocarditis
• Inability to access the cerebral vasculature in the opinion of the neurointerventional team
• Unlikely to be available for a 90-day follow-up (e.g. no fixed home address)
• Evidence of carotid dissection
• Evidence of cervical carotid artery high-grade stenosis or occlusion (i.e., tandem occlusion)
• Active or recent history of drug abuse (within last 6 months)
• Known history or presence of aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation (AVM) in the territory of the target lesion
• For all patients, severe sustained hypertension with SBP >200 and/or DBP >120; for patients treated with IV tPA, sustained hypertension despite treatment with SBP >185 and/or DBP >110
• Treatment with heparin within 48 hours with a partial thromboplastic time more than two times the laboratory normal
• Renal failure with serum creatinine >3.0 or Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) <30
• Ongoing seizure due to stroke
• Evidence of active systemic infection
• Known cancer with metastases
• Cervical carotid stenosis requiring balloon angioplasty or stenting at the time of the procedure
• Angiographic evidence of multiple cerebrovascular occlusions (e.g., bilateral anterior circulation, anterior/posterior circulation)
• Angiographic evidence of known or suspected underlying intracranial vasculopathy or atherosclerotic lesions responsible for the target occlusion
• Angiographic evidence or suspicion of aortic dissection
A Study of Intravesical Enfortumab Vedotin For Treatment of Patients With Non-muscle Invasive Bladder Cancer (NMIBC)
This study will test a drug called enfortumab vedotin in participants with a type of bladder cancer called non-muscle invasive bladder cancer (NMIBC). This study will also evaluate what the side effects are and if the drug works to treat NMIBC. A side effect is anything a drug does to your body besides treating your disease. In this study enfortumab vedotin will be put into the bladder using a catheter. A catheter is a thin tube that can be put into your bladder.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Histologically confirmed, non-muscle invasive urothelial carcinoma with carcinoma in situ (CIS) (with or without papillary disease)
• Predominant histologic component (>50 percent) must be urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma
• Participants must have high-risk Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) - unresponsive disease, defined as (where adequate BCG therapy is defined as one of the following: 5 of 6 doses of an initial induction course + at least 2 of 3 doses maintenance therapy or 5 of 6 doses of an initial induction course + at least 2 of 6 doses of a second induction course):
• Persistent or recurrent CIS alone or with recurrent Ta/T1 (noninvasive papillary disease/tumor invades the subepithelial connective tissue) disease within 12 months of completion of adequate BCG therapy.
• Recurrent high-grade Ta/T1 disease within 6 months of completion of adequate BCG therapy, or
• T1 high-grade disease at the first evaluation following an induction BCG course (at least 5 or 6 doses)
• Participant must be ineligible for or refusing a radical cystectomy
• All visible papillary Ta/T1 tumors must be completely resected within 60 days prior to enrollment.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group Performance Status score of 0, 1, or 2.
• Current or prior history of muscle-invasive urothelial carcinoma or metastatic disease.
• Nodal or metastatic disease as noted on computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) within 3 months prior to study treatment
• Concomitant upper tract urothelial carcinoma as noted on CT or MRI urogram performed within 3 months prior to study treatment
• Prior or concomitant urothelial carcinoma of the prostatic urethra within 6 months prior to study treatment
• Participants with tumor-related hydronephrosis
• Participant has received other systemic anticancer therapy including chemotherapy, biologic therapy, immunotherapy, targeted therapy, endocrine therapy, and/or investigational agent within 4 weeks or intravesical therapy within 6 weeks of first dose of study treatment
• Participant has had any prior radiation to the bladder for urothelial cancer
Efficacy of an m-Health Cardiac Rehabilitation Program in Heart Failure With Preserved Ejection Fraction
Heart failure (HF) portends substantial morbidity, mortality, and health care costs in the United States and the prevalence of heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) relative to HF with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) has been increasing. HFpEF is associated with a high morbidity and mortality burden and is projected to be the predominant subtype of HF in the near future. While multiple therapies have proven efficacious for patients with HFrEF, no pharmacological agents have demonstrably been shown to improve outcomes in HFpEF, highlighting the need for novel approaches to HFpEF treatment. Exercise intolerance (EI) is the cardinal symptom of HFpEF, which manifests as dyspnea and fatigue. EI leads to functional deconditioning and reduced quality of life (QOL), both of which elevate risk of death and hospitalization in patients with HFpEF. Supervised exercised training is associated with improvements in exercise capacity and QOL in adults with HFpEF. However, supervised exercise has not been widely utilized for the treatment of HFpEF due to logistical and fiscal barriers. Home-based exercise using an m-Health platform is an alternative to supervised exercise that can deliver clinician prescribed exercise interventions and wellness education though monitoring and care coordination. The goal of this study is to evaluate the feasibility and efficacy of a patient specific progressive home-based cardiac rehabilitation program leveraging the technology of the m-Health program in improving functional status, exercise capacity, and QOL in patients with HFpEF.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Vinayak.Subramanian@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Adults age> 18 years
• HFpEF with left ventricular ejection fraction >50%
• Clinically stable and no hospitalization in last 4 weeks
• Estimated glomerular filtration rate > 45 mL/min/1.73 m2 as measured by the simplified MDRD formula
• Stable diuretic regimen Exclusion criteria:
• History of cancer or end stage lung disease
• Estimated glomerular filtration rate < 45 mL/min/1.73 m2 as measured by the simplified MDRD formula
• Recent HF decompensation
• Inability to do exercise test
• Inability to provide written informed consent
• History of falls
A Study for Oral SY-2101 for Participants With Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia
SY-2101 is being studied as a treatment for participants with a type of leukemia called acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL). SY-2101 is an oral formulation of a drug called arsenic trioxide (ATO). ATO is already used to treat APL in a formulation that is given as an intravenous (IV) infusion (through a needle in the arm). SY-2101 is a formulation of ATO that is taken orally (by mouth). This trial will include participants with APL in remission, who are receiving standard of care (SOC) treatment with all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA) and IV ATO, during the consolidation phase of chemotherapy or within the past 6 months. The participants in this trial will receive continued treatment with ATO and ATRA to help keep their cancer from coming back. There will be some weeks when participants receive IV ATO and others when they receive SY-2101 (ATO taken orally). Participants with high-risk APL may be eligible for part 1 or 4 of the study for the 6 months following completion of their standard of care ATRA and ATO treatment.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Participants must have a diagnosis of APL characterized by the presence of the t(15;17) translocation or PML/RARA gene expression via reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), or cytogenetics. Participants with low-risk APL may be eligible for all parts of this study; participants with high-risk APL are only eligible for the single-dose modules if they have completed a treatment regimen that included ATO within 6 months prior to the Screening Visit.
• Participants must have received ATO plus ATRA induction therapy and must have received or be eligible and planning to receive consolidation therapy with ATO plus ATRA in alignment with National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) guidelines for low-risk APL prior to their enrollment in the study; or participants must have completed a treatment regimen that included ATO within 6 months prior to the Screening Visit.
• Participants must be able to tolerate full dose ATO per NCCN guidelines.
• Participants must be in morphological complete remission (CR) at the end of induction.
• Participants must have a serum or high-sensitivity urine pregnancy test (for females of childbearing potential) that is negative at the Screening Visit and immediately prior to initiation of study treatment (first dose of study drug). Key
• Participants who have demonstrated relapse and therefore are not eligible for further consolidation.
• Participants currently receiving treatment for a non-APL malignancy (not including basal cell carcinoma, non-melanoma skin cancer, cervical carcinoma in situ, or localized prostate cancer treated with hormone therapy). Participants with history of other cancers should be free of disease for at least 2 years prior to the Screening Visit.
• Participants with an active, life-threatening, or clinically-significant uncontrolled systemic infection requiring hospitalization.
• Immunocompromised participants with increased risk of opportunistic infections, including known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive participants with cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) counts ≤350 cells/millimeters (mm^3) or history of opportunistic infection in the last 12 months.
• Participants with a known active or chronic hepatitis B or active hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection. Participants with a history of HCV infection who have completed curative therapy for HCV at least 12 weeks before the Screening Visit and have a documented undetectable viral load at the Screening Visit are eligible for enrollment.
• Participants who have not adequately recovered from a major surgery within 4 weeks of starting study drug administration.
• Participants who received any other investigational agents within 4 weeks of the Screening Visit or <5 half-lives since completion of previous investigational therapy have elapsed, whichever is shorter.
• Participants who have a hypersensitivity to arsenic.
• Participants who have experienced the following Grade ≥3 non-hematologic toxicities associated with ATO administration: QT prolongation, hepatotoxicity, neurotoxicity, cardiac function abnormalities. Participants who experienced other severe and life-threatening clinically-significant ATO-related AEs that are considered, in the judgement of the investigator, to increase participant risk with continued ATO treatment are also excluded. Other inclusion/exclusion criteria may apply.
A Study to Compare Early Use of Vinorelbine and Maintenance Therapy for Patients With High Risk Rhabdomyosarcoma
This phase III trial compares the safety and effect of adding vinorelbine to vincristine, dactinomycin, and cyclophosphamide (VAC) for the treatment of patients with high risk rhabdomyosarcoma (RMS). High risk refers to cancer that is likely to recur (come back) after treatment or spread to other parts of the body. This study will also examine if adding maintenance therapy after VAC therapy, with or without vinorelbine, will help get rid of the cancer and/or lower the chance that the cancer comes back. Vinorelbine and vincristine are in a class of medications called vinca alkaloids. They work by stopping cancer cells from growing and dividing and may kill them. Dactinomycin is a type of antibiotic that is only used in cancer chemotherapy. It works by damaging the cell's deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and may kill cancer cells. Cyclophosphamide is in a class of medications called alkylating agents. It works by damaging the cell's DNA and may kill cancer cells. It may also lower the body's immune response. Vinorelbine, vincristine, dactinomycin and cyclophosphamide are chemotherapy medications that work in different ways to stop the growth of cancer cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. This trial may have the potential to eliminate rhabdomyosarcoma for a long time or for the rest of patient's life.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Patients must be =< 50 years of age at the time of enrollment
• Patients with newly diagnosed RMS of any subtype, except adult-type pleomorphic, based upon institutional histopathologic classification are eligible to enroll on the study based upon stage, group, and age, as below. FOXO1 fusion status must be determined by week 4 (day 28) of therapy. RMS types included under embryonal RMS (ERMS) include those classified in the 1995 International Classification of Rhabdomyosarcoma (ICR) as ERMS (classic, spindle cell, and botryoid variants), which are reclassified in the 2020 World Health Organization (WHO) Classification as ERMS (classic, dense and botryoid variants) and spindle cell/sclerosing RMS (encompassing the historical spindle cell ERMS variant and the newly recognized sclerosing RMS variant). Classification of alveolar RMS (ARMS) in the 2020 WHO Classification is the same as in the ICR and includes classic and solid variants
• ERMS
• Stage 4, group IV, >= 10 years of age
• ARMS
• Stage 4, group IV Patients will be eligible to remain on protocol therapy based upon stage, group, and age
• Bone marrow metastatic disease is based on morphologic evidence of RMS based on hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stains. In the absence of morphologic evidence of marrow involvement on H&E, patients with bone marrow involvement detected ONLY by flow cytometry, reverse transcriptase (RT)-polymerase chain reaction (PCR), fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), or immunohistochemistry will NOT be considered to have clinical bone marrow involvement for the purposes of this study
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment):
• Age; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL)
• 1 month to < 6 months; 0.4 mg/dL (male); 0.4 mg/dL (female)
• 6 months to < 1 year; 0.5 mg/dL (male); 0.5 mg/dL (female)
• 1 to < 2 years; 0.6 mg/dL (male); 0.6 mg/dL (female)
• 2 to < 6 years; 0.8 mg/dL (male); 0.8 mg/dL (female)
• 6 to < 10 years; 1 mg/dL (male); 1 mg/dL (female)
• 10 to < 13 years; 1.2 mg/dL (male); 1.2 mg/dL (female)
• 13 to < 16 years; 1.5 mg/dL (male); 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• >= 16 years; 1.7 mg/dL (male); 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• If there is evidence of biliary obstruction by tumor, then total bilirubin must be < 3 x ULN for age
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
• Patients with evidence of uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• RMS that is considered a second malignancy and previous cancer(s) that were treated with chemotherapy and/or radiation. Surgical resection alone of previous cancer(s) is allowed
• Patients with central nervous system involvement of RMS as defined below:
• Malignant cells detected in cerebrospinal fluid
• Intra-parenchymal brain metastasis separate and distinct from primary tumor (i.e., direct extension from parameningeal primary tumors is allowed).
