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FrexalimAB in Preservation of Endogenous insULIN Secretion Compared to Placebo in adUlts and Adolescents on Top of inSulin Therapy (FABULINUS) (FABULINUS)
This is a randomized, parallel group, double-blind Phase 2 study with a 52-week blinded extension evaluating the safety and efficacy of 3 dose levels of frexalimab in comparison with placebo in participants with newly diagnosed T1D on insulin treatment. Study details include: Screening period: at least 3 weeks and up to 5 weeks Double-blind treatment period (104 weeks): * Main treatment period: 52 weeks * Blinded extension: 52 weeks Optional Open Label Extension: 104 weeks Safety follow-up: up to 26 weeks The treatment duration will be up to 104 weeks, the total study duration will be up to 135 weeks.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Michelle.Murphy@UTSouthwestern.edu
Perrin White
ALL
12 Years to 35 Years old
PHASE2
NCT06111586
STU-2023-0515
Inclusion Criteria:
* Participants who meet the criteria of T1D according to American Diabetes Association
* Initiated exogenous insulin replacement therapy not longer than 90 days prior to screening visit at which random C-peptide will be assessed (V1).
* Receiving at least one of the following T1D standard of care (SOC), insulin hormone replacement therapy
* one or multiple daily injections (MDI) of basal insulin, prandial insulin and/or premixed insulin, or
* continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion (CSII)
* Participants must be positive for at least 1 of the following T1D autoantibodies confirmed by medical history and/or obtained at study screening:
* Glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD-65)
* Insulinoma Antigen-2 (IA-2)
* Zinc-transporter 8 (ZnT8) or
* Insulin (if obtained not later than 10 days after exogenous insulin therapy initiation)
* Have random C-peptide levels ≥ 0.2 nmol/L determined at screening visit.
* Be vaccinated according to the local vaccination schedule. Any vaccinations should take place at least 28 days prior to randomization for non-live vaccines and at least 3 months prior to randomization for live vaccines.
* Contraceptive use by men and women should be consistent with local regulations regarding the methods of contraception for those participating in clinical studies
Exclusion Criteria:
* Serious systemic viral, bacterial or fungal infection (eg, pneumonia, pyelonephritis), infection requiring hospitalization or IV antibiotics or significant chronic viral (including history of recurrent or active herpes zoster, acute or active cytomegalovirus (CMV), Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) as determined at screening), bacterial, or fungal infection (eg, osteomyelitis) 30 days before and during screening.
* Participants with a history of invasive opportunistic infections, such as, but not limited to histoplasmosis, listeriosis, coccidioidomycosis, candidiasis, pneumocystis jirovecii, and aspergillosis, regardless of resolution.
* Evidence of active or latent tuberculosis (TB) as documented by medical history and examination, chest X-rays (posterior anterior and lateral), and/or TB testing. Blood testing (eg, QuantiFERON® TB Gold test) is strongly preferred; if not available, any local approved TB test is allowed.
* Evidence of any clinically significant, severe or unstable, acute or chronically progressive, uncontrolled infection, medical or surgical condition (eg, but not limited to, cerebral, cardiac, pulmonary, renal, hepatic, gastrointestinal, neurologic, acquired or inherited bone/skeletal disorders including repeated bone fractures for unknown reason, juvenile osteoporosis, osteogenesis imperfecta, osteochondropathies, or any known immune deficiency), or any condition that may affect participant safety in the judgment of the Investigator (including vaccinations which are not updated based on local regulation).
* History or current hypogammaglobulinemia.
* History of a systemic hypersensitivity reaction or significant allergies, other than localized injection site reaction, to any humanized mAb. Clinically significant multiple or severe drug allergies, intolerance to topical corticosteroids, or severe post-treatment hypersensitivity reactions (including, but not limited to, erythema multiforme major, linear IgA dermatosis, toxic epidermal necrolysis, and exfoliative dermatitis).
* Has other autoimmune diseases (eg, rheumatoid arthritis \[RA\], polyarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis \[pJIA\], psoriatic arthritis \[PsA\], ankylosing spondylitis \[AS\], MS, SLE), that require treatment with biologic drugs (mono or polyclonal antibodies) or systemic corticosteroid therapy (at discretion of investigator).
* History, clinical evidence, suspicion or significant risk for thromboembolic events, as well as myocardial infarction, stroke, antiphospholipid syndrome, other prothrombotic disorders and/or participants requiring antithrombotic treatment.
* Diabetes of forms other than autoimmune T1D that include but is not limited to genetic forms of diabetes, maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY), latent autoimmune diabetes of the adult (LADA), secondary to medications or surgery, type 2 diabetes by judgement of the investigator.
* History of malignancy of any organ system, treated or untreated, within 5 years of screening, regardless of whether there is evidence of local recurrence or metastases.
* Systemic corticosteroids (duration \> 7 days), adrenocorticotropic hormone 1 month prior to screening.
* Any IV, IM or SC administered biologic treatments, \< 3 months or \< than 5 half-lives (whichever is longer), prior to randomization.
* Any live (attenuated or viral-vector) vaccine (including but not limited to varicella zoster, oral polio, nasal influenza, rabies) within 3 months prior to randomization.
* Any non-live (inactivated, mRNA, recombinant, conjugate, toxoid) vaccine administered less than 28 days prior to randomization.
* Other medications not compatible or interfering with IMP at discretion of investigator.
* Any immunosuppressive therapy within 12 weeks prior to randomization.
* Course of Thymoglobulin®, teplizumab or other immunomodulatory treatments at any time.
* Any drugs that may be used for treatment of T1D and type 2 diabetes other than insulin including but not limited to metformin, glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonists and sodium-glucose co-transporter-2 and 1 (SGLT2/1) inhibitor and verapamil within 2 weeks prior to screening.
* Abnormal laboratory test(s) at screening.
