Search Results Within Category "Neurology"
The Role of Sirolimus in Preventing Functional Decline in Older Adults
Aging is associated with progressive impairment of tissue and organ function, resulting in increased susceptibility to chronic disease, frailty and disability. Currently there are limited treatment options to alter this inevitable process. The proposed work has the potential to identify a new therapeutic intervention to decrease aging-related degenerative processes. Rapamycin or sirolimus is a macrocyclic immunosuppressive drug that inhibits the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR). The mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) pathway is part of phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K)/protein kinase B (AKT)/mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR)-dependent pathway which is a fundamentally linked to cell metabolism, proliferation, differentiation, and survival. This pathway is altered in a variety of diseases, including cancers, immunosuppressed states, and fibroproliferative diseases. The mTOR kinase is considered one of the leading regulators of this pathway. Changes in mTOR signaling are closely associated with inflammation, cell growth and survival, leading to the development of chronic diseases. Recent evidence also suggests that mTOR inhibitors are promising modulators of the aging process by slowing the mechanisms of aging at the cellular level. There is a growing appreciation of the potential impact of sirolimus in slowing aging processes and in prolonging healthy lifespan. The proposed study addresses critical gaps in our understanding of the safety and efficacy of sirolimus in delaying aging processes and is based on findings in animal studies and incidental clinical observations. The investigators will overcome potential biases with a randomized control trial. The proposed intervention study is intended to improve our insight into clinical outcomes leading to prevention of chronic diseases such as skin cancer and mortality. Our overarching hypothesis is that sirolimus is one of the first pharmacological agents that will impact the aging process and chronic disease development. Specifically, the investigators aim to investigate whether sirolimus can reduce the occurrence or increase in biomarkers of aging processes.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Ramatoulaye.Diallo@UTSouthwestern.edu
Phase 1/2a Study of Belantamab Mafodotin in Relapsed or Refractory AL Amyloidosis
The goal of this study is to test the safety of drug, Belantamab Mafodotin, and see what effects (good and bad) it has on people who take it and have amyloidosis, and to determine the most effective dose of the drug. The study will have 2 phases (parts). The first phase of the study will test different doses of Belantamab Mafodotin. The second phase will test Belantamab Mafodotin at the dose level found to be safe and effective in phase 1
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Participants medically diagnosed with relapsed or refractory Amyloid Light Chain Amyloidosis (AL amyloidosis) with one or more line of treatment as below:
• Must have received a proteosome inhibitor, alkylator and anti-cluster of differentiation 38 (CD38) antibody (e.g., daratumumab - for patients who were eligible to receive in newly diagnosed AL Amyloidosis) and autologous stem cell transplant (for transplant eligible candidates). OR
• Failed treatment and/or intolerant/ineligible for above agents NOTE: Patients who fail to achieve Partial Hematological Response or better after 2 cycles of induction therapy for newly diagnosed AL Amyloidosis are also eligible.
• Participant must be over 18 years of age inclusive, at the time of signing the informed consent.
• Participant and Disease Characteristics: Patient must have primary systemic AL amyloidosis, histologically confirmed at the initial diagnosis before initiation of 1st-line treatment by positive Congo red stain with green birefringence on polarized light microscopy, Or characteristic appearance by electron microscopy AND confirmatory AL amyloid typing (mass spectrometry-based proteomic analysis or immunofluorescence).
• Patient must have measurable disease within 28 days prior to registration; serum quantitative immunoglobulins (immunoglobulin G (IgG), immunoglobulin A (IgA), and immunoglobulin M (IgM), serum free kappa and lambda, and serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) with M-protein quantification must be obtained within 14 days prior to registration.
• Measurable disease of amyloid light chain amyloidosis as defined by at least One of the following: a. Serum M-protein ≥0.5 g/dL by protein electrophoresis (routine serum protein electrophoresis and immunofixation). b. Serum free light chain ≥50 mg/L with an abnormal kappa: lambda ratio or the difference between the involved and uninvolved free light chains (dFLC) ≥50 mg/L.
• One or more organs impacted by AL Amyloidosis according to consensus guidelines below per National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN)Guidelines Version 1.2016: a. Cardiac Involvement i. Mean left ventricular wall thickness on echocardiogram greater than or equal to 12 mm in the absence of hypertension or valvular heart disease, OR N-terminal fragment brain natriuretic protein (NT-pro) brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) greater than 332 ng/mL provided that patient does not have impaired renal function (as defined by calculated creatinine clearance less than 25 mL/min) within 14 days prior to registration, OR prior cardiac biopsy (at time of diagnosis) showing amyloid deposition with past documented or presently noted clinical symptoms and signs supportive of a diagnosis of heart failure in the absence of an alternative explanation for heart failure. b. Non-Cardiac Organ Involvement i. Kidney: albuminuria greater than or equal to 500 mg per day on a 24-hour urine specimen within 35 days prior to registration, OR prior kidney biopsy (at the time of diagnosis) showing amyloid deposition. ii. Liver: hepatomegaly (total liver span \> 15 cm) as demonstrated by computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) within 35 days prior to registration OR alkaline phosphatase (ALP) greater than 1.5 times the institutional upper limit of normal within 14 days prior to registration, OR prior liver biopsy (at the time of diagnosis) showing amyloid deposition. iii. Gastrointestinal tract: direct biopsy verification with symptoms. iv. Lung: biopsy verifications with symptoms and interstitial radiographic pattern. v. Soft tissue: tongue enlargement, clinical, arthropathy, claudication, presumed vascular amyloid, skin involvement, carpal tunnel syndrome, myopathy by biopsy or pseudohypertrophy.
• Patients must have completed other systemic therapy or investigational drug ≥ 28 days or five half-lives prior to registration, surgery (other than biopsies) ≥ 28 days prior to registration, and any autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) ≥ 100 days prior to registration.
• Patients must have a complete medical history and physical exam within 14 days prior to registration.
• New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class 1 - 3a which has been clinically stable for 56 days before registration
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance score 0, 1 or 2
• Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) by echocardiogram (ECHO) \> 35% within 28 days prior to registration.
• Adequate organ system functions within 14 days of registration as defined by the laboratory assessments below: a) Hematologic i) Absolute neutrophil count (ANC): ≥1.0 × 10(9)/ L \* ii) Hemoglobin: ≥8.0 g/dL \* iii) Platelets: ≥50 × 10(9)/L \* b) Hepatic i) Total bilirubin: ≤1.5 × upper limit of normal (ULN); (Isolated bilirubin ≥1.5 × ULN is acceptable if bilirubin is fractionated, and direct bilirubin is \<35%) ii) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): ≤2.5 × ULN c) Renal i) Estimated glomerular rate (eGFRª): ≥30 mL/min/1.73 m2 Note: Laboratory results obtained during Screening should be used to determine eligibility criteria. In situations where laboratory results are outside the permitted range, the investigator may re-test the participant and the subsequent within range screening result may be used to confirm eligibility. \* Without growth factor or cell transfusion support for the past 14 days prior to testing, excluding erythropoietin. ª As calculated by Modified Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) formula (Appendix 4 in Protocol)
• Females of childbearing potential: These participants must have a negative baseline pregnancy test using serum or urine within 14 days prior to starting therapy and a confirmatory negative serum pregnancy test with a sensitivity of at least 50 mIU/mL within 72 hours prior to registration; females of childbearing potential must also agree: (1) to have a pregnancy test prior to the start of each treatment cycle and (2) to either commit to continued abstinence from heterosexual intercourse or to use effective contraception while receiving study drug and for at least 4 months after receiving the last dose of study drug; females are considered to be of childbearing potential if they have had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months; in addition to routine contraceptive methods, effective contraception also includes heterosexual celibacy and surgery intended to prevent pregnancy (or with a side-effect of pregnancy prevention) defined as a hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy or bilateral tubal ligation; however, if at any point a previously celibate patient chooses to become heterosexually active during the time period for use of contraceptive measures outlined in the protocol, she is responsible for beginning contraceptive measures.
• Is a woman of child bearing potential (WOCBP) and using a contraceptive method that is highly effective (with a failure rate of \<1% per year), preferably with low user dependency (as described in Appendix 9), during the intervention period and for at least 4 months after the last dose of study intervention and agrees not to donate eggs (ova, oocytes) for the purpose of reproduction during this period. The investigator should evaluate the effectiveness of the contraceptive method in relationship to the first dose of study intervention.
• A WOCBP must have a negative serum pregnancy test (as required by local regulations) within 72 hours before the first dose of study intervention.
• The investigator is responsible for review of medical history, menstrual history, and recent sexual activity to decrease the risk for inclusion of a woman with a nearly undetected pregnancy.
• Non-childbearing potential is defined as follows (by other than medical reasons): i. ≥45 years of age and has not had menses for \>1 year. ii. Patients who have been amenorrhoeic for \<2 years without history of a hysterectomy and oophorectomy must have a follicle stimulating hormone value in the postmenopausal range upon screening evaluation. iii. Post-hysterectomy, post-bilateral oophorectomy, or post-tubal ligation. Documented hysterectomy or oophorectomy must be confirmed with medical records of the actual procedure or confirmed by an ultrasound. Tubal ligation must be confirmed with medical records of the actual procedure. 14\. Male participants are eligible to participate if they agree to the following during the intervention period and for 6 months after the last dose of study treatment to allow for clearance of any altered sperm:
• Refrain from donating sperm Plus, either:
• be abstinent from heterosexual intercourse as their preferred and usual lifestyle (abstinent on a long term and persistent basis) and agree to remain abstinent Or
• agree to use a barrier method of birth control (e.g., male condom), even if they have undergone a successful vasectomy, and female partner to use an additional highly effective contraceptive method with a failure rate of \<1% per year as when having sexual intercourse with a woman of childbearing potential (including pregnant females). 15\. Patients with Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection are eligible if: a. patients without a history of Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)-defining opportunistic infections b. patients with a history of AIDS-defining opportunistic infection may be eligible if they have not had an opportunistic infection within past 12 months. c. Patients on active anti-retroviral therapy are eligible as long as anti-retroviral therapy is established for at least four weeks and have HIV viral load less than 400 copies/ml prior to enrollment. 16\. Patients with chronic Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) infection or chronic Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) infection or virologically suppressed on HCV treatment are eligible if:
• Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)-negative, anti-Hemoglobin C (HBc)-positive patients are at lower risk of HBV reactivation compared with HBsAg-positive patients, risk of HBV reactivation should be considered in all patients and if patients can be on anti-HBV prophylaxis prior to initiation of anti-cancer therapy.
• Patients with chronic HBV infection with active disease who meet the criteria for anti HBV therapy should be on a suppressive antiviral therapy prior to initiation of cancer therapy.
• Patients actively on treatment for HCV should have HCV below the limit of quantification before initiation of anti-cancer therapy.
• Patients who are HCV antibody (Ab) positive but HCV Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) negative due to prior treatment or natural resolution of infection are eligible.
• Patients previously treated for active symptomatic multiple myeloma.
• Any corneal disease except for mild epithelial punctate keratopathy.
• Patients with known immediate or delayed hypersensitivity reaction or idiosyncratic reactions to belantamab mafodotin or drugs chemically related to belantamab mafodotin, or any of the components of the study treatment.
• Patients eligible for autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT).
