• Infants 33 0/7 to 35 6/7 weeks GA (best obstetrical estimate)
• Infants weight greater than or equal to 1500 grams at birth
• Postnatal age less than 6 hours
• Infants who meet clinical, biochemical and neurologic criteria for moderate to severe NE: Biochemical: Cord gas or blood gas within first hour of life with pH ≤7.00 or base deficit (BD) ≥16 mEq/L OR Acute perinatal event (e.g., abruptio placenta, cord prolapse, uterine rupture, severe FHR abnormality such as variable or late decelerations) AND Requirement for positive pressure ventilation for apnea or poor respiratory effort since birth for at least 10 minutes OR 10 minute Apgar score ≤5 AND Neurologic: Seizures OR modified Sarnat score with abnormalities in at least 3 of the 6 categories; at least one must be altered level of consciousness (lethargy or stupor/coma) as determined by a certified examiner (All infants who meet criteria for potential inclusion will undergo standard neurologic exam as for infants ≥36 wks GA being considered for hypothermia, with findings recorded)
• Receipt of sedative, analgesic or paralytic agent that may confound the qualifying neurologic exam
• Etiology of NE not likely to be hypoxic-ischemic in origin
• Major congenital anomaly that may confound outcome
• Considered to be moribund and will not be receiving full intensive care
• Equipment and/or appropriate staff not available
• Core temperature < 33.5oC for more than one hour at time of screening
• Unable to randomize by 6 hours of age
• Infant needs ECMO
• All blood gases (cord and postnatal at < 1hr of age) have a pH > 7.15 AND a base deficit < 10mEq/L

• Neonates ≤32wks GA requiring NCPAP in the delivery room or NICU for increasing respiratory distress or post-extubation from mechanical ventilation.
• Neonates requiring NCPAP for less than 48 hours
• Congenital anomalies
• Need for surgery
• Transfer to a different facility
• Grade 3-4 intraventricular hemorrhage

• Diagnosis of glucose transporter type I deficiency (G1D), confirmed by clinical genotyping at a CLIA-certified laboratory or by PET scan.
• Stable diet on either a modified atkins diet or on no dietary therapy (i.e., no dietary therapy for 1 month).
• Males and females 24 months to 35 years old, inclusive.
• Subjects with evidence of independent, unrelated metabolic and/or genetic disease.
• Subjects with a chronic gastrointestinal disorder, such as irritable bowel syndrome, Crohn's disease, or colitis that could increase the subject's risk of developing diarrhea or stomach pain.
• Subjects with a BMI (body mass index) greater than or equal to 30.
• Subjects currently on dietary therapy (i.e., ketogenic diet, medium chain triglyceride supplemented diets, Atkins diet, low glycemic index diet).
• Subjects with no evidence of abnormal EEG (spike wave discharges) in the last 12 months.
• Women who are pregnant or breast-feeding may not participate. Women who plan to become pregnant during the course of the study, or who are unwilling to use birth control to prevent pregnancy (including abstinence) may not participate. Females age 10 and over will be asked to provide a urine sample for a pregnancy test via dipstick. Subjects will be asked to agree to abstinence or another form of birth control for the duration of the study.
• Allergy/sensitivity to C7.
• Previous use of triheptanoin in the past 1 month. Subjects who participate in Protocol 1 of this study are thus eligible.
• Subjects exhibiting signs of dementia, or diagnosed with any degenerative brain disorder (such as Alzheimer's disease) that would confound assessment of cognitive changes, in the opinion of the investigator.
• Active drug or alcohol use or dependence that, in the opinion of the investigator, would interfere with adherence to study requirements.
• Inability or unwillingness of subject or legal guardian/representative to give written informed consent, or assent for children age 10-17.
• Addition of a new antiseizure drug in the previous 3 months.

• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients with recurrent or refractory solid tumors, including non-Hodgkin lymphomas, histiocytoses (e.g. langerhans cell histiocytosis [LCH], juvenile xanthogranuloma [JXG], histiocytic sarcoma), and central nervous system (CNS) tumors are eligible; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse except in patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors, optic pathway gliomas, or patients with pineal tumors and elevations of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or serum tumor markers including alpha-fetoprotein or beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG); in cases where patient enrolls prior to histologic confirmation of recurrent disease, patient is ineligible and should be withdrawn from study if histology fails to confirm recurrence; please note: Patients with Hodgkin lymphoma and plexiform neurofibroma are not eligible
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients must have an formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tumor sample available for MATCH study testing from a biopsy or surgery that was performed at any point after initial tumor recurrence/progression, or be planned to have a procedure to obtain such a sample that is considered to be of potential benefit by the treating clinicians; a tumor sample from a clinically performed diagnostic (pre-treatment) biopsy will be acceptable for enrollment onto Pediatric MATCH only for children with high-grade gliomas of the brainstem (diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas) or thalamus
• Please note: Samples that have been decalcified using standardly utilized acid-based decalcification methods are not generally suitable for MATCH study testing; the nucleic acids will have been degraded in the decalcification process
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age); note: neurologic deficits in patients with CNS tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: NOTE: patient does not need to meet all subprotocol criteria at time of enrollment onto the APEC1621SC screening protocol, but will need to meet all criteria prior to enrollment on any assigned treatment subprotocol. Patients must be enrolled onto a subprotocol within 12 weeks (84 days) of treatment assignment
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age); Note: neurologic deficits in patients with CNS tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: At the time of treatment with subprotocol specified therapy, the patients must have radiographically measurable disease; patients with neuroblastoma who do not have measurable disease but have iobenguane (MIBG) positive (+) evaluable are eligible; measurable disease in patients with CNS involvement is defined as tumor that is measurable in two perpendicular diameters on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and visible on more than one slice
• Note: The following do not qualify as measurable disease:
• Malignant fluid collections (e.g., ascites, pleural effusions)
• Bone marrow infiltration except that detected by MIBG scan for neuroblastoma
• Lesions only detected by nuclear medicine studies (e.g., bone, gallium or positron emission tomography [PET] scans) except as noted for neuroblastoma
• Elevated tumor markers in plasma or CSF
• Previously radiated lesions that have not demonstrated clear progression post radiation
• Leptomeningeal lesions that do not meet the measurement requirements for Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: At the time of enrollment onto a subprotocol, the following general criteria for initiation of therapy will be required:
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anticancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anticancer directed therapy prior to enrollment to the subprotocol; if after the required timeframe, the numerical eligibility criteria are met, e.g. blood count criteria, the patient is considered to have recovered adequately
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anticancer agents known to be myelosuppressive: for agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment >= 21 days after the last dose of cytotoxic or myelosuppressive chemotherapy (42 days if prior nitrosourea)
• Anticancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g. not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil counts [ANC]): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent; for agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment
• Antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1
• Corticosteroids: If used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Hematopoietic growth factors: >= 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g. Neulasta) or 7 days for short-acting growth factor; for agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur; the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator
• Interleukins, interferons and cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors): >= 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon or cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors)
• Stem cell infusions (with or without total-body irradiation [TBI]):
• Allogeneic (non-autologous) bone marrow or stem cell transplant, or any stem cell infusion including donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI) or boost infusion: >= 84 days after infusion and no evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD)
• Autologous stem cell infusion including boost infusion: >= 42 days
• Cellular therapy: >= 42 days after the completion of any type of cellular therapy (e.g. modified T cells, NK cells, dendritic cells, etc.)
• X-ray therapy (XRT)/External Beam Irradiation including Protons: >= 14 days after local XRT; >= 150 days after TBI, craniospinal XRT or if radiation to >= 50% of the pelvis; >= 42 days if other substantial bone marrow (BM) radiation; note: radiation may not be delivered to "measurable disease" tumor site(s) being used to follow response to subprotocol treatment
• Radiopharmaceutical therapy (e.g., radiolabeled antibody, 131I-MIBG): >= 42 days after systemically administered radiopharmaceutical therapy
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement:
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/mm^3
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (transfusion independent, defined as not receiving platelet transfusions for at least 7 days prior to enrollment)
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients with known bone marrow metastatic disease will be eligible for study provided they meet the blood counts (may receive transfusions provided they are not known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusions); these patients will not be evaluable for hematologic toxicity
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70ml/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• Age: 1 to < 2 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 0.6; female 0.6
• Age: 2 to < 6 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 0.8; female 0.8
• Age: 6 to < 10 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1; female 1
• Age: 10 to < 13 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.2; female 1.2
• Age: 13 to < 16 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.5; female 1.4
• Age: >= 16 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.7; female 1.4
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated) =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine transferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L)
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients must be able to swallow intact capsules/tablets, unless otherwise specified in the subprotocol to which they are assigned
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Agent specific limitations on prior therapy will be included with specific treatment subprotocols
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Pregnant or breast-feeding women will not be entered on this study due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies, or because there is currently no available information regarding human fetal or teratogenic toxicities; pregnancy tests must be obtained in females who are post-menarchal; males or females of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Concomitant medications
• Corticosteroids: at the time of consent and enrollment to regimen specific subprotocols, patients receiving corticosteroids who have not been on a stable or decreasing dose of corticosteroid for at least 7 days prior to enrollment to the subprotocol will not be eligible; if used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Investigational drugs: patients must meet criteria for prior therapy at the time of consent and enrollment to a subprotocol; other investigational agents may not be administered to patients while they are receiving study drug as part of a subprotocol
• Anticancer agents: patients must meet criteria for prior therapy at the time of consent and enrollment to a subprotocol; other investigational agents may not be administered to patients while they are receiving study drug as part of a subprotocol
• Anti-GVHD agents post-transplant: patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to prevent graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients who have had a prior solid organ transplant are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Additional agent specific criteria will be included with specific treatment subprotocols