The above information is not intended to contain all considerations relevant to a patient's potential participation in a clinical trial. DRUG: Frexalimab, DRUG: Placebo, DRUG: Insulin
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, Pancreas
Children’s Health
Massive Transfusion in Children-2: A Trial Examining Life Threatening Hemorrhage in Children (MATIC-2)
The MATIC-2 is a multicenter clinical trial enrolling children who are less than 18 years of age with hemorrhagic shock potentially needing significant blood transfusion. The primary objective of the clinical trial is to determine the effectiveness of Low Titer Group O Whole Blood (LTOWB) compared to component therapy (CT), and Tranexamic Acid (TXA) compared to placebo in decreasing 24-hour all-cause mortality in children with traumatic life threatening hemorrhage.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Alyssa.Aguas@UTSouthwestern.edu
Barbara Gaines
ALL
to 17 Years old
PHASE3
NCT06070350
STU-2024-0064
General
• Children, defined as less than estimated18 years of age with traumatic injury
• MTP activation for confirmed or suspected active life-threatening traumatic bleeding AND Confirmed or suspected active life-threatening traumatic bleeding with at least 2 of 3 of the following criteria:
• Hypotension for age (\< 5% tile)
• Tachycardia for age (\>95th % tile)
• Traumatic injury with exam findings consistent with severe bleeding (e.g., penetrating injury, hemothorax, distended abdomen with bruising, amputation of limb). General
• Patient with devastating traumatic brain injury not expected to survive due to magnitude of injury (example: Transhemispheric gunshot wound with signs of herniation, GCS score of 3 with fixed and dilated pupils)
• MTP activated but no blood products given
• Patients who required an ED thoracotomy or received more than 5 consecutive minutes of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (prior to receiving randomized blood products)
• Patients who are known or suspected to be pregnant on clinical examination
• Known prisoners as defined in protocol
• Known ward of the state
• Isolated hanging, drowning or burns
• Previous enrollment in MATIC-2
• Prior study opt-out with bracelet Exclusion Criteria for the TXA/Placebo Domain
• Prehospital or pre-enrollment use of TXA
• Greater than 3 hours since time of injury
• History of seizure after the injury event
• Known allergy or hypersensitivity reaction to TXA
Inclusion Criteria:
• Children, defined as less than estimated18 years of age with traumatic injury
• MTP activation for confirmed or suspected active life-threatening traumatic bleeding AND Confirmed or suspected active life-threatening traumatic bleeding with at least 2 of 3 of the following criteria:
• Hypotension for age (\< 5% tile)
• Tachycardia for age (\>95th % tile)
• Traumatic injury with exam findings consistent with severe bleeding (e.g., penetrating injury, hemothorax, distended abdomen with bruising, amputation of limb). General
Exclusion Criteria:
• Patient with devastating traumatic brain injury not expected to survive due to magnitude of injury (example: Transhemispheric gunshot wound with signs of herniation, GCS score of 3 with fixed and dilated pupils)
• MTP activated but no blood products given
• Patients who required an ED thoracotomy or received more than 5 consecutive minutes of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (prior to receiving randomized blood products)
• Patients who are known or suspected to be pregnant on clinical examination
• Known prisoners as defined in protocol
• Known ward of the state
• Isolated hanging, drowning or burns
• Previous enrollment in MATIC-2
• Prior study opt-out with bracelet Exclusion Criteria for the TXA/Placebo Domain
• Prehospital or pre-enrollment use of TXA
• Greater than 3 hours since time of injury
• History of seizure after the injury event
• Known allergy or hypersensitivity reaction to TXA
BIOLOGICAL: Low Titer Group O Whole Blood (LTOWB), DRUG: Placebo, DRUG: Tranexamic Acid (TXA), BIOLOGICAL: Component Therapy (CT)
Hemorrhagic Shock, Trauma Injury
Children, Pediatrics, Transfusion
Children’s Health
A Study of Mavorixafor in Participants With Congenital and Acquired Primary Autoimmune and Idiopathic Chronic Neutropenic Disorders Who Are Experiencing Recurrent and/or Serious Infections
The purpose of this study is to demonstrate the efficacy and evaluate the safety and tolerability of mavorixafor in participants with congenital or acquired primary autoimmune and idiopathic chronic neutropenic disorders who are experiencing recurrent and/or serious infections as assessed by demonstrating its clinical benefit and increasing levels of circulating neutrophils.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Laurie.Rodgers-Augustyniak@childrens.com
Kathryn Dickerson
ALL
12 Years to old
PHASE3
NCT06056297
STU-2024-0620
Key
• Isolated with a permanent (non-cyclic) presentation, for example, elastase, neutrophil expressed (ELANE), colony stimulating factor 3 receptor (CSF3R), C-X-C chemokine receptor 2 (CXCR2), Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS)
• Associated with extra-hematologic manifestations, for example, Barth syndrome, Cohen syndrome, glucose-6-phosphatase catalytic subunit 3 (G6PC3), Kostmann disease
• Associated with metabolic disorders, for example, glycogen storage disease 1b (GSD1b)
• Shwachman-Diamond syndrome * Acquired Primary Neutropenia
• Chronic idiopathic neutropenia
• Primary autoimmune neutropenia. Other chronic neutropenia (CN) disorders that may be eligible for enrollment can be clarified and approved upon discussion with study Medical Monitor. * Have an ANC \<1000 cells/µL during screening (single ANC value from hematology) and confirmed trough mean ANC (mean value of multiple ANC measurements over 6 hours) at baseline visit, with no clinical evidence of systemic infection. * Prior history of recurrent and/or serious infections during the 12 months preceding the screening visit (that is, suffering sequelae of chronic neutropenia), as defined by having at least 2 infections in the last 12 months that meet the following criteria: * Infection requiring the use of antibiotics (intravenous \[IV\]/oral); OR * Infection requiring a visit to healthcare facility (including but not limited to emergency room visit, urgent care facility, primary care physician's office, or in-patient hospitalization); AND for all potential participants: * Infections considered by the Investigator to be likely related to the potential participant's CN disorder. * Participants who are on G-CSF or other active background therapy must have been receiving these therapies during the previous 12 months while continuing to suffer from infections, be on a stable dose and dosing schedule for ≥4 weeks prior to screening visit and remain on this dose and dosing schedule throughout the study (unless ANC \>10,000 cells/µL for ≥4 weeks). * Participants must be willing to keep their G-CSF or other background therapy doses/regimens stable (other than for safety reasons) for the duration of the study. Key
• Hypersplenism
• Infection
• Malignancy
• Autoimmune disease, for example, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, graft-versus-host disease, thyroid disease
• Nutritional deficiency, for example, vitamin B12, folic acid, copper, caloric malnutrition
• Drug-induced cause, for example, chemotherapy, clozapine, antiretrovirals, antibiotics, monoclonal antibodies. * A diagnosis of any of the following:
• Aplastic anemia
• Warts, hypogammaglobulinemia, infections, and myelokathexis (WHIM) syndrome
• Certain CNs, including but not limited to these classifications are excluded:
• Isolated with a cyclic presentation, for example, elastase, neutrophil expressed (ELANE)
• Associated with immune dysregulation, for example, common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS), familial hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis, Chédiak-Higashi syndrome, GATA-binding protein 2 (GATA2) deficiency syndrome
• Associated with bone marrow failure, for example, Fanconi anemia, Diamond-Blackfan anemia
• Neutropenia associated with a Duffy-null phenotype (formerly known as benign ethnic neutropenia). However, a participant with an autosomal dominant pathogenic variant in a gene associated with CN on a Duffy-null background may be eligible for inclusion * A medical or personal condition that may potentially compromise the safety of the participant, may preclude the participant's successful completion of the clinical study, or could, in the opinion of the Investigator or the Medical Monitor, interfere with the objectives of the study. * Received more than 1 dose of mavorixafor in the past. * Received C-X-C chemokine receptor 4 (CXCR4) antagonist (other than mavorixafor) in the past 6 months. * Participants taking pegylated-G-CSF unless they have a diagnosis of congenital neutropenia confirmed at screening. * Participant is currently taking or has taken other investigational drug \<30 days prior to the screening visit or 5 half-lives, whichever is longer. Note: Other protocol-defined inclusion and exclusion criteria may apply.
Inclusion Criteria:
* Diagnosis of congenital or acquired primary autoimmune and idiopathic chronic neutropenic disorder ≥6 months prior to the screening visit that is not attributable to medications, active or recent infections or malignancy.