• Diffuse leptomeningeal disease
• Patients who have received any chemotherapy (excluding steroids) and/or radiation therapy for RMS prior to enrollment.
• Note: the following exception:
• Patients requiring emergency radiation therapy for RMS. These patients are eligible, provided they are consented to ARST2031 prior to administration of radiation
• Note: Patients who have received or are receiving chemotherapy or radiation for non-malignant conditions (e.g. autoimmune diseases) are eligible. Patients must discontinue chemotherapy for non-malignant conditions prior to starting protocol therapy
• Vincristine and vinorelbine are sensitive substrates of CYP450 3A4 isozyme. Patients must not have received drugs that are moderate to strong CYP3A4 inhibitors and inducers within 7 days prior to study enrollment
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation
[18F]PT2385 PET/CT in Patients With Renal Cell Carcinoma
This is an exploratory study to assess [18F]PT2385 Positron Emission Tomography/Computed Tomography (PET/CT) in patients with renal cell carcinoma (RCC). This is an open-label, nontherapeutic trial. The main objective is to correlate hypoxia-inducible factor-2alpha (HIF2α) levels as determined by an investigational [18F]PT2385 PET/CT scan with the levels on subsequently obtained tissue by HIF2α immunohistochemistry (IHC). There will be three cohorts. The first pre-surgical cohort will have [18F]PT2385 PET/CT prior to nephrectomy. The uptake and retention on Positron Emission Tomography (PET), quantified as standardized uptake value (SUV) max and mean, abbreviated SUV henceforth will be correlated with HIF2α levels by IHC on the primary tumor. The second cohort will comprise patients with metastatic clear cell renal carcinoma (ccRCC). SUV will be correlated with HIF2α levels measured by IHC on a biopsy sample from a metastasis. Both low- and high-avidity sites will be biopsied and tracer uptake correlated with HIF2α IHC. A third cohort will include patients with Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome and any of the following disease manifestations - RCC, central nervous system (CNS) hemangioblastoma, and/or pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor(s). Investigational imaging will evaluate HIF2α expression within a tumor type and across different tumor types. A biopsy is encouraged but not mandatory for this cohort.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent that includes study interventions (PET/CT and, if cohort 2, mandatory biopsy).
• Ability to lie still for a 30- to 60-minute PET/CT scan.
• One of the following:
• Cohort 1. Patients with suspected RCC planned for surgery.
• Cohort 2. Patients with metastatic ccRCC or VHL syndrome and RCC. Biopsy is required (planned resection for treatment reasons of a metastatic site is acceptable in lieu of the biopsy).
• Cohort 3. Patients with VHL syndrome with RCC, CNS hemangioblastoma, and/or pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor(s) planning to start belzutifan.
• Patients with liver dysfunction will be considered "patients of special interest," and enrollment is allowed with or without criteria outlined for Cohorts 1-3. Liver dysfunction is defined clinically and is typically supported by abnormalities in imaging or laboratory studies (alanine / aspartate amino-transferase, bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, or international normalized range (INR) for prothrombin time).
• Women of child-bearing potential must agree to undergo and have documented a negative pregnancy test on the day of [18F]PT2385 administration. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a tubal ligation, or celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months).
• Uncontrolled severe and irreversible intercurrent illness or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements.
• Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.
• Claustrophobia or other contraindications to PET/CT.
• Subjects must not weigh more than the maximum weight limit for the table for the PET/CT scanner where the study is being performed (>200 kilograms or 440 pounds).
• For cohort 2 patients, lack of suitable sites for mandatory biopsy. For example, patients with metastatic disease restricted to the lungs that would require percutaneous biopsies with associated risk of bleeding and pneumothorax will be excluded.
Clinical Study of Cannabidiol in Children, Adolescents, and Young Adults With Fragile X Syndrome (RECONNECT)
This is a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, multiple-center study, to assess the efficacy and safety of Cannabidiol administered as ZYN002 for the treatment of children, adolescent, and young adult patients with Fragile X Syndrome (FXS). Eligible participants will participate in up to an 18-week treatment period, where all participants will receive placebo or active study drug. Patients ages 3 to < 23 years will be eligible to participate.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Alyssa.Boudreau@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Male or female children and adolescents aged 3 to < 23 years, at the time of Screening.
• Patient resides with caregiver who will continue to provide consistent care throughout the study.
• Judged by the Investigator to be in generally good health at Screening based upon the results of medical history, physical exam, 12-lead ECG and clinical laboratory test results. -Laboratory results outside the reference range must be documented as not clinically significant by both the Investigator and Sponsor.
• Participants must have a diagnosis of FXS through molecular documentation of full mutation of the FMR1 gene documented through genetic testing at Screening.
• Patients with a history of seizure disorders must currently be receiving treatment with a stable regimen of no more than two anti-seizure medications (ASMs) for the four weeks preceding study Screening; or must be seizure-free for one year if not currently receiving ASMs.
• Patients taking psychoactive medication(s) should be on a stable regimen of not more than three such medications for at least fours weeks preceding Screening and must maintain that regimen throughout the study. Psychoactive medications include (but are not limited to) antipsychotics, antidepressants, anxiolytics, attention-deficit / hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) medications, and medications for sleep.
• If patients are receiving non-pharmacological, behavioral and/or dietary interventions, they must be stable and have been doing so for three months prior to screening.
• Patients have a body mass index between 12-30 kg/m2 (inclusive).
• Females of childbearing potential must have a negative serum pregnancy test at the Screening Visit and a negative serum or urine pregnancy test at all designated visits.
• Patients and parents/caregivers must be adequately informed of the nature and risks of the study and given written informed consent prior to Screening.
• Patients and parents/caregivers agree to abide by all study restrictions and comply with all study procedures, and in the Investigator's opinion, are reliable and willing and able to comply with all protocol requirements and procedures.
• Females who are pregnant, nursing or planning a pregnancy; females of childbearing potential and male patients with a partner of childbearing potential who are unwilling or unable to use an acceptable method of contraception as outlined below for the duration of therapy and for three months after the last dose of study medication. Standard acceptable methods of contraception include abstinence (defined as refraining from heterosexual intercourse from screening to three months after the last dose of study medication) or the use of a highly effective method of contraception, including hormonal contraception, diaphragm, cervical cap, vaginal sponge, condom, spermicide, vasectomy, or intrauterine device. The reliability of sexual abstinence needs to be evaluated in relation to the duration of the clinical trial and the preferred and usual lifestyle of the subject. Periodic abstinence (calendar, symptothermal, post-ovulation methods) is not an acceptable method of contraception.
• Patient has transitioned to independent living or living in a residential facility such as a university setting or congregate care.
• History of significant allergic condition, significant drug-related hypersensitivity, or allergic reaction to any compound or chemical class related to ZYN002 or its excipients.
• Exposure to any investigational drug or device less than or equal to 30 days prior to Screening or at any time during the study.
• Alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or total bilirubin levels greater than or equal to 2 times the upper limit of normal or alkaline phosphatase levels greater than or equal to 3 times the upper limit of normal.
• Use of cannabis or any THC or CBD-containing product within 3 months of Screening Visit or during the study (aside from ZYN002).
• Patient has a positive drug screen, including ethanol, cocaine, THC, barbiturates, amphetamines (unless prescribed), benzodiazepines (except midazolam or comparable administered for blood draws and ECG collection), and opiates.
• Patient is using the following AEDs (medications for the treatment of seizures and/ or epilepsy): clobazam, phenobarbital, ethosuximide, felbamate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, or vigabatrin.
• Patient is using a strong inhibitor/inducer of CYP3A4 or sensitive substrate of CYP3A4 including but not limited to the following medications: midazolam (except single doses administered for the purposes of obtaining blood samples and ECG's), oral ketoconazole, fluconazole, nefazadone, rifampin, alfentanil, alfuzosin, amiodarone, cyclosporine, dasatinib, docetaxol, eplerenone, ergotamine, everolimus, fentanyl, halofantrine, irinotecan, lapatinib, levomethadyl, lumefantrine, nilotinib, pimozide, quinidine, ranolazine, sirolimus, tacrolimus, temsirolimus, toremifene, tretinioin, vincristine, vinorelbine, St. John's Wort, and grapefruit Juice/products.
• Patients may not be taking any benzodiazepines (except single doses administered for the purposes of obtaining blood samples and ECGs) at screening or throughout the study.
• Patient is expected to initiate or change pharmacologic or non-pharmacologic interventions during the course of the study.
• Patient has an advanced, severe, or unstable disease that may interfere with the study outcome evaluations.
• Patient has acute or progressive neurological disease, psychosis, schizophrenia or any other psychiatric disorder or severe mental abnormalities (other than FXS) that are likely to require changes in drug therapy or interfere with the study objectives or ability to adhere to protocol requirements.
• Patient has a positive result for the presence of HBsAg, HCV, or HIV antibodies.
• Patient has known history of cardiovascular disease, advanced arteriosclerosis, structural cardiac abnormality, cardiomyopathy, serious heart rhythm abnormalities, coronary artery disease, cardiac conduction problems, exercise-related cardiac events including syncope and pre-syncope, risk factors for Torsades de pointes (TdP) (e.g., heart failure, hypokalemia, family history of Long QT Syndrome), or other serious cardiac problems.
• Any clinically significant condition or abnormal findings at the Screening Visit that would, in the opinion of the Investigator, preclude study participation or interfere with the evaluation of the study medication.
• Any skin disease or condition including eczema, psoriasis, melanoma, acne, contact dermatitis, scarring, imperfections, lesions, tattoos, or discoloration that may affect treatment application, application site assessments or absorption of the trial drug.
• History of treatment for, or evidence of, drug abuse within the past year.
• Previous participation in a ZYN002 study (with the exception of patients who were screen failures in Study ZYN2-CL-016 and did not enter Study ZYN2-CL-017).
• Patient responds "yes" to Question 4 or 5 on the C-SSRS (Children) during Screening or at any time on study.
Pivotal Study of the NanoKnife System for the Ablation of Prostate Tissue (PRESERVE)
Pivotal study to evaluate the use of the NanoKnife System as a focal therapy option for prostate cancer patients. This study will assess the safety and effectiveness of the device when used to ablate prostate tissue in intermediate-risk prostate cancer patients.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Is greater than 50 years of age
• Has at least a 10-year life expectancy
• Has histologically confirmed organ-confined prostate cancer, clinical stage ≤ T2c
• Has a PSA ≤ 15 ng/mL or PSA density < 0.2 ng/mL2 if PSA is > 15 ng/mL
• Has Gleason score 3+4 or 4+3
• Has no evidence of extraprostatic extension by mpMRI
• Has no evidence of seminal vesicle invasion by mpMRI, and if suspected, confirmed by biopsy
• Physician is able to visualize prostate gland adequately on transrectal ultrasound imaging during enrollment evaluation
• Transperineal or transrectal targeted prostate biopsies of lesion, plus 10 core systematic biopsies to include adequate sampling of the peripheral zone correlating with an intermediate risk lesion in the area of the MR-visible lesion
• A visible lesion on mpMRI that is accessible to Irreversible Electroporation (IRE) treatment (Note: A non-MRI visible lesion detected via systematic standard biopsy will not be considered an exclusion criterion provided the non-MRI visible lesion is singularly located in the contralateral hemisphere of the prostate; is Gleason 6; and comprises no more than 6 mm linear extent of prostate-bearing tissue in a single core on standard biopsy)
• Has signed a written informed consent and in the judgment of the physician, the study is in the best interest of the subject
• Understands and accepts the obligation and is logistically able to present for all scheduled follow-up visits
• Has known hypersensitivity to pancuronium bromide, atricurium or cisatricurium
• Is unfit for anesthesia or has a contraindication for agents listed for paralysis
• Has an active urinary tract infection (UTI)
• Has a history of bladder neck contracture
• Is interested in future fertility
• Has a history (within 3 years) of inflammatory bowel disease
• Has a concurrent major debilitating illness
• Had active treatment for a malignancy within 3 years, including malignant melanoma, except for prostate cancer or other types of skin cancer
• Has any active implanted electronic device (e.g., pacemaker)
• Is unable to catheterize due to a urethral stricture disease
• Has had prior or current prostate cancer therapies:
• Biologic therapy for prostate cancer
• Chemotherapy for prostate cancer
• Hormonal therapy for prostate cancer within three months of procedure
• Radiotherapy for prostate cancer
• Surgery for prostate cancer
• Has had prior transurethral prostatectomy (TURP), stricture surgery, urethral stent or prostatic implants
• Has had prior major rectal surgery (except hemorrhoids)
• Is unfit for pelvic MRI scanning (e.g., severe claustrophobia, permanent cardiac pacemaker, metallic implants that are likely to contribute significant image artifacts, allergy or contraindication to gadolinium (to enhance MRI))
• Is actively bleeding, is anticoagulated or on blood thinning medications, or has a bleeding disorder
• Is a member of a vulnerable population such as prisoners, handicapped or mentally disabled persons, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons
• In the opinion of the treating physician, has a contraindication listed in the current NanoKnife System User Manual (section 2.3)
Metabolic Remodeling in Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH)
Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is a progressive disease in which clinically relevant symptoms present a few years after the onset in rise of pulmonary arterial pressure. Increased PA pressure presents an overload on the right ventricle (RV), with RV failure being a common cause of mortality in PAH. Current therapeutic targets help reduce vascular resistance and RV afterload, however, RV dysfunction may continue to progress. Therefore, the reason for RV failure in PAH cannot be contributed to altered vascular hemodynamics alone but may be related to metabolic alterations and failure of adaptive mechanisms in the RV. Providing a better understanding of metabolic remodeling in RV failure may permit the development of RV-targeted pharmacological agents to maintain RV function despite increased pulmonary vascular pressures. This study will evaluate how cardiac metabolism changes in response to pulmonary vasodilator therapy in patients with pulmonary arterial hypertension.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Clarissa.Osagie@UTSouthwestern.edu
• WHO group 1 PAH, characterized by mean pulmonary artery pressure ≥25 mmHg, PVR >3 Woods units, and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left ventricular end diastolic pressure ≤15 mmHg. Participants must be further classified as idiopathic PAH (IPAH) or connective tissue disease associated PAH (CTD-PAH).