• Written informed consent (and assent when applicable) obtained from subject or subject's legal representative
• Enrolled in the Cystic Fibrosis Foundation Patient Registry (CFFPR)
• Male or female ≥ 4 months of age on day of study visit
• Documentation of a CF diagnosis as evidenced by one or more clinical features consistent with the CF phenotype and one or more of the following criteria:
• Sweat chloride equal to or greater than 60 milliequivalent (mEq)/liter by quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test (QPIT)
• Two well-characterized mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene
• Current treatment with a prescribed commercially approved CFTR modulator for at least 3 months prior to enrollment
• Able to perform the testing and procedures required for this study, as judged by the investigator
• Presence of a condition or abnormality that, in the opinion of the Investigator, would compromise the safety of the patient or the quality of the data
• Currently enrolled in an investigational trial (including open-label follow-on studies and Expedited Access Pathway (EAP)) of an agent expected to have an impact on sweat chloride (refer to current list provided on study website)

• Low risk stratum (stage I ovarian immature teratoma and stage I malignant GCT [all sites]): Patients must be < 50 years of age at enrollment
• Standard risk 1: Patient must be < 11 years of age at enrollment
• Standard risk 2: Patients must be >= 11 and < 25 years of age at enrollment
• Newly diagnosed patients must have histologic verification of a primary extracranial germ cell tumor in any of the categories outlined; elevation of serum tumor markers without histologic confirmation is not sufficient for entry on the trial
• NOTE: for low risk patients, materials for rapid surgical central review must be sent within 72 hours of study enrollment
• Low risk stage I immature teratoma (IT); site: ovarian; stage: Children's Oncology Group (COG) stage I, Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stage IA and IB; grade: 2 or 3; histology: pure immature teratoma (may contain =< 5% of microscopic yolk sac tumor), mixed immature and mature teratoma, (no pathological evidence of mediastinal germ cell tumor [MGCT]); tumor markers: alpha-FP =< 1,000 ng/mL, beta-HCG institutional normal; age (years) < 50
• Low risk stage I MCGT; site: ovarian, testicular, or extragonadal; stage: COG stage I, FIGO stage IA and IB, American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) testicular stage IA, IB and IS; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma (pure or mixed); age (years) < 50
• Standard risk 1 (SR1); site: ovarian, testicular, or extragonadal; stage: COG stage II-IV, FIGO stage IC, FIGO stage II-IV; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma (pure or mixed); age (years) < 11
• Standard risk 2 (SR2)
• Site: ovarian; stage: COG stage II and III, FIGO stage IC, II and III; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma (pure or mixed); age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Site: testicular; stage: COG stage II-IV, AJCC stage II, III, International Germ Cell Consensus Classification (IGCCC) good risk; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma (pure or mixed); tumor markers: must be IGCCC good risk; post op: alpha-FP < 1,000 ng/mL, beta-HCG < 5,000 IU/mL and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) < 3.0 x normal; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Site: extragonadal; stage: COG stage II; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma (pure or mixed) age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Notes:
• IGCCC criteria only apply to SR2 patients with a testicular primary tumor
• Use post-op tumor marker levels to determine IGCCC risk group
• For the low risk stage I MGCT and the standard risk arms, components of yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma can be mixed with other forms of GCT, such as seminoma or mature or immature teratoma; if yolk sac tumor is the only malignant component present, then it must be deemed by the pathologist to be greater than a "microscopic component" of yolk sac tumor (i.e. > 5%)
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, 2 or 3; use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age
• Organ function requirements apply ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy (SR1 and SR2 patients)
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2
• A serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows: (mg/dL)
• 1 month to < 6 months male: 0.4 female: 0.4
• 6 months to < 1 year male: 0.5 female: 0.5
• 1 to < 2 years male: 0.6 female: 0.6
• 2 to < 6 years male: 0.8 female: 0.8
• 6 to < 10 years male: 1 female: 1
• 10 to < 13 years male: 1.2 female: 1.2
• 13 to < 16 years: male: 1.5 female: 1.4
• >= 16 years male: 1.7 female: 1.4
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) or serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) < 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L)
• No evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry > 94% if there is clinical indication or determination; pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are not required
• Eligibility criteria to participate in the pilot study of the AYA-Hears instrument (patient reported outcomes [PROs] of ototoxicity) Note: participants in group 1 will not receive AGCT1531 protocol-directed therapy; all other AYA-HEARS patients must be enrolled on the AGCT1531 SR2 arm in order to participate
• >= 11 and < 25 years old at enrollment
• Able to fluently speak and read English
• Has received prior cisplatin- or carboplatin-based chemotherapy regimen for malignancy including diagnoses other than germ cell tumor
• Followed for cancer or survivorship care at one of the following institutions:
• Baylor College of Medicine/Dan L Duncan Comprehensive Cancer Center
• Dana Farber/Harvard Cancer Center
• Hospital for Sick Children
• Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario
• Oregon Health and Science University
• Seattle Children's Hospital
• Yale University
• Patients with any diagnoses not listed including:
• Stage I testicular cancer patients who have undergone primary RPLND (retroperitoneal lymph node dissection)
• Pure dysgerminoma and pure seminoma
• Pure mature teratoma
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage I, grade I
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage I, grade 2,3 with alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) >= 1000 ng/mL
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage II
•IV or FIGO stage IC to IV
• "Poor risk" GCT (age >= 11 years old and COG stage IV ovarian, COG stage III or IV EG, or IGCCC intermediate or poor risk testicular), or
• Primary central nervous system (CNS) germ cell tumor
• Patients must have had no prior systemic therapy for the current cancer diagnosis
• Patients must have had no prior radiation therapy with the exception of CNS irradiation of brain metastases; (this exception only applies to SR1 patients; any patients over age 11 with distant metastases to brain [stage IV disease] would be considered poor risk and therefore not eligible for this trial)
• Patients with significant respiratory compromise due to either abdominal tumor limiting diaphragmatic excursion or pulmonary metastases should not receive bleomycin and are ineligible for the trial
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])

• Advanced or metastatic solid or primary CNS tumor which has failed standard of care therapies
• Evidence of an activating RET gene alteration in the tumor and/ or blood
• Measurable or non-measurable disease
• Karnofsky (patients 16 years and older) or Lansky (patients younger than 16) performance score of at least 50.
• Patient with primary CNS tumors or cerebral metastases must be neurologically stable for 7 days prior and must not have required increasing doses of steroids within the last 7 days.
• Adequate hematologic, hepatic and renal function.
• Ability to receive study drug therapy orally or via gastric access
• Willingness of men and women of reproductive potential to observe conventional and effective birth control
• Major surgery within 4 weeks prior to planned start of LOXO-292.
• Clinically significant, uncontrolled cardiac, cardiovascular disease or history of myocardial infarction within 6 months prior to planned start of LOXO-292.
• Active uncontrolled systemic bacterial, viral, fungal or parasitic infection.
• Clinically significant active malabsorption syndrome.
• Pregnancy or lactation
• Uncontrolled symptomatic hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism (i.e. the patient required a modification to current thyroid medication in the 7 days before start of LOXO-292).
• Uncontrolled symptomatic hypercalcemia or hypocalcemia.
• Current treatment with certain strong cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4) inhibitors or inducers.
• Known hypersensitivity to any of the components of the investigational agent, LOXO-292 or Ora-Sweet® SF and OraPlus®, for patients who will receive LOXO-292 suspension.
• Current treatment with proton pump inhibitors.
• Prior treatment with a selective RET inhibitor(s) (including investigational selective RET inhibitor[s]).