* Congenital Neutropenia, including but not limited to these classifications:
• Isolated with a permanent (non-cyclic) presentation, for example, elastase, neutrophil expressed (ELANE), colony stimulating factor 3 receptor (CSF3R), C-X-C chemokine receptor 2 (CXCR2), Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS)
• Associated with extra-hematologic manifestations, for example, Barth syndrome, Cohen syndrome, glucose-6-phosphatase catalytic subunit 3 (G6PC3), Kostmann disease
• Associated with metabolic disorders, for example, glycogen storage disease 1b (GSD1b)
• Shwachman-Diamond syndrome * Acquired Primary Neutropenia
• Chronic idiopathic neutropenia
• Primary autoimmune neutropenia. Other chronic neutropenia (CN) disorders that may be eligible for enrollment can be clarified and approved upon discussion with study Medical Monitor. * Have an ANC \<1000 cells/µL during screening (single ANC value from hematology) and confirmed trough mean ANC (mean value of multiple ANC measurements over 6 hours) at baseline visit, with no clinical evidence of systemic infection. * Prior history of recurrent and/or serious infections during the 12 months preceding the screening visit (that is, suffering sequelae of chronic neutropenia), as defined by having at least 2 infections in the last 12 months that meet the following criteria: * Infection requiring the use of antibiotics (intravenous \[IV\]/oral); OR * Infection requiring a visit to healthcare facility (including but not limited to emergency room visit, urgent care facility, primary care physician's office, or in-patient hospitalization); AND for all potential participants: * Infections considered by the Investigator to be likely related to the potential participant's CN disorder. * Participants who are on G-CSF or other active background therapy must have been receiving these therapies during the previous 12 months while continuing to suffer from infections, be on a stable dose and dosing schedule for ≥4 weeks prior to screening visit and remain on this dose and dosing schedule throughout the study (unless ANC \>10,000 cells/µL for ≥4 weeks). * Participants must be willing to keep their G-CSF or other background therapy doses/regimens stable (other than for safety reasons) for the duration of the study. Key
Exclusion Criteria:
* A diagnosis of secondary neutropenia including those due to:
• Hypersplenism
• Infection
• Malignancy
• Autoimmune disease, for example, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, graft-versus-host disease, thyroid disease
• Nutritional deficiency, for example, vitamin B12, folic acid, copper, caloric malnutrition
• Drug-induced cause, for example, chemotherapy, clozapine, antiretrovirals, antibiotics, monoclonal antibodies. * A diagnosis of any of the following:
• Aplastic anemia
• Warts, hypogammaglobulinemia, infections, and myelokathexis (WHIM) syndrome
• Certain CNs, including but not limited to these classifications are excluded:
• Isolated with a cyclic presentation, for example, elastase, neutrophil expressed (ELANE)
• Associated with immune dysregulation, for example, common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS), familial hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis, Chédiak-Higashi syndrome, GATA-binding protein 2 (GATA2) deficiency syndrome
• Associated with bone marrow failure, for example, Fanconi anemia, Diamond-Blackfan anemia
• Neutropenia associated with a Duffy-null phenotype (formerly known as benign ethnic neutropenia). However, a participant with an autosomal dominant pathogenic variant in a gene associated with CN on a Duffy-null background may be eligible for inclusion * A medical or personal condition that may potentially compromise the safety of the participant, may preclude the participant's successful completion of the clinical study, or could, in the opinion of the Investigator or the Medical Monitor, interfere with the objectives of the study. * Received more than 1 dose of mavorixafor in the past. * Received C-X-C chemokine receptor 4 (CXCR4) antagonist (other than mavorixafor) in the past 6 months. * Participants taking pegylated-G-CSF unless they have a diagnosis of congenital neutropenia confirmed at screening. * Participant is currently taking or has taken other investigational drug \<30 days prior to the screening visit or 5 half-lives, whichever is longer. Note: Other protocol-defined inclusion and exclusion criteria may apply.
DRUG: Mavorixafor, DRUG: Placebo
Neutropenia
Mavorixafor, Chronic neutropenia, Chronic idiopathic neutropenia, Severe Congenital Neutropenia (SCN), C-X-C chemokine receptor 4 (CXCR4), Congenital and acquired neutropenia, Autoimmune disease, Cohen syndrome, Barth syndrome, ELANE, G6PC3, GSD1b, Kostmann disease, Shwachman-Diamond syndrome, Autoimmune neutropenia (AIN)
Children’s Health
Fontan Udenafil Exercise Longitudinal Assessment Trial - 2 (FUEL-2)
This study will evaluate the clinical efficacy and safety of udenafil, an orally administered, potent and selective inhibitor of PDE5, versus placebo for the treatment of adolescent who have had the Fontan procedure.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Ana.Garzon@childrens.com
Matthew Lemler
ALL
12 Years to 18 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05918211
STU-2024-1065
Inclusion Criteria:
• Males and females with Fontan physiology who are 12 to less than 19 years of age at enrollment.
• Participant consent or parental/guardian consent and participant assent.
• Participant fluency in primary language of country in which study is being conducted.
• Current antiplatelet or anticoagulant therapy.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Height \< 132 cm.
• Weight \< 40 kg.
• Hospitalization for acute decompensated heart failure within the last 12 months.
• Current intravenous inotropic drugs.
• Undergoing evaluation for heart transplantation or listed for transplantation.
• Diagnosis of active protein losing enteropathy or plastic bronchitis within the last 3 years, or a history of liver cirrhosis.
• Known Fontan baffle obstruction, branch pulmonary artery stenosis, or pulmonary vein stenosis resulting in a mean gradient of \> 4 mmHg between the regions proximal and distal to the obstruction as measured by either catheterization or echocardiography, obtained prior to screening for the trial.
• Single lung physiology with greater than 80% flow to one lung.
• Failure to achieve maximal exertion (defined as RER \< 1.10) on screening/baseline exercise test.
• Peak minute oxygen consumption (VO2) less than 45% or ≥ 80% of predicated for age and gender at enrollment.
• Severe ventricular dysfunction assessed qualitatively by clinical echocardiography within 6 months prior to enrollment.
• Severe valvar regurgitation, ventricular outflow obstruction, or severe aortic arch obstruction assessed by clinical echocardiography within six months prior to enrollment.
• History of significant renal (serum creatinine \> 2.0), hepatic (serum AST and/or ALT \> 3 times upper limit of normal), gastrointestinal or biliary disorders that could impair absorption, metabolism or excretion of orally administered medications.
• Inability to complete exercise testing at baseline screening.
• Subjects with a pacemaker whose heart rate at peak exercise is controlled by the extrinsic pacemaker as opposed to a native atrial rhythm.
• History of PDE-5 inhibitor use within 12 months prior to enrollment. (Treatment is defined as chronic therapy as opposed to a single dose.)
• History of any other medication for treatment of pulmonary hypertension within 3 months before study onset.
• Known intolerance to oral udenafil.
• Frequent use of medications or other substances that inhibit or induce CYP3A4.
• Current use of alpha-blockers or nitrates.
• Ongoing or planned participation in another research protocol that would either prevent successful completion of planned study testing or invalidate its results.
• Noncardiac medical, psychiatric, and/or social disorder that would prevent successful completion of planned study testing or would invalidate its results.
• Cardiac care, ongoing or planned, at a non-study center that would impede study completion.
• For females: Pregnancy at the time of screening, pregnancy planned before study completion, or refusal to use an acceptable method of contraception for study duration if sexually active.
• Unable to abstain or limit intake of grapefruit juice and grapefruit containing drinks during the duration of the trial.
• Refusal to provide written informed consent/assent.
• In the opinion of the investigator, the subject is likely to be non-compliant with the study protocol.
• History of clinically significant thromboembolic event, in the option of the site Principal Investigator, that may put the subject at increased risk of a subsequent event while participating in the study.
• Coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) vaccination or symptoms of COVID-19 infection within 7 days of Visit 1.
• Not taking antiplatelet or anticoagulant therapy.