• Evidence of significant cardiovascular condition as specified below:
• N-terminal-prohormone of brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) ≥ 8500ng/L within 14 days of registration.
• New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification IIIB (3b) through IV (4) heart failure
• Heart failure that in the opinion of the investigator is on the basis of ischemic heart disease (e.g., prior myocardial infarction with documented history of cardiac enzyme elevation and electrocardiogram (ECG) changes) or uncorrected valvular disease and not primarily due to AL amyloid cardiomyopathy
• Unstable heart failure defined as emergency hospitalization for worsening, or decompensated heart failure, or syncopal episode within 1 month of screening
• Subjects with a history of sustained ventricular tachycardia or aborted ventricular fibrillation or with a history of atrioventricular nodal or sinoatrial (SA) nodal dysfunction for which a pacemaker/implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is indicated but not placed (Subjects who do have a pacemaker/ICD are allowed on study)
• Interval from the Q wave on the ECG to point T using Fredericia's formula (QTcF) \> 500 msec. Subjects who have a pacemaker may be included regardless of calculated QTc interval
• Symptomatic, clinically significant autonomic neuropathy which the Investigator feels will preclude administration of study treatment
• Acute coronary syndrome, or any form of coronary revascularization procedure including coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), within 6 months of screening
• Prior solid organ transplant, or anticipated to undergo solid organ transplantation, or requiring left ventricular assist device (LVAD) implantation, during the course of the study
• Stroke within 6 months of screening, or transient ischemic attack (TIA) within 3 months of screening
• Evidence of current clinically significant uncontrolled arrhythmias, including clinically significant ECG abnormalities such as 2nd degree (Mobitz Type II) or 3rd degree atrioventricular (AV) block
• History of myocardial infarction, acute coronary syndromes (including unstable angina), coronary angioplasty, or stenting or bypass grafting within three (3) months of Screening
• Uncontrolled hypertension
• Prior history of malignancy with the exception of the following: adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, curatively treated non-melanoma skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer, adequately treated stage I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for at least two years.
• Presence of any comorbid or uncontrolled medical condition (e.g. uncontrolled hypertension) - defined as defined as an average SBP ≥ 160mm Hg or diastolic ≥ 100mm Hg despite optimal treatment) at screening, which in the opinion of the investigator would increase the potential risk to the subject.
• Unwillingness or inability to follow the procedures outlined in the protocol.
• Received an investigational drug (including investigational vaccines) or used an invasive investigational medical device within 4 weeks or five half-lives, whichever is shorter, before Cycle 1 Day 1.
• Participant must not use contact lenses while participating in this study.
• Participant must not have had major surgery ≤ 4 weeks prior to initiating study treatment.
• Participant must not have any evidence of active mucosal or internal bleeding.
• Participant must not have any serious and/or unstable pre-existing medical, psychiatric disorder, or other conditions (including lab abnormalities) that could interfere with participant's safety, obtaining informed consent or compliance to the study procedures.
• Participants must not be pregnant or lactating.
• Participant must not be simultaneously enrolled in any interventional clinical trial.
• Participant must not have an active infection requiring treatment.
• Participant must not have current unstable liver or biliary disease defined by the presence of ascites, encephalopathy, coagulopathy, hypoalbuminemia, esophageal or gastric varices, persistent jaundice, or cirrhosis. Note: Stable non-cirrhotic chronic liver disease (including Gilbert's syndrome or asymptomatic gallstones) or hepatobiliary involvement of malignancy is acceptable if otherwise meets entry criteria.
A Study of CAP-1002 in Ambulatory and Non-Ambulatory Patients With Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (HOPE-3)
HOPE-3 is a two cohort, Phase 3, multi-center, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trial evaluating the efficacy and safety of a cell therapy called CAP-1002 in study participants with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and impaired skeletal muscle function. Non-ambulatory and ambulatory boys and young men who meet eligibility criteria will be randomly assigned to receive either CAP-1002 or placebo every 3 months for a total of 4 doses during the first 12-months of the study. All participants will be eligible to receive 4 doses of CAP-1002 for an additional 12 months as part of an open-label extended assessment period.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Tammy.Ramm@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Male subjects at least 10 years of age at time of consent who are willing and able to provide informed consent to participate in the trial if ≥ 18 years of age or assent with parental or guardian informed consent if \< 18 years of age. If a third-party caregiver is involved, they must provide informed consent.
• Diagnosis of DMD based on clinical and phenotypic manifestations consistent with DMD (e.g., family history of DMD, elevated creatine kinase, dystrophin muscle biopsy, calf pseudohypertrophy, history of Gowers' sign, and gait impairment before 7 years of age) as confirmed by the Investigator.
• Confirmatory genetic testing performed to have reached a diagnosis of DMD at any time in the past or currently performed at a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory or equivalent.
• Performance of the Upper Limb test (PUL) entry item scores 2-6 and total PUL score less than or equal to 40. For Cohort A only: enrollment of patients with PUL entry score 6, Exon 44 skipping amenable, and/or Exon 3 through 7 deletions will be capped at no more than 10% of the total study population (approximately 6 patients with these characteristics).
• Reduced ability to walk/run (if ambulatory): subjects must take more than 10 seconds for the 10-meter walk/run (i.e., velocity \< 1 meter/second).
• If non-ambulatory, loss of independent ambulation between 10th and 18th year birthday (standing unassisted or ability to take, at most, several steps independently is not considered ambulation). Subjects who are considered non-ambulatory between the ages of 9 and10 may be enrolled with prior approval from the sponsor.
• Receiving standard of care therapy at an experienced, multidisciplinary DMD center as evidenced by regular cardiac and pulmonary monitoring, systemic glucocorticoid treatment, and at-home range of motion exercises.
• Treatment with systemic glucocorticoids for at least 12 months and at a stable dose at least 6 months prior to study participation, except for either weight-based dose adjustment or a decrease in steroid dose of ≤ 10% for toxicity. For patients on chronic deflazacort, treatment with an equivalent dose of prednisone or prednisolone for a period of ≤ 30 days to bridge lack of availability of deflazacort during the 6 months prior to randomization is acceptable.
• Current and up-to-date immunizations according to children and adolescent Centers for Disease Control and Prevention immunization schedule at the discretion of the Investigator.
• Adequate venous access for parenteral IP infusions and routine blood collection.
• Assessed by the Investigator as willing and able to comply with the requirements of the trial.
• Sexually active subjects and their partners who are fertile must agree to use effective method(s) of contraception.
• Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) less than or equal to 35% prior to randomization.
• Elbow-flexion contractures \> 30° in both extremities.
• Body mass index (BMI) \> 45.
• Percent predicted forced vital capacity (FVC%) \< 35% within 6 months prior to randomization.
• Inability to perform consistent PUL 2.0 measurement within ± 2 points without shoulder domain or within ± 3 points with shoulder domain during paired testing at screening.
• Risk of near-term respiratory decompensation in the judgment of the Investigator, or the need for initiation of day and night non-invasive ventilator support as defined by serum bicarbonate ≥ 29 mmol/L at screening.
• History of non DMD-related chronic respiratory disease requiring ongoing or intermittent treatment, including, but not limited to, asthma, bronchitis, and tuberculosis.
• Acute respiratory illness within 30 days prior to screening and during screening.
• Initiation of nocturnal non-invasive ventilation within 30 days prior to screening.
• Planned or anticipated thoracic or spinal surgery within the 6 months following randomization.
• Planned or anticipated lower extremity surgery within the 6 months following randomization, if ambulatory.
• Known hypersensitivity to dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) or bovine products.
• Initiation of treatment with metformin or insulin within 3 months prior to randomization.
• Initiation of treatment with an FDA-approved exon skipping therapy for the treatment of DMD and/or non-weight based adjustments within 12 months prior to randomization.
• Treatment with human growth hormone within 3 months prior to randomization, unless on a stable dose allowing for weight-based dose adjustments (as determined by the site Investigator) for at least 24 months prior to randomization.
• Treatment with a cell therapy product within 12 months prior to randomization; any prior exposure to CAP-1002 will be excluded.
• Treatment with an investigational product within 6 months prior to randomization.
• History, or current use, of drugs or alcohol that could impair the ability to comply with participation in the trial.
• Inability to comply with the investigational plan and follow-up visit schedule for any reason, in the judgment of the investigator.
• Inability to undergo a cardiac MRI. For Cohort B Only - Subjects with a known hypersensitivity to gadolinium may forgo the LGE assessment but must complete a cardiac MRI without contrast. For Cohort B Only - Subjects who are unable to tolerate gadolinium due to renal insufficiency as measured by an estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 may forgo the LGE assessment but must complete a cardiac MRI without contrast.
• For Cohort B: Subjects with PUL entry score 6, Exon 44 skipping amenable, or Exon 3 through 7 deletions are excluded from participation.