1. Clinical or molecular diagnosis of Neurofibromatosis Type 1 2. Plexiform neurofibroma that is progressive OR causing significant morbidity. 3. Measurable disease amenable to volumetric MRI imaging defined as lesion seen on at least 3 consecutive MRI slices and at least 3 mL in volume. Select tumors <3 cm may be eligible on review. 4. Central review or MRI required prior to enrollment. 5. Age ≥ 3 years of age at the time of study entry. Subjects ≥ 16 years will be enrolled in Cohort A. Subjects 3
•15 years will be enrolled in Cohort B. 6. Performance Level Karnofsky ≥ 50%. Subjects unable to walk because of paralysis, but up in a wheel chair will be considered ambulatory for purpose of assessing performance score. 7. Complete resection of plexiform neurofibroma is not feasible or if subject refuses surgery. 8. Fully recovered from acute toxic effects of all prior chemotherapy or radiotherapy. 9. No myelosuppressive chemotherapy within 4 weeks of study entry. 10. At least 7 days since completion of hematopoietic growth factors. 11. At least 14 days since completion of biologic agent. 12. At least 4 weeks since receiving any investigational drug. 13. Physiologic or stress doses of steroids allowed in patients with endocrine deficiencies. 14. At least 6 months from radiation therapy to index tumor and at least 6 weeks from radiation to areas outside of index plexiform neurofibroma. 15. At least 3 months from major surgery or at least 1 month from minor surgery. No major surgery anticipated within 3 months of enrollment. 16. Adequate bone marrow function. 17. Adequate renal function. 18. Adequate liver function. 19. Blood pressure within upper limit of normal. 1. Active optic glioma or other low-grade glioma requiring treatment with chemotherapy or radiation therapy. 2. Malignant glioma, malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, or other malignancy requiring treatment in the last 12 months. 3. Dental braces or prosthesis that interferes with volumetric analysis of the neurofibroma(s). 4. Unable to swallow tablets. 5. Women who are pregnant or breast-feeding. 6. Subjects of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use effective contraception. 7. Subject has not recovered to baseline or CTCAE ≤ Grade 1 from toxicity due to all prior therapies except alopecia and other non-clinically significant AEs. 8. Subject requires anticoagulants. Low dose aspirin, low-dose warfarin, and prophylactic low molecular weight heparin are permitted. 9. Concomitant treatment of strong CYP3A4 inducers or inhibitors. 10. History of noncompliance to medical regimens 11. A known history of HIV seropositivity or known immunodeficiency. HIV testing will not be required as part of this trial, unless HIV is clinically suspected. 12. Impairment of gastrointestinal function or gastrointestinal disease that may affect the absorption of cabozantinib. (e.g. ulcerative disease, malabsorption syndrome, or small bowel resection). NG tube is allowed.
• Any of the following within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment: 1. intra-abdominal tumor/metastases invading GI mucosa 2. active peptic ulcer disease 3. inflammatory bowel disease (including ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease), diverticulitis, cholecystitis, symptomatic cholangitis or appendicitis 4. malabsorption syndrome
• Any of the following within 6 months before the first dose of study treatment: 1. abdominal fistula 2. gastrointestinal perforation 3. bowel obstruction or gastric outlet obstruction 4. intra-abdominal abscess. Complete resolution of an intra-abdominal abscess must be confirmed prior to initiating study treatment even if abscess occurred more than 6 months before the first dose of study treatment.
• Other disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including PEG tube placement within 3 months before the first dose of study therapy 13. Patients who have an uncontrolled infection. 14. Clinically-significant gastrointestinal bleeding within 6 months before the first dose of study treatment 15. Hemoptysis of ≥0.5 teaspoon (2.5 mL) of red blood within 3 months before the first dose of study treatment 16. Any other signs indicative of pulmonary hemorrhage within 3 months before the first dose of study treatment 17. Radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s). 18. Concurrent severe and/or uncontrolled medical disease which could compromise participation in the study (e.g. uncontrolled diabetes, uncontrolled hypertension, severe infection, severe malnutrition, chronic liver or renal disease, active upper GI tract ulceration) 19. Cardiovascular disorders including:
• Congestive heart failure (CHF): New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class III (moderate) or Class IV (severe) at the time of screening
• Concurrent uncontrolled hypertension defined as sustained BP > 140 mm Hg systolic, or > 90 mm Hg diastolic despite optimal antihypertensive treatment within 7 days before the first dose of study treatment
• Any history of congenital long QT syndrome
• Baseline QTc interval >470 msec in women and >450 msec in men
• Concomitant treatment with medications that prolong the QT interval and have a known risk of Torsades de Pointes is not contraindicated, but should be avoided if possible and will require more frequent EKG monitoring.
• Any of the following within 6 months before the first dose of study treatment: 1. unstable angina pectoris 2. clinically-significant cardiac arrhythmias 3. stroke (including TIA, or other ischemic event) 4. myocardial infarction 5. thromboembolic event requiring therapeutic anticoagulation (Note: subjects with a venous filter (e.g. vena cava filter) are not eligible for this study) 20. Other clinically significant disorders such as:
• Active infection requiring systematic treatment within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment
• Serious non-healing wound/ulcer/bone fracture within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment
• History of organ transplant
• Concurrent uncompensated hypothyroidism or thyroid dysfunction within 7 days before the first dose of study treatment 21. Complete wound healing from prior surgery must be confirmed at least 28 days before the first dose of study treatment irrespective of time from surgery.

1. Infants with SCID, either typical or leaky or Omenn syndrome. 1. Typical SCID is defined as either of the following
• Absence or very low number of T cells (CD3+ T cells <300/microliter AND no or very low T cell function (<10% of lower limit of normal) as measured by response to phytohemagglutinin OR
• Presence of maternally derived T cells 2. Leaky SCID is defined as the following • Absence of maternally derived T cells • AND either one or both of the following (i, ii): i) <50% of lower limit of normal T cell function as measured by response to PHA OR <30% of lower limit of normal T cell function as measured by response to CD3 ii) Absent or <10% of lower limit of normal proliferative responses to candida and tetanus toxoid antigens (must document post vaccination or exposure for this criterion to apply) • AND at least two of the following (i through iii): i) CD3 T cells < 1500/microliter ii) >80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are CD45RO+ AND/OR >80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are CD62L negative AND/OR >50% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells express HLA-DR (at < 4 years of age) AND/OR are oligoclonal T iii) Low TRECs and/or the percentage of CD4+/45RA+/CD31+ or CD4+/45RA+/CD62L+ cells is below the lower level of normal. 3. Omenn syndrome • Generalized skin rash
• Maternal lymphocytes tested for and not detected.
• >80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are CD45RO+ AND/OR >80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are CD62L negative AND/OR >50% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells express HLA-DR (<2 years of age)
• Absent or low (up to 30% lower limit of normal (LLN)) T cell proliferation to antigens (Candida, tetanus) to which the patient has been exposed IF: Proliferation to antigen was not performed, but at least 4 of the following 8 supportive criteria, at least one of which must be among those marked with an asterisk (*) below are present, the patient is eligible as Omenn Syndrome. 1. Hepatomegaly 2. Splenomegaly 3. Lymphadenopathy 4. Elevated IgE 5. Elevated absolute eosinophil count 6. *Oligoclonal T cells measured by CDR3 length or flow cytometry (upload report) 7. *Proliferation to PHA is reduced to < 50% of lower limit of normal (LLN) or SI < 30 8. *Low TRECs and/or percentage of CD4+/RA+ CD31+ or CD4+/RA+ CD62L+ cells below the lower level of normal 2. Documented mutation in one of the following SCID-related genes a. Cytokine receptor defects (IL2RG, JAK3) b. T cell receptor rearrangement defects (RAG1, RAG2) 3. No available genotypically matched related donor (sibling) 4. Availability of a suitable donor and graft source 1. Haploidentical related mobilized peripheral blood cells 2. 9/10 or 10/10 allele matched (HLA-A, -B, -C, -DRB1, -DQB1) volunteer unrelated donor mobilized peripheral blood cells 5. Age 0 to 2 years at enrollment Note: to ensure appropriate hepatic metabolism, age at time of busulfan start: For IL2RG/JAK3: 8 weeks For RAG1/RAG2: 12 weeks 6. Adequate organ function defined as: 1. Cardiac: Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) at rest ≥ 40% or, shortening fraction (SF) ≥ 26% by echocardiogram. 2. Hepatic: Total bilirubin < 3.0 x the upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (patients who have been diagnosed with Gilbert's Disease are allowed to exceed this limit) and AST and ALT < 5.0 x ULN for age. 3. Renal: GFR estimated by the updated Schwartz formula ≥ 90 mL/min/1.73 m2. If the estimated GFR is < 90 mL/min/1.73 m2, then renal function must be measured by 24-hour creatinine clearance or nuclear GFR, and must be > 50 mL/min/1.73 m2. 4. Pulmonary No need for supplemental oxygen and O2 saturation > 92% on room air at sea level (with lower levels allowed at higher elevations per established center standard of care). 1. Presence of any serious life-threatening or opportunistic infection at time of enrollment and prior to the initiation of the preparative regimen. Serious infections as defined below that occur after enrollment must be reported immediately to the Study Coordinating Center, and enrollment will be put on hold until the infection resolves. Ideally enrolled subjects will not have had any infection. If patients have experienced infections, these must have resolved by the following definitions: a. Bacterial i. Positive culture from a sterile site (e.g. blood, CSF, etc.): Repeat culture(s) from same site must be negative and patient has completed appropriate course of antibacterial therapy (typically at least 10 days). ii. Tissue-based clinical infection (e.g. cellulitis): Complete resolution of clinical signs (e.g. erythema, tenderness, etc.) and patient has completed appropriate course of antibacterial therapy (typically at least 10 days). iii. Pneumonia, organism not identified by bronchoalveolar lavage: Complete resolution of clinical signs (e.g. tachypnea, oxygen requirement, etc.) and patient has completed appropriate course of antibacterial therapy (typically at least 10 days). If possible, radiographic resolution should also be demonstrated. b. Fungal i. Positive culture from a sterile site (e.g. blood, CSF, etc.): Repeat culture(s) from same site is negative and patient has completed appropriate course of antifungal therapy (typically at least 14 days). The patient may be continued on antifungal prophylaxis following completion of the treatment course. c. Pneumocystis i. Complete resolution of clinical signs (e.g. tachypnea, oxygen requirement, etc.) and patient has completed appropriate course of therapy (typically at least 21 days). If possible, radiographic resolution should also be demonstrated. The patient may be continued on prophylaxis following completion of the treatment course. d. Viral i. Viral PCRs from previously documented sites (blood, nasopharynx, CSF) must be re-tested and are negative. ii. If re-sampling a site is not clinically feasible (i.e. BAL fluid): Complete resolution of clinical signs (e.g. tachypnea, oxygen requirement, etc.). If possible, radiographic resolution should also be demonstrated. 2. Patients with HIV or HTLV I/II infection will be excluded.