• New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification I - III criteria of heart failure.
• Vasodilator therapy naïve, with the intent to initiate pulmonary vasodilator therapy.
• Age 18 - 75.
• English speaking and able to provide informed consent.
• Recent syncope.
• Baseline 6MWD < 400 feet or NYHA class IV heart failure.
• Metabolic disorders such as uncontrolled diabetes (A1c > 8%) that may alter cardiac metabolism.
• Baseline use of oral steroids.
• FEV1/FVC <60%
• Contraindications to MRI, including those noted on the UTSW MRI Screening Form such as implants contraindicated at 3T, pacemakers, Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillators (ICD), or significant claustrophobia.
• Weight >210 lbs (exceeds current IND weight-based dosing guidelines) 8 . Women who are pregnant, lactating or planning on becoming pregnant during the study.
• Not suitable for study participation due to other reasons at the discretion of the investigators
Olanzapine Versus Megestrol Acetate for the Treatment of Loss of Appetite Among Advanced Cancer Patients
This phase III trial compares the effects of olanzapine versus megestrol acetate in treating loss of appetite in patients with cancer that has spread to other places in the body (advanced). Olanzapine may stimulate and increase appetite. This study aims to find out if olanzapine is better than the usual approach (megestrol acetate) for stimulating appetite and preventing weight loss.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Women and men of reproductive potential should agree to use an appropriate method of birth control throughout their participation in this study due to the teratogenic potential of the therapy utilized in this trial. Appropriate methods of birth control include abstinence, oral contraceptives, implantable hormonal contraceptives or double barrier method (diaphragm plus condom)
• Diagnosis of advanced cancer
• Patient-reported 2-month weight loss of at least 5 pounds (2.3 kilograms) and/or physician-estimated caloric intake of less than 20 calories/kilogram of body weight per day
• The patient must perceive loss of appetite and/or weight as a problem; and have an appetite score of 4 or worse on the "Please rate your appetite…." question that requires a patient response on a 0-10 numeric rating scale
• Not receiving ongoing tube feedings or parenteral nutrition at the time of registration
• Not currently using systemic adrenal steroids (with the exception of short-term dexamethasone within 3 days of chemotherapy for control of chemotherapy side effects)
• No use of androgens, progesterone analogs, or other appetite stimulants within the past month
• Patient should not have poorly controlled hypertension or congestive heart failure at registration
• Patient should not have an obstruction of the alimentary canal, malabsorption, or intractable vomiting (defined as vomiting more than 3 times per day over the preceding week)
• Not currently using olanzapine for another medical condition or had previously used olanzapine for chronic nausea or for any pre-existing psychotic disorder
• Patient should not have had a previous blood clot at any time in the past
• No history of poorly controlled diabetes
• No symptomatic leptomeningeal disease or known brain metastases as these patients may have difficulty taking oral medications
• No history of hypersensitivity to olanzapine or megestrol acetate
• No COVID-19 infection in the past that, in the opinion of the treating physician, had left patients with compromised taste, which has not resolved at the time of registration
• Not pregnant and not nursing, because this study involves an investigational agent whose genotoxic, mutagenic and teratogenic effects on the developing fetus and newborn are unknown. Therefore, for women of childbearing potential only, a negative urine or serum pregnancy test done =< 14 days prior to registration is required
• Age >= 18 years
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0, 1 or 2
• Estimated life expectancy of 3 months or longer
• Serum creatinine =< 2.0 mg/dL
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 3 x upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Fasting glucose < 140 mg/dL
• Granulocytes > 1000/hpf
• No treatment with another antipsychotic agent, such as risperidone, quetiapine, clozapine, butyrophenone within 30 days of enrollment
• In order to complete the mandatory patient-completed measures, participants must be able to speak and/or read English or Spanish. Sites seeking to enroll Spanish-speaking patients should have access to Spanish speaking staff on site or through the use of a translation service to be able to conduct the informed consent discussion in Spanish, and to conduct the weekly phone calls
• Psychiatric illness which would prevent the patient from giving informed consent
• Medical condition such as uncontrolled infection (including human immunodeficiency virus [HIV]), uncontrolled diabetes mellitus or cardiac disease which, in the opinion of the treating physician, would make this protocol unreasonably hazardous for the patient
• Patients who cannot swallow oral formulations of the agents
• Patients with impaired decision-making capacity (such as with a diagnosis of dementia or memory loss) are not eligible for this study
• No presence of a hormone-sensitive tumor, such as breast, endometrial, or prostate cancer (this exclusion criterion is intended to circumvent any confounding antineoplastic effects of megestrol acetate)
Study to Evaluate the Efficacy and Safety of TT-00420 in Cholangiocarcinoma
This study is an open-label, multicenter study to evaluate the efficacy and safety of TT-00420 tablet in adult patients with advanced cholangiocarcinoma.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• ≥ 18 years of age, at the time of signing informed consent
• Histologically or cytologically documented advanced/metastatic or surgically unresectable cholangiocarcinoma who have received at least one line of prior systemic chemotherapy. Patients will be assigned to 1 of 4 cohorts:
• Cohort A1: FGFR2 fusions who have failed at least one previous treatment with an FGFR inhibitor
• Cohort A2: FGFR2 fusions who have previously responded on at least one previous treatment with an FGFR inhibitor
• Cohort B: other FGFR alterations, including FGFR2 mutations and FGFR1/3 alterations, including fusions
• Cohort C: negative for FGFR alterations (FGFR wild-type)
• At least one measurable lesion as defined by RECIST V1.1 criteria for solid tumors5
• Documentation of FGFR gene alteration status
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1
• Adequate organ function confirmed at screening and within 10 days of initiating treatment, as evidenced by:
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥ 1.5 x 10^9/L
• Hemoglobin (Hgb) ≥ 8 g/dl
• Platelets (plt) ≥ 75 x 10^9/L
• aspartate aminotransferase/serum glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase (AST/SGOT) and alanine aminotransferase/serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (ALT/SGPT) ≤
• 5 x Upper Limit of Normal (ULN) or ≤ 5.0 x ULN if liver metastases are present
• Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 x ULN
• Calculated creatine clearance ≥ 50 mL/min (Cockcroft Gault formula
• Negative pregnancy test within 72 hours before starting study treatment in all premenopausal women and women < 12 months after the onset of menopause
• Must agree to take sufficient contraceptive methods to avoid pregnancy (including male and female participants) during the study and until at least 6 months after ceasing study treatment
• Able to sign informed consent and comply with the protocol
• Women who are pregnant or lactating
• Women of child-bearing potential (WOCBP) who do not use adequate birth control
• Patients with untreated brain or central nervous system (CNS) metastases or brain/CNS metastases that have progressed (e.g. evidence of new or enlarging brain metastasis or new neurological symptoms attributable to brain/CNS metastases) Note: Patients with treated brain metastases that are off corticosteroids and have been clinically stable for 28 days are eligible for enrollment.
• Patients with a known concurrent malignancy that is progressing or requires active treatment. Exceptions include basal cell carcinoma of the skin, carcinoma in situ of the cervix or other noninvasive or indolent malignancy that has previously undergone potentially curative therapy.
• Patients with the following mood disorders as judged by the Investigator or a psychiatrist:
• Medically documented history of or active major depressive episode, bipolar disorder (I or II), obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia; a history of suicidal attempt or ideation, or homicidal ideation (immediate risk of doing harm to others)
• ≥ CTCAE grade 3 anxiety
• Impaired cardiac function or significant diseases, including but not limited to any of the following:
• left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) < 45% as determined by multigated acquisition (MUGA) scan or echocardiogram (ECHO)
• Congenital long QT syndrome
• QTcF ≥ 480 msec on screening ECG
• Unstable angina pectoris ≤ 3 months prior to starting study drug
• Acute myocardial infarction ≤ 3 months prior to starting study drug
• Patients with uncontrolled hypertension (defined as blood pressure of ≥ 150 mmHg systolic and/or ≥ 90 mmHg diastolic at Screening)
• Patients with:
• unresolved diarrhea ≥ CTCAE grade 2, or
• impairment of gastrointestinal (GI) function, or
• GI disease that may significantly alter the absorption of TT-00420.
• Other concurrent severe and/or uncontrolled concomitant medical conditions (e.g. uncontrolled hypertriglyceridemia [triglycerides > 500 mg/dL], or active or uncontrolled infection) that could cause unacceptable safety risks or compromise compliance with the protocol
• Patients who have received chemotherapy, targeted therapy, or immunotherapy ≤ 5 half-lives or 3 weeks, whichever is shorter, (6 weeks for nitrosourea or mitomycin-C) prior to starting study drug
• Patients who have received wide field radiotherapy ≤ 4 weeks or limited field radiation for palliation ≤ 2 weeks prior to starting study drug or who have not recovered from adverse events of prior therapy
• Patients who have undergone major surgery ≤ 4 weeks prior to starting study drug or who have not recovered from adverse events of prior therapy
• Patients who are currently receiving treatment with therapeutic doses of warfarin sodium (Coumadin®) or any other coumarin-derivative anticoagulants
• Patients who are currently receiving treatment with strong CYP3A inhibitors or inducers, or sensitive substrates of CYP3A4 ≤ 2 weeks prior to starting study drug.
• Patients who are using a proton pump inhibitor within 4 days prior to the start of study therapy or a histamine-2 blocker within 2 days prior to the start of study therapy.
• Known diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection (HIV testing is not mandatory; patients with well controlled HIV might be enrolled per investigator's discretion and Sponsor approval)
• Evidence of active infection with Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C that is not adequately controlled. For patients with known prior history of Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C, enrollment may be allowed per investigator's discretion and Sponsor approval.
• Inability to swallow or tolerate oral medication
• Has a history or current evidence of any condition, therapy, or laboratory abnormality that, in the opinion of the investigator, might confound the results of the trial, interfere with the patient's safe participation and compliance in the trial.