A Study of the Drug Selinexor With Radiation Therapy in Patients With Newly-Diagnosed Diffuse Intrinsic Pontine (DIPG) Glioma and High-Grade Glioma (HGG)
This phase I/II trial tests the safety, side effects, and best dose of selinexor given in combination with standard radiation therapy in treating children and young adults with newly diagnosed diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma (DIPG) or high-grade glioma (HGG) with a genetic change called H3 K27M mutation. It also tests whether combination of selinexor and standard radiation therapy works to shrink tumors in this patient population. Glioma is a type of cancer that occurs in the brain or spine. Glioma is considered high risk (or high-grade) when it is growing and spreading quickly. The term, risk, refers to the chance of the cancer coming back after treatment. DIPG is a subtype of HGG that grows in the pons (a part of the brainstem that controls functions like breathing, swallowing, speaking, and eye movements). This trial has two parts. The only difference in treatment between the two parts is that some subjects treated in Part 1 may receive a different dose of selinexor than the subjects treated in Part 2. In Part 1 (also called the Dose-Finding Phase), investigators want to determine the dose of selinexor that can be given without causing side effects that are too severe. This dose is called the maximum tolerated dose (MTD). In Part 2 (also called the Efficacy Phase), investigators want to find out how effective the MTD of selinexor is against HGG or DIPG. Selinexor blocks a protein called CRM1, which may help keep cancer cells from growing and may kill them. It is a type of small molecule inhibitor called selective inhibitors of nuclear export (SINE). Radiation therapy uses high energy to kill tumor cells and shrink tumors. The combination of selinexor and radiation therapy may be effective in treating patients with newly-diagnosed DIPG and H3 K27M-Mutant HGG.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Preventing Cognitive Decline by Reducing BP Target Trial (PCOT)
The PCOT study is a multi-site randomized trial of patients 70 years or older with high BP. The main goal of the study Preventing Cognitive Decline by Reducing BP Target Trial (PCOT) is to conduct a large pragmatic clinical trial (PCT) to test the hypothesis that patients who receive care with a combination of clinical decision support (CDS) and team-based care delivered in primary care practices will have better blood pressure control and a lower incidence of mild cognitive impairment and dementia than patients receiving usual medical care. Patients will be recruited from UT Southwestern Medical Center and Parkland Health \& Hospital System.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, venkatraghavan.sundaram@phhs.org
Evaluating the Addition of the Immunotherapy Drug Atezolizumab to Standard Chemotherapy Treatment for Advanced or Metastatic Neuroendocrine Carcinomas That Originate Outside the Lung
This phase II/III trial compares the effect of immunotherapy with atezolizumab in combination with standard chemotherapy with a platinum drug (cisplatin or carboplatin) and etoposide versus standard therapy alone for the treatment of poorly differentiated extrapulmonary (originated outside the lung) neuroendocrine cancer that may have spread from where it first started to nearby tissue, lymph nodes, or distant parts of the body (advanced) or that has spread from where it first started (primary site) to other places in the body (metastatic). The other aim of this trial is to compare using atezolizumab just at the beginning of treatment versus continuing it beyond the initial treatment. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as atezolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Cisplatin and carboplatin are in a class of medications known as platinum-containing compounds that work by killing, stopping or slowing the growth of cancer cells. Etoposide is in a class of medications known as podophyllotoxin derivatives. It blocks a certain enzyme needed for cell division and DNA repair, and it may kill cancer cells. Giving atezolizumab in combination with a platinum drug (cisplatin or carboplatin) and etoposide may work better in treating patients with poorly differentiated extrapulmonary neuroendocrine cancer compared to standard therapy with a platinum drug (cisplatin or carboplatin) and etoposide alone.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Motor Network Physiology
The brain networks controlling movement are complex, involving multiple areas of the brain. Some neurological disorders, like Parkinson's disease (PD) and essential tremor (ET), cause abnormalities in these brain networks. Deep brain stimulation is a treatment that is used to treat these types of neurological diseases and is thought to help patients by modulating brain networks responsible for movement. Levodopa medication is also used to modulate this brain networks in patients with PD. The overall objective is to develop a unified theory of basal ganglia thalamocortical (BGTC) circuit dynamics that accounts for disease symptomatology, movement, and their inter-relationship. The underlying hypothesis, is that the rigidity and bradykinesia of PD are fundamentally related to excessive functional coupling across nodes in the BGTC motor circuit impeding effective information flow. In this research, the investigator will take advantage of the unique opportunity provided by awake deep brain stimulation surgery to learn more about how the brain functions in a diseased state and how deep brain stimulation changes these networks to make movement more normal. The investigator will simultaneously assess cortical and subcortical electrophysiology in relation to clinical symptoms and behavioral measures and in response to deep brain stimulation, cortical stimulation, and pharmacologic therapy in patients undergoing Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS) implantation surgery.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Sahil.Chilukuri@UTSouthwestern.edu
Olanzapine Versus Megestrol Acetate for the Treatment of Loss of Appetite Among Advanced Cancer Patients
This phase III trial compares the effects of olanzapine versus megestrol acetate in treating loss of appetite in patients with cancer that has spread to other places in the body (advanced). Olanzapine may stimulate and increase appetite. This study aims to find out if olanzapine is better than the usual approach (megestrol acetate) for stimulating appetite and preventing weight loss.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
TReatment for ImmUne Mediated PathopHysiology (TRIUMPH)
TReatment for ImmUne Mediated PathopHysiology (TRIUMPH) is a multi-center, three arm, randomized, controlled trial of immunosuppressive therapy for children with acute liver failure. The study will determine if suppressing inflammatory responses with either corticosteroids or equine anti-thymocyte globulin therapy improves survival for children with this rare, life-threatening condition.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Evelyn.Rojo@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Patient with liver injury of ≤ 6 weeks duration resulting in an international normalization ratio (INR) of ≥ 1.5 or \< 2.0 (not corrected by vitamin K) with evidence of hepatic encephalopathy (HE), INR of ≥ 1.5 or \< 2.0 for at least 7 days duration without evidence of HE or INR ≥ 2.0 without evidence of HE.
• Age is greater than or equal to 1 year and less than 18 years of age.
• Patient or their legally authorized representative(s) (LAR) must consent (and assent, if applicable) to be in the study and must have signed and dated an approved informed consent form which conforms to federal and institutional guidelines.
• Females of reproductive potential should not plan on conceiving children during the study and must agree to use a medically accepted form of contraception.
• Evidence of active infection with Hepatitis A, B, C, E or evidence of acute herpes simplex virus (HSV) or adenovirus infection
• Travel within the past 3 months to an area highly endemic for Hepatitis E
• Diagnosis of hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) Note: Patients with a history of consanguinity and/or central nervous system (CNS) dysfunction that is exaggerated compared to the degree of liver dysfunction (as judged by the site investigator) will not be enrolled until results of rapid genetic testing are available. Turn-around time for genetic testing results is estimated to be 72-96 hours.
• Aplastic anemia as defined by standardized criteria \[1\] diagnosed prior to enrollment
• Diagnosis of autoimmune Hepatitis (AIH)
• Diagnosis of acute Wilson disease
• Diagnosis of inborn error of metabolism Note: Suspicion of metabolic disease is not an exclusion for entry into the Trial.
• Diagnosis of acute drug or toxin-induced liver injury
• History of recreational drug use within the past 4 weeks
• Therapy with an immunosuppressive agent, including chemotherapy, biological therapies or an experimental drug or device within the past 6 weeks
• Liver injury due to ischemia
• Liver dysfunction diagnosed more than 6 weeks prior to screening
• History of allergy to horse dander
• Sepsis
• Imminent risk of death as judged by the clinical site investigator, including but not limited to; signs of cerebral herniation at the time of enrollment and presence of intractable arterial hypotension
• Solid organ or stem cell transplant recipient
• Pregnant or breast-feeding at the time of proposed study entry
• Clinical AIDS or HIV positive
• History of any form of malignant neoplasm and/or tumors treated within five years prior to study entry (other than non-melanoma skin cancer or in situ cervical cancer) or where there is current evidence of recurrent or metastatic disease
• Received a live-virus vaccine within 4 weeks of study entry
• Patients with positive respiratory secretion testing for respiratory viral infection including SARS-CoV-2, influenza and respiratory syncytial virus only if they also have declining respiratory function
• Psychiatric or addictive disorders that would preclude obtaining informed consent/assent
• Patient is unwilling or unable to adhere with study requirements and procedures
• Currently receiving other experimental therapies
CBL0137 for the Treatment of Relapsed or Refractory Solid Tumors, Including CNS Tumors and Lymphoma
This phase I/II trial evaluates the best dose, side effects and possible benefit of CBL0137 in treating patients with solid tumors, including central nervous system (CNS) tumors or lymphoma that has come back (relapsed) or does not respond to treatment (refractory). Drugs, such as CBL0137, block signals passed from one molecule to another inside a cell. Blocking these signals can affect many functions of the cell, including cell division and cell death, and may kill cancer cells.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
A Study to Evaluate DAY101 in Pediatric and Young Adult Patients With Relapsed or Progressive Low-Grade Glioma and Advance Solid Tumors (FIREFLY-1)
FIREFLY-1 is a Phase 2, multi center, open-label study to evaluate the safety and efficacy of oral pan-RAF inhibitor DAY101 in pediatric, adolescent, and young adult patients with recurrent or progressive low-grade glioma or an advanced solid tumor harboring a known BRAF alteration.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Age 6 months to 25 years with:
• Arms 1 & 2: a relapsed or progressive LGG with documented known activating BRAF alteration
• Arm 3: locally advanced or metastatic solid tumor with documented known or expected to be activating RAF fusion
• Confirmation of histopathologic diagnosis of LGG and molecular diagnosis of activating BRAF alteration
• Must have received at least one line of systemic therapy and have evidence of radiographic progression
• Must have at least 1 measurable lesion as defined by RANO (Arms 1 & 2) or RECIST v1.1 (Arm 3) criteria
• Patient's tumor has additional previously-known activating molecular alterations
• Patient has symptoms of clinical progression in the absence of radiographic progression
• Known or suspected diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1)
• Other inclusion/exclusion criteria as stipulated by protocol may apply
VITAS: Atezolizumab in Combination With Chemotherapy for Pediatric Relapsed/Refractory Solid Tumors
This trial is a multi-center, non-randomized, open-label Phase I/II study evaluating the feasibility and efficacy of vincristine, irinotecan, temozolomide, and atezolizumab in children with relapsed/refractory solid tumors.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Signed informed consent
• Relapsed or refractory solid tumor after at least one prior course of therapy.
• Hodgkin lymphoma or non-Hodgkin lymphoma are not permitted.
• Patients with CNS malignancy or asymptomatic CNS metastases may be enrolled, provided all of the following criteria are met. * No metastatic or primary disease affecting the brainstem, midbrain, pons, or cerebellum, or within 10 mm of optic nerve * No history of leptomeningeal disease * No history of intracranial or spinal cord hemorrhage * No evidence of progression of neurologic deficit, in the investigator's judgment, within 7 days prior to initiation of study medications.
• Must have histologically confirmed rhabdomyosarcoma (RMS) for RMS efficacy cohort.
• Age ≥ 6 months and ≤ 30 years
• Lansky Performance Status (patients \< 16 years old) or Karnofsky Performance Status (patients ≥ 16 years old) ≥ 50
• Ability to comply with the study protocol, in the investigator's judgment
• For RMS efficacy cohort, disease must be measurable as defined by RECIST v1.1.
• For the feasibility cohort, disease must be evaluable, but patients enrolled in the feasibility cohort will be prospectively assessed for measurable disease, RMS patients will also be included in the RMS efficacy cohort.
• Previously irradiated lesions can be considered as measurable disease only if progressive disease has been unequivocally documented at that site since radiation.
• Availability of a tumor specimen suitable for determination of PD-L1 status, either from initial diagnosis or from a recurrence.
• For PD-L1 staining to be performed at the central site, a formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tumor specimen in a paraffin block (preferred) or at least 15 slides containing unstained, freshly cut, serial sections must be available along with an associated pathology report prior to study enrollment.
• Patients for whom the required number of slides are not available may still be eligible to enroll on study with PI approval
• For the RMS efficacy cohort, it will be required that at least 8 of 17 patients have PD-L1(+) tumor. PD-L1 status will be determined at time of enrollment for all patients. When the maximum allowable number of PD-L1(-) patients has been enrolled and treated on study, PD-L1 positivity will be required for all further enrolled patients.
• Staining will be performed in the central site CAP/CLIA-certified laboratory using the 22c3 antibody for immunohistochemical analysis
• PD-L1(+) status will be defined as staining on ≥1% of tumor cells or ≥1% of stroma.
• For the feasibility cohort, PD-L1 positivity is not required but will be performed centrally in all cases for exploratory biomarker studies.
• Adequate organ and marrow function as defined by the following laboratory values obtained within 21 days prior to initiation of study medication.
• For patients without known bone marrow involvement: * Absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1.0 x 10\^9 / L (1000/µL) without granulocyte colony-stimulating factor support (≥14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor such as pegfilgrastim, or 7 days after short-acting growth factor) * Platelet count ≥ 75 x 10\^9 / L (75,000/µL) without transfusion in the last 7 days
• Patients with known bone marrow metastatic disease will be eligible for the study if they meet the following criteria: * Patients with documented liver metastases: AST and ALT ≤ 5 x ULN * Patients with documented liver or bone metastases: ALP ≤ 5 x ULN * Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥ 750/mm\^3 * Platelet count ≥ 50,000/mm\^3 (may receive transfusions provided they are not known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusions) * These patients will not be evaluable for hematologic toxicity. At least 4 of 6 patients in the feasibility cohort must be evaluable for hematologic toxicity. If dose-limiting hematologic toxicity is observed, all subsequent patients enrolled must be evaluable for hematologic toxicity.