Age Patients must be ≥ 1 and ≤30 years of age. Diagnosis 1. Relapsed or refractory AML with ≥5% blasts (by morphology) in the bone marrow.
• 1st or greater relapse, OR
• Failed to go into remission (i.e. refractory) after first or greater relapse, OR
• Failed to go into remission from original diagnosis after two or more induction attempts. 2. Relapsed or refractory AML with ≤ 5% blasts (by morphology) and MRD positive disease (M1/MRD+): Two serial marrows demonstrating stable or rising MRD ≥ 0.1 % (i.e. not declining). MRD will be determined by multiparameter flow cytometry using AML-associated phenotype markers, or real-time quantitative PCR for AML-associated genetic lesions 3. Patients may have CNS 1 or 2 or other sites of extramedullary disease. No cranial irradiation is allowed during the protocol therapy. 4. Patients with secondary AML are eligible. 5. Patients with DNA fragility syndromes (such as Fanconi anemia, Bloom syndrome) are excluded. 6. Patients with Down Syndrome will be eligible and will be included as an observation cohort Performance Level Karnofsky > 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky > 50% for patients ≤ 16 years of age. Prior Therapy Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy prior to entering this study. A. Myelosuppressive chemotherapy 1. Prior chemotherapy Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy prior to entering this study. At least 14 days must have elapsed since the completion of the cytotoxic therapy, except Intrathecal chemotherapy. 2. Cytoreduction with hydroxyurea Hydroxyurea can be initiated and continued for up to 24 hours prior to the start of day 1 nivolumab and azacytidine. It is recommended to use hydroxyurea in patients with significant leukocytosis (WBC > 50,000/L) to control blast count before initiation of systemic protocol therapy. B. Hematopoietic stem cell transplant: Patients who have experienced their relapse after a HSCT are eligible provided they have no evidence of active GVHD, no past history of grade 3 or greater GVHD, and are at least 100 days post-transplant at the time of enrollment. Patients should be off immune suppression for at least 2 weeks (excluding physiologic replacement steroids). C. Hematopoietic growth factors: It must have been at least 7 days since the completion of therapy with GCSF or other growth factors at the time of enrollment. It must have been at least 14 days since the completion of therapy with pegfilgrastim (Neulasta®). D. Biologic (anti-neoplastic agent): At least 7 days after the last dose of a biologic agent. For agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur. The duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair E. Monoclonal antibodies: At least 3 half-lives of the antibody must have elapsed after the last dose of monoclonal antibody. (i.e. Gemtuzumab = 36 days) F. Immunotherapy: At least 42 days after the completion of any type of immunotherapy, e.g. tumor vaccines or CAR T-cells. G. XRT: XRT is prohibited during protocol therapy. No washout period is necessary for radiation given to non-CNS chloromas; ≥ 90 days must have elapsed if prior TBI or craniospinal XRT. Renal and hepatic function Patients must have adequate renal and hepatic functions as indicated by the following laboratory values: A. Adequate renal function defined as: Patient must have a calculated creatinine clearance or radioisotope GFR ≥ 70ml/min/1.73m2 OR a normal serum creatinine based on age/gender in the chart below: B. Adequate Liver Function Defined as: Direct bilirubin < 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age or normal, AND alanine transaminase (ALT) < 5 x ULN for age. The hepatic requirements are waived for patients with known or suspected liver involvement by leukemia. This must be reviewed by and approved by the study chair or vice chair. Adequate Cardiac Function Defined as: Shortening fraction of ≥ 27% OR ejection fraction of ≥ 50%. Reproductive Function A. Female patients of childbearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test confirmed within 24 hours prior to first dose. B. Female patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on this study. C. Male and female patients of child-bearing potential must agree to use an effective method of contraception approved by the investigator during the study and for a minimum of 7 months after study treatment. Women of childbearing potential (WOCBP) receiving nivolumab will be instructed to adhere to contraception for a period of 5 months after the last dose of nivolumab. Men receiving nivolumab and who are sexually active with WOCBP will be instructed to adhere to contraception for a period of 7 months after the last dose of nivolumab. Informed Consent Patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must be capable of understanding the investigational nature, potential risks and benefits of the study. All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent. Age appropriate assent will be obtained per institutional guidelines. To allow non-English speaking patients to participate in this study, bilingual health services will be provided in the appropriate language when feasible. Protocol Approval All institutional, FDA, and OHRP requirements for human studies must be met. Patients will be excluded if they have a known allergy or hypersensitivity to nivolumab or AZA used in the study. Patients will be excluded if they have a systemic fungal, bacterial, viral or other infection that is exhibiting ongoing signs/symptoms related to the infection without improvement despite appropriate antibiotics or other treatment. The patient needs to be off pressors and have negative blood cultures for 48 hours. Patients will be excluded if there is a plan to administer non-protocol chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or immunotherapy during the study period. Patients will be excluded if they have significant concurrent disease, illness, psychiatric disorder or social issue that would compromise patient safety or compliance with the protocol treatment or procedures, interfere with consent, study participation, follow up, or interpretation of study results. Patients with DNA fragility syndromes (such as Fanconi anemia, Bloom syndrome) are excluded. Patients with a known history of severe interstitial lung disease or severe pneumonitis or active pneumonitis that is uncontrolled in the opinion of the treating physician. Patients who have previously been treated with nivolumab will be excluded. Patients with a known history of any of the following autoimmune diseases are excluded: (a) patients with a history of inflammatory bowel disease (including Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis) (b) patients with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, systemic progressive sclerosis [scleroderma], Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, autoimmune vasculitis [e.g., Wegener's Granulomatosis]). Patients with organ allografts (such as renal transplant) are excluded. Patients with known Human Immunodeficiency Virus seropositivity will be excluded. Known to be positive for hepatitis B by surface antigen expression. Known to have active hepatitis C infection (positive by polymerase chain reaction or on antiviral therapy for hepatitis C within the last 6 months). Pregnant or breastfeeding. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL). CNS 3 disease. Patients who have experienced their relapse after a HSCT and are less than 100 days post-transplant at the time of enrollment, have active GVHD at time of enrollment, have past history of grade 3 or greater GVHD, Patients on immune suppression (excluding physiologic replacement steroids).