Study of Selinexor and Venetoclax in Combination With Chemotherapy in Pediatric and Young Adult Patients With Refractory or Relapsed Acute Myeloid Leukemia
The purpose of this study is to test the safety and determine the best dose of venetoclax and selinexor when given with chemotherapy drugs in treating pediatric and young adult patients with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) or acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage (ALAL) that has come back (relapsed) or did not respond to treatment (refractory). Primary Objective - To determine the safety and tolerability of selinexor and venetoclax in combination with chemotherapy in pediatric patients with relapsed or refractory AML or ALAL. Secondary Objectives - Describe the rates of complete remission (CR) and complete remission with incomplete count recovery (CRi) for patients treated with selinexor and venetoclax in combination with chemotherapy at the recommended phase 2 dose (RP2D). - Describe the overall survival of patients treated at the RP2D. Exploratory Objectives - Explore associations between leukemia cell genomics, BCL2 family member protein quantification, BH3 profiling, and response to therapy as assessed by minimal residual disease (MRD) and variant clearance using cell-free deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) (cfDNA). - Describe the quality of life of pediatric patients undergoing treatment with selinexor and venetoclax in combination with chemotherapy and explore associations of clinical factors with patient-reported quality of life outcomes. - Describe the clinical and genetic features associated with exceptional response to the combination of venetoclax and selinexor without the addition of chemotherapy.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Participants must have a diagnosis of AML or ALAL and meet the criteria below:
• Refractory leukemia, defined as persistent leukemia after at least two courses of induction chemotherapy, OR
• Early relapsed leukemia, defined as the re-appearance of leukemia after the achievement of remission and within one year of diagnosis, OR
• Relapsed leukemia that is refractory to at least one course of salvage therapy (i.e., therapy given after the relapse has occurred), OR
• Relapsed leukemia following HCT, OR
• Second or greater relapse
• Patients with late first relapses, defined as the re-appearance of leukemia after the achievement of remission and greater than one year of diagnosis, may be enrolled in the dose expansion portion of the study after safety data from the dose escalation portion is available. Patients must have ≥ 5% blasts in the bone marrow as assessed by morphology or flow cytometry. However, if flow cytometry cannot be performed or if an adequate bone marrow sample cannot be obtained (e.g., in a patient with acute megakaryoblastic leukemia with marrow fibrosis), patients may be enrolled if there is unequivocal evidence of leukemia with ≥ 5% blasts in the blood. In addition, patients in all categories must not be eligible to undergo curative therapy, such as immediate HCT, because of disease burden, time to identify a stem cell donor, or other reasons.
• Adequate organ function defined as the following:
• Direct bilirubin ≤ 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Normal creatinine for age or a calculated creatinine clearance ≥ 30 mL/min/1.73m^2
• Left ventricular ejection fraction ≥ 40% or shortening fraction ≥ 25%
• Patients must be ≥ 2 years of age and ≤ 30 years old. The upper age limit may be defined by each institution, but may not exceed 30 years. Patients treated at St. Jude Children's Research Hospital must be ≤ 24 years old.
• Performance status: Lansky ≥ 50 for patients who are ≤ 16 years old and Karnofsky ≥ 50% for patients who are > 16 years old.
• At least 14 days must have elapsed since the completion of myelosuppressive therapy or hypomethylating agents and the first doses of venetoclax and selinexor.
• At least 24 hours must have elapsed since the completion of low-dose or non- myelosuppressive therapy, such as hydroxyurea or low-dose cytarabine (up to 100 mg/m^2/day), or leukapheresis, and the first doses of venetoclax and selinexor.
• For patients who have received prior HCT, there can be no evidence of GVHD and greater than 60 days must have elapsed since the HCT.
• At least 14 days must have elapsed since the completion of any calcineurin inhibitors (e.g. tacrolimus, cyclosporine).
• Patients may not receive strong or moderate CYP3A inducers, such as rifampin, within 3 days of the first dose of venetoclax or during the administration of venetoclax. During the dose-escalation portion of the trial, we discourage the use of strong CYP3A inhibitors (e.g., ketoconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole, posaconazole) within 3 days of the first dose of venetoclax or during the administration of venetoclax. However, if an azole is required for the treatment or prevention of fungal infection during any phase of the trial, venetoclax dosing will be reduced to 60 mg/m^2 (100 mg max) in patients who require treatment with voriconazole and reduced to 40 mg/m^2 (70 mg max) in patients who require posaconazole.
• Must not be pregnant or breastfeeding. Male or female of reproductive potential must agree to use effective contraception for the duration of study participation.
• Patients with Down syndrome, acute promyelocytic leukemia, juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia, or bone marrow failure syndromes are not eligible.
• Uncontrolled infection. Patients with infections that are controlled on concurrent anti-microbial agents are eligible.
• Impairment of GI function or GI disease that, in the opinion of the treating physician, may significantly alter the absorption of venetoclax or selinexor.
• History of cerebellar toxicity or cerebellar neurological findings on exam.
• Previous toxicity or hypersensitivity directly attributed to venetoclax.
Evaluation of Co-formulated Pembrolizumab/Quavonlimab (MK-1308A) Versus Other Treatments in Participants With Microsatellite Instability-High (MSI-H) or Mismatch Repair Deficient (dMMR) Stage IV Colorectal Cancer (CRC) (MK-1308A-008)
The purpose of this study is to assess the efficacy and safety of co-formulated pembrolizumab/quavonlimab versus other treatments in participants with MSI-H or dMMR Metastatic Stage IV Colorectal Cancer.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Has a histologically confirmed diagnosis of Stage IV CRC adenocarcinoma (as defined by American Joint Committee on Cancer [AJCC] version 8)
• Has locally confirmed dMMR/MSI-H
• Has a life expectancy of at least 3 months
• Female participants are eligible to participate if not pregnant or breastfeeding, and not a woman of childbearing potential (WOCBP), or if a WOCBP then uses a contraceptive method that is highly effective or is abstinent on a long-term and persistent basis, during the intervention period and for at least 120 days after the last dose of study intervention
• Has measurable disease per RECIST 1.1 as assessed by the site and verified by BICR
• Submit an archival (within 5 years of Screening) or newly obtained tumor tissue sample that has not been previously irradiated; formalin-fixed, paraffin embedded (FFPE) blocks are preferred to slides.
• Has adequate organ function Cohort A:
• Has been previously treated for their disease and radiographically progressed per RECIST
• 1 on or after or could not tolerate standard treatment, which must include all of the following agents if approved and locally available in the country where the participant is randomized:
• Fluoropyrimidine, irinotecan and oxaliplatin (capecitabine is acceptable as equivalent to fluorouracil in prior therapy)
• With or without an anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) monoclonal antibody (e.g., bevacizumab)
• At least one of the anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) monoclonal antibodies (cetuximab or panitumumab) for rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (RAS) wild-type participants with left-sided tumors. Prior EGFR therapy is optional for patients with right sided RAS Wild-type (WT) tumors. Cohort B:
• Has untreated Stage IV dMMR/MSI-H CRC with no prior chemotherapy or immunotherapy for this disease
• Has received prior therapy with an agent directed to another stimulatory or coinhibitory T-cell receptor
• Has received prior systemic anticancer therapy including investigational agents within 4 weeks before the first dose of study intervention
• Has not recovered adequately from a surgery procedure, and/or has any complications from a prior surgery before starting study intervention
• Has received prior radiotherapy within 2 weeks of start of study intervention
• Has received a live or live-attenuated vaccine within 30 days before the first dose of study intervention
• Is currently participating in or has participated in a study of an investigational agent or has used an investigational device within 4 weeks before the first dose of study intervention
• Has a diagnosis of immunodeficiency or is receiving chronic systemic steroid therapy (in dosing exceeding 10 mg daily of prednisone equivalent) or any other form of immunosuppressive therapy within 7 days prior to the first dose of study medication
• Has a known additional malignancy that is progressing or has required active treatment within the past 2 years
• Has known active central nervous system (CNS) metastases and/or carcinomatous meningitis
• Has severe hypersensitivity (≥Grade 3) to pembrolizumab, quavonlimab, favezelimab, vibostolimab, MK-4830, and/or any of their excipients
• Has an active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in past 2 years (i.e., with use of disease modifying agents, corticosteroids or immunosuppressive drugs)
• Has a history of (noninfectious) pneumonitis that required steroids or has current pneumonitis
• Has a history of acute or chronic pancreatitis
• Has neuromuscular disorders associated with an elevated creatine kinase
• Has urine protein ≥1 gram/24 hours
• Has an active infection requiring systemic therapy (e.g., tuberculosis, known viral or bacterial infections, etc.)
• Has a known history of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection
• Concurrent active Hepatitis B (defined as Hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg] positive and/or detectable Hepatitis B Virus [HBV] deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA]) and Hepatitis C virus (defined as anti-HCV antibody positive and detectable HCV ribonucleic acid [RNA] infection
• Has clinically significant cardiac disease, including unstable angina, acute myocardial infarction within 6 months from Day 1 of study intervention administration, or New York Heart Association Class III or IV congestive heart failure. Medically controlled arrhythmia stable on medication is permitted.
• Has present or progressive accumulation of pleural, ascitic, or pericardial fluid requiring drainage or diuretic drugs within 2 weeks before randomization/allocation
• Has a history or current evidence of any condition, therapy, or laboratory abnormality that might confound the results of the study, interfere with the participant's participation for the full duration of the study, or is not in the best interest of the participant to participate, in the opinion of the treating investigator
• Has a known psychiatric or substance abuse disorder that would interfere with the participant's ability to cooperate with the requirements of the study
• Has had an allogenic tissue/solid organ transplant
Testing the Addition of an Anti-Cancer Immunotherapy Drug, Avelumab, to Gemcitabine and Carboplatin Chemotherapy Prior to Surgery in Muscle Invasive Urinary Tract Cancer vs. Surgery Alone in Patients Who Are Not Able to Receive Cisplatin Therapy (SWOG GAP TRIAL)
This phase II trial studies the effect of avelumab, gemcitabine and carboplatin before surgery compared with surgery alone in treating patients with muscle invasive bladder or upper urinary tract cancer who are not able to receive cisplatin therapy. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as avelumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Chemotherapy drugs, such as gemcitabine and carboplatin, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Giving avelumab together with gemcitabine and carboplatin before surgery may work better in lowering the chance of muscle invasive urinary tract cancer growing or spreading, in patients who cannot receive cisplatin therapy compared to surgery alone.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Participants must have one of the following:
• Histologically documented muscle-invasive bladder carcinoma (MIBC) from transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT) within 56 days prior to registration
• Histologically confirmed high grade upper tract urothelial carcinoma (UTUC) within 56 days prior to registration, with invasion confirmed by either a mass on cross-sectional imaging or a tumor directly visualized during upper urinary tract endoscopy within 56 days prior to registration
• Participants diagnosed with mixed urothelial carcinoma and variant histology within 56 days prior to registration may be eligible if the majority (> 50%) of the tumor consists of urothelial carcinoma. Participants with pure non-urothelial variant histologies or any small cell histology are not eligible
• Participants must have clinical stage T2-T4aN0M0 bladder or upper tract cancer confirmed by radiologic staging (computed tomography [CT] scan/magnetic resonance imaging [MRI] abdomen and pelvis, and CT scan/x-ray of the chest) within 56 days prior to registration
• Participants must have a bone scan within 56 days prior to registration if they have bone pain or elevated serum alkaline phosphatase
• Participants must have a bimanual examination under anesthesia within 56 days prior to registration
• Participants must not have received prior systemic chemotherapy, immunotherapy or radiotherapy for the treatment of muscle invasive bladder cancer (MIBC) or upper tract urothelial carcinoma (UTUC). Other prior pelvic radiotherapy is allowed if it does not preclude surgery (radical cystectomy, nephroureterectomy or ureterectomy, based on location of primary tumor). Prior intravesical therapy is allowed
• Participants must not have received immunosuppressive medication within 14 days prior to registration, with the exception of intranasal, inhaled, topical steroids, or local steroid injections (e.g., intra-articular injection) systemic corticosteroids at physiologic doses not to exceed 10 mg/day of prednisone or its equivalent
• Participants must be >= 18 years of age
• Participants must have Zubrod performance status 0-2
• Participants must have history and physical examination within 28 days prior to registration
• Participants must be surgical candidates as deemed by the local site oncologic surgeon within 28 days prior to registration. This must be clearly documented
• Participants must have a serum creatinine =< the institutional upper limit of normal (IULN) OR measured OR calculated creatinine clearance >= 30 mL/min using the Crockroft-Gault Formula. This specimen must have been drawn and processed within 28 days prior to registration