• Total bilirubin ≤1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (Patients with known Gilbert disease: serum bilirubin ≤ 3 x ULN)
• AST (SGOT) and ALT (SPGT) ≤ 2.5 x ULN for age
• Serum albumin ≥ 25 g/L (2.5 g/dL)
• Creatinine ≤ 1.5 x ULN for age or creatinine clearance (or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate) ≥ 70 mL/min/1.73 m2
• Left ventricular ejection fraction ≥ 50% or shortening fraction ≥ 30%
• Hemoglobin ≥ 90 g/L (9 g/dL)
• Patients may be transfused to meet this criterion.
• For patients not receiving therapeutic anticoagulation: INR or aPTT ≤ 1.5 x ULN
• For patients receiving therapeutic anticoagulation: stable anticoagulant regimen
• Negative HIV and hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) tests at screening
• For women of childbearing potential: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive methods, and agreement to refrain from donating eggs, as defined below:
• Women must remain abstinent or use contraceptive methods with a failure rate of \< 1% per year during the treatment period and for 5 months after the final doses of atezolizumab, vincristine, and temozolomide. Women must refrain from donating eggs during this same period.
• A woman is considered to be of childbearing potential if she is postmenarchal, has not reached a postmenopausal state (≥ 12 continuous months of amenorrhea with no identified cause other than menopause), and has not undergone surgical sterilization (removal of ovaries and/or uterus), regardless of sexual orientation or marital status.
• Examples of contraceptive methods with a failure rate of \< 1% per year include bilateral tubal ligation, male sterilization, hormonal contraceptives that inhibit ovulation, hormone-releasing intrauterine devices, and copper intrauterine devices.
• The reliability of sexual abstinence should be evaluated in relation to the duration of the clinical trial and the preferred and usual lifestyle of the patient. Periodic abstinence (e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, or postovulation methods) and withdrawal are not adequate methods of contraception.
• For men who are not surgically sterile: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures, and agreement to refrain from donating sperm, as defined below:
• With a female partner of childbearing potential who is not pregnant, men must remain abstinent or use a condom plus an additional contraceptive method that together result in a failure rate of less 1% per year during the treatment period and for 5 months after the final doses of atezolizumab, irinotecan, and temozolomide. Men must refrain from donating sperm during this same period.
• The reliability of sexual abstinence should be evaluated in relation to the duration of the clinical trial and the preferred and usual lifestyle of the patient. Periodic abstinence (e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, or postovulation methods) and withdrawal are not adequate methods of contraception
• Pregnancy or breast-feeding:
• Pregnancy or breastfeeding, or intention of becoming pregnant during study treatment or within 5 months after the final dose of study treatment
• Women of childbearing potential must have a negative serum pregnancy test result within 21 days prior to initiation of study treatment.
• Medical conditions that are excluded:
• Active or history of autoimmune disease or immune deficiency, including, but not limited to, myasthenia gravis, myositis, autoimmune hepatitis, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, Guillain-Barré syndrome, multiple sclerosis, or Kawasaki syndrome with the following exceptions: * Patients with a history of autoimmune-related hypothyroidism who are on thyroid-replacement hormone are eligible for the study. * Patients with controlled Type 1 diabetes mellitus who are on an insulin regimen are eligible for the study. * Patients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus, or vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis are excluded) are eligible for the study provided all of following conditions are met at study initiation: (1) Rash must cover less 10% of body surface area, (2) Disease is well controlled at baseline and requires only low-potency topical corticosteroids, (3) No occurrence of acute exacerbations of the underlying condition requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation, methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors, or high-potency or oral corticosteroids within the previous 12 months
• Uncontrolled or symptomatic hypercalcemia (ionized calcium \> 1.5 mmol/L, calcium \> 12 mg/dL or corrected serum calcium \> ULN)
• Uncontrolled pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, or ascites requiring recurrent drainage procedures (once monthly or more frequently) * Patients with indwelling catheters (e.g., PleurX®) are allowed.
• Uncontrolled tumor-related pain * Patients requiring pain medication must be on a stable regimen at study entry for at least 2 weeks. Intermittent use of as-needed medication is allowed during this period.
• Clinically significant gastrointestinal disorder that may interfere with absorption of orally administered drugs (at the discretion of the treating physician)
• History of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, organizing pneumonia (e.g., bronchiolitis obliterans), drug-induced pneumonitis, or idiopathic pneumonitis, or evidence of active pneumonitis on screening chest computed tomography (CT) scan * History of radiation pneumonitis in the radiation field (fibrosis) is permitted.
• Significant cardiovascular disease (such as New York Heart Association Class II or greater cardiac disease, myocardial infarction, or cerebrovascular accident) within 3 months prior to initiation of study treatment, unstable arrhythmia, or unstable angina
• History of severe asthma or uncontrolled asthma
• Dyspnea at rest or requirement for supplemental oxygen
• Uncontrolled seizures. Patients taking a stable dose of anticonvulsants (for 2 weeks) are permitted, as long as they are not strong inducers or inhibitors of CYP3A4.
• Any other disease, metabolic dysfunction, physical examination finding, or clinical laboratory finding that contraindicates the use of an investigational drug, may affect the interpretation of the results, or may render the patient at high risk from treatment complications in the opinion of the treating investigator
• Washout periods from prior therapies:
• Myelosuppressive chemotherapy or radiotherapy within 21 days prior to starting study treatment. * Subjects must have recovered from all acute prior treatment-related toxicities to grade 1 or baseline (excluding alopecia and clinically stable toxicities requiring ongoing medical management, such as hypothyroidism).
• Non-myelosuppressive cancer therapy, such as kinase inhibitors, within 7 days prior to study treatment.
• Treatment with monoclonal antibodies with long half-lives, within 3 half-lives prior to study treatment.
• Treatment with targeted cellular therapies within 28 days prior to starting study treatment.
• Major surgical procedure, other than for diagnosis, within 30 days prior to initiation of study treatment, or anticipation of the need for a major surgical procedure during the first four cycles of the study. * Biopsy tissue collection or placement of a vascular access device is permitted if the site has healed prior to initiation of study medications. * For patients with CNS disease, no neurosurgical resection, brain biopsy, or stereotactic/whole-brain radiation within 30 days prior to Cycle 1, Day 1
• Treatment with a live, attenuated vaccine within 30 days prior to initiation of study treatment, or anticipation of the need for such a vaccine during atezolizumab treatment or within 5 months after the final dose of atezolizumab
• Treatment with investigational therapy within 21 days prior to initiation of study treatment or concurrent participation with another investigational agent
• Treatment with systemic immunostimulatory agents (including, but not limited to, interferon and interleukin 2 \[IL-2\]) within 4 weeks or 5 half-lives of the drug (whichever is longer) prior to initiation of study treatment
• Treatment with systemic immunosuppressive medication (including, but not limited to, corticosteroids, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, thalidomide, and anti-TNF-agents) within 2 weeks prior to initiation of study treatment, or anticipation of the need for systemic immunosuppressive medication during study treatment, with the following exceptions: * Patients who received acute, low-dose systemic immunosuppressant medication or a one-time pulse dose of systemic immunosuppressant medication (e.g., 48 hours of corticosteroids for a contrast allergy) are eligible for the study after Principal Investigator confirmation has been obtained. * Patients who received mineralocorticoids (e.g., fludrocortisone), corticosteroids for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or asthma, or low-dose corticosteroids for orthostatic hypotension or adrenal insufficiency are eligible for the study. * Patients with CNS disease can be receiving concurrent treatment with corticosteroids with approval from the Principal Investigator. Patients must be receiving a stable or decreasing dose for ≥ 5 days prior to the baseline MRI scan and at the time of drug initiation. The Principal Investigator should be informed when steroid doses are increased because of declining patient status.
• Use of strong CYP3A4 inhibitors or inducers or strong UGT1A1 inhibitors within 12 days of Cycle 1, Day 1.
• Treatment with high-dose chemotherapy and hematopoietic stem-cell rescue within 3 months prior to initiation of study drug
• Treatment with herbal cancer therapy within 1 week prior to initiation of study medications.
• Treatment with a long-acting hematopoietic growth factor (such as pegfilgrastim) within 2 weeks prior to initiation of study medications, or a short-acting hematopoietic growth factor (such as G-CSF) within 1 week prior to initiation of study medications.
• Prior treatments:
• Prior allogeneic stem cell or solid organ transplantation
• Prior treatment with CD137 agonists or immune checkpoint blockade therapies to include all anti-PD-1, and anti-PD-L1 therapeutic antibodies
• Treatment with systemic immunostimulatory agents (including, but not limited to, interferon and interleukin 2 \[IL-2\] within 4 weeks or 5 half-lives of the drug (whichever is longer) prior to initiation of study treatment
• Subjects must not have previously progressed while receiving regimens that include irinotecan or temozolomide. Patients who have received irinotecan or temozolomide and did not progress while on these medications are eligible.
• Known ongoing or untreated infection, including, but not limited to bacteremia, active tuberculosis, or severe pneumonia
• Active tuberculosis
• Current treatment with anti-viral therapy for HBV
• Active hepatitis C
• Patients receiving prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., to prevent a urinary tract infection or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation) are eligible for the study
• Known allergy or hypersensitivity to any component of the study medications
• History of severe allergic anaphylactic reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteins
• Known hypersensitivity to Chinese hamster ovary cell products or to any component of the atezolizumab formulation
A Study of a New Way to Treat Children and Young Adults With a Brain Tumor Called NGGCT
This phase II trial studies the best approach to combine chemotherapy and radiation therapy (RT) based on the patient's response to induction chemotherapy in patients with non-germinomatous germ cell tumors (NGGCT) that have not spread to other parts of the brain or body (localized). This study has 2 goals: 1) optimizing radiation for patients who respond well to induction chemotherapy to diminish spinal cord relapses, 2) utilizing higher dose chemotherapy followed by conventional RT in patients who did not respond to induction chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs, such as carboplatin, etoposide, ifosfamide, and thiotepa, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Radiation therapy uses high energy x-rays or high-energy protons to kill tumor cells and shrink tumors. Studies have shown that patients with newly-diagnosed localized NGGCT, whose disease responds well to chemotherapy before receiving radiation therapy, are more likely to be free of the disease for a longer time than are patients for whom the chemotherapy does not efficiently eliminate or reduce the size of the tumor. The purpose of this study is to see how well the tumors respond to induction chemotherapy to decide what treatment to give next. Some patients will be given RT to the spine and a portion of the brain. Others will be given high dose chemotherapy and a stem cell transplant before RT to the whole brain and spine. Giving treatment based on the response to induction chemotherapy may lower the side effects of radiation in some patients and adjust the therapy to a more efficient one for other patients with localized NGGCT.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Randomized Study in Children and Adolescents With Migraine: Acute Treatment
The purpose of this study is to test the safety and efficacy of BHV-3000 versus placebo in the acute treatment of moderate or severe migraine in children and adolescents.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Kiley.Poppino@UTSouthwestern.edu
• History of migraine (with or without aura) for \> 6 months before Screening according to the IHS Classification ICHD-319 specifications for pediatric migraine. History may be verified using both medical records and recall by the participant and/or participant's parent(s)/legal representative(s).
• History of 1 to 8 moderate or severe attacks per month during the 2 months prior to enrollment, with attacks lasting \> 3 hours without treatment, and attacks occurring at intervals \> 24 hours.