DRUG: Udenafil, DRUG: Placebo
Single Ventricle Heart Disease
Fontan, Maximal Oxygen Consumption, Work Rate, VO2 at VAT, Ventilatory Efficiency
Children’s Health
Nuwiq for Perioperative Management Of Patients With Haemophilia A on Emicizumab Regular Prophylaxis Study (NuPOWER)
Recombinant factor VIII for the prevention of bleeding in patients with severe haemophilia A undergoing major surgery while receiving emicizumab prophylaxis
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, susan.corley@childrens.com
Jessica Garcia
MALE
12 Years to old
PHASE4
NCT05935358
STU-2023-0793
Inclusion Criteria:
* Severe haemophilia A (FVIII activity \[FVIII:C\] \<1%) according to medical history
* Male patients at least 12 years of age
* Previous treatment with any FVIII product(s) for at least 150 exposure days
* On regular prophylaxis with emicizumab for at least 1 month prior to a scheduled major elective surgery requiring FVIII treatment
* Freely given written informed consent of the patient, or parent/legal representative where applicable, obtained in accordance with local regulations
Exclusion Criteria:
* Coagulation disorder other than haemophilia A
* Present or past FVIII inhibitor (≥0.6 Bethesda units \[BU\]/mL) according to medical history
* Severe liver or kidney disease (alanine aminotransferase \[ALT\] and/or aspartate aminotransferase \[AST\] levels \>5 times the upper limit of normal; or creatinine \>120 μmol/L)
* Known hypersensitivity to Nuwiq's active substance or its excipients (sucrose, sodium chloride, calcium chloride dihydrate, arginine hydrochloride, sodium citrate dihydrate, poloxamer 188)
* Already had surgery in this study
* Current participation in another interventional clinical trial
* Treatment with any investigational medicinal product (IMP) within 30 days prior to screening visit DRUG: Nuwiq
Severe Hemophilia A, Other Hematopoietic
Children’s Health
A Study Evaluating the Effectiveness and Safety of Risdiplam Administered in Pediatric Patients With Spinal Muscular Atrophy Who Experienced a Plateau or Decline in Function After Gene Therapy (HINALEA 2)
This is an open-label, single-arm, multicenter clinical study to evaluate the effectiveness and safety of risdiplam administered in pediatric participants with SMA and 2 SMN2 copies who previously received onasemnogene abeparvovec and experience a plateau or decline in function. Participants to be enrolled are children \<2 years of age genetically diagnosed with SMA.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Tammy.Ramm@UTSouthwestern.edu
Kaitlin Batley
ALL
3 Months to 24 Months old
PHASE4
NCT05861999
STU-2023-1071
Inclusion Criteria:
* \<2 years of age at the time of informed consent
* Confirmed diagnosis of 5q-autosomal recessive SMA, including genetic confirmation of homozygous deletion or compound heterozygosity predictive of loss of function of the Survival of Motor Neuron 1 (SMN1) gene
* Confirmed presence of two SMN2 gene copies as documented through laboratory testing
* Administration of onasemnogene abeparvovec pre-symptomatically or post-symptomatically
* Has received onasemnogene abeparvovec for SMA no less than 13 weeks prior to enrollment
* If treated with risdiplam prior to onasemnogene abeparvovec, risdiplam treatment must not have exceeded 3 weeks and must be discontinued 1 day prior to onasemnogene abeparvovec administration.
* In the opinion of the investigator, has demonstrated a plateau or decline in function post-gene therapy (with a duration of 26 weeks or less) documented by 2 individual time points in the functions as follows: swallowing AND one additional function/ability (respiratory, motor function, other) per appropriate expectation.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Previous or current enrolment in investigational study prior to initiation of study treatment
* Any unresolved standard-of-care laboratory abnormalities per the onasemnogene abeparvovec prescribing information
* Concomitant or previous administration of an SMN2-targeting antisense oligonucleotide
* Concomitant or previous use of an anti-myostatin agent
* Participants requiring invasive ventilation or tracheostomy
* Presence of feeding tube and an OrSAT score of 0
* Hospitalization for pulmonary event within the last 2 months, or any planned hospitalization at the time of screening
* Any major illness requiring hospitalization within 1 month before the screening examination or any febrile illness within 1 week prior to screening and up to first dose administration. DRUG: Risdiplam
Muscular Atrophy, Spinal
Children’s Health
A Study Evaluating the Effectiveness and Safety of Risdiplam Administered as an Early Intervention in Pediatric Participants With Spinal Muscular Atrophy After Gene Therapy (HINALEA 1)
This is an open-label, single-arm, multicenter clinical study to evaluate the effectiveness and safety of risdiplam administered as an early intervention in pediatric participants with spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) and 2 SMN2 copies who have previously received onasemnogene abeparvovec. Participants are children \< 2 years of age genetically diagnosed with SMA.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Tammy.Ramm@UTSouthwestern.edu
Kaitlin Batley
ALL
3 Months to 24 Months old
PHASE4
NCT05861986
STU-2023-0862
Inclusion Criteria:
* \<2 years of age at the time of informed consent
* Confirmed diagnosis of 5q-autosomal recessive SMA, including genetic confirmation of homozygous deletion or compound heterozygosity predictive of loss of function of the Survival of Motor Neuron 1 (SMN1) gene
* Confirmed presence of two SMN2 gene copies as documented through laboratory testing
* Administration of onasemnogene abeparvovec pre-symptomatically or post-symptomatically
* Has received onasemnogene abeparvovec for SMA no less than 13 weeks, but not more than months 30 weeks, prior to enrollment
* If treated with risdiplam prior to onasemnogene abeparvovec, risdiplam treatment must not have exceeded 3 weeks and must be discontinued 1 day prior to onasemnogene abeparvovec administration
* Has, in the opinion of the investigator, not experienced clinically significant decline in function from the time of onasemnogene abeparvovec administration
Exclusion Criteria:
* Previous or current enrolment in investigational study prior to initiation of study treatment
* Any unresolved standard-of-care laboratory abnormalities per the onasemnogene abeparvovec prescribing information
* Concomitant or previous administration of an SMN2-targeting antisense oligonucleotide
* Concomitant or previous use of an anti-myostatin agent
* Participants requiring invasive ventilation or tracheostomy
* Participants requiring awake non-invasive ventilation or with awake hypoxemia (Arterial Oxygen Saturation \[SaO2\] \<95%) with or without ventilator support
* Presence of feeding tube and an OrSAT score of 0
* Hospitalization for pulmonary event within the last 2 months, or any planned hospitalization at the time of screening
* Any major illness requiring hospitalization within 1 month before the screening examination or any febrile illness within 1 week prior to screening and up to first dose administration. DRUG: Risdiplam
Muscular Atrophy, Spinal, Other
Children’s Health
Optimization of Saturation Targets And Resuscitation Trial (OptiSTART) (OptiSTART)
This study is designed to answer one of the fundamental gaps in knowledge in the resuscitation of preterm infants at birth: What is the optimal target oxygen saturation (SpO2) range that increases survival without long-term morbidities? Oxygen (O2) is routinely used for the stabilization of preterm infants in the delivery room (DR), but its use is linked with mortality and several morbidities including bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD). To balance the need to give sufficient O2 to correct hypoxia and avoid excess O2, the neonatal resuscitation program (NRP) recommends initiating preterm resuscitation with low (≤ 30%) inspired O2 concentration (FiO2) and subsequent titration to achieve a specified target SpO2 range. These SpO2 targets are based on approximated 50th percentile SpO2 (Sat50) observed in healthy term infants. However, the optimal SpO2 targets remain undefined in the preterm infants. Recent data suggest that the current SpO2 targets (Sat50) may be too low. The investigators plan to conduct a multicenter RCT of Sat75 versus Sat50 powered for survival without BPD. The investigators will randomize 700 infants, 23 0/7- 30 6/7 weeks' GA, to 75th percentile SpO2 goals (Sat75, Intervention) or 50th percentile SpO2 goals (Sat50, control). Except for the SpO2 targets, all resuscitations will follow NRP guidelines including an initial FiO2 of 0.3. In Aim 1, the investigators will determine whether targeting Sat75 compared to Sat50 increases survival without lung disease (BPD). In addition, the investigators will compare the rates of other major morbidities such as IVH. In Aim 2, the investigators will determine whether targeting Sat75 compared to Sat50 increases survival without neurodevelopmental impairment at 2 years of age. In Aim 3, the investigators will determine whether targeting Sat75 compared to Sat50 decreases oxidative stress.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, shelby.unger@UTSouthwestern.edu
Vishal Kapadia
ALL
0 Minutes to 10 Minutes old
NA
NCT05849077
STU-2022-0441
Inclusion Criteria:
-Neonates with OB gestational age 22-30 weeks
Exclusion Criteria:
* Prenatally diagnosed cyanotic congenital heart disease
* Prenatally diagnosed congenital diaphragmatic hernia
* Parents request no resuscitation
* If preductal saturations can not be measured by 3 minutes after pulse oximeter sensor is applied to the newborn OTHER: Sat75, OTHER: Sat50
Premature Infants, Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia, Intraventricular Hemorrhage, Neurodevelopmental Outcomes
neonatal resuscitation, oxygen
Children’s Health; Parkland Health & Hospital System
A Study With Tovorafenib (DAY101) as a Treatment Option for Progressive, Relapsed, or Refractory Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis
This phase II trial tests the safety, side effects, best dose and activity of tovorafenib (DAY101) in treating patients with Langerhans cell histiocytosis that is growing, spreading, or getting worse (progressive), has come back (relapsed) after previous treatment, or does not respond to therapy (refractory). Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a type of disease that occurs when the body makes too many immature Langerhans cells (a type of white blood cell). When these cells build up, they can form tumors in certain tissues and organs including bones, skin, lungs and pituitary gland and can damage them. This tumor is more common in children and young adults. DAY101 may stop the growth of cancer cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Using DAY101 may be effective in treating patients with relapsed or refractory Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Erin Butler
ALL
180 Days to 22 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05828069
STU-2023-0818
Inclusion Criteria:
* 180 days- \< 22 years (at time of study enrollment)
* Patient must have a body surface area of ≥ 0.3 m\^2
* Patients with progressive, relapsed, or recurrent LCH with measurable disease at study entry
* Patients must have had histologic verification of LCH (from either original diagnosis or relapse/progression) at the time of study entry
* Tissue confirmation of relapse is recommended but not required.