• COHORT A: Patients must have a histologic diagnosis of infantile fibrosarcoma with an NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 fusion identified in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act/College of American Pathologists (CLIA/CAP) certified laboratory. Fusions may be identified by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or molecular techniques (reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction [RT-PCR] using primers flanking the fusion junction or next generation sequencing). For fusions identified by FISH, an ETV6 rearrangement is sufficient for eligibility in Cohort A. Identification of the upstream TRK fusion partner is not required.
• COHORT B: Patients must have a histologic diagnosis of any solid tumor other than infantile fibrosarcoma, including central nervous system (CNS) tumors but excluding high grade gliomas. An NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 fusion must be identified in a CLIA/CAP certified laboratory. Fusions may be identified by FISH or molecular techniques (RT-PCR using primers flanking the fusion junction or next generation sequencing). For fusions identified by FISH, there must be an identified rearrangement in NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 (e.g., an ETV6 rearrangement is not sufficient for eligibility) unless the patient has a diagnosis of congenital mesoblastic nephroma in which case an ETV6 rearrangement is sufficient for eligibility. Identification of the upstream TRK fusion partner is not required.
• COHORT C: Patients must have a histologic diagnosis of relapsed or refractory acute leukemia with an NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 fusion identified in a CLIA/CAP certified laboratory. Fusions may be identified by FISH or molecular techniques (RT-PCR using primers flanking the fusion junction or next generation sequencing). For fusions identified by FISH, there must be an identified rearrangement in NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 (e.g., an ETV6 rearrangement is not sufficient for eligibility). Identification of the upstream TRK fusion partner is not required.
• SOLID TUMORS (COHORTS A AND B): Patients must have measurable disease. Patients must have disease that cannot be completely resected without a predicted functional, neurologic, or significant cosmetic deficit in the opinion of the investigator.
• LEUKEMIA (COHORT C): Patients must have >= 5% blasts in the bone marrow. Extramedullary disease is permitted.
• Patients must have a Lansky or Karnofsky performance status score of >= 50, corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) categories 0, 1 or 2. Use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age. NOTE: Neurologic deficits in patients with CNS tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment. Patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score.
• COHORTS A AND B: No prior anti-cancer therapy, including radiotherapy, other than surgical resection is permitted.
• Patients who experience recurrence after surgery alone and no other anti-cancer therapy will be eligible.
• If not eligible due to prior anticancer therapy, patients may be eligible for the larotrectinib arm of Pediatric MATCH (APEC1621A) or treatment with commercial larotrectinib off study.
• COHORT C: Patients with relapsed leukemia (Cohort C) must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anti-cancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anti-cancer directed therapy prior to enrollment. If after the required timeframe, the numerical eligibility criteria are met, e.g. blood count criteria, the patient is considered to have recovered adequately.
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anti-cancer agents known to be myelosuppressive. The duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment.
• A waiting period prior to enrollment is not required for patients receiving standard cytotoxic maintenance chemotherapy (i.e., corticosteroid, vincristine, thioguanine [6MP], and/or methotrexate).
• A waiting period is not required for patients receiving a single dose of intrathecal methotrexate, hydrocortisone, and/or cytarabine within 7 days prior to enrollment
• >= 14 days must have elapsed after the completion of other cytotoxic therapy, with the exception of hydroxyurea, for patients not receiving standard maintenance therapy. Additionally, patients must have fully recovered from all acute toxic effects of prior therapy.
• Note: Cytoreduction with hydroxyurea must be discontinued >= 24 hours prior to the start of protocol therapy.
• Anti-cancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g., not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil [ANC] counts): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent. The duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment.
• Antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1. There is an exception for blinatumomab infusions, for which patients must have been off for at least 3 days and all drug related toxicity must have resolved to grade 2 or lower as outlined in the inclusion/exclusion criteria.
• Corticosteroids: If used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid. A waiting period prior to enrollment is not required for patients receiving corticosteroid for leukemia therapy/cytoreduction.
• Hematopoietic growth factors: >= 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g. pegfilgrastim) or 7 days for short-acting growth factor. For agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur. The duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator.
• Interleukins, interferons and cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors): >= 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon or cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors )
• Stem cell infusions (with or without total body irradiation [TBI]):
• Allogeneic (non-autologous) bone marrow or stem cell transplant, or any stem cell infusion including donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI) or boost infusion: >= 84 days after infusion and no evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD).
• Autologous stem cell infusion including boost infusion: >= 42 days.
• Cellular therapy: >= 42 days after the completion of any type of cellular therapy (e.g., modified T cells, natural killer [NK] cells, dendritic cells, etc.)
• Radiation therapy (XRT)/external beam irradiation including protons: >= 14 days after local XRT; >= 150 days after TBI, craniospinal XRT or if radiation to >= 50% of the pelvis; >= 42 days if other substantial BM radiation.
• Radiopharmaceutical therapy (e.g., radiolabeled antibody): >= 42 days after systemically administered radiopharmaceutical therapy.
• Patients must not have received prior exposure to TRK inhibitors (including larotrectinib, LOXO-195, entrectinib, lorlatinib, crizotinib, or lestaurtinib).
• For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement: Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/mm^3 (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement: Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (transfusion independent, defined as not receiving platelet transfusions for at least 7 days prior to enrollment)
• For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement: Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL at baseline (may receive red blood cell [RBC] transfusions).
• Patients with solid tumors with known bone marrow metastatic disease will be eligible for study provided they meet the blood counts above (may receive transfusions provided they are not known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusions). These patients will not be evaluable for hematologic toxicity.
• For patients with leukemia: Platelet count >= 20,000/mm^3 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) (may receive platelet transfusions; must not be known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusion)
• For patients with leukemia: Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL at baseline (within 7 days prior to enrollment) (may receive platelet transfusions; must not be known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusion)
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows (within 7 days prior to enrollment):
• 1 month to < 6 months (male 0.4 mg/dL, female 0.4 mg/dL)
• 6 months to < 1 year (male 0.5 mg/dL, female 0.5 mg/dL)
• 1 to < 2 years (male 0.6 mg/dL, female 0.6 mg/dL)
• 2 to < 6 years (male 0.8 mg/dL, female 0.8 mg/dL)
• 6 to < 10 years (male 1 mg/dL, female 1 mg/dL)
• 10 to < 13 years (male 1.2 mg/dL, female 1.2 mg/dL)
• 13 to < 16 years (male 1.5 mg/dL, female 1.4 mg/dL)
• >= 16 years (male 1.7 mg/dL, female 1.4 mg/dL)
• For patients < 1 month of age, serum creatinine levels must be < 1.5 x the treating institution's creatinine upper limit of normal (ULN) for patients < 1 month of age or the creatinine clearance or radioisotope GFR must be > 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2.
• Patients with solid tumors: Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated) =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment). After approval of the study chair or designee, infants with a higher total bilirubin due to physiologic or breast milk jaundice are eligible if the conjugated (direct) bilirubin is =< 2 mg/dL
• Patients with solid tumors: Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (within 7 days prior to enrollment). For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L
• Patients with solid tumors: Serum albumin >= 2 g/dL (within 7 days prior to enrollment).
• Patients with leukemias: Conjugated (direct) bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment).
• Patients with leukemias: SGPT (ALT) =< 225 U/L (within 7 days prior to enrollment). For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L
• Patients with leukemias: Serum albumin >= 2 g/dL (within 7 days prior to enrollment).
• Patients with seizure disorder may be enrolled if on a stable antiepileptic regimen for >= 14 days and well controlled.
• Nervous system disorders (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] version [v] 5) except tendon reflex decreased resulting from prior therapy must be =< grade 2.
• Pregnant or breast-feeding women will not be entered on this study due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies, OR because there is yet no available information regarding human fetal or teratogenic toxicities. Pregnancy tests must be obtained in girls who are post-menarchal. Patients of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of study therapy. This criterion does not exclude infants who are breast fed.
• Patients with solid tumors, including CNS tumors, requiring corticosteroids who have not been on a stable or decreasing dose of corticosteroid for at least 7 days prior to enrollment are not eligible. Patients with leukemia may receive systemic corticosteroids for cytoreduction up to 24 hours prior to the start of protocol therapy. If used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid.
• Patients who are currently receiving another investigational drug are not eligible.
• Patients who are currently receiving other anti-cancer agents are not eligible [except leukemia patients receiving corticosteroids or hydroxyurea, which may be continued until 24 hours prior to start of protocol therapy]. Patients with leukemia should receive a single dose of intrathecal cytarabine, hydrocortisone, and/or methotrexate within 7 days prior to Day 1 of Cycle 1 at the time of the baseline lumbar puncture.
• Patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to prevent graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant are not eligible for this trial.
• Patients currently receiving a strong CYP3A4 inducer or inhibitor are not eligible. Strong inducers or inhibitors of CYP3A4 should be avoided from 14 days prior to enrollment to the end of the study. Note: CYP3A4 inducing anti-epileptic drugs and dexamethasone for CNS tumors or metastases, on a stable dose, are allowed.
• Patients with malabsorption syndrome or other conditions that significantly limit enteral absorption are not eligible.
• Patients who are unable to swallow capsules or liquid and do not have gastric access via a nasogastric or gastrostomy tube are not eligible.
• Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible.
• Patients who have received prior solid organ transplantation are not eligible.
• Patients who in the opinion of the investigator may not be able to comply with the safety monitoring requirements of the study are not eligible.
• Patients with high grade gliomas (HGG) are not eligible.

1. Term infants (≥37 and 0/7 weeks gestational age) ≤ 7 days old with a diagnosis of single ventricle physiology who are thought to require a single ventricle repair at the time of enrollment. 2. Infant feeding was NPO or consisted of 100% human milk diet prior to enrollment 3. Parent(s) willing to sign informed consent. 4. Parent(s) willing to comply with study follow-up procedures. 5. Require surgical palliation within the first 1 month of life. 1. Term infants >7 days old at the time of diagnosis. 2. <37 weeks gestation 3. Infants requiring cardio-pulmonary resuscitation prior to surgical repair. 4. Outborn infants who received enteral nutrition at the other institution prior to surgical repair. If it is uncertain if infant received even 1 bottle or a small amount of formula, infants will be excluded. 5. Major congenital abnormalities that could significantly affect survival such as: 1. Confirmed or suspected major genetic abnormalities (lethal or with extremely low probability for survival). 2. Chromosomal abnormalities: Trisomies (13, 18, 21 etc.) deletions or translocations (Turner/Williams Syndrome, DiGeorge, to name a few) 3. Major organ system abnormalities not related to a genetic syndrome that are lethal or have extremely low probability for survival (i.e, bilateral kidney intrinsic disease, pulmonary hypoplasia, Central Nervous System (CNS) malformations: Arnold Chiari, myelomeningoceles, hydranencephaly, schizencephaly, holoprosencephaly)) 4. Heterotaxia 5. Metabolic disorders affecting growth: homocystinuria, methylmalonic acidemias, propionic acidemias, urea cycle defects 6. Evidence of intracerebral hemorrhage (IVH) ≥ Grade 3 7. Any comorbidity or significant clinical event prior to enrollment, deemed by the Investigator as likely to affect survival. 8. Requires Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ECMO) pre-operatively 9. Legally Authorized Representative(s) unwilling to comply with an exclusive human milk diet either in the form of mother's milk, human milk-based human milk fortifier, human milk based caloric fortifier or donor human milk during the initial hospitalization period and through the 30 day feeding period after surgical repair or hospital discharge, whichever comes first.