• Participants must be deemed cisplatin-ineligible based on greater than or equal to 1 of the following:
• Zubrod performance status = 2
• Creatinine clearance (calculated by Crockroft-Gault formula or measured) 30 to < 60 ml/min,
• Neuropathy > grade 1
• Hearing loss > grade 1
• Congestive heart failure > grade 2
• Hemoglobin >= 9.0 g/dL (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Absolute neutrophil count >= 1,500/mcL (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Platelets >= 100,000/mcL (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) =< 2.5 x institutional ULN (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x institutional ULN (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Participants with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, must have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification and be class 2B or better
• Participants with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) must be on effective anti-retroviral therapy and have undetectable viral load at their most recent viral load test and within 6 months prior to registration
• Participant must not have any other prior malignancy except for the following: adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer, prostate cancer Gleason score =< 3+4 in active surveillance, adequately treated stage I or II cancer from which the participant is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the participant has been disease free for two years
• Participants must not be pregnant or nursing due to the risk of harm to a fetus or nursing infant. Women/men of reproductive potential must have a negative serum or urine pregnancy test within 28 days prior to registration and must have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method. A woman is considered to be of "reproductive potential" if she has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months. In addition to routine contraceptive methods, "effective contraception" also includes heterosexual celibacy and surgery intended to prevent pregnancy (or with a side-effect of pregnancy prevention) defined as a hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy or bilateral tubal ligation. However, if at any point a previously celibate participant chooses to become heterosexually active during the time period for use of contraceptive measures outlined in the protocol, he/she is responsible for beginning contraceptive measures
• Participants must not have a history of active primary immunodeficiency
• Participants must not have a history of or active autoimmune or inflammatory disorder, with the exception of vitiligo, alopecia, hypothyroidism (stable on hormone replacement), or chronic skin condition that does not require systemic therapy
A Study of Tirzepatide (LY3298176) in Participants With Heart Failure With Preserved Ejection Fraction and Obesity (SUMMIT)
The main purpose of this study is to assess the efficacy and safety of Tirzepatide (LY3298176) in participants with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction and obesity.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Ayushi.Vashisht@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Have a diagnosis of stable heart failure (NYHA class II-IV) and left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≥50%
• Elevated NT-proBNP (N-terminal pro B-type natriuretic peptide) > 200 pg/ml for participants without atrial fibrillation (AF), or >600 picogram/milliliter (pg/ml) for participants with AF, Structural heart disease (Left atrial enlargement) or Elevated left ventricular filling pressure
• Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) <70 milliliter (ml)/minute (min)/1.73m² at screening, or HF decompensation within 12 months of screening,
• Stable dose of heart failure medications within 4 weeks of screening
• Body mass index (BMI) ≥30 kilograms per meter squared (kg/m²)
• 6MWD 100-425m
• KCCQ CSS ≤80
• Have had a major cardiovascular event within the last 90 days of screening
• Have had acute decompensated heart failure within 4 weeks of screening
• Have non cardiac causes of functional impairment such as pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), anemia, thyroid disease, musculoskeletal disease or orthopedic conditions
• Presence of cardiac amyloidosis, cardiac accumulation disease, cardiomyopathy and severe valvular hear disease
• HbA1c ≥9.5% or uncontrolled diabetes
• History of proliferative diabetic retinopathy or diabetic maculopathy
• Have a history of pancreatitis
• eGFR <15 mL/min/1.73 m² or requiring dialysis at screening
Non-Contrast Perfusion Using Arterial Spin Labeled MR Imaging for Assessment of Therapy Response in Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) including Arterial Spin Labeling (ASL) will be performed before, during, and after the treatment, in a total of up to 6 MRI sessions until 7 months after the first session, or when progression is clinically indicated. Thereafter, patients will be followed through standard clinical examinations for the next 3 years or until demise, whichever occurs first. Clinically, metastatic renal cell carcinoma (RCC) patients are imaged every 2-3 months after the initiation of anti-angiogenic therapy, since morphological (i.e. size) changes are not anticipated earlier. However, our preliminary experience has shown functional changes including perfusion as early as 2-weeks after the initiation of the treatment. T0, T1, and T2 sessions will be performed for this proposal, while T3, T4, and T5 will be performed along with the clinical imaging sessions. All MR imaging sessions will be scheduled within ±1 or ±2 weeks of the target time period. The research MR imaging may take approximately an additional 15 minutes per each imaging session, when done in conjunction with the clinical imaging. The T0, T1, and T2 research MR imaging sessions will be performed additionally for the purpose of this study, with each taking approximately one hour.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Patients with locally advanced or metastatic renal cell carcinoma.
• Patients scheduled to undergo anti-angiogenic treatment or immunotherapy
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Status 0, 1 and 2.
• Women of child-bearing potential must agree to undergo a urine pregnancy screening per standard Radiology departmental protocol, in place to prevent imaging of pregnant patients. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria: 1) Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or 2) Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months).
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
• Subjects may not be receiving any other anti-angiogenic agents, at the time of enrollment.
• Subjects must not be pregnant since pregnancy is a contraindication to administration of gadolinium-based contrast agents.
• Any contraindication to MRI per Radiology Department's routine protocol, e.g. MRI-incompatible objects, including but not limited to medical devices (e.g. pacemakers, automated implantable cardioverter defibrillators, etc.) and other foreign bodies.
• Known severe allergic reaction to Gadolinium-based contrast agents.
• Patients with sickle cell disease and patients with other hemolytic anemias (low red blood count in body).
• Patients with uncontrollable claustrophobia, severe lower back pain, and uncontrollable tremors, to the point that it would render them unable to tolerate an MRI study.
A Study to Learn About How Well Riociguat Works, How Safe it is and How it is Used Under Real World Conditions in Patients in the United States Who Are Receiving Riociguat for High Blood Pressure in the Arteries That Carry Blood From the Heart to the Lungs (Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension, PAH) (ROAR)
Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is a type of high blood pressure in the arteries that carry blood from the heart to the lungs. PAH occurs when the openings in the blood vessels of the lungs get smaller and smaller. These smaller openings can be caused by the following: - The walls of the arteries tightening - The walls of the arteries becoming stiff and narrow from an overgrowth of cells The increased pressure in the pulmonary arteries strains the right side of the heart and it begins to fail, causing difficulty breathing and other symptoms. As PAH progresses, symptoms get worse. There is no cure for PAH, but several medications like endothelin receptor antagonists (ERAs), prostacyclin analogues (PCAs) and riociguat, a soluable guanylate cyclase stimulator, are available to help slow the progression of changes in the pulmonary arteries and help reduce symptoms. Riociguat can be taken together with ERAs and PCAs. In this study, the researchers want to learn about how well riociguat works, how safe it is when patients take it in 1 of these ways: - alone - with ERA - with PCA - with ERA and PCA The dosage for each patient will be decided by their doctor. The researchers will review information collected from the patients who have decided with their doctor to start riociguat treatment for their PAH. The study will include about 500 patients in the United States who are at least 18 years old. All of the patients will have either just started taking riociguat or will have been taking it for less than 3 months No investigational products will be administered in this study. Patients will be treated with the Standard of Care (SOC) for PAH. The SOC is the currently appropriate treatment in accordance with scientific evidence and agreed upon in collaboration between medical experts for PAH. There will be no study-mandated visits or treatments. The patients will be in the study for up to 2 years. During this time, they will visit their doctor every 3 to 6 months as part of the Standard of Care. At these visits, the patients will answer questions about their PAH symptoms and whether they have any medical problems. They will also do exercise tests to see how well they are able to breathe and how tired they get while exercising. The doctors will perform other usual examinations which are part of the Standard of Care such as echocardiograms (images of the heart to show how the heart is working) and a right heart catheters (to measure the pressures in the heart) and will take the usual blood and urine samples.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Reagan.Volzer@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Patients aged ≥18 years at the time of riociguat treatment initiation
• Diagnosis of PAH per National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) 2018 classification
• Decision to initiate treatment with riociguat as per investigator's routine treatment practice made prior to enrollment in the study
• Initiation of riociguat, as per the FDA-approved US label:
• At enrollment OR
• ≤90 days prior to enrollment, with a documented titration regimen (defined as all documented dose changes including, but not limited to: starting dose and dates and highest tolerated dose and dates)
• Signed informed consent
• Previously treated with and discontinued use of riociguat for any reason prior to study enrollment (discontinuation defined as an interruption of therapy ≥30 days)
• Participating in any of the following:
• Blinded clinical trial
• Clinical trial involving an unapproved drug
• Investigational program with interventions outside of routine clinical practice
• Life expectancy <12 months
• Contraindicated to receive riociguat per the FDA approved US label
• Use of nitrates or NO donors in any form
• Use of PDE5 inhibitors
• PH associated with idiopathic interstitial pneumonias
• Unable or unwilling to provide informed consent
DALY 2.0 USA/ MB-CART2019.1 for DLBCL
This is an open label, single arm, phase II study to determine the efficacy, safety and PK (persistence) of MBCART2019.1 cells in adults with relapsed or refractory DLBCL after receiving at least two lines of therapy.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Histologically confirmed DLBCL or associated subtype, defined by WHO 2016 classification
• Relapsed or Refractory disease after 2 or more lines of chemotherapy including rituximab and anthracycline and either having failed autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT), or being ineligible for or not consenting to ASCT
• Age > 18 years
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status that is either 0 or 1 at screening. ECOG performance status of 2 at screen is allowed if the decrease in performance status is due to DLBCL
• Measurable disease according to Lugano 2014 criteria for assessing FDG PET/CT in lymphoma (Cheson et al, 2014)
• Subject must have a tumor biopsy sample, per protocol specified slide availability from the most recent relapse available prior to MBCART2019.1 Infusion. If medically not feasible to obtain biopsy from the most recent relapse and for cases when amount of tissue is limited, sponsor should be consulted, to confirm adequacy of sample for study required analyses.
• No clinical suspicion of CNS lymphoma
• If the subject has history of CNS disease, then he/she must have no signs or symptoms of CNS disease, have no active disease on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and have no large cell lymphoma present in cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) on cytospin preparation and flow cytometry, regardless of the number of white blood cells (WBCs)
• If has history of cerebral vascular accident (CVA), the CVA must be greater than 12 months prior to leukapheresis and any neurological deficits must be stable
• A creatinine clearance (as estimated either by a direct urine collection or Cockcroft-Gault Equation) > 60mL/min
• Cardiac ejection fraction (EF) ≥ 45% as determined by an echocardiogram (ECHO) or Multigated Radionuclide Angiography (MUGA)
• Resting O2 saturation >90% on room air
• Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) / aspartate aminotransferase (AST) <5 times the Upper Limit of Normal (ULN) for age
• Total bilirubin <1.5 mg/dl, except in individuals with Gilbert's syndrome
• Absolute neutrophil count > 1000/μL
• Absolute lymphocyte count > 100/μL
• Platelet count > 50,000/μL
• Estimated life expectancy of more than 3 months other than primary disease
• Subjects of child-bearing or child-fathering potential must be willing to practice birth control from the time of enrollment on this study until the follow-up period of the study.
• Primary CNS lymphoma
• Richter's transformed DLBCL arising from chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
• Unable to give informed consent
• Known history of infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or active hepatitis B (HBsAg positive). If there is a history of treated hepatitis B or hepatitis C, the viral load must be quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) negative; antiviral prophylaxis is required if HBsAg negative and anti-HBc positive.
• Known history of infection with hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV positive) unless viral load is undetectable per quantitative PCR and/or nucleic acid testing
• Known history of active seizures or presence of seizure activities or on active, anti-seizure medications within the prior 12 months
• Known history of CVA within prior 12 months.