* Pathology report must be submitted for central confirmation of diagnosis within 7 days of enrollment.
* Formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) blocks or unstained slides (initial diagnosis and/or subsequent biopsies) will be required for retrospective central confirmation of diagnosis and molecular studies
* Patients with mixed histiocytic disorders (e.g. LCH with juvenile xanthogranuloma) may be included
* Patients must have measurable disease
* Patients must have progressive or refractory disease or experience relapse after at least one previous systemic treatment strategy
* Pathogenic somatic mutation detected in genes encoding tyrosine kinase receptors (CSFR1, ERBB3 or ALK), RAS or RAF (may be from original or subsequent biopsy or peripheral blood/bone marrow aspirate). Clinical mutation reports may include quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) (e.g. BRAFV600E) and/or Sanger or next generation sequencing. Immunohistochemistry (e.g. VE1 antibody for BRAFV600E) alone is not sufficient
* Participant must be able to take an enteral dose and formulation of medication. Study medication is only available as an oral suspension or tablet, which may be taken by mouth or other enteral route such as nasogastric, jejunostomy, or gastric tube
* Karnofsky \>= 50% for patients \> 16 years of age and Lansky \>= 50% for patients =\< 16 years of age
* Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1 or 2. Use Karnofsky for patients \> 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =\< 16 years of age
* Myelosuppressive chemotherapy: Patients must not have received within 14 days of entry onto this study
* Investigational agent or any other anticancer therapy not defined above: Patients must not have received any investigational agent or any other anticancer therapy (including MAPK pathway inhibitor) for at least 14 days prior to planned start of tovorafenib (DAY101)
* Radiation therapy (RT): Patient must not have received RT within 2 weeks after the last dose fraction of RT
* Patients must have fully recovered from any prior surgery
* Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, targeted inhibitor, and/or radiotherapy with toxicities reduced to grade 1 or less (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events \[CTCAE\] version 5.0)
* Steroids: =\< 0.5 mg/kg/day of prednisone equivalent (maximum 20 mg/day) averaged during the month prior to study enrollment is permissible
* Strong inducers or inhibitors of CYP2C8 are prohibited for 14 days before the first dose of tovorafenib (DAY101) and from planned administration for the duration of study participation
* Medications that are breast cancer resistant protein (BCRP) substrates that have a narrow therapeutic index are prohibited for 14 days before the first dose of tovorafenib (DAY101) and for the duration of study participation
* Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \>= 750/uL unless secondary to bone marrow involvement, in such cases bone marrow involvement must be documented (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment, must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Platelet count \>= 75,000/uL (unsupported/without transfusion within the past 7 days) (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment, must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Patients with marrow disease must have platelet count of \>= 75,000/uL (transfusion support allowed) and must not be refractory to platelet transfusions. Bone marrow involvement must be documented
* Hemoglobin \>= 8 g/dL (unsupported/without transfusion within the past 7 days). Patients with marrow disease must have hemoglobin \>= 8 g/dL (transfusion support allowed). Bone marrow involvement must be documented
* Hematopoietic growth factors: At least 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g., Neulasta \[registered trademark\]) or 7 days for short-acting growth factor
* A serum creatinine based on age/sex as follows (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment, must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Age: 6 months to \< 1 year; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL):= 0.5 mg/dl (male and female)
* Age: 1 to \< 2 years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL): = 0.6 mg/dl (male and female)
* Age: 2 to \< 6 years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL): = 0.8 mg/dl (male and female)
* Age: 6 to \< 10 years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL): = 1.0 mg/dl (male and female)
* Age: 10 to \< 13 years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL): = 1.2 mg/dl (male and female)
* Age: 13 to \< 16 years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL): = 1.5 mg/dl (male) and 1.4 mg/dl (female)
* Age: \>= 16 years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL): = 1.7 mg/dl (male) and 1.4 mg/dl (female)
* OR- a 24 hour urine creatinine clearance \>= 50 mL/min/1.73 m\^2
* OR- a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) \>= 50 mL/min/1.73 m\^2. GFR must be performed using direct measurement with a nuclear blood sampling method OR direct small molecule clearance method (iothalamate or other molecule per institutional standard)
* Note: Estimated GFR (eGFR) from serum creatinine, cystatin C or other estimates are not acceptable for determining eligibility
* Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated) =\< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment, must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =\< 3 x ULN for age (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment, must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Serum albumin \>= 2 g/dl must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment, must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* For patients with liver disease caused by their histiocytic disorder (as evaluated on radiographic imaging or biopsy): patients may be enrolled with abnormal bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase (AST), ALT and albumin with documentation of histiocytic liver disease
* Fractional shortening (FS) of \>= 25% or ejection fraction of \>= 50%, as determined by echocardiography or multigated acquisition scan (MUGA) within 28 days prior to study enrollment. Depending on institutional standard, either FS or left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) is adequate for enrollment if only one value is measured; if both values are measured, then both values must meet criteria above (must be obtained within 28 days prior to enrollment and start of protocol therapy) (repeat if necessary)
* No evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry \> 94% if there is clinical indication for determination; unless it is due to underlying pulmonary LCH
* Central Nervous System Function Defined As:
* Patients with seizure disorder may be enrolled if well controlled
* Central nervous system (CNS) toxicity =\< Grade 2
* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial unless antiretroviral therapy interacts with the metabolism of tovorafenib (DAY101) and cannot safely be changed to antivirals that do not interact with study medication
* All patients and/or their parent(s) or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
* All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met.