1. Elective non-cardiac surgery in children to last at least 1.5 hours; 2. Supine position anticipated; 3. General endotracheal anesthesia. 1. Nasopharyngeal disease (e.g. sinusitis), upper airway abnormalities, or planned oral or facial surgery; 2. History of genetic or congenital anomalies leading to facial dimorphism; 3. History of recent substantive epistaxis or suspected bleeding disorder; 4. Therapeutic-dose anti-coagulation; 5. Contraindication to esophageal temperature probe insertion (i.e., esophageal varices, congenital anomalies).

• Cases with diagnosis of coronal
• Unaffected relatives of cases
• Unaffected controls including those who may have undergone clinically indicated craniofacial surgery for trauma or conditions other than craniosynostosis or bone disease. These individuals will be recruited at some of the other collaborating institutions, but not at Mount Sinai. Individuals of any racial or ethnic group with the established or suspected clinical diagnosis of coronal, nonsyndromic craniosynostosis will be included in this study. Unaffected relatives, such as their biological parents and/or sibs, will also be included to contribute medical information and samples as negative controls for our study.
• Those who fit the criteria, but who choose not to participate
• Those who do not meet the criteria.
• Other than children, no vulnerable individuals will be recruited, such as intellectual impaired individuals or prisoners.

• 3
•7 years old
• male or female
• non-dominant upper extremity brachial plexus injury
• Botox injections to the affected extremity within the past 3 months
• Severe muscle contractures of affected extremity that restricts functional use of the arm and hand
• Concurrent cerebral palsy

• Infants born at 36 0/7ths weeks gestational age or greater (by best obstetrical estimate)
• Postnatal age between 6 and 24 hours following birth
• Infants with a high probability of acute hemodynamic compromise, such as those with:
• An acute perinatal event (abruptio placenta, cord prolapse, severe FHR abnormality)
• An Apgar score ≤ 5 at 10 minutes
• Continued need for ventilation initiated at birth for at least 10 minutes
• Cord pH or first postnatal blood gas pH at ≤ 1 hour of ≤ 7.0
• Base deficit on cord gas or first postnatal blood gas at ≤ 1 hour of ≥ 16 mEq/L
• Infants matching the above criteria who also have an abnormal neurological exam showing the presence of moderate or severe encephalopathy
• Infants whose parents/legal guardians have provided consent for enrollment. NOTE: These inclusion criteria are identical to the NICHD Neonatal Research Network's 2005 Hypothermia study (see links below), except for the time of entry (6-24 hours vs. < 6 hours of age).
• Any infant with a core body temperature (axilla, rectal) less than 34.0°C for greater than 1 hour
• Presence of a known anomaly or chromosomal aberration
• Birth weight < 1,800 grams
• Infant in extremis
• Infants whose parents/legal guardians or attending physician refuse consent

• infants <30 weeks estimated gestational age
• inborn at an NRN site or were admitted to an NRN site before 72 hours postnatal age
• have received at least 7days of mechanical ventilation;
• are receiving mechanical ventilation through an endotracheal tube .
• Major congenital anomalies
• Decision to limit support
• Indomethacin or ibuprofen treatment within 48 hours of study drug
• Previous corticosteroid treatment for BPD
• Received hydrocortisone for 14 or more cumulative days
• Received hydrocortisone within 7 days of study entry

• Gestational age less than 29 weeks.
• Admitted to the NICU at less than or equal to 72 hours of life
• Survived at least 12 hours
• Chromosomal anomalies
• Cyanotic congenital heart disease
• Diagnosed intrauterine infection
• Other congenital disorders known to impair neurodevelopment
• NEC or IP prior to seeking consent
• Decision documented to limit intensive care therapies
• Congenital disorders that may affect feeding Feeding Group Eligibility:
• Sole Diet Group: Infants will be eligible for the sole diet feeding protocol if the mother declines to provide breast milk for the baby.
• Supplemental Diet (minimal maternal milk) Group: Infants whose mothers initially choose to provide breast milk and begin pumping will be re-screened for eligibility at least weekly until the infant is 21 days old. If the mother stops expressing milk at any point prior to the infant's 21st day of life, her infant will be eligible for randomization. In addition, those whose mothers are providing less than 20% of the infant's dietary needs (averaged over past 5 days) when the infant reaches 21 days of age will be eligible for randomization at this point. No infant will be randomized after reaching 21 days.

Strata A, B, and C (Part 1
•Retrospective Study)-
• Individuals with Severe Combined Immune Deficiency (SCID) diagnosis who: --were treated at a location participating in this consortium from 1968 until present, and --are not enrolled in RDCRN PIDTC-6901 (ClinicalTrials.gov ID: NCT01186913).
• Subjects who received HCT/GT/ERT prior to the present date are eligible for the retrospective study. The enrollment criteria for subjects who died prior to definitive therapy are the same as for Strata A, B and C. Stratum A, Typical SCID:
• Individuals who meet the following inclusion criteria and who received HCT are eligible for enrollment into Stratum A of the study:
• Absence or very low number of T cells (CD3 T cells < 300/microliter), and no or very low T cell function (< 10% of lower limit of normal) as measured by response to phytohemagglutinin (PHA) or cells of maternal origin present.
• If maternal cells are present but the patient does not meet criteria for very low T cell function as defined, the assigned reviewers for the potential subject, and if necessary, the full PID‐SCID RP will review the laboratory report to determine if criteria of maternal engraftment are met for Protocol 6902.
• Laboratory report of testing for maternal engraftment is required, for evaluation by the PID‐SCID RP. Stratum B, Leaky SCID, Omenn Syndrome, Reticular Dysgenesis: Individuals who meet the following criteria are eligible for enrollment into Stratum B of the study: Leaky SCID-
• Maternal lymphocytes tested for and not detected and,
• Either one or both of the following (a,b): a) < 50% of lower limit of normal T cell function (as measured by response to PHA OR < 50% of lower limit of normal T cell function as measured by response to CD3/CD28 antibody, b) Absent or < 30% lower limit of normal proliferative responses to candida and tetanus toxoid antigens postvaccination or exposure,
• AND at least one of the following (a through e): 1. Reduced number of CD3 T cells, 2. > 80% of CD3+ or CD4 T cells are CD45RO+,
• AND/OR >80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are,CD62L negative,
• AND/OR >50% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells express HLA‐DR (at < 4 years of age),
• AND/OR are oligoclonal T cells. c) Hypomorphic mutation in IL2RG in a male, or homozygous hypomorphic mutation or compound heterozygosity with at least one hypomorphic mutation in an autosomal SCID‐causing gene. d) Low TRECs and/or the percentage of CD4+/45RA+/CD31+ or CD4+/45RA+/CD62L+ cells is below the lower limit of normal. e) Functional testing in vitro supporting impaired, but not absent, activity of the mutant protein,
• AND does not meet criteria for Omenn Syndrome,
• AND does not have known selective loss of lymphocytes, Ataxia‐ Telangiectasia, or congenital heart defect associated with lymphopenia, unless a SCID genotype is also present. Omenn Syndrome (OS):
• Generalized skin rash,
• Maternal engraftment tested for and not detected,
• Absent or low (up to 30% of normal) T cell proliferation to antigens to which the patient has been exposed.
• If the proliferation to antigen was not performed, but at least 4 of the following 10 supportive criteria, at least one of which must be among those marked with an asterisk (*) are present, the patient is eligible: hepatomegaly; splenomegaly; lymphadenopathy; elevated IgE; elevated absolute eosinophil count; *oligoclonal T cells measured by CDR3 length or flow cytometry >80% of CD4+ T cells are CD45RO+ ;*proliferation to PHA is reduced <50% of lower limit of normal or SI <30; *proliferative response in mixed leukocyte reaction is reduced to increment cpm < 20% or SI <20; hypomorphic mutation to SCID causing gene; low TRECs and/or percentage of CD 4+/ RA+/CD31+; or CD4+/RA+/CD62L+ cells below the lower limit of normal. Reticular Dysgenesis (RD):
• Absence or very low number of T cells (CD3 T cells <300/microliter),
• No or very low (<10% of lower limit of normal) T cell function (as measured by response to phytohemagglutinin (PHA),
• Severe congenital neutropenia (absolute neutrophil count <200/microliter),
• AND at least one of the following:
• Sensorineural deafness and/or absence of granulopoiesis at bone marrow examination and/or a deleterious AK2 mutation,
• absence of granulopoiesis on bone marrow examination; a pathogenic mutation in the adenylate kinase 2 (AK2) gene identified. Stratum C, SCID with Non-HCT Treatments: -Individuals who meet the following criteria and were treated with PEG-ADA or gene therapy with autologous modified cells are eligible for enrollment into Stratum C (SCID with non-HCT treatments) of the study-
•Any SCID patient previously treated with a thymus transplant (includes intention to treat with HCT, as well as PEG‐ADA ERT or gene therapy). Strata A, B, and C (Part 2
•Cross-Sectional Study): Patient inclusion criteria for the cross sectional study: Eligibility for Strata A, B and C are the same as for the retrospective study except that all the patients in the cross-sectional study are currently surviving and are at least 2 years post the most recent class of therapy. Parts 1 and 2
•Retrospective and Cross-Sectional Studies -
• Lack of appropriate testing to rule out HIV infection after 1997 (p24 antigen or more sensitive) or other cause of secondary immunodeficiency,
• Presence of DiGeorge syndrome,
• Most patients with other PIDs such as nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency, ZAP70 deficiency, CD40 ligand deficiency, NEMO deficiency, XLP, cartilage hair hypoplasia or ataxia telangiectasia will not meet the inclusion criteria for Stratum A, B, or C above; however, a patient with one of the above may meet the inclusion criteria for Stratum B and if so will be included-
• MHC Class I and MHC Class II antigen deficiency are excluded,
• Metabolic conditions that imitate SCID or related disorders such as folate transporter deficiency, severe zinc deficiency, transcobalamin deficiency.