• Known history or presence of autoimmune CNS disease, such as multiple sclerosis, optic neuritis, or other immunologic or inflammatory disease
• Presence of CNS disorder that, in the judgment of the investigator, may impair the ability to evaluate neurotoxicity
• Active systemic fungal, viral, or bacterial infection
• Pregnant or breast-feeding woman
• Previous or concurrent malignancy with the following exceptions:
• Adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell carcinoma (adequate wound healing required prior to study entry)
• In situ carcinoma of the cervix or breast, treated curatively and without evidence of recurrence for at least 2 years prior to the study
• Adequately treated breast or prostate carcinoma on hormonal therapies such as Lupron or tamoxifen and in clinical remission of ≥ 2 years
• A primary malignancy which has been completely resected / treated with curative intent and in complete remission of ≥ 2 years
• History of non-neurologic autoimmune disease (e.g. Crohn's disease, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus)requiring systemic immunosuppressive or system disease modifying agents within the last 2 years
• Medical condition requiring prolonged use of systemic corticosteroids equivalent to prednisone >10 mg/day
• History of myocardial infarction, cardiac angioplasty or stenting, unstable angina, or other clinically significant cardiac disease within 6 months of enrollment
• Concurrent radiotherapy (normal tissue sparing palliative radiotherapy allowed up to time of lymphodepletion). For systemic therapy, at least 2 weeks or 5 half-lives, whichever is shorter, must have elapsed at the time of scheduled leukapheresis
• Baseline dementia that would interfere with therapy or monitoring, determined using Immune Effector Cell-Associated Encephalopathy (ICE) Assessment at baseline
• History of severe immediate hypersensitivity reaction to any of the agents used in this study
• Refusal to participate in additional lentiviral gene therapy LTFU protocol
• Prior CAR-T therapy for any indication or systemic gene modifying therapy for DLBCL
• Prior allogeneic stem cell transplant for any indication
• Prior BITE antibodies for cancer therapy
• Prior T cell receptor-engineered T cell therapy
Nivolumab in Combination With Chemo-Immunotherapy for the Treatment of Newly Diagnosed Primary Mediastinal B-Cell Lymphoma
This phase III trial compares the effects of nivolumab with chemo-immunotherapy versus chemo-immunotherapy alone in treating patients with newly diagnosed primary mediastinal B-cell lymphoma (PMBCL). Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as nivolumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of cancer cells to grow and spread. Treatment for PMBCL involves chemotherapy combined with an immunotherapy called rituximab. Chemotherapy drugs work in different ways to stop the growth of cancer cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody. It binds to a protein called CD20, which is found on B cells (a type of white blood cell) and some types of cancer cells. This may help the immune system kill cancer cells. Giving nivolumab with chemo-immunotherapy may help treat patients with PMBCL.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Age >= 2 years
• Patient must have histologically confirmed primary mediastinal B-cell lymphoma (PMBCL) as defined by World Health Organization (WHO) criteria
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0, 1, or 2 or ECOG performance status of 3 if poor performance is related to lymphoma
• Children's Oncology Group (COG) Institutions: Use Karnofsky for patients >= 17 and < 18 years of age and Lansky for patients < 17 years of age
• Adults (age 18 or older): Creatinine clearance >= 30 mL/min, as estimated by the Cockcroft and Gault formula. The creatinine value used in the calculation must have been obtained within 28 days prior to registration. Estimated creatinine clearance is based on actual body weight
• Pediatric Patients (age < 18 years): The following must have been obtained within 14 days prior to registration:
• Measured or calculated (based on institutional standard) creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 ml/min/1.73 m^2, or
• Serum creatinine =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (IULN), or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• Age : 2 to < 6 year; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 0.8 (male; 0.8 (female)
• Age : 6 to < 10 years; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 1 (male); 1 (female)
• Age : 10 to < 13 years; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 1.2 (male); 1.2 (female)
• Age : 13 to < 16 years; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 1.5 (male); 1.4 (female)
• Age : >= 16 years to < 18 years; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 1.7 (male); 1.4 (female)
• Patients with abnormal liver function will be eligible to enroll if the lab abnormality is thought to be due to the lymphoma or Gilbert's syndrome
• Age >= 18 years: Ejection fraction of >= 50% by echocardiogram
• Age < 18 years: Shortening fraction of >= 27% by echocardiogram, or ejection fraction of >= 50% by radionuclide angiogram
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
• For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated
• Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
• Administration of prior anti-cancer therapy except as outlined below:
• A short course (=< 2 weeks) of corticosteroids for the relief of lymphoma-related symptoms
• A single course of COP (cyclophosphamide, vincristine, and prednisone)
• One cycle of chemo-immunotherapy including R-CHOP, DA-EPOCH-R, a pediatric mature B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma (B-NHL) induction therapy (such as ANHL1131), or intrathecal chemotherapy that has not started more than 21 days prior to enrollment
• Active ischemic heart disease or heart failure
• Active uncontrolled infection
• Central nervous system (CNS) involvement of lymphoma
• Previous cancer that required systemic chemotherapy and/or thoracic radiation. Other cancers will be permitted if in remission x 3 years
• Active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment (such as disease modifying agents, corticosteroids, or immunosuppressive agents) in the past 2 years. Replacement therapy such as thyroxine, insulin or physiologic corticosteroid for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency is not considered a form of systemic treatment
• In patients < 18 years of age hepatitis B serologies consistent with past or current infections
• Patients with severe hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh class C or serum total bilirubin >
• 0 mg/dL) unless thought to be due to lymphoma or Gilbert's syndrome
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use a highly effective contraceptive method (failure rate of < 1% per year when used consistently and correctly) for the duration of their study participation
• Lactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infants starting with the first dose of study therapy and for at least 6 months after the last dose of rituximab
A Study of the Efficacy and Safety of MK-5475 in Participants With Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (INSIGNIA-PAH: Phase 2/3 Study of an Inhaled sGC Stimulator in PAH) (MK-5475-007)
This is a two-part (Phase 2/Phase 3) study of MK-5475, an inhaled soluble guanylate cyclase stimulator, in participants with pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH). The first part (Phase 2) will assess three different doses of MK-5475 compared to placebo in a base period of 12 weeks, followed by comparison of three different doses of MK-5475 during an optional 24 month extension period. The treatment dose with the best efficacy and safety profile in the phase 2 cohort base period will be selected for use in the second part (Phase 3) of the study. The primary hypothesis of Phase 2 is that at least one MK-5475 dose is superior to placebo in reducing pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) from baseline at week 12. The purpose of the second part (Phase 3) of the study is to confirm the efficacy, safety, and tolerability of MK-5475 at the selected dose compared to placebo during a 12 week base period followed by an extension period of up to 5 years. The primary hypothesis of Phase 3 is that MK-5475 is superior to placebo in increasing 6-minute walk distance (6MWD) from baseline at week 12.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Carlos.StojaMiholich@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in one of the following groups:
• Idiopathic PAH
• Heritable PAH
• Drug and toxin-induced PAH
• PAH associated with connective tissue disease, HIV infection, or congenital heart disease.
• Diagnosis of PAH documented by right heart catheterization (RHC).
• Eligibility RHC meeting all of the following criteria:
• Mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) ≥25 mmHg
• Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) of ≥3 Wood units
• Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) or left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP) ≤15 mmHg.
• World Health Organization functional class (WHO-FC) symptoms between Class II and IV.
• Two 6-Minute walk distance (6MWD) measurements between 150 and 500 meters, one at screening and one at randomization.
• Stable concomitant background PAH-specific therapy.
• Body Mass Index (BMI) between 18.5 kg/m² and 40 kg/m² .
• Agree to be abstinent from heterosexual intercourse or use contraception during the intervention period and for at least 14 days after the last dose of study intervention.
• Female participants may not be pregnant or breastfeeding.
• Group 2 to 5 pulmonary hypertension.
• PAH in one of the following groups:
• Long term responders to calcium channel blockers
• Overt features of venous/capillary involvement
• Evidence of more-than-mild obstructive lung disease.
• Evidence of more-than-mild parenchymal lung disease.
• Evidence of more-than-mild obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) that is untreated.
• Evidence or history of left heart disease, including any of the following:
• Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≤45%
• Moderate or severe left-sided valvular disease (aortic or mitral valve stenosis or regurgitation)
• Significant left ventricular diastolic dysfunction on echocardiographic evaluation
• Presence of 3 or more of the following risk factors for heart failure with preserved ejection fraction: BMI>30 kg/m², essential systemic hypertension, diabetes mellitus of any type, or coronary artery disease.
• Oxygen saturation measured by pulse oximetry (SpO₂) <90%, despite supplemental oxygen therapy.
• Chronic renal insufficiency (eGFR <30 mL/min)
• Chronic liver disease (i.e., Child-Pugh B or C), portal hypertension, cirrhosis, or significant hepatic laboratory abnormalities.
• Current smoker or currently uses electronic cigarettes (vapes).
• History of cancer, except: nonmelanomatous skin carcinoma or carcinoma in situ of the cervix or other malignancies which have been successfully treated, with appropriate follow up, and unlikely to recur for the duration of the study.
The Pediatric Acute Leukemia (PedAL) Screening Trial - A Study to Test Bone Marrow and Blood in Children With Leukemia That Has Come Back After Treatment or Is Difficult to Treat - A Leukemia & Lymphoma Society and Children's Oncology Group Study
This study aims to use clinical and biological characteristics of acute leukemias to screen for patient eligibility for available pediatric leukemia sub-trials. Testing bone marrow and blood from patients with leukemia that has come back after treatment or is difficult to treat may provide information about the patient's leukemia that is important when deciding how to best treat it, and may help doctors find better ways to diagnose and treat leukemia in children, adolescents, and young adults.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Patients must be less than 22 years of age at the time of study enrollment
• Patient must have one of the following:
• Patient has known or suspected relapsed/refractory (including primary refractory) AML
• This includes isolated myeloid sarcoma
• Patient has known or suspected relapsed/refractory (including primary refractory) myeloid leukemia of Down syndrome
• Patient has known or suspected relapsed ALL that meets one of the following criteria:
• Second or greater B-ALL medullary relapse, excluding KMT2Ar.
• Any first or greater B-ALL medullary relapse involving KMT2Ar.
• Any first or greater T-ALL medullary relapse with or without KMT2Ar.
• Patient has known or suspected relapsed/refractory (including primary refractory) mixed phenotype acute leukemia
• Patient has known or suspected de novo or relapsed/refractory (including primary refractory) treatment related AML
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
An International Prospective Open-label, Randomized, Phase III Study Comparing 177Lu-PSMA-617 in Combination With SoC, Versus SoC Alone, in Adult Male Patients With mHSPC (PSMAddition)
The purpose of this study is to evaluate the efficacy and safety of 177Lu-PSMA-617 in combination with Standard of Care, versus Standard of Care alone, in adult male patients with mHSPC. In this study, the SoC is defined as a combination of Androgen Receptor Directed Therapy + Androgen Deprivation Therapy. Approximately 1126 patients will be randomized in this study.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Signed informed consent must be obtained prior to participation in the study
• Patients must be adults ≥18 years of age
• Patients must have an ECOG performance status of 0 to 2
• Patients must have a life expectancy >9 months as determined by the study investigator
• Patients must have metastatic prostate cancer with histologically or cytologically confirmed adenocarcinoma (current or prior biopsy of the prostate and/or metastatic site)
• Patients must have evidence of PSMA-positive disease as seen on a 68Ga-PSMA-11 PET/CT scan, and eligible as determined by the sponsor's central reader
• Patients must have at least one documented metastatic bone and/or soft tissue/visceral lesion documented in the following manners within 28 days prior randomization:
• Metastatic disease to the bone (in any distribution) visible on 99Tc-MDP bone scintigraphy on either pre-ADT scans or baseline scans AND/OR
• Lymph node metastases of any size or distribution. If lymph nodes are the only site of metastasis, then at least one must be at least 1.5 cm in short axis AND outside of the pelvis AND/OR
• Visceral metastases of any size or distribution. If a participant has a history of visceral metastases at any time prior to randomization, he should be coded as having visceral metastases at baseline (i.e., patients with visceral metastases prior to ADT that disappear at baseline will be counted as having visceral metastases and would therefore have high volume disease for stratification purposes).
• Patients must have adequate organ function:
• Bone marrow reserve ANC ≥1.5 x 109/L Platelets ≥100 x 109/L Hemoglobin ≥9 g/dL
• Hepatic Total bilirubin ≤2 x the institutional upper limit of normal (ULN). For patients with known Gilbert's Syndrome ≤3 x ULN is permitted Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) or aspartate aminotransferase (AST) ≤3.0 x ULN OR ≤5.0 x ULN for patients with liver metastases
• Renal eGFR ≥ 50 mL/min/1.73m2 using the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation
• Albumin ≥2.5 g/dL
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients who are healthy and have a low risk of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)-related outcomes can participate in this trial
• Patients must be: Treatment naïve OR minimally treated with:
• Up to 45 days of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist /antagonists or bilateral orchiectomy with or without first generation anti-androgen (e.g. bicalutamide, flutamide) for metastatic prostate cancer is allowed prior to ICF signature. If given, first generation anti-androgen must be discontinued prior to start of study therapy or after 45 days whatever happens first.
• If received, prior LHRH agonist/antagonist with or without first generation anti-androgen use in the adjuvant/neo-adjuvant setting must have been discontinued > 12 months prior to ICF signature AND must not have exceeded 24 months of therapy AND must not have shown disease progression within 12 months of completing adjuvant/neo-adjuvant therapy.
• Up to 45 days of CYP17 inhibitor or ARDT exposure for metastatic prostate cancer is allowed prior to ICF signature. No CYP17 inhibitor or ARDT exposure for earlier stages of prostate cancer is allowed.
• Participants with rapidly progressing tumor that requires urgent exposure to taxane-based chemotherapy
• Any prior systemic anti-prostate cancer therapy (with the exception of the drugs listed on inclusion criteria 11), including chemotherapy, Poly (adenosine diphosphate-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibitors, immunotherapy or biological therapy (including monoclonal antibodies).