Exclusion Criteria:
* LCH arising along with other hematologic malignancy (e.g. mixed LCH with acute lymphoblastic leukemia) or any history of non-histiocytic malignancy
* Disease scenarios as below will be excluded
* Skin-limited disease
* Gastrointestinal (GI) tract involvement only (those that have disease that can be determined by endoscopic biopsies only)
* LCH-associated neurodegeneration (LCH-ND) without parenchymal lesions or other systemic lesions
* Patients with activating mutations in MAP2K1 are not eligible for this study due to drug target specificity. Mutation status will be submitted to study team within 7 days of enrollment
* Refractory nausea and vomiting, malabsorption, or external biliary shunt that would preclude adequate absorption of tovorafenib (DAY101)
* Uncontrolled systemic bacterial, viral, or fungal infection
* Major surgical procedure or significant traumatic injury within 14 days prior to study enrollment, or anticipation of need for major surgical procedure during the course of the study. Placement of a vascular access device or minor surgery is permitted within fourteen (14) days of study enrollment (provided that the wound has healed)
* History of significant bowel resection that would preclude adequate absorption or other significant malabsorptive disease
* Ophthalmologic considerations: Patients with known significant ophthalmologic conditions or known risk factors for retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) are not eligible
* History of solid organ or hematopoietic bone marrow transplantation
* Clinically significant active cardiovascular disease, or history of myocardial infarction, or deep vein thrombosis/pulmonary embolism within 6 months prior to enrollment, ongoing cardiomyopathy, or current prolonged QT interval \> 440 ms based on triplicate electrocardiogram (ECG) average
* History of Grade \>= 2 CNS hemorrhage or history of any CNS hemorrhage within 28 days of study entry
* History of any drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS) syndrome or Stevens Johnsons syndrome (SJS) or who are allergic to tovorafenib (DAY101) or any of its components
* CTCAE version (V.) 5.0 Grade 3 symptomatic creatinine kinase (CPK) elevation (\> 5 x ULN)
* Female patients who are pregnant are ineligible. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
* Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants are ineligible
* Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation are ineligible. Women of childbearing potential must use non-hormonal contraception during tovorafenib treatment and for at least 28 days after the last dose. Men should use effective contraception and must not father a child while taking tovorafenib and for 14 days after the last dose PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, PROCEDURE: Bone Marrow Aspiration, PROCEDURE: Bone Marrow Biopsy, PROCEDURE: Computed Tomography, PROCEDURE: Echocardiography Test, PROCEDURE: FDG-Positron Emission Tomography and Computed Tomography Scan, PROCEDURE: Lumbar Puncture, PROCEDURE: Multigated Acquisition Scan, DRUG: Tovorafenib
Recurrent Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis, Refractory Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis, Bones and Joints, Other Skin, Brain and Nervous System, Liver, Lung/Thoracic, Other Hematopoietic, Small Intestine
Children’s Health
A Long-term, Post-marketing Safety Study of Palynziq in Patients With PKU (PALace) (PALace)
This is a 10-year multi-center, global, observational study to further characterize the safety profile of pegvaliase, including hypersensitivity reactions, long-term safety and tolerability, and the effectiveness of the additional risk minimization measures (aRMMs) (European Union (EU) only) in subjects receiving pegvaliase for the treatment of PKU. Subjects for whom a clinical decision has been made that they will receive pegvaliase to treat their PKU within 30 days following the date of enrollment (incident-users) or have previously started treatment with pegvaliase at the date of enrollment (prevalent-users) are eligible for participation in this study.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Juana.Luevano@UTSouthwestern.edu
Markey McNutt
All
Not specified
NCT05813678
STU-2023-0263
Inclusion Criteria:
• Documented diagnosis of PKU per local standard of care
• Currently receiving or planned to receive pegvaliase treatment within 30 days after the date of enrollment, including subjects who previously received pegvaliase as part of the clinical development program and have completed study participation.
• Subject (or legally authorized representative) is willing and able to provide written informed consent after the nature of the study has been explained and prior to any data collection.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Subject has any kind of disorder that, in the opinion of the investigator, may compromise the ability of the subject to give written informed consent and/or comply with any aspect of the study.
• Currently participating in an interventional study of any investigational product, device, or procedure
• Previously enrolled in this study (eg, subjects who have been withdrawn from the study and wish to participate again at a later date)
• German subjects <16 years if age
Drug: Pegvaliase
Phenylketonuria (PKU), Other Endocrine System
Observational, Safety Study, Pegvaliase, Palynziq, PKU, Phenylketonuria, Phase 4
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
Long Term Efficacy and Safety of Orlistat for Type 1 Hyperlipoproteinemia
Type I hyperlipoproteinemia (T1HLP, also known as familial chylomicronemia syndrome or FCS) is a rare diseasewhere the blood triglycerides (fats) are very high. It is caused by lack of certain enzymes and proteins in the bodythat are important in disposing circulating fats from blood. Treatment of T1HLP patients who have very high levels of blood fats (≥ 1,000 mg/dL) is challenging as conventional triglyceride-lowering medications, such as fibrates and fishoil, are ineffective. The purpose of this trial is to study the long-term efficacy and safety of orlistat for reducing blood triglyceride levels in patients with T1HLP.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, CHANDNA.VASANDANI@UTSouthwestern.edu
Abhimanyu Garg
ALL
8 Years to 70 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05816343
STU-2019-0776
* Type I hyperlipoproteinemia confirmed by bi-allelic disease-causing variants in any one of the T1HLP genes (LPL, APOC2, APOA5, LMF1, GPIHBP1, or GCKR).
* Subjects who have a fasting TG greater than or equal to 750 mg/dL at the end of run-in period of 8 weeks will be eligible for randomization.
* Age ≥ 8 years
* Well controlled diabetes mellitus with hemoglobin A1c \< 8%
* Off orlistat for a period of 2 months
Exclusion Criteria:
* Secondary hypertriglyceridemia due to diabetes, renal disease, , alcoholism and drug therapy such as estrogens and estrogen analogues, steroids, HIV-1 protease inhibitors, retinoic acid derivatives, interferons, or lasparaginase.
* On lomitapide or participating in clinical trial of volanesorsen and olezarsen
* On cyclosporine
* Having serum TSH outside of the normal range if on levothyroxine supplementation.
* Use of levothyroxine to suppress TSH in individuals with thyroid cancer.
* Pregnant or lactating women
* Significant liver disease (elevated transaminases \> 2 times upper limit of normal)
* Alcohol abuse (\> 7 drinks or 84 g per week for women and \> 14 drinks or 168 g per week for men)
* Severe anemia (hematocrit \< 24%)
* Illicit drug use (cocaine, marijuana, LSD, etc.)
* Major surgery in the past three months
* Congestive heart failure
* Serum creatinine greater than 2.5 mg/dL
* Cancer within the past five years
* Gastrointestinal surgery in the past
* Current therapy with anti-coagulants, digoxin and anti-arrhythmics
* Chronic malabsorption syndromes
* Cholestasis
* Acute illnesses such as acute pancreatitis in the last 8 weeks
* Previous history of renal calcium oxalate stones DRUG: Orlistat, DRUG: Placebo
Type 1 Hyperlipoprotenemia
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Safety and Efficacy Study of Viaskin Peanut in Peanut-allergic Children 4-7 Years of Age (VITESSE)
The primary purpose of this study is to assess the efficacy and safety of daily DBV712 250 micrograms (mcg) to induce desensitization to peanut in peanut-allergic children 4-7 years of age over a 12-month treatment period.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Priscilla.Arancivia@UTSouthwestern.edu
Malika Gupta
All
4 Years to 7 Years old
Phase 3
NCT05741476
STU-2023-0051
Key
• Aged 4 through 7 years at Visit 1 (screening).