• Age -- Age ≤ 30 years at time of initial qualifying solid tumor diagnosis
• Diagnosis -- Histologic diagnosis of solid malignancy (excluding brain tumors and lymphoma) that meets at least one of the following criteria:
• Refractory, defined as tumor progression after initiation of standard first line therapy without having achieved a prior partial or complete remission OR Biopsy proven residual disease at the completion of planned standard initial front-line therapy.
• Recurrent, defined as tumor progression after achieving a prior partial or complete remission
• Newly diagnosed high risk disease, defined as having an expected event free survival of < 50% at 2 years.
• Lacks definitive diagnosis or classical genomic findings after histologic review and standard molecular testing (rare tumor group).
• Examples include (eligibility not limited to these examples):
• Histology typically associated with a fusion in which fusion is not detected.
• Ewing-like sarcoma
• Undifferentiated sarcoma
• Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor without ALK fusion
• Infantile fibrosarcoma without NTRK fusion
• Specimen Samples
• Sufficient tumor specimen available to meet the minimum requirements for profiling from diagnosis or progression / recurrence --- OR
• Surgery / biopsy planned as part of clinical care that is anticipated to yield sufficient material to meet the minimum requirements for profiling; OR
• Patient has already had molecular profiling and patient has not yet started matched targeted therapy based on the report .
• No Therapy Planned -- Patients who have declined further anticancer therapy will be excluded.
• Performance Status -- Patients with Lansky (age < 16 years) or Karnofsky (age ≥16 years) score < 50 will be excluded.
• Life Expectancy -- Patients with anticipated life expectancy < 3 months will be excluded.

• Younger than 2 years (chronological age)
• Scheduled for anaesthesia that is expected to last at least 2 hours (and/or total operating room time is scheduled to be at least 2.5 hours)
• Has a legally acceptable representative capable of understanding the informed consent document and providing consent on the participant's behalf.
• Known neurologic, chromosomal or congenital anomaly which is likely to be associated with poor neurobehavioural outcome
• Existing diagnosis of behavioural or neurodevelopmental disability
• Prematurity (defined as < 36 weeks gestational age at birth)
• Birth weight less than 2 kg.
• Congenital cardiac disease requiring surgery
• Intracranial neurosurgery and intracranial craniofacial surgery (isolated cleft lip is not an exclusion)
• Previous cumulative exposure to general anaesthesia exceeding 2 hours
• Planned future cumulative exposure to anaesthesia exceeding 2 hours before the age of 3 years.
• Any specific contra-indication to any aspect of the protocol
• Previous adverse reaction to any anaesthetic
• Circumstances likely to make long term follow-up impossible
• Living in a household where the primary language spoken at home is not a language in which we can administer the Wechsler Preschool and Primary School Intelligence Scale
• Planned postoperative sedation with any agent except opioids (e.g. benzodiazepines, dexmedetomidine, ketamine, barbiturates, propofol, clonidine, chloral hydrate, and other non-opioid sedatives). For example if such sedation is planned for post-operative ventilation

• Individuals 1 to 45 years old who have an immediate family member with type 1 diabetes (such as a child, parent, or sibling)
• Individuals 1-20 years old who have an extended family member with type 1 diabetes (such as a cousin, niece, nephew, aunt, uncle, grandparent, or half-sibling) To be eligible a person must not:
• Have diabetes already
• Have a previous history of being treated with insulin or oral diabetes medications.
• Currently be using systemic immunosuppressive agents (topical and inhaled agents are acceptable)
• Have any known serious diseases

1. Male or female ≥ 2 and ≤ 45 years of age at the Screening Visit. 2. Documentation of a CF diagnosis as evidenced by one or more clinical features consistent with the CF phenotype and one or more of the following criteria: 1. sweat chloride ≥ 60 milliequivalents/liter by quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis test (QPIT) 2. two well-characterized mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductive regulator (CFTR) gene 3. abnormal nasal potential difference(NPD) (change in NPD in response to a low chloride solution and isoproteronol of less than -5 mV) 3. First OR early MRSA colonization defined as: 1. First MRSA colonization: first documented isolation of MRSA from respiratory tract occurred ≤ 6 months prior to screening 2. Early MRSA colonization: MRSA was previously isolated from the respiratory tract ≤ 2 times over the past 3.5 years, but this was followed by at least 1 year of documented negative cultures for MRSA 4. MRSA is available to the central laboratory
•either the incident MRSA isolate from the clinic visit or the subject is MRSA positive at the screening visit 5. Clinically stable with no significant changes in health status within the 14 days prior to screening 6. Written informed consent (and assent when applicable) obtained from subject or subject's legal representative and ability for subject to comply with the requirements of the study 1. Received antibiotics with activity against MRSA within 28 days prior to screening 2. Use of an investigational agent within 28 days prior to screening 3. For subjects ≥ 6 years of age: FEV1 at screening < 25% of predicted for age based on the Wang (males < 18 years, females < 16 years) or Hankinson (males ≥ 18 years, females ≥ 16 years) standardized equations 4. MRSA from the screening culture or the most recent clinical care visit within 6 months prior to screening resistant to TMP/SMX 5. History of intolerance to topical chlorhexidine or mupirocin 6. History of intolerance to both TMP/SMX and minocycline 7. < 8 years of age and allergic or intolerant to TMP/SMX 8. ≥ 8 years of age and allergic or intolerant to TMP/SMX and MRSA isolate (from screening or clinical care visit)is resistant to minocycline 9. For females of child bearing potential: pregnant, breastfeeding, or unwilling to use barrier contraception through Day 42 of the study 10. Subjects with history of abnormal renal function will need screening labs showing normal function Abnormal renal function is defined as estimated creatinine clearance <50 mL/min using the: 1. Bedside Schwartz Equation for subjects <18 years of age, and 2. Levey Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) Equation for subjects ≥ 18 years of age. 11. Subjects with a history of abnormal liver function will need to have screening labs showing normal transaminases. Liver dysfunction is defined as ≥3x upper limit of normal (ULN), of serum aspartate transaminase (AST) or serum alanine transaminase (ALT) or abnormal synthetic function 12. History of solid organ or hematological transplantation 13. Presence of a condition or abnormality that in the opinion of the Investigator would compromise the safety of the patient or the quality of the data.

• Suspected malignancy
• Age ≤ 26 years and being cared for at Children's Medical Center
• Ability to undergo standard of care diagnostic procedure, including biopsy or resection of the tumor, in the OR or IR at CMC
• Poorly controlled diabetes
• Any other medical condition that prevents administration of glucose

Eligibility will be determined in a stepped process: 1. All infants with a gestational age ≥ 36 weeks will be screened for study entry if they are admitted to the NICU with a diagnosis of fetal acidosis, perinatal asphyxia, neonatal depression or encephalopathy. 2. Infants will be eligible if:
• They have a pH ≤ 7.0 or a base deficit ≥ 16m mEq/ L on umbilical cord or any postnatal sample within 1 hour of age.
• If, during this interval, they have a pH between 7.01 and 7.15, a base deficit is between 10 and 15.9 mEq/L, or a blood gas is not available, AND they have an acute perinatal event AND either a 10-minute Apgar score ≤ 5 or assisted ventilation initiated at birth and continued for at least 10 minutes. 3. Once these criteria are met, eligible infants will have a standardized neurological examination performed by a certified physician examiner. Infants will be candidates for the study when encephalopathy or seizures are present. For this study, encephalopathy is defined as the presence of 1 or more signs in 3 of the following 6 categories:
• Level of consciousness: lethargy, stupor or coma;
• Spontaneous activity: decreased, absent;
• Posture: distal flexion, decerebrate;
• tone: hypotonia, flaccid or hypertonia, rigid;
• Primitive reflexes: a) suck, weak, absent; b) Moro, incomplete, flaccid;
• Autonomic nervous system: a) pupils: constricted, unequal, skew deviation or non reactive to light; b) heart rate: bradycardia, variable heart rate or c) respiration: periodic breathing, apnea. Eligible infants from multiple births will be enrolled in the same arm of the study.
• Inability to randomize by 6 hours of age
• Major congenital abnormality
• Major chromosomal abnormality (including Trisomy 21),
• Severe growth restriction (≤ 1800gm birth weight),
• Infant is moribund and will not receive any further aggressive treatment,
• Refusal of consent by parent
• Refusal of consent by attending neonatologist
• Infants with a core temperature < 33.5°C for > 1 hour at the time of screening by the research team would not be eligible for the study.