• Concurrent cytotoxicity chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radioligand therapy, PARP inhibitor, biological therapy or investigational therapy
• Previous treatment with any of the following within 6 months of randomization: Strontium-89, Samarium-153, Rhenium-186, Rhenium-188, Radium-223, hemi-body irradiation. Previous PSMA-targeted radioligand therapy is not allowed
• Ongoing participation in any other clinical trial
• Use of other investigational drugs within 30 days prior to day of randomization
• Known hypersensitivity to any of the study treatments or its excipients or to drugs of similar chemical classes
• Transfusion for the sole purpose of making a participant eligible for study inclusion
• Participants with CNS metastases that are neurologically unstable, symptomatic, or receiving corticosteroids for the purpose of maintaining neurologic integrity. Participants with epidural disease, canal disease and prior cord involvement are allowed if those areas have been treated, are stable, and not neurologically impaired. Participants with parenchymal CNS metastasis (or a history of CNS metastasis), that have received prior therapy and are neurologically stable, asymptomatic and not receiving steroids for CNS metastases, are allowed, baseline and subsequent radiological imaging must include evaluation of the brain (magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) preferred or CT with contrast).
• Diagnosed with other malignancies that are expected to alter life expectancy or may interfere with disease assessment. However, participants with a prior history of malignancy that has been adequately treated and who have been disease free, treatment free for more than 3 years prior to randomization, or participants with adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancer, superficial bladder cancer are eligible.
• Concurrent serious (as determined by the Principal Investigator) medical conditions, including, but not limited to, uncontrolled infection, known active hepatitis B or C, or other significant co-morbid conditions that in the opinion of the investigator would impair study participation or cooperation. Participants with an active documented COVID-19 infection (any grade of disease severity) at time of informed consent may be included only when completely recovered (in accordance with local guidance).
• Active clinically significant cardiac disease defined as any of the following:
• NYHA class 3/4 congestive heart failure within 6 months prior to ICF signature unless treated with improvement and echocardiogram or MUGA demonstrates EF > 45% with improvement in symptoms to class < 3.
• History or current diagnosis of ECG abnormalities indicating significant risk of safety for participants in the study such as: Concomitant clinically significant cardiac arrhythmias, e.g. sustained ventricular tachycardia, complete left bundle branch block, high-grade atrioventricular (AV) block (e.g., bifascicular block, Mobitz type II and third degree AV block)
• History of familial long QT syndrome or known family history of Torsades de Pointes
• Cardiac or cardiac repolarization abnormality, including any of the following: History of myocardial infarction (MI), angina pectoris, or coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) within 6 months prior to ICF signature
• History of somatic or psychiatric disease/condition that may interfere with the objectives and assessments of the study
• Symptomatic cord compression, or clinical or radiologic findings indicative of impending cord compression
• Any condition that precludes raised arms position
• Unmanageable concurrent bladder outflow obstruction or urinary incontinence. Note: participants with bladder outflow obstruction or urinary incontinence, which is manageable and controlled with best available standard of care (incl. pads, drainage) are allowed.
• Sexually active males unwilling to use a condom during intercourse while taking study treatment and for 14 weeks after stopping study treatment. A condom is required for all sexually active male participants to prevent them from fathering a child AND to prevent delivery of study treatment via seminal fluid to their partner. In addition, male participants must not donate sperm for the time period specified above. If local regulations deviate from the contraception methods listed above to prevent pregnancy, local regulations apply and will be described in the ICF
Phase 2b Study of GC4711 in Combination With SBRT for Nonmetastatic Pancreatic Cancer
GTI-4711-201 is designed as a Phase 2b, multicenter, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study to determine the effect to OS by adding GC4711 to SBRT following chemotherapy in patients with unresectable or borderline resectable nonmetastatic
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Histological or biopsy proven adenocarcinoma of the pancreas. Cytology is acceptable if histology cannot be obtained.
• Newly diagnosed non-metastatic PC judged by tumor board to be feasible for SBRT
• Completed at least 6 weeks of chemotherapy consisting of FOLFIRINOX, mFOLFIRINOX, or a gemcitabine-based doublet regimen prior to start of SBRT
• Remain non-metastatic as confirmed by a CT scan at screening.
• Female or male subjects ≥ 18 years of age
• ECOG performance status of 0-2
• Adequate end-organ function
• Subjects with documented metastatic disease
• First-line chemotherapy other than FOLFIRINOX, mFOLFIRINOX, and/or a gemcitabine-based doublet regimen
• Prior abdominal RT with substantial overlap in radiation fields
• Subjects not recovered/controlled from treatment-related toxicities
• Uncontrolled malignancy other than PC
• Uncontrolled gastric or duodenal ulcer disease within 30 days of dosing
• Visible invasion of bulky tumor into the lumen of the bowel or stomach on endoscopy
Perioperative Enfortumab Vedotin (EV) Plus Pembrolizumab (MK-3475) Versus Neoadjuvant Chemotherapy for Cisplatin-eligible Muscle Invasive Bladder Cancer (MIBC) (MK-3475-B15/ KEYNOTE-B15 / EV-304) (KEYNOTE-B15)
The purpose of this study is to assess the antitumor efficacy and safety of perioperative enfortumab vedotin (EV) plus pembrolizumab and radical cystectomy (RC) + pelvic lymph node dissection (PLND) compared with the current standard of care (neoadjuvant chemotherapy [gemcitabine plus cisplatin] and RC + PLND) for participants with MIBC who are cisplatin-eligible. The primary hypothesis is perioperative EV and pembrolizumab and RC + PLND (Arm A) will achieve superior event free survival (EFS) compared with neoadjuvant gemcitabine + cisplatin and RC + PLND (Arm B).
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Have a histologically confirmed diagnosis of urothelial carcinoma (UC) / muscle invasive bladder cancer (MIBC) (T2-T4aN0M0 or T1-T4aN1M0) with predominant (≥50%) urothelial histology.
• Have clinically non-metastatic bladder cancer (N≤1 M0) determined by imaging (computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the chest/abdomen/pelvis
• Be deemed eligible for Radical Cystectomy (RC) + Pelvic Lymph Node Dissection (PLND)
• Have Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1
• Have adequate organ function.
• Has a known additional malignancy that is progressing or has required active anti-cancer treatment ≤3 years of study randomization with certain exceptions
• Has received any prior systemic treatment for MIBC or non-invasive muscle bladder cancer (NMIBC - prior treatment for NMIBC with intravesical BCG/chemotherapy is permitted) or prior therapy with an anti- programmed cell death 1 (PD-1), anti-programmed cell death ligand 1/ ligand 2 (PD-L1/L2), or anti-cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated protein 4 (CTLA-4)
• Has ≥N2 disease or metastatic disease (M1) as identified by imaging
• Is cisplatin-ineligible, as defined by meeting any one of the cisplatin ineligibility criteria as per protocol
• Has received prior systemic anticancer therapy including investigational agents within 3 years of randomization or any radiotherapy to the bladder
• Has undergone partial cystectomy of the bladder to remove any NMIBC or MIBC
• Has received a live or live attenuated vaccine within 30 days before the first dose of study intervention
• Has a diagnosis of immunodeficiency or has a known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Hepatitis B infection or known active Hepatitis C infection
• Has a known psychiatric or substance abuse disorder
• Has had an allogenic tissue/solid organ transplant
• Has ongoing sensory or motor neuropathy Grade 2 or higher
• Has active keratitis (superficial punctate keratitis) or corneal ulcerations
• Has a history of uncontrolled diabetes defined as hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) ≥8% or HbA1c 7% to <8% with associated diabetes symptoms
Study to Assess the Efficacy and Safety of MT-3921 in Subjects With Acute Traumatic Cervical Spinal Cord Injury
The purpose of this study is to compare the efficacy and safety of intravenous (IV) infusions of MT-3921 to placebo in subjects with acute traumatic cervical spinal cord injury. Subjects meeting eligibility criteria will enter the 6-month double-blind period. Subjects will be randomized in a 2:1 ratio to receive MT-3921 or placebo in a double blind manner.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Kristen.Hall@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Provide written informed consent prior to beginning any study procedures
• Cervical spinal cord injury that meet all of the following criteria:
• Classified as AIS A, AIS B or AIS C
• ISNCSCI neurological level of injury between C4 and C7 (for C4, the subject must have at least 1 point of motor activity between C5 to C7)
• UEMS ≤28 at Screening
• Body mass index (BMI) <40
• Any concomitant injury that interferes with the procedures and examinations required by study protocol, including performance, interpretation or validity of neurological examinations
• Poly-traumatic Injury as defined by Injury Severity Score (ISS) values > 25
• Penetrating spinal cord injuries
• Complete transection of the spinal cord
• Any other significant pre-existing medical conditions prior to spinal cord injury or current conditions that, in the judgement of the iInvestigator, may increase the risks associated with study participation
• History of anaphylaxis or clinically significant allergic reactions to any medication
• History or presence of malignancy within the last 3 years prior to screening
• Subjects with current SARS-CoV-2 infection (COVID-19)
• Subjects with hereditary fructose intolerance
• Psychoactive substance use disorder
• Participation in any clinical trial of a new chemical entity within 12 weeks prior to Screening
• Female subjects who are pregnant or lactating
A Study of a New Way to Treat Children and Young Adults With a Brain Tumor Called NGGCT
This phase II trial studies the best approach to combine chemotherapy and radiation therapy (RT) based on the patient's response to induction chemotherapy in patients with non-germinomatous germ cell tumors (NGGCT) that have not spread to other parts of the brain or body (localized). This study has 2 goals: 1) optimizing radiation for patients who respond well to induction chemotherapy to diminish spinal cord relapses, 2) utilizing higher dose chemotherapy followed by conventional RT in patients who did not respond to induction chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs, such as carboplatin, etoposide, ifosfamide, and thiotepa, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Radiation therapy uses high energy x-rays or high-energy protons to kill tumor cells and shrink tumors. Studies have shown that patients with newly-diagnosed localized NGGCT, whose disease responds well to chemotherapy before receiving radiation therapy, are more likely to be free of the disease for a longer time than are patients for whom the chemotherapy does not efficiently eliminate or reduce the size of the tumor. The purpose of this study is to see how well the tumors respond to induction chemotherapy to decide what treatment to give next. Some patients will be given RT to the spine and a portion of the brain. Others will be given high dose chemotherapy and a stem cell transplant before RT to the whole brain and spine. Giving treatment based on the response to induction chemotherapy may lower the side effects of radiation in some patients and adjust the therapy to a more efficient one for other patients with localized NGGCT.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Patients must be >= 3 years and < 30 years at the time of study enrollment
• Patients must be newly diagnosed with localized primary CNS NGGCT of the suprasellar and/or pineal region by pathology and/or serum or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) elevation of AFP above institutional normal or > 10 ng/mL or human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) beta > 100 mIU/mL. Suprasellar, pineal and bifocal tumors are included. (CSF tumor markers and cytology must be within 21 days prior to enrollment and within 35 days prior to start of protocol therapy [repeat if necessary]. Serum tumor markers, AFP and hCGbeta must be within 7 days prior to enrollment and start of protocol therapy [repeat if necessary]). Basal ganglia or other primary sites are excluded
• Patients with any of the following pathological elements are eligible: endodermal sinus (yolk sac), embryonal carcinoma, choriocarcinoma, malignant/immature teratoma and mixed germ cell tumor (GCT) (i.e., may include some pure germinoma) if malignant elements listed above are present. Patients with only mature teratoma are excluded. Patients with pure germinoma admixed with mature teratoma are excluded (would be eligible for pure germinoma protocols)
• Patients must have a cranial magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with and without gadolinium at diagnosis/prior to enrollment. If surgical resection is performed, patients must have pre-operative and post operative brain MRI with and without gadolinium. The post operative brain MRI should be obtained within 72 hours of surgery. If patient has a biopsy only, post-operative brain MRI is recommended but not required (within 14 days prior to study enrollment)
• Patients must have a spine MRI with gadolinium obtained at diagnosis/prior to enrollment. Spine MRI with and without gadolinium is recommended (within 14 days prior to study enrollment)
• Lumbar CSF must be obtained prior to study enrollment unless medically contraindicated. If a patient undergoes surgery and lumbar CSF cytology cannot be obtained at the time of surgery, then it should be performed at least 10 days following surgery and prior to study enrollment. False positive cytology can occur within 10 days of surgery
• Patients must have CSF tumor markers obtained prior to enrollment unless medically contraindicated. Ventricular CSF obtained at the time of CSF diversion procedure (if performed) is acceptable for tumor markers but lumbar CSF is preferred. In case CSF diversion and biopsy/surgery are combined, CSF tumor markers should be collected first
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/uL (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Platelet count >= 100,000/uL (transfusion independent) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL (may receive red blood cell [RBC] transfusions) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows (within 7 days prior to enrollment):
• Age: Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL)
• 3 to < 6 years: 0.8 (male), 0.8 (female)
• 6 to < 10 years: 1 (male), 1 (female)
• 10 to < 13 years: 1.2 (male), 1.2 (female)
• 13 to < 16 years: 1.5 (male), 1.4 (female)
• >= 16 years: male (1.7), 1.4 (female)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Note: For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L
• Central nervous system function defined as:
• Patients with seizure disorder may be enrolled if on anticonvulsants and well controlled
• Patients must not be in status epilepticus, coma or assisted ventilation prior to study enrollment
• Protocol therapy must begin within 31 calendar days of definitive surgery or clinical diagnosis. If a biopsy only was performed, the biopsy date will be considered the date of definitive surgery. For patients who have a biopsy or incomplete resection at diagnosis followed by additional surgery, the date of the last resection will be considered the date of definitive surgery.