• Physician-diagnosed peanut allergy or children with a well-documented medical history of IgE-mediated reactions after ingestion of peanut and currently following a strict peanut-free diet.
• Peanut-specific IgE of >0.7 kilo allergy unit per liter (kUA/L) and a positive peanut SPT with the largest wheal diameter of ≥6 millimeter (mm) at Visit 1.
• An ED of ≤100 mg peanut protein at screening DBPCFC. Key
• Severe generalized dermatologic disease involving the application area (interscapular region)
• Uncontrolled persistent asthma.
• Past or current immunotherapy for peanut allergy, including oral immunotherapy (OIT).
• Current immunotherapy for any allergen (including food allergy, allergic rhinitis and/or insect allergy), or treatment with any monoclonal antibody or biologic immunomodulatory therapy within 6 months prior to Visit 1.
Inclusion Criteria:
• Aged 4 through 7 years at Visit 1 (screening).
• Physician-diagnosed peanut allergy or children with a well-documented medical history of IgE-mediated reactions after ingestion of peanut and currently following a strict peanut-free diet.
• Peanut-specific IgE of >0.7 kilo allergy unit per liter (kUA/L) and a positive peanut SPT with the largest wheal diameter of ≥6 millimeter (mm) at Visit 1.
• An ED of ≤100 mg peanut protein at screening DBPCFC. Key
Exclusion Criteria:
• Severe generalized dermatologic disease involving the application area (interscapular region)
• Uncontrolled persistent asthma.
• Past or current immunotherapy for peanut allergy, including oral immunotherapy (OIT).
• Current immunotherapy for any allergen (including food allergy, allergic rhinitis and/or insect allergy), or treatment with any monoclonal antibody or biologic immunomodulatory therapy within 6 months prior to Visit 1.
Drug: DBV712, Other: Placebo
Allergy, Peanut, Other
Peanut Hypersensitivity, Epicutaneous Immunotherapy (EPIT), Epicutaneous, Immunotherapy, Viaskin, Nut and Peanut Hypersensitivity, Food Hypersensitivity, Peanut Allergy, Food Allergy, Nut and Peanut Allergy
Children’s Health
Janus Kinase (JAK) Inhibitors to Preserve C-Peptide Production in New Onset Type 1 Diabetes (T1D)
A multi-center, placebo-controlled, double blind, 1:1:1 randomized control clinical trial testing two different JAK Inhibitors abrocitnib, ritlecitinib, and placebo in subjects with recent onset Stage 3 Type 1 Diabetes within 100 days of diagnosis.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Michelle.Murphy@UTSouthwestern.edu
Perrin White
ALL
12 Years to 35 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05743244
STU-2023-1068
Inclusion Criteria:
• Provide informed consent or assent as appropriate and, if \< 18 years of age have a parent or legal guardian provide informed consent
• Age 12-35 years (both inclusive) at the time of signing informed consent and assent
• Diagnosis of T1D within 100 days of the baseline visit (V0).
• Positive for at least one islet cell autoantibody; Glutamate decarboxylase (GAD)65A, mIAA (if obtained within 10 days of the onset of insulin therapy), IA-2A, ICA, or ZnT8A
• Stimulated C-peptide of ≥0.2 pmol/mL measured during mixed-meal tolerance test (MMTT) conducted at least 21 days from diagnosis of diabetes
• HbA1c ≤ 10 %
• Body weight ≥ 35kg at screening
• Willing to comply with intensive diabetes management and wear a Continuous Glucose Monitoring Device (CGM)
• Participants who are Cytomegalovirus (CMV) and/or Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) seronegative at screening must be CMV and/or EBV Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) negative within 30 days of randomization and may not have had signs or symptoms of a CMV and/or EBV-compatible illness lasting longer than 7 days within 30 days of the baseline visit (V0).
• Participants who are CMV and/or EBV seropositive at screening must be CMV PCR negative and/or EBV PCR \<2,000 IU/mL and must have no signs or symptoms of acute infection at the time of the baseline visit (V0).
• Be up to date on recommended vaccinations based on age of participants\*
• Participants are required to receive killed influenza vaccination at least 2 weeks prior to the baseline visit (V0) when vaccine for the current or upcoming flu season is available. Enrollment must be delayed at least 4 weeks from administration of a killed vaccine other than influenza and COVID-19 and 6 weeks from a live vaccination. Live vaccinations and non-live vaccinations (other than influzena and COVID-19) should not be given while on study drug and be postponed at least 3 months after the last dose of study drug.
• If participant is female with reproductive potential, she must have a negative pregnancy test at screening and be willing to avoid pregnancy using a highly-effective contraceptive method for the duration of the study
• Males of reproductive age must use a highly-effective contraceptive method during the treatment phase and for 3 months following last dose of study drug * For COVID-19 vaccination, all participants will be strongly encouraged to be up-to-date with COVID-19 vaccine (s) as indicated by country-specific guidelines at least 2 weeks prior to the baseline visit (V0).
Exclusion Criteria:
• Current or ongoing use of non-insulin pharmaceuticals or medication that affect glycemic control or glucose homeostasis within 7 days prior to screening or any prohibited concomitant medication listed in section 4.8
• Untreated hypothyroidism or active Graves' disease
• Concurrent treatment with other immunosuppressive agents (including biologics or steroids), other than inhaled or topical glucocorticoids
• Active acute or chronic infection requiring treatment with oral antibiotics, antivirals, antiparasitics, antiprotozoals, or antifungals within 1 month prior to Day 0 or superficial skin infection within 1 week prior to Day 0
• Active acute or chronic infection requiring treatment with intravenous therapy (IV) within a minimum 1 month prior to Day 0 a. Specific cases should be reviewed by Infectious Disease Committee prior to enrollment
• Have active signs or symptoms of acute infection at the time of the baseline visit (V0).
• Significant trauma or major surgery within 1 month of signing informed consent.
• Considered in imminent need for surgery or with elective surgery scheduled to occur during the study
• History of disseminated herpes zoster or disseminated herpes simplex or a recurrent (more than one episode of) localized, dermatomal herpes zoster
• Have evidence of prior or current tuberculosis infection as assessed by Purified Protein Derivative (PPD), interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) or by history
• Have evidence of current or past HIV or Hepatitis B infection
• Have evidence of active Hepatitis C infection
• Have current, confirmed COVID-19 infection
• Current or history of Deep vein thrombosis (DVT), Pulmonary embolism (PE), or other thromboembolic events or history of inherited coagulopathies
• First degree relative with a history of unprovoked venous thromboembolism (i.e. without known underlying cause such as trauma, surgery, immobilization, prolonged travel, pregnancy, hormone use, or plaster cast), which suggests that a participant may be at increased risk of inherited coagulation disorder
• Any present malignancies or history of malignancy, other than a successfully treated nonmelanoma skin cancer
• History of any lymphoproliferative disorder such as EBV-related lymphoproliferative disorder, history of lymphoma, history of leukemia, or signs and symptoms suggestive of current lymphatic or lymphoid disease
• Known or suspected polymorphism in the Cytochrome P450 2C19 (CYP2C19 gene, resulting in classification as a poor CYP2C19 metabolizer).