• Inborn infants
• Between 401 grams and 1,000 grams inclusive birth weight OR between 23 0/7 and 28 6/7 weeks inclusive gestational age
• Decision to provide full intensive care support
• Less than 72 hours of age
• Non-intact skin at the central or parietal regions of scalp
• Presence of known or suspected congenital anomalies, including:
• Congenital central nervous system malformations
• Chromosomal anomalies or multiple congenital anomalies
• Complex congenital heart disease
• Inborn error of metabolism
• Acidosis (pH < 6.8 for > 2 hours)
• Persistent bradycardia [HR < 100 bpm] associated with hypoxia for > 2 hours

Inclusion criteria of Cohort 1- Newborn:
• Subjects aged 1-2 days
• Subjects with gestational age 37-42 weeks
• Subjects with stable clinical status (admitted to normal newborn nursery) Inclusion criteria of Cohort 2
•Older children: • Subjects aged 0-18 years Inclusion criteria of Cohort 3
•Diseased children: Subjects (no age limit) with ANY phenotype as below:
• Confirmed metabolic or genetic diseases
• Suspected metabolic or genetic diseases
• Episodic metabolic decompensation (e.g. hypoglycemia, hyperammonemia, metabolic acidosis)
• Developmental regression
• Major congenital malformation
• Other unexplained symptoms of potential genetic origin Exclusion criteria of Cohort 1
•Newborn:
• Subjects with gestational age <37 weeks or >42 weeks
• Subjects with overt signs of metabolic dysfunction, distress or genetic diseases including hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia, sepsis/shock, hypoxemia, or major congenital malformation
• Subjects with mothers whose pregnancies were complicated by gestational diabetes, gestational hyperglycemia, gestational hypertension, preeclampsia, or any other major disorders. Exclusion criteria of Cohort 2
•Older children:
• Subjects with confirmed metabolic or genetic diseases
• Subjects with suspected metabolic or genetic diseases
• Subjects with episodic metabolic decompensation (e.g. hypoglycemia, hyperammonemia, metabolic acidosis)
• Subjects with developmental regression
• Subjects with major congenital malformation Exclusion criteria of Cohort 3
•Diseased children No.

• Age < 1 year at the time of surgery
• Undergoing heart surgery with CPB as part of standard clinical care
• Availability and willingness of the parent/legally authorized representative to provide written informed consent
• < 37 weeks adjusted gestational age at time of surgery
• Any oral or intravenous steroid treatment within two days of surgery
• Any patient receiving any of the following medications within 2 days of surgery: Amphoteracin B, aminoglutethimide, anticholesterases, warfarin, P450 3A4 inducers including (but not limited to) carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampin, bosentan and nafcillin or P450 3A4 inhibitors including (but not limited to) clarithromycin, voriconazole, itraconazole, ketoconazole, ciprofloxacin, diltiazem, fluconazole, erythromycin and verapamil.
• Infection contraindicating steroid use
• Preoperative mechanical circulatory support or active resuscitation at the time of randomization
• Emergent surgery precluding steroid administration 8-12 hours before surgery

• Disorders affecting the hematopoietic system that are inherited, acquired, or result from myeloablative treatment
• Signed informed consent (and signed assent, if applicable) obtained prior to study enrollment
• Pediatric and adult patients of any age
• Patients who are receiving only licensed CBUs
• Cord blood transplant recipients at international transplant centers
• Patients who are enrolled on another IND protocol to access the unlicensed CBU(s)
• Patients whose selected unlicensed CBU(s) will be more than minimally manipulated

Stratum A: Typical SCID (formerly referred to as Classic SCID)- -Subjects who meet the following inclusion criteria and the intention is to treat with allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplant (HCT) are eligible for enrollment into Stratum A (Typical SCID) of the study:
• Absence or very low number of T cells (CD3 T cells <300/microliter) AND
• No or very low T cell function (<10% of lower limit of normal) as measured by response to phytohemagglutinin (PHA) OR
• T cells of maternal origin present. Stratum B: Leaky SCID, Omenn Syndrome, Reticular Dysgenesis- -Subjects who meet the following criteria and the intention is to treat with HCT are eligible for enrollment into Stratum B: Leaky SCID:
• Maternal lymphocytes tested for and not detected AND
• Either one or both of the following (a,b) :
• a.) <50% of lower limit of normal T cell function as measured by response to PHA, OR response to anti-CD3/CD28 antibody
• b.) Absent or <30% of lower limit of normal proliferative responses to candida and tetanus toxoid antigens
• AND at least two of the following (a through e):
• a.) Reduced number of CD3 T cells
• age ≤2 years: <1500/microliter
• age >2 years and ≤4 years: <800/microliter
• age >4 years: <600/microliter
• b.) ≥80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells that are CD45RO+
• AND/OR >80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are CD62L negative
• AND/OR >50% of CD3+ or CD4+T cells express HLA-DR (at <4 years of age)
• AND/OR are oligoclonal T cells
• c.) Hypomorphic mutation in IL2RG in a male, or homozygous hypomorphic mutation or compound heterozygosity with ≥1 hypomorphic mutation in an autosomal SCID-causing gene
• d.) Low T Cell Receptor Excision Circles (TRECs) and/or the percentage of CD4+/45RA+/CD31+ or CD4+/45RA+/CD62L+ cells is below the lower limit of normal.
• e.) Functional testing in vitro supporting impaired, but not absent, activity of the mutant protein, AND
• Does not meet criteria for Omenn Syndrome. Omenn Syndrome:
• Generalized skin rash
• Maternal lymphocytes tested for and not detected; --Note: If maternal engraftment was not assessed and ruled out, the subject is not eligible as Omenn Syndrome.
• ≥80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are CD45RO+ AND/OR
• 80% of CD3+ or CD4+T cells are CD62L negative AND/OR
• 50% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells express HLA-DR (at <2 years of age);
• Absent or low (< 30% lower limit of normal) T cell proliferation response to antigens (Candida, tetanus) to which the subject has been exposed NOTE: If proliferation to antigen was not performed, but at least 4 of the following 9 supportive criteria, at least one of which must be among those marked with an asterisk (*) below are present, the subject is eligible as Omenn Syndrome:
• Hepatomegaly
• Splenomegaly
• Lymphadenopathy
• Elevated IgE
• Elevated absolute eosinophil count
• *Oligoclonal T cells measured by CDR3 length or flow cytometry
• *Proliferation to PHA is reduced <50% of lower limit of normal or SI <30
• *Hypomorphic mutation in a SCID causing gene
• Low TRECS and/or the percentage of CD4+/45RA+/CD31+ or CD4+/45RA+/CD62L+ cells is below the lower limit of normal. Reticular Dysgenesis:
• Absence or very low number of T cells (CD3 <300/µL
• No or very low (<10% lower limit of normal) T cell response to PHA
• Severe neutropenia (absolute neutrophil count < 200 /µL) AND
• ≥2 of the following (a,b,c):
• a.) Sensori-neural deafness
• b.) Deficiency of marrow granulopoiesis on bone marrow examination
• c.) A pathogenic mutation in the adenylate kinase 2 (AK2) gene identified. Stratum C: Subjects who meet the following criteria and the intention is to treat with therapy other than allogeneic HCT, primarily PEG-ADA ERT or gene therapy with autologous modified (gene transduced) cells, are eligible for enrollment into Stratum C:
• ADA Deficient SCID with intention to treat with PEG-ADA ERT
• ADA Deficient SCID with intention to treat with gene therapy
• X-linked SCID with intention to treat with gene therapy
• Any SCID patient previously treated with a thymus transplant (includes intention to treat with HCT, as well as PEG-ADA ERT or gene therapy)
• Any SCID patient who received therapy for SCID deemed "non-standard" or "investigational", including in utero procedures. -Subjects who meet any of the following exclusion criteria are disqualified from enrollment in Strata A, B, or C of the study:
• Presence of an Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection (by PCR) or other cause of secondary immunodeficiency
• Presence of DiGeorge syndrome
• MHC Class I and MHC Class II antigen deficiency, and
• Metabolic conditions that imitate SCID or related disorders such as folate transporter deficiency, severe zinc deficiency or transcobalamin deficiency.