• Prophylactic migraine medication are permitted if the dose has been stable for at least 12 weeks prior to the Baseline Visit, and the dose is not expected to change during the course of the study.
• Participants may remain on one (1) medication with possible migraine prophylactic effects, excluding CGRP antagonists \[biologic or small molecule\], during the treatment phases.
• Concomitant use of a CGRP antagonist, such as erenumab or fremanezumab, is prohibited.
• Previously discontinued prophylactic migraine medication must have done so at least 90 days prior to the Screening Visit.
• Verbally distinguish between migraine and other types of headaches.
• Participants must have a weight \> 40 kg at the Screening Visit.
• Adequate venous access for blood sampling.
• Male and female participants ≥ 6 to \< 18 years of age (participants must not reach their 18th birthday during the study).
• History of cluster headache or hemiplegic migraine headache.
• Confounding and clinically significant pain syndrome that may interfere with the participant's ability to participate in this study.
• Current psychiatric condition that is uncontrolled and/or untreated for a minimum of 6 months prior to the Screening Visit. Participants with a lifetime history of psychosis and/or mania.
• History of suicidal behavior or major psychiatric disorder.
• Current diagnosis or history of substance abuse; positive drug test at Screening.
• History of moderate or severe head trauma or other neurological disorder (including seizure disorder) or systemic medical disease that is likely to affect central nervous system functioning.
• Recent or planned surgery, requiring general anesthesia, \<8 weeks prior to the Screening Visit.
• Participant has had gastrointestinal surgery that interferes with physiological absorption and motility (i.e., gastric bypass, duodenectomy, or gastric banding).
• Current diagnosis of viral hepatitis or a history of liver disease.
• Conditions considered clinically relevant in the context of the study such as uncontrolled hypertension (high blood pressure), diabetes, a life-threatening allergy
Motor Outcomes to Validate Evaluations in FSHD (MOVE FSHD) (MOVE FSHD)
The primary goal of this proposal is to collect motor and functional outcomes specific to FSHD over time. By collecting measures specific to FSHD, this will help ensure the best level of clinical care is being provided. Also, the hope is to speed up drug development by gaining a better understanding of how having FSHD impacts motor function and other health outcomes (i.e. breathing, wheelchair use, etc.) and how big a change in motor function would be clinically meaningful to those with FSHD. Motor Outcomes to Validate Evaluations in FSHD (MOVE FSHD) will have approximately 450 FSHD participants followed for a minimum of 3 years. A subset of MOVE FSHD participants, approximately 200, will participate in the MOVE+ sub-study which includes whole body MRI and muscle biopsy.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Tyler.Arrington@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Genetically confirmed FSHD (types 1 or 2) or clinical diagnosis of FSHD with characteristic findings on exam and an affected parent or offspring.
• Unwilling or unable to provide informed consent.
• Any other medical condition which in the opinion of the investigator would interfere with study participation.
Testing the Addition of Lenalidomide and Nivolumab to the Usual Treatment for Primary CNS Lymphoma
This phase I trial tests the safety, side effects, best dose and effectiveness of lenalidomide when added to nivolumab and the usual drugs (rituximab and methotrexate) in patients with primary central nervous system (CNS) lymphoma. Lenalidomide may stop or slow primary CNS lymphoma by blocking the growth of new blood vessels necessary for tumor growth. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as nivolumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of cancer cells to grow and spread. Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that may interfere with the ability of cancer cells to grow and spread. Methotrexate is frequently combined with other chemotherapy agents to improve response. This study may help increase the understanding of lenalidomide and nivolumab use in primary CNS lymphoma treatment. In addition, it may help researchers see whether the control of CNS lymphoma can be extended by using these study drugs as maintenance (prolonged therapy) after control is achieved with the initial chemotherapy regimen (induction).
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Cool Prime Comparative Effectiveness Study for Mild HIE (COOLPRIME)
To determine effectiveness of therapy to improve neurodevelopmental outcomes in infants with mild HIE. To determine the adverse effects of Therapeutic Hypothermia (TH) in mild HIE on the neonate and his/her family. Determine heterogeneity of the treatment effect across key subgroups obtained in the first 6 hours after birth prior to the decision to initiate therapy.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Pollieanna.Sepulveda@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Neonates born at ≥ 36 0/7 weeks
• Mild Encephalopathy on neonatal neurologic exam within 6 hours after birth: defined as presence of at least 2 signs of mild, moderate, or severe encephalopathy with no more than 2 signs in the moderate or severe category.
• Perinatal Acidosis based on at least one of the following (A or B):
• pH ≤ 7.00 in any cord or first infant gas (arterial, venous, or capillary) within ≤ 60 min OR base deficit ≥ 16 in any cord or first infant gas (arterial, venous or capillary) within ≤ 60 min
• If pH is between 7.01 and 7.15, OR base deficit is between 10 and 15.9 mmol/liter, OR blood gas is not available, an acute perinatal event is an additional criteria required (see below definition) An acute perinatal event is defined by at least one of the following:
• Apgar score at 10 min ≤ 5
• Continued need for resuscitation at 10 min (chest compressions, bag mask ventilation, or positive pressure ventilation)
• Uterine rupture, placental abruption, cord accident (prolapse, rupture, knot or tight nuchal cord)
• maternal trauma, maternal hemorrhage, or cardiorespiratory arrest
• fetal exsanguination from either vasa previa or feto-maternal hemorrhage, shoulder dystocia
• Any evidence suggestive of acute perinatal event. Infants are still eligible for enrollment in the COOLPRIME study if the cord or infant's first blood gas (arterial, venous, or capillary) is obtained \>60 minutes of life.
• Gestational age at birth \< 36 0/7 weeks
• Birth weight \< 1800gm
• Head circumference \<30cm
• Congenital or chromosomal anomaly associated with abnormal neurodevelopment or death
• Moderate or Severe HIE of 3 or more moderate or severe abnormalities on COOLPRIME Sarnat exam within 6 hours of life
• Any seizures within first six hours of life
• Redirection of care is being considered
CLOZAPINE Response in Biotype-1
The CLOZAPINE study is designed as a multisite study across 5 sites and is a clinical trial, involving human participants who are prospectively assigned to an intervention. The study will utilize a stringent randomized, double-blinded, parallel group clinical trial design. B2 group will serve as psychosis control with risperidone as medication control. The study is designed to evaluate effect of clozapine on the B1 participants, and the effect that will be evaluated is a biomedical outcome. The study sample will be comprised of individuals with psychosis, including 1) schizophrenia, 2) schizoaffective disorder and 3) psychotic bipolar I disorder. The investigators plan to initially screen and recruit n=524 (from both the existing B-SNIP library and newly-identified psychosis cases, \~50% each) in order to enroll n=320 (B1 and B2) into the RCT.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Asha.Philip@UTSouthwestern.edu
A Study to Evaluate Tabelecleucel in Participants With Epstein Barr Virus (EBV) Associated Diseases
The purpose of this study is to assess the efficacy and safety of tabelecleucel in participants with EBV-associated diseases.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Trametinib and Everolimus for Treatment of Pediatric and Young Adult Patients With Recurrent Gliomas (PNOC021)
This phase I trial studies the side effects and best dose of trametinib and everolimus in treating pediatric and young adult patients with gliomas that have come back (recurrent). Trametinib acts by targeting a protein in cells called MEK and disrupting tumor growth. Everolimus is a drug that may block another pathway in tumor cells that can help tumors grow. Giving trametinib and everolimus may work better to treat low and high grade gliomas compared to trametinib or everolimus alone.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Cerebellar tDCS in Children With Autism Spectrum Disorder
The purpose of this research study is to investigate whether tDCS to the cerebellum (specifically, the right crus I/II area of the cerebellum) of children and young adults with autism spectrum disorders (ASD) is safe and to examine its effects on some of the symptoms of ASD, such as repetitive behaviors and hyperactivity.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Haley.Walker@UTSouthwestern.edu
• 4-17 years old
• Diagnosed with ASD and ADOS-2
• IQ Score no less than 70 (1.5 Standard Deviations below the mean)
• Language Level (Speech consists of, at minimum, flexible, spontaneous, simple, sentences)
• Brain implants, metal implants, pacemakers, or biomedical devices
• Diagnosis of epilepsy
• Hearing or visual impairments
• History of brain injury
• Known brain abnormalities not associated with ASD
The ExTINGUISH Trial of Inebilizumab in NMDAR Encephalitis (ExTINGUISH)
Determine the difference in the modified Rankin score at 16 weeks in participants with anti-N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor (NMDAR) encephalitis treated with "first-line" immunomodulatory therapies provided as standard-of-care, and either inebilizumab (investigational agent) or placebo.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Taylor.Hinojo@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Diagnosis of NMDAR encephalitis, defined by both a and b:
• A subacute onset of change in mental status consistent with autoimmune encephalitis,
• A positive cell-based assay for anti-NMDA receptor IgG antibody in the CSF confirmed in study-specified laboratories.
• Participants, ≥ 12 years of age at the time of informed consent. Participants under 18 years of age must weigh ≥40 kilograms.
• Written informed consent and any locally required authorization (e.g., Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act \[HIPAA\] in the United States of America \[USA\], European Union \[EU\] Data Privacy Directive in the EU) obtained from the participant/legal representative prior to performing any protocol-related procedures, including screening evaluations.
• Non-sterilized participants who are sexually active with a partner capable of becoming pregnant must use a condom with spermicide from Day 1 through to the end of the study and must agree to continue using such precautions for at least 6 months after the final dose of IP. A recommendation will be made that the partners (capable of becoming pregnant) of study participants (capable of getting their partner pregnant) should use a highly effective method of contraception other than a physical method. Participants of childbearing potential who are sexually active with a non-sterilized partner capable of getting their partner pregnant must agree to use a highly effective method of contraception beginning at screening or upon discharge from hospitalization/inpatient rehabilitation (for participants who were incapacitated at the time of screening), and to continue precautions for 12 months after the final dose of IP.
• Participants of childbearing potential are defined as those who are not surgically sterile (e.g., bilateral tubal ligation, bilateral oophorectomy, or complete hysterectomy) or those who are not postmenopausal (per ICH M3 (R2) 11.2: defined as 12 months with no menses without an alternative medical cause).
• A highly effective method of contraception is defined as one that results in a low failure rate (i.e., less than 1% per year) when used consistently and correctly. Periodic abstinence, the rhythm method, and the withdrawal method do not qualify as "highly effective" or acceptable methods of contraception for study purposes. Acceptable methods of contraception are listed in the table below: Physical Methods Hormonal Methods e • Intrauterine device (IUD) • Intrauterine hormone-releasing system, also known as drug-eluting IUD a • Bilateral tubal occlusion • Vasectomized partner b • Sexual abstinence c • Combined (estrogen and progestogen-containing hormonal contraception) * Oral (combined pill) * Injectable * Transdermal (patch) * Progestogen-only hormonal contraception associated with inhibition of ovulation d * Implantable * Intravaginal a This is also considered to be a hormonal method. b With appropriate post-vasectomy documentation of surgical success (absence of sperm in ejaculate). c Sexual abstinence is considered to be a highly effective method only if defined as refraining from heterosexual intercourse during the entire period of the study and if it is the preferred and usual lifestyle of the participant. d Progestogen-only hormonal contraception, where inhibition of ovulation is not the primary mode of action (minipill) is not accepted as a highly effective method. e These methods are only considered highly effective and therefore acceptable when used in conjunction with a barrier method (i.e., diaphragm with spermicide, sponge with spermicide, cervical cap with spermicide, condoms, spermicide alone.)