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
• NEUROCOGNITIVE FUNCTION AND QUALITY OF LIFE ASSESSMENT:
• English-, Spanish-, or French- speaking
• Note: Patients who speak a language other than English, Spanish, or French will be allowed to participate in ACNS2021 but will not complete the neurocognitive and quality of life assessments
• No known history of neurodevelopmental disorder prior to diagnosis of NGGCT (e.g., Down syndrome, fragile X, William syndrome, intellectual disability). Patients with NF1 will be allowed to participate
• Additional eligibility criteria for the COG Standardized Neuropsychological Battery only: must be at a site that has a psychologist to administer the battery
• Note: If not eligible for the COG Standardized Battery, patients should still complete the Behavior Rating Inventory of Executive Function, Second Edition (BRIEF-2), Pediatric Quality of Life Inventory (PedsQL), Adaptive Behavior Assessment System Third Edition (ABAS-3), and Behavior Assessment System for Children, Third Edition (BASC-3) questionnaires
• Patients with tumors located outside the ventricles (i.e., basal ganglia, thalamus)
• Patients with only mature teratoma and non-elevated markers upon tumor sampling at diagnosis
• Patients who have received any prior tumor-directed therapy for their diagnosis of NGGCT other than surgical intervention and corticosteroids
• Patients with metastatic disease (i.e., MRI evaluation, lumbar CSF cytology or intraoperative evidence of dissemination)
• Female patients who are pregnant, since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs
• Note: Serum and urine pregnancy tests may be falsely positive due to HCGbeta-secreting germ cell tumors. Ensure the patient is not pregnant by institutional standards
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation
Safety and Efficacy Trial of Epcoritamab Combinations in Subjects With B-cell Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (B-NHL) (EPCORE™ NHL-2)
A phase 1b/2, open-label, multinational, interventional trial to evaluate the safety, tolerability, pharmacokinetics (PK), pharmacodynamics/biomarkers, immunogenicity, and preliminary efficacy of epcoritamab (EPKINLY™) in combination with other standard of care (SOC) agents in participants with B-cell Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (B-NHL).
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Measurable disease defined as ≥1 measurable nodal lesion (long axis >1.5 cm and short axis >1.0 cm) or ≥1 measurable extra-nodal lesion (long axis >1.0 cm) on computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) PS score of 0, 1 or 2
• Acceptable organ function at screening
• CD20-positive non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) at most recent representative tumor biopsy
• If of childbearing potential subject must practicing a highly effective method of birth control
• A man who is sexually active with a woman of childbearing potential must agree to use a barrier method of birth control Arm 1:
• Newly Diagnosed Documented diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL)
• DLBCL, NOS
• "double-hit" or "triple-hit" DLBCL
• FL Grade 3B Arm 2: R/R FL Arm 3: Newly diagnosed, previously untreated FL grade 1-3A Arm 4:
• Documented DLBCL and eligible for HDT-ASCT
• DLBCL, NOS
• "double-hit" or "triple-hit" DLBCL
• FL Grade 3B Arm 5:
• Relapsed or refractory documented DLBCL and ineligible for HDT-ASCT
• DLBCL, NOS
• "double-hit" or "triple-hit" DLBCL
• FL Grade 3B Arm 6: Newly diagnosed, previously untreated FL grade 1-3A Arm 7:
• FL Grade 1-3A
• If PR or CR per Lugano criteria following first-line or second-line treatment with SOC regimen, and last dose of SOC within 6 months prior to enrollment. Arm 8:
• DLBCL, NOS
• T-cell/histiocyte rich DLBCL
• "double-hit" or "triple-hit" DLBCL
• FL Grade 3B Arm 9:
• R/R FL
• Progressed within 24 months of initiating first-line treatment Arm 10:
• Documented DLBCL and eligible for HDT-ASCT
• DLBCL, NOS
• "double-hit" or "triple-hit" DLBCL
• FL Grade 3B Key Exclusion Criteria
• Chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or major surgery within 4 weeks prior to the first dose of epcoritamab
• Any prior treatment with a bispecific antibody targeting CD3 and CD20.
• Treatment with CAR-T therapy within 30 days prior to first dose of epcoritamab
• Clinically significant cardiovascular disease
• Evidence of significant, uncontrolled concomitant diseases that could affect compliance with the protocol or interpretation of results
• CNS lymphoma or known CNS involvement by lymphoma at screening as confirmed by MRI/CT scan of the brain and, if clinically indicated, by lumbar puncture
• Active positive tests for hepatitis B virus or hepatitis C virus indicating acute or chronic infection
• Known history of seropositivity of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
• Active tuberculosis or history of completed treatment for active tuberculosis within the past 12 months
• Neuropathy > grade 1
• Receiving immunostimulatory agent
• Prior allogeneic HSCT
• Current seizure disorder requiring anti-epileptic therapy NOTE: Other protocol defined Inclusion/Exclusion criteria may apply.
Study Evaluating mCRPC Treatment Using PSMA [Lu-177]-PNT2002 Therapy After Second-line Hormonal Treatment (SPLASH)
The purpose of this study is to evaluate the efficacy and safety of [Lu-177]-PNT2002 in patients with metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer who have progressed following treatment with androgen receptor axis-targeted therapy (ARAT).
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Male aged 18 years or older.
• Histological, pathological, and/or cytological confirmation of adenocarcinoma of the prostate.
• Ineligible or averse to chemotherapeutic treatment options.
• Patients must have progressive mCRPC at the time of consent based on at least 1 of the following criteria:
• Serum/plasma PSA progression defined as increase in PSA greater than 25% and >2 ng/mL above nadir, confirmed by progression at 2 time points at least 3 weeks apart.
• Soft-tissue progression defined as an increase ≥20% in the sum of the diameter (SOD) (short axis for nodal lesions and long axis for non-nodal lesions) of all target lesions based on the smallest SOD since treatment started or the appearance of one or a new lesion.
• Progression of bone disease defined as the appearance of two or more new lesions by bone scan.
• Progression on previous treatment with one ARAT (abiraterone or enzalutamide or darolutamide or apalutamide) in either the CSPC or CRPC setting.
• PSMA-PET scan (i.e., 68Ga-PSMA-11 or 18F-DCFPyL) positive as determined by the sponsor's central reader.
• Castrate circulating testosterone levels (<1.7 nmol/L or <50 ng/dL).
• Adequate organ function, independent of transfusion: a. Bone marrow reserve: i. White blood cell (WBC) count ≥2.5 × 10^9/L OR absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥1.5 × 10^9/L. ii. Platelets ≥100 × 10^9/L. iii. Hemoglobin ≥8 mmol/L. b. Liver function: i. Total bilirubin ≤1.5 × institutional upper limit of normal (ULN). For patients with known Gilbert's syndrome, ≤3 × ULN is permitted. ii. ALT or AST ≤3.0× ULN. c. Renal function: i. Serum/plasma creatinine ≤1.5 × ULN or creatinine clearance ≥50 mL/min based on Cockcroft-Gault formula (for patients in France, serum/plasma creatinine ≤1.5 × ULN or CrCl ≥60 mL/min based on Cockcroft-Gault formula). d. Albumin ≥30 g/L.
• Human immunodeficiency virus-infected patients who are healthy and have a low risk of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome-related outcomes are included in this trial.
• For patients who have partners who are pregnant or of childbearing potential: a condom is required along with a highly effective contraceptive method during the study and for 6 months after last study drug administration. Such methods deemed highly effective include a) combined (estrogen and progestogen containing) hormonal contraception associated with inhibition of ovulation, b) progestogen-only hormonal contraception associated with inhibition of ovulation, c) intrauterine device (IUD), d) intrauterine hormone-releasing system (IUS), e) bilateral tubal occlusion, f) vasectomy, g) true sexual abstinence: when this is in line with the preferred and usual lifestyle of the subject [periodic abstinence (e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, post-ovulation methods), declaration of abstinence for the duration of exposure to IMP, and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of abstinence].
• Willing to initiate ARAT therapy (either enzalutamide or abiraterone), pre-specified by investigator, if randomized to Treatment Arm B.
• ECOG performance status 0 to 1.
• Willing and able to comply with all study requirements and treatments (including 177Lu PNT2002) as well as the timing and nature of required assessments.
• Signed informed consent.
• If noted in pathology report, prostate cancer with known significant (>10% present in cells) sarcomatoid or spindle cell or neuroendocrine components. Any small cell component in the cancer should result in exclusion.
• Prior treatment for prostate cancer ≤28 days prior to randomization, with the exclusion of first-line local external beam, ARAT, luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) therapy, or non-radioactive bone-targeted agents.
• Any prior cytotoxic chemotherapy for CRPC (e.g., cabazitaxel or docetaxel); chemotherapy for hormone-sensitive prostate cancer (HSPC) is allowed if the last dose was administered >1 year prior to consent.
• Prior treatment with systemic radionuclides (e.g. radium-223, rhenium-186, strontium 89).
• Prior immuno-therapy, except for sipuleucel-T.
• Prior PSMA-targeted radioligand therapy, e.g., Lu-177-PSMA-617, I 131-1095.
• Prior poly ADP ribose polymerase (PARP) inhibitor for prostate cancer.
• Patients who progressed on 2 or more lines of ARATs.
• Patients receiving bone-targeted therapy (e.g. denosumab, zoledronic acid) not on stable doses for at least 4 weeks prior to randomization.
• Administration of an investigational agent ≤60 days or 5 half-lives, whichever is shorter, prior to randomization.
• Major surgery ≤30 days prior to randomization.
• Estimated life expectancy <6 months as assessed by the principal investigator.
• Presence of liver metastases >1 cm on abdominal imaging.
• A superscan on bone scan defined as a bone scan that demonstrates markedly increased skeletal radioisotope uptake relative to soft tissues in association with absent or faint genitourinary tract activity.
• Dose escalation or initiation of opioids for cancer-related pain ≤30 days prior to consent up to and including randomization.
• Known presence of central nervous system metastases.
• Contraindications to the use of planned ARAT therapy, [Ga-68]-PSMA-11, [F-18]-DCFPyL or [Lu-177]-PNT2002 therapy, including but not limited to the following:
• Hypersensitivity to [Ga-68]-PSMA-11, [F-18]-DCFPyL or [Lu-177]-PNT2002 excipients (Diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid (DTPA), Sodium ascorbate, Lascorbic acid, Sodium gentisate, HCl, Sodium hydroxide).
• Recent myocardial infarction or arterial thrombotic events (in the past 6 months) or unstable angina (in the past 3 months), bradycardia or left ventricular ejection fraction measurement of < 50%.
• History of seizures in patients planned to receive enzalutamide.
• Active malignancy other than low-grade non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer and non-melanoma skin cancer.
• Concurrent illness that may jeopardize the patient's ability to undergo study procedures.
• Serious psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that might hamper compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule. Patients that travel need to be capable of repeated visits even if they are on the control arm.
• Symptomatic cord compression, or clinical or radiologic findings indicative of impending cord compression.
• Concurrent serious (as determined by the investigator) medical conditions, including, but not limited to, New York Heart Association class III or IV congestive heart failure (see 12.1 Appendix 1), unstable ischemia, uncontrolled symptomatic arrhythmia, history of congenital prolonged QT syndrome, uncontrolled infection, known active hepatitis B or C, or other significant co-morbid conditions that in the opinion of the investigator would impair study participation or cooperation.