• Willing to forgo other immunomodulatory therapies (investigational or otherwise) for NMDAR encephalitis during the study.
• Participant must have received at least 3 days of methylprednisolone 1000 mg IV or equivalent corticosteroid within 90 days prior to randomization (Day 1). In addition, participants must have received EITHER of the following treatments within 90 days before randomization.
• IVIg, at a dose range between 1.2 and 2 g/kg
• Plasma exchange or plasmapheresis, (defined as 5 to 6 exchanges). NOTE: These treatments may be provided during the screening period but must be completed prior to randomization. Participants who receive methylprednisolone and BOTH IVIg and plasma exchange are not excluded from participating in the trial, however, this treatment course with both IVIg and plasma exchange is not encouraged, and enrollment and randomization should not be delayed in order to complete additional first line treatments.
• Modified Rankin Score of ≥3 at the screening visit, indicating at least moderate disability. The baseline mRS must be confirmed by Site Investigators at screening and confirmed / adjudicated before randomization.
• Ability and willingness to attend study visits and complete the study. \*All inclusion criteria must be met during the screening period, prior to randomization, except where noted. Exclusion Criteria Any of the following excludes an individual from participation in the study:
• Any condition that, in the opinion of the Investigator, would interfere with the evaluation or administration of the IP, interpretation of participant safety or study results, or would make participation in the study an unacceptable risk. This specifically includes recent history (last 5 years) of herpes simplex virus encephalitis or known central nervous system demyelinating disease (e.g., multiple sclerosis).
• Presence of an active or chronic infection that is serious in the opinion of the Investigator.
• History of solid organ or cell-based transplantation.
• Concurrent/previous enrollment in another clinical study involving an investigational treatment within 4 weeks or 5 published half-lives of the investigational treatment, whichever is longer, prior to randomization.
• Lactating or pregnant individuals, or individuals who intend to become pregnant anytime from study enrollment to 12 months following last dose of investigational agent.
• Known history of allergy or reaction to any component of the investigational agent formulation or history of anaphylaxis following any biologic therapy.
• Receipt of the following at any time prior to randomization: a. Alemtuzumab b. Total lymphoid irradiation c. Bone marrow transplant d. T-cell vaccination therapy
• Receipt of any biologic B cell-depleting therapy (e.g., rituximab, ocrelizumab, obinutuzumab, ofatumumab, inebilizumab) in the 6 months prior to screening. Receipt of such a B cell-depleting agent in the period 6-12 months prior to screening is exclusionary unless B cell counts have returned to ≥ age-based LLN by central laboratory. For EU participants, B cell counts at screening will be determined by the laboratories of the participating sites. Receipt of non-depleting B cell-directed therapy (e.g., belimumab), abatacept, or other biologic immunomodulatory agent within 6 months prior screening.
• Treatment at therapeutic doses/durations with any of the following within 3 months prior to randomization a. Natalizumab (Tysabri®) b. Cyclosporine c. Methotrexate d. Mitoxantrone e. Cyclophosphamide\* f. Azathioprine g. Mycophenolate mofetil \*Cyclophosphamide is only permitted as rescue therapy to be administered as outlined in Section 5.4.1 no earlier than the week 6 visit.
• Severe drug allergic history or anaphylaxis to two or more food products or medicines (including known sensitivity to acetaminophen/paracetamol, diphenhydramine (cetirizine in EU) or equivalent antihistamine, and methylprednisolone or equivalent glucocorticoid).
• Known history of a primary immunodeficiency (congenital or acquired) or an underlying condition such as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection or splenectomy that predisposes the participant to infection.
• Active malignancy or history of malignancy that was active within the last 10 years, apart from ovarian or extra-ovarian teratoma (also known as a dermoid cyst) or germ cell tumor, or squamous cell carcinoma of the skin or basal cell carcinoma of the skin, that in the opinion of the Medical Safety Monitor (MSM) would preclude enrollment due to safety concerns. Squamous cell and basal cell carcinomas should be treated with documented success of curative therapy \> 3 months prior to randomization.
• At screening (repeat testing may be conducted to confirm results within the same screening period, prior to randomization), any of the following: a. Total white blood count \<2,500 cells/mm3 (or \< 2.5 × 109/L) b. Total immunoglobulin \< 600 mg/dL (or 6 µmol/L; 400 mg/dL for participants \<18 years)\* c. Absolute neutrophil count \< 1200 cells/μL (or \< 1.2 × 109/L) d. CD4 T lymphocyte count \< 300 cells/µL (or \< 0.3 × 109/L) \*Baseline levels of IgG prior to first line treatments (methylprednisolone, plasmapheresis/plasma exchange) should be used to determine eligibility.
• Active hepatitis B or C established with positive hepatitis B serology (hepatitis B surface antigen and core antigen) and/or positive hepatitis C PCR testing and confirmed by the MSM
• Any live or attenuated vaccine within 4 weeks prior to Day 1 (administration of killed vaccines is acceptable).
• Bacillus of Calmette and Guérin (BCG) vaccine within 1 year of enrollment.
• History of alcohol or drug abuse that, in the opinion of the Investigator, might affect participant safety or compliance with visits or interfere with safety or other study assessments.
• Recurrence of previously treated NMDAR encephalitis within the last 5 years, or suspicion of symptomatic untreated NMDAR encephalitis of greater than 3 months duration at the time of screening.
• Evidence of active tuberculosis\* (TB) or being at high risk for TB based on: a. History of active TB or untreated/incompletely treated latent TB. Participants with a history of active or latent TB who have documentation of completion of treatment according to local guidelines may be enrolled. b. History of recent (≤ 12 weeks of screening) close contact with someone with active TB (close contact is defined as ≥ 4 hours/week OR living in the same household OR in a house where a person with active TB is a frequent visitor). c. Signs or symptoms that could represent active TB by medical history or physical examination. d. Positive, indeterminate, or invalid interferon-gamma release assay test result at screening, unless previously treated for TB. Participants with an indeterminate test result can repeat the test once, but if the repeat test is also indeterminate, the participant is excluded. e. Chest radiograph, chest computed tomography or MRI scan that suggests a possible diagnosis of TB or suggests that a work-up for TB should be considered; all participants must have had lung imaging with an acceptable reading within 6 months prior to consent, or during screening.
• Active, clinically significant (CS) infection at the time of randomization (IP administration may be delayed until recovery, if within 14-day screening window, otherwise participant may be rescreened). Exclusion criteria are applied at time of screening and are applicable throughout the study. * Participants will undergo QuantiFERON®-TB Gold testing or equivalent TB testing during screening as standard of care. A positive result will not exclude patients from participation; thus, enrollment should not be delayed awaiting this result. If positive, an appropriate course of anti-TB treatment will need to be documented. If results are in indeterminate, participants may still be eligible for randomization if history is not suggestive of active / latent TB and a chest x-ray shows no evidence of active or latent TB.
• 1 Additional Eligibility Considerations The following criteria are not necessarily exclusionary but require review from the MSM to determine if a participant should be excluded due to safety concerns:
• At screening (out of range lab values may be reviewed with the MSM to determine whether a potential participant should be excluded for safety reasons; repeat testing may be conducted to confirm results within the same screening period, prior to randomization), any of the following:
• Aspartate transaminase (AST) \> 2.5 × age-based upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Alanine transaminase (ALT) \> 2.5 × age-based ULN
• Total bilirubin \> 1.5 × age-based ULN (unless due to Gilbert's syndrome)
• Platelet count \< 75,000/μL (or \< 75 × 109/L)
• Hemoglobin \< 8 g/dL (or \< 80 g/L or 5 mmol/L)
• History of untreated hepatitis C infection. Participants who are considered cured following antiviral therapy with an HCV load below the limit of detection may be enrolled pending confirmation from the MSM that there are no safety concerns for inclusion.
• Patients with coexistent autoantibodies should not immediately be excluded but should be reviewed with the MSM to determine eligibility.
Eflornithine (DFMO) and Etoposide for Relapsed/Refractory Neuroblastoma
Difluoromethylornithine (DFMO) will be used in an open label, multicenter, study in combination with etoposide for subjects with relapsed/refractory neuroblastoma.
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• Myelosuppressive chemotherapy: Must not have received within 2 weeks of enrollment onto this study (6 weeks if prior nitrosourea).
• Hematopoietic growth factors: At least 5 days since the completion of therapy with a growth factor.
• Biologic (anti-neoplastic agent): At least 7 days since the completion of therapy with a biologic agent. For agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur. The duration of this interval must be discussed with the Study Chair.
• Immunotherapy: At least 6 weeks since the completion of any type of immunotherapy, e.g. tumor vaccines, CAR-T cells.
• Anti-GD2 Monoclonal antibodies: At least 2 weeks must have elapsed since prior treatment with a monoclonal antibody.
• XRT: At least 14 days since the last treatment except for radiation delivered with palliative intent to a non-target site.
• Stem Cell Transplant:
• Allogeneic: No evidence of active graft vs. host disease
• Allo/Auto: ≥ 2 months must have elapsed since transplant.
• MIBG Therapy: At least 8 weeks since treatment with MIBG therapy * Subjects must have a Lansky or Karnofsky Performance Scale score of 60% or higher. * Life expectancy \> 2 months * All clinical and laboratory studies for organ functions to determine eligibility must be performed within 7 days prior to first dose of study drug unless otherwise indicated below. * Subjects must have adequate organ functions at the time of registration: * Hematological: Total absolute neutrophil count ANC ≥750/μL * Liver: Subjects must have adequate liver function as defined by AST and ALT \<5x upper limit of normal (Normal=45), Bilirubin \<1.5x upper limit normal (Normal=1.0). Normal PT, PTT, fibrinogen. * Renal: Estimated Glomerular Filtration rate (eGFR) as calculated from the Bedside Schwartz equation (in units of mL/min/1.73 m2) or via radioisotope GFR of ≥ 70. The Bedside Schwartz equation is: \[(0.413) X (Height in cm)\] / SCr * Subjects of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test. Subjects of childbearing potential must agree to use an effective birth control method. Subjects who are lactating must agree to stop breast-feeding. * Written informed consent in accordance with institutional and FDA guidelines must be obtained from all subjects (or patients' legal representative).
Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Safety Profile of Understudied Drugs Administered to Children Per Standard of Care (POPS) (POPS or POP02)
The study investigators are interested in learning more about how drugs, that are given to children by their health care provider, act in the bodies of children and young adults in hopes to find the most safe and effective dose for children. The primary objective of this study is to evaluate the PK of understudied drugs currently being administered to children per SOC as prescribed by their treating provider.
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studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Aruna.Ayalasomayajula@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Participant is \< 21 years of age
• Parent/ Legal Guardian/ Adult Participant can understand the consent process and is willing to provide informed consent/HIPAA:
• (a) Participant is receiving one or more of the study drugs of interest at the time of enrollment or (b) Participant is NOT receiving one or more of the study drugs of interest but is SARS-COV-2 positive within 60 days prior to enrollment
• Participant has a known pregnancy Below exclusion criteria apply only to: Participants receiving one or more of the study drugs of interest at the time of enrollment, DOI administration or PK sampling: (Refer to DOI specific appendices for details on enrollment cohort specifications and additional eligibility criteria)
• Has had intermittent dialysis within previous 24 hours
• Has had a kidney transplant within previous 30 days
• Has had a liver transplant within previous 1 year
• Has had a stem cell transplant within previous 1 year
• Has had therapeutic hypothermia within previous 24 hours
• Has had plasmapheresis within the previous 24 hours
• Has a Ventricular Assist Device
• Has any condition which would make the participant, in the opinion of the investigator, unsuitable for the study
Pragmatic Evaluation of Events And Benefits of Lipid-lowering in Older Adults (PREVENTABLE)
PREVENTABLE is a multi-center, randomized, parallel group, placebo-controlled superiority study. Participants will be randomized 1:1 to atorvastatin 40 mg or placebo. This large study conducted in community-dwelling older adults without cardiovascular disease (CVD) or dementia will demonstrate the benefit of statins for reducing the primary composite of death, dementia, and persistent disability and secondary composites including mild cognitive impairment (MCI) and cardiovascular events.
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studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Gentina.Thompson@UTSouthwestern.edu
A Study of the Drugs Selumetinib vs. Carboplatin and Vincristine in Patients With Low-Grade Glioma
This phase III trial compares the effect of selumetinib versus the standard of care treatment with carboplatin and vincristine (CV) in treating patients with newly diagnosed or previously untreated low-grade glioma (LGG) that does not have a genetic abnormality called BRAFV600E mutation and is not associated with systemic neurofibromatosis type 1. Selumetinib works by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth and may kill tumor cells. Carboplatin is in a class of medications known as platinum-containing compounds. It works in a way similar to the anticancer drug cisplatin, but may be better tolerated than cisplatin. Carboplatin works by killing, stopping or slowing the growth of tumor cells. Vincristine is in a class of medications called vinca alkaloids. It works by stopping tumor cells from growing and dividing and may kill them. The overall goal of this study is to see if selumetinib works just as well as the standard treatment of CV for patients with LGG. Another goal of this study is to compare the effects of selumetinib versus CV in subjects with LGG to find out which is better. Additionally, this trial will also examine if treatment with selumetinib improves the quality of life for subjects who take it.
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Cobimetinib in Refractory Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH), and Other Histiocytic Disorders (NACHO-COBI)
This is a research study of a drug called cobimetinib in children and adults diagnosed with Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH), and other histiocytic disorders that has returned or does not respond to treatment. Cobimetinib blocks activation of a protein called Mitogen-activated protein kinase (MEK) that is part of incorrect growth signals in histiocytosis cells. Four different groups of patients will be enrolled.
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• For Group 1: Participant must be at least 6 months of age and less than 21 years of age at the time of enrollment
• For Group 2: Participant may be at least 6 months of age at the time of enrollment
• For Group 3: Participant must be at least 6 months of age and less than 21 years of age at the time of enrollment
• For Group 4: Participant must be 21 years of age or older at the time of enrollment
• Participant must be able to take an enteral dose and formulation of medication. Study medication is only available as an oral suspension or tablet which may be taken by mouth or other enteral route such as nasogastric or gastric tube.
• Biopsy proven LCH -AND
• Failure of at least front-line therapy for LCH with evaluable disease. -OR
• Diagnosis of LCH-associated neurodegenerative disease with radiologic or clinical progression within the past 3 months. -OR
• Biopsy proven JXG, ECD, RDD, histiocytic sarcoma, or other histiocytic lesion (newly diagnosed or relapsed/refractory disease) with evaluable active disease. Performance Level: -Karnofsky ≥ 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky ≥ 50% for patients ≤ 16 years of age. Adequate Hematologic Function Defined as:
• ANC ≥ 0.75 x 10^9/L (unsupported/without growth factor stimulant)
• Platelet count ≥ 75 x 10^9/L (unsupported/without transfusion within the past 7 days).
• Patients with marrow disease must have platelet count of >/= 75 x 10^9/L (transfusion support allowed) and must not be refractory to platelet transfusions.
• Hemoglobin ≥ 8 g/dL (unsupported/without transfusion within the past 7 days)
• Patients with marrow disease must have hemoglobin ≥ 8 g/dL (transfusion support allowed). Adequate Renal Function Defined as:
• Calculated creatinine clearance (or radioisotope GFR) ≥ 70 mL/min/1.73m^2 or serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows: Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL) Age 2 to < 6 years: Male 0.8 mg/d, Female 0.8; 6 to < 10 years: Male 1 mg/dL,Female 1; 10 to < 13 years: Male 1.2 mg/dL; Female 1.2; 13 to < 16 years: Male 1.5 mg/dL ; Female 1.4; ≥ 16 years: Male 1.7 mg/dL; Female 1.4; Adequate Liver Function Defined as:
• Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated) ≤ 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• AST and ALT ≤ 3x ULN (≤ 5 x ULN for participants with liver involvement)
• Serum albumin ≥ 2 g/dL. For patients with liver disease caused by histiocytic disorder: • Patients may be enrolled with abnormal bilirubin, AST, ALT and albumin with documentation of histiocytic liver disease. Adequate Cardiac Function Defined as:
• Fractional shortening (FS) of ≥ 30% or ejection fraction of ≥ 50% by echocardiogram at baseline, as determined by echocardiography or multigated acquisition scan (MUGA) within 28 days prior to enrollment. Depending on institutional standard, either FS or LVEF is adequate for enrollment if only one value is measured; if both values are measured, then both values must meet criteria above Pregnancy/Birth Control
• Female patients of childbearing potential require a negative urine or serum pregnancy test for eligibility and again at database registration, if more than 2 weeks has elapsed.
• Female patients of childbearing potential must agree to follow the contraceptive requirements using two forms of effective contraceptive methods for the duration of the study treatment. Male patients with sexual partners who are pregnant or who could become pregnant (i.e., women of child-bearing potential) must agree to use two forms of effective methods of contraception (one of which must be a barrier method) during the treatment period and for at least 3 months after the last dose of the study drug to avoid pregnancy and/or potential adverse effects on a developing embryo. Agreement to true abstinence (not periodic abstinence or withdrawal method) is an acceptable method of birth control. EXCLUSION CRITERIA:
• Prior and Concomitant Use of Drugs with CYP3A4 inducing/inhibiting activity: Patient taking strong inducers or inhibitors of CYP3A4 within 14 days prior to study enrollment, including but not limited to the following: erythromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole, azithromycin, itraconazole, grapefruit juice or St. John's wort.
• Prior Therapy Restrictions Completion of previous chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiotherapy, or targeted therapy for LCH (or other histiocytic disorder) at least 28 days (except where specified below) prior to study enrollment, with resolution of all associated toxicity to ≤ Grade 1 prior to study enrollment (exception for alopecia and ototoxicity which do not need to be resolved ≤ Grade 1). Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anti-cancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anti-cancer directed therapy prior to enrollment. If after the required timeframe, the laboratory eligibility criteria are met, the patient is considered to have recovered adequately.
• Radiation therapy within the 28 days prior to enrollment.
• Any prior treatment with Cobimetinib.
• Treatment with a long-acting hematopoietic growth factor within 14 days prior to initiation of study drug or a short-acting hematopoietic growth factor within 7 days prior to enrollment.
• Treatment with hormonal therapy (except hormone replacement therapy or oral contraceptives), immunotherapy, biologic therapy, investigational therapy, or herbal cancer therapy within 28 days or < 5 half-lives, whichever is longer, prior to study enrollment.
• Treatment with high-dose chemotherapy and stem-cell rescue (autologous stem cell transplant) or allogeneic stem cell transplant within 90 days prior to enrollment. Anti-GVHD agents post-transplant: Patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to prevent graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant are not eligible for this trial.
• For patients with brain tumors (intracranial masses), use of anticoagulants within 7 days prior to enrollment.
• Corticosteroid therapy <0.5 mg/kg/day averaged during the month prior to study enrollment is permissible but must be discontinued fourteen (14) days prior to enrollment. Patients with documented brain lesions receiving corticosteroids for management of cerebral edema must be on a stable dose for fourteen (14) days prior to enrollment.
• Patient has received treatment with investigational therapy within 4 weeks prior to initiation of study drug.
• Patients taking anticoagulants or have a pre-existing bleeding disorder unrelated to histiocytic disease.
• Exclusions for other illness
• Other active malignancy or history of secondary malignancy.
• Refractory nausea and vomiting, malabsorption, external biliary shunt
• Infection: Patients who have a known active infection (excluding documented fungal infection of the nail beds) within 28 days prior to enrollment that has not completely resolved.
• Major surgical procedure or significant traumatic injury within 28 days prior to enrollment, or anticipation of need for major surgical procedure during the course of the study. Placement of a vascular access device or minor surgery is permitted within fourteen (14) days prior to study enrollment (provided that the wound has healed).
• History of significant bowel resection that would preclude adequate absorption or other significant malabsorptive disease.
• History of pneumonitis.
• Ophthalmologic considerations: Patients with known significant ophthalmologic conditions or known risk factors for retinal vein occlusion are not eligible. Specifically, patients with a history of retinal vein occlusion (RVO), retinal detachment, retinal pathology on ophthalmologic exam, retinopathy of prematurity, central serous chorioretinopathy (CSSCR), neovascular retinopathy, intraocular pressure > 21 mmHg, and predisposing factors to RVO (e.g., uncontrolled hypertension, diabetes, or hyperlipidemia, coagulopathy) will be excluded. Patients with longstanding and stable ophthalmologic findings secondary to existing conditions are eligible with appropriate written documentation and approval from Study Chair.
• History of solid organ transplantation: Patients who have received a prior solid organ transplantation are not eligible.
• Any other disease, metabolic or psychological dysfunction, physical examination finding, or clinical laboratory finding giving reasonable suspicion of a disease or condition that in the opinion of the investigator contraindicates use of an investigational drug or places the patient at unacceptable risk from treatment complications.
• History of clinically significant cardiac dysfunction, including the following:
• Clinically significant cardiac arrhythmias including brady-arrhythmias and/or patients who require anti-arrhythmic therapy (with the exception of beta blockers or digoxin). Patients with controlled atrial fibrillation are not excluded.
• Unstable arrhythmia
• Unstable angina, or new-onset angina within 3 months prior to initiation of study treatment
• Symptomatic congestive heart failure, defined as New York Heart Association Class II or higher
• Myocardial infarction within 3 months prior to initiation of study treatment
• Known chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
• History of Grade ≥ 2 CNS hemorrhage or history of any CNS hemorrhage within 28 days of enrollment.
• Female patients who are pregnant or lactating. Pregnant or lactating women will not be entered on this study because there is no available information regarding human fetal or teratogenic toxicities.
Best Available Therapy Versus Autologous Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplant for Multiple Sclerosis (BEAT-MS) (BEAT-MS)
This is a multi-center prospective rater-masked (blinded) randomized controlled trial of 156 participants, comparing the treatment strategy of Autologous Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation (AHSCT) to the treatment strategy of Best Available Therapy (BAT) for treatment-resistant relapsing multiple sclerosis (MS). Participants will be randomized at a 1 to 1 (1:1) ratio. All participants will be followed for 72 months after randomization (Day 0, Visit 0).
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• Age 18 to 55 years, inclusive, at the time of the screening Visit -2.
• Diagnosis of MS according to the 2017 McDonald Criteria139.
• EDSS ≤ 6.0 at the time of randomization (Day 0).
• T2 abnormalities on brain MRI that fulfill the 2017 McDonald MRI criteria for dissemination in space139. A detailed MRI report or MRI images must be available for review by the site neurology investigator.
• Highly active treatment-resistant relapsing MS, defined as ≥ 2 episodes of disease activity in the 36 months prior to the screening visit (Visit -2). The two disease activity episodes will be a clinical MS relapse or MRI evidence of MS disease activity and must meet all the criteria described below:
• At least one episode of disease activity must occur following ≥ 1 month of treatment with one of the following: (i) an oral DMT approved by the FDA for the treatment of relapsing MS, or (ii) a monoclonal antibody approved by the FDA for the treatment of relapsing MS, or (iii) rituximab. Qualifying DMTs include: dimethyl fumarate, diroximel fumarate, monomethyl fumarate, teriflunomide, cladribine, daclizumab, ponesimod, siponimod, ozanimod, fingolimod, rituximab, ocrelizumab, natalizumab, alemtuzumab, ublituximab, and ofatumumab, and
• At least one episode of disease activity must have occurred within the 12 months prior to the screening visit (Visit -2), and
• At least one episode of disease activity must be a clinical MS relapse (see item c.i. below). The other episode(s) must occur at least one month before or after the onset of the clinical MS relapse, and must be either another clinical MS relapse or MRI evidence of disease activity (see item c.ii. below): i. Clinical MS relapse must be confirmed by a neurologist's assessment and documented contemporaneously in the medical record. If the clinical MS relapse is not documented in the medical record, it must be approved by the study adjudication committee (see Section 3.5), and ii. MRI evidence of disease activity must include ≥ 1 unique active lesion on one or more brain or spinal cord MRIs. Detailed MRI reports or MRI images must be available for review by the site neurology investigator. A unique active lesion is defined as either of the following: 1\. A gadolinium-enhancing lesion, or 2. A new non-enhancing T2 lesion compared to a reference scan obtained not more than 36 months prior to the screening visit (Visit -2). 6\. Candidacy for treatment with at least one of the following high efficacy BAT DMTs: cladribine, natalizumab, alemtuzumab, ocrelizumab, ofatumumab, ublituximab and rituximab. Candidacy for treatment for each BAT DMT is defined as meeting all of the following:
• No prior disease activity episode, as defined in Inclusion Criterion #5, with the candidate BAT DMT, and
• No contraindication to the candidate BAT DMT, and
• No treatment with the candidate BAT DMT in the 12 months prior to screening. 7\. Completion of COVID-19 vaccination series, according to the current Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) recommendations, ≥ 14 days prior to randomization (Day 0). 8\. Positive for VZV antibodies, or completion of at least one dose of the varicella zoster glycoprotein E (gE) Shingrix vaccine at least 4 weeks prior to randomization (Day 0). 9\. Insurance approval for MS treatment with at least one candidate BAT DMT (see Inclusion Criterion #6). 10\. Ability to comply with study procedures and provide informed consent, in the opinion of the investigator. 11\. Females of childbearing potential (defined in Section 5.4.3.1) and males with female partners of childbearing potential are required to adhere to the contraception provisions of Section 5.4.3.1. 12\. For participants who use medicinal or recreational marijuana, willingness to substitute MARINOL® if randomized to AHSCT (Section 5.4.2.6).
• Diagnosis of primary progressive MS according to the 2017 McDonald criteria.
• History of neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder or MOG antibody disease.
• Prior treatment with an investigational agent within 3 months or 5 half-lives, whichever is longer. Agents authorized by the FDA for prevention or treatment of COVID-19 are not considered investigational.
• Either of the following within one month prior to randomization (Day 0):
• Onset of acute MS relapse, or
• Treatment with intravenous methylprednisolone 1000 mg/day for 3 days or equivalent.
• Initiation of any BAT DMT (see Section 5.2.1) between Visit -2 and randomization (Day 0).
• Brain MRI or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) examination indicating a diagnosis of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML).
• History of cytopenia consistent with the diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS).
• Presence of unexplained cytopenia, polycythemia, thrombocythemia or leukocytosis.
• History of sickle cell anemia or other hemoglobinopathy.
• Evidence of past or current hepatitis B or hepatitis C infection, including treated hepatitis B or hepatitis C. Hepatitis B surface antibody following hepatitis B immunization is not considered to be evidence of past infection.
• Presence or history of mild to severe cirrhosis.
• Hepatic disease with the presence of either of the following:
• Total bilirubin ≥ 1.5 times the upper limit of normal (ULN) or total bilirubin ≥ 3.0 times the ULN in the presence of Gilbert's syndrome, or
• Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) or Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST) ≥ 2.0 times the ULN.
• Positive COVID-19 PCR test, or alternative nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) per institutional standards, within 14 days prior to randomization (Day 0).
• Evidence of HIV infection.
• Positive QuantiFERON - TB Gold,TB Gold Plus, or T-SPOT®.TB test results. PPD tuberculin test may be substituted for QuantiFERON - TB Gold, TB Gold Plus, or T-SPOT®.TB test.
• Active viral, bacterial, endoparasitic, or opportunistic infections.
• Active invasive fungal infection.
• Hospitalization for treatment of infections or parenteral (IV or IM) antibacterials, antivirals, antifungals, or antiparasitic agents within the 30 days prior to randomization (Day 0) unless clearance is obtained from an Infectious Disease specialist.
• Receipt of live or live-attenuated vaccines within 6 weeks of randomization (Day 0).
• Presence or history of clinically significant cardiac disease including: a. Arrhythmia requiring treatment with any antiarrhythmia therapy, with the exception of low dose beta blocker for intermittent premature ventricular contractions. b. Coronary artery disease with a documented diagnosis of either: i. Chronic exertional angina, or ii. Signs or symptoms of congestive heart failure. c. Evidence of heart valve disease, including any of the following: i. Moderate to severe valve stenosis or insufficiency, or ii. Symptomatic mitral valve prolapse, or iii. Presence of prosthetic mitral or aortic valve.
• Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) \< 50%.
• Impaired renal function defined as eGFR \< 60 mL/min/1.73 m2, according to the CKD-EPI formula144.
• Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) \< 70% predicted (no bronchodilator).
• Diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO) (corrected for Hgb) \< 70% predicted.
• Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, defined as HbA1c \> 8%.
• History of malignancy, except adequately treated localized basal cell or squamous skin cancer, or carcinoma in situ of the cervix. Malignancies for which the participant is judged to be cured will be considered on an individual basis by the study adjudication committee (see Section 3.5).
• Presence or history of any moderate to severe rheumatologic autoimmune disease requiring treatment, including but not limited to the following: systemic lupus erythematous, systemic sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren's syndrome, polymyositis, dermatomyositis, mixed connective tissue disease, polymyalgia rheumatica, polychondritis, sarcoidosis, vasculitis syndromes, or unspecified collagen vascular disease.
• Presence of active peptic ulcer disease, defined as endoscopic or radiologic diagnosis of gastric or duodenal ulcer.
• Prior history of AHSCT.
• Prior history of solid organ transplantation.
• Positive pregnancy test or breastfeeding.
• Failure to willingly accept or comprehend irreversible sterility as a side effect of therapy.
• Psychiatric illness, mental deficiency, or cognitive dysfunction severe enough to interfere with compliance or informed consent.
• History of hypersensitivity to rabbit or Escherichia coli-derived proteins.
• Any metallic material or electronic device in the body, or other condition that precludes the participant from undergoing MRI with gadolinium administration, as determined by the site radiologist.
• Presence or history of ischemic cerebrovascular disorders, including but not limited to transient ischemic attack, subarachnoid hemorrhage, cerebral thrombosis, cerebral embolism, or cerebral hemorrhage.
• Presence or history of other neurological disorders, including but not limited to CNS or spinal cord tumor; metabolic or infectious cause of myelopathy; genetically-inherited progressive CNS disorder; CNS sarcoidosis; or systemic autoimmune disorders potentially causing progressive neurologic disease or affecting ability to perform the study assessments.
• Presence of any medical comorbidity that the investigator determines will significantly increase the risk of treatment mortality.
• Presence of any other concomitant medical condition that the investigator deems incompatible with trial participation.
A Trial to Evaluate Multiple Regimens in Newly Diagnosed and Recurrent Glioblastoma (GBM AGILE)
Glioblastoma (GBM) adaptive, global, innovative learning environment (GBM AGILE) is an international, seamless Phase II/III response adaptive randomization platform trial designed to evaluate multiple therapies in newly diagnosed (ND) and recurrent GBM.
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Inotuzumab Ozogamicin and Post-Induction Chemotherapy in Treating Patients With High-Risk B-ALL, Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia, and B-LLy
This phase III trial studies whether inotuzumab ozogamicin added to post-induction chemotherapy and immunotherapy (chemo-immunotherapy) for patients with High-Risk B-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (B-ALL) improves outcomes. This trial also studies the outcomes of patients with mixed phenotype acute leukemia (MPAL), and B-lymphoblastic lymphoma (B-LLy) when treated with ALL therapy without inotuzumab ozogamicin. Inotuzumab ozogamicin is a monoclonal antibody, called inotuzumab, linked to a type of chemotherapy called calicheamicin. Inotuzumab attaches to cancer cells in a targeted way and delivers calicheamicin to kill them. Other drugs used in the chemotherapy regimen, such as cyclophosphamide, cytarabine, dexamethasone, doxorubicin, daunorubicin, methotrexate, leucovorin, mercaptopurine, prednisone, thioguanine, vincristine, and pegaspargase or calaspargase pegol work in different ways to stop the growth of cancer cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Blinatumomab is a monoclonal antibody that may interfere with the ability of cancer cells to grow and spread. A monoclonal antibody is a type of protein that can bind to certain targets in the body, such as molecules that cause the body to make an immune response (antigens). This trial will also study the outcomes of patients with mixed phenotype acute leukemia (MPAL) and disseminated B lymphoblastic lymphoma (B-LLy) when treated with high-risk ALL chemotherapy. The overall goal of this study is to understand if adding inotuzumab ozogamicin to standard of care chemo-immunotherapy maintains or improves outcomes in High Risk B-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (HR B-ALL). The first part of the study includes the first two phases of therapy: Induction and Consolidation. This part will collect information on the leukemia, as well as the effects of the initial treatment, to classify patients into post-consolidation treatment groups. On the second part of this study, patients with HR B-ALL will receive the remainder of the chemotherapy cycles (interim maintenance 1, delayed intensification, interim maintenance 2, maintenance), with some patients randomized to receive inotuzumab. The patients that receive inotuzumab will not receive part of delayed intensification. Other aims of this study include investigating whether treating both males and females with the same duration of chemotherapy maintains outcomes for males who have previously been treated for an additional year compared to girls, as well as to evaluate the best ways to help patients adhere to oral chemotherapy regimens. Finally, this study will be the first to track the outcomes of subjects with disseminated B-cell Lymphoblastic Leukemia (B-LLy) or Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia (MPAL) when treated with B-ALL chemotherapy.
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