• Have renal impairment (eGFR\< 60 mL/min)
• Currently on anti-platelet therapies, excluding low dose aspirin
• One or more screening laboratory values as stated
• Neutrophils \< 1,500 /μL
• Lymphocytes \< 800 /μL
• Platelets \< 150,000 / μL
• Hemoglobin \< 6.2 mmol/L (10.0 g/dL)
• Potassium \> 5.5 mmol/L or \<3.0 mmol/L
• Sodium \> 150mmol/L or \< 130mmol/L
• AST or ALT ≥ 2.5 times the upper limit of normal
• Bilirubin ≥ 1.5 times upper limit of normal unless diagnosed with Gilbert's syndrome
• LDL \>160 mg/dL
• Vaccination with a live virus within the last 6 weeks and killed vaccine within 4 weeks (except 2 weeks for flu vaccine and COVID vaccine)
• Be currently pregnant or lactating or anticipate becoming pregnant during the study
• Male participants able to father children and female participants of childbearing potential who are unwilling or unable to use 2 effective methods (at least 1 highly effective method) of contraception, including abstinence, as outlined in this protocol for the duration of the study and for at least 3 months after the last dose of investigational product
• Be currently participating in another T1D treatment study
• Have hearing loss with progression over the previous 5 years, or sudden hearing loss, or middle or inner ear disease such as otitis media, cholesteatoma, Meniere's disease, labyrinthitis, or other auditory condition that is considered acute, fluctuating, or progressive
• Acute coronary syndrome (e.g., myocardial infarction, unstable angina pectoris) and any history of cerebrovascular disease within 24 weeks before screening; Heart failure NYHA (New York Heart Association) III, NYHA IV
• ANY of the following conditions at screening: a. Screening 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) that demonstrates: i. Clinically significant abnormalities requiring treatment (eg, acute myocardial infarction, serious tachy- or brady-arrhythmias) or indicating serious underlying heart disease (eg, cardiomyopathy, Wolff-Parkinson- White syndrome); ii. Confirmed QT corrected using Fridericia's correction factor (QTcF) prolongation (\>450 milliseconds). b. Long QT Syndrome, a family history of Long QT Syndrome, or a history of Torsades de Pointes (TdP).
• History of chronic alcohol abuse or intravenous drug abuse or other illicit drug abuse within 2 years prior to screening
• Current or past use of tobacco or nicotine containing products more than the equivalent of 5 cigarettes per day
• Participant is the investigator or any sub-investigator, research assistant, pharmacist, study coordinator, other staff or relative thereof directly involved in the conduct of the trial
• Have any complicating medical issues or abnormal clinical laboratory results that may interfere with study conduct, or cause increased risk
• Any condition that in the investigator's opinion may adversely affect study participation or may compromise the study results
DRUG: Abrocitinib 200 MG Oral Tablet, DRUG: Ritlecitinib, DRUG: Placebo
Diabetes Mellitus, Type 1, Pancreas
TrialNet, T1D
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
Study of Lurbinectedin Monotherapy in Pediatric and Young Adult Participants With Relapsed/Refractory Ewing Sarcoma (EMERGE 101)
This study is conducted in two phases. The phase 1 portion of the study evaluates the safety, tolerability, pharmacokinetics (PK), recommended phase 2 dose (RP2D), and effectiveness of lurbinectedin monotherapy in pediatric participants with previously treated solid tumors. This is followed by the phase 2 portion, to further assess the effectiveness and safety in pediatric and young adult participants with recurrent/refractory Ewing sarcoma.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Avanthi Shah
ALL
2 Years to 30 Years old
PHASE1
NCT05734066
STU-2023-0156
Key
Inclusion Criteria:
Age
* Participant must meet the following age requirements at the time the informed consent form (ICF) (and assent form, if applicable) is signed:
* Phase 1 Part 1: participants must be ≥ 2 to \< 18 years of age.
* Phase 1 Part 2: participants must be ≥ 2 to ≤ 30 years of age.
* Phase 2: participants must be ≥ 2 to ≤ 30 years of age.
Type of Participant and Disease Characteristics
* Participant has a confirmed solid tumor
* The participant has a Lansky/Karnofsky performance status score of ≥ 50%.
* The participant has adequate liver function, evidenced by the following laboratory values:
* Aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤ 2.5 × upper limit of normal (ULN).
* Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 × institutional ULN (with the exception of participants with Gilbert's syndrome who must have bilirubin \< 3 × institutional ULN).
* The participant has adequate bone marrow function, evidenced by the following:
* Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥ 1.0 × 109/L (independent of growth factor support within 1 week of screening laboratories).
* Platelets ≥ 100 × 109/L (without platelet transfusion within previous 7 days of screening laboratories).
* Hemoglobin ≥ 8 g/dL (note: may have been transfused).
* The participant has an adequate renal function:
* Calculated creatinine clearance (use Cockcroft-Gault formula for participants ≥ 18 years; Schwartz equation for participants \< 18 years) ≥ 60 mL/min.
* The participant has an adequate cardiac function:
* Left ventricular ejection fraction or shortening fraction per institutional norm ≥ institutional lower level of normal.
* The participant has creatine phosphokinase ≤ 2.5 × institutional ULN.
Weight
* The participant has body weight ≥ 15 kg.
Sex and Contraceptive/Barrier Requirements
Male participants:
Male participants are eligible to participate if they agree to the following during the study intervention period and for at least 4 months after the last dose of study intervention:
* Refrain from donating sperm.
PLUS, either:
* Be abstinent from heterosexual intercourse as their preferred and usual lifestyle (abstinent on a long-term and persistent basis) and agree to remain abstinent.
OR
* Must agree to use contraception/barrier as detailed below:
* Agree to use a male condom with female partner and use of an additional highly effective contraceptive method with a failure rate of \< 1% per year when having sexual intercourse with a Woman of childbearing potential (WOCBP) who is not currently pregnant.
* Note: male participants who are azoospermic (vasectomized or due to a medical cause) are still required to follow the protocol-specified contraception/barrier criteria.
Female participants:
A female participant is eligible to participate if she is not pregnant or breastfeeding, and one of the following conditions applies:
* Is a Woman of nonchildbearing potential (WONCBP). OR
* Is a WOCBP and using an acceptable contraceptive method during the study intervention period (at least 7 months after the last dose of study intervention). The investigator should evaluate the potential for contraceptive method failure (eg, noncompliance, recently initiated) in relationship to the first dose of study intervention.
* A WOCBP must have a negative highly sensitive pregnancy test (urine or serum as required by local regulations) within 7 days before the first dose of study intervention.
* If a urine test cannot be confirmed as negative (eg, an ambiguous result), a serum pregnancy test is required. In such cases, the participant must be excluded from participation if the serum pregnancy result is positive.
* Additional requirements for pregnancy testing during and after study intervention.
* The investigator is responsible for review of medical history, menstrual history, and recent sexual activity to decrease the risk for inclusion of a woman with an early undetected pregnancy.
Informed Consent
* Capable of giving signed informed consent, which includes compliance with the requirements and restrictions listed in the ICF and in this protocol.
Key Exclusion Criteria:
Medical Conditions
* corrected QT interval (QTc) prolongation defined as a QTc ≥ 470 ms using the Bazett formula.
* Known symptomatic Central nervous system (CNS) metastases requiring steroids. Participants with previously diagnosed CNS metastases are eligible if they have completed their treatment and have recovered from the acute effects of radiation therapy or surgery prior to enrollment, have discontinued high dose steroid treatment for these metastases for at least 2 weeks, and are neurologically stable (physiologic doses of steroids and short courses of steroids for other indications are acceptable).
* Persisting toxicity related to prior therapy; however, alopecia, sensory neuropathy, hypothyroidism, and rash Grade ≤ 2 are acceptable, and other Grade ≤ 2 adverse events (AEs) not constituting a safety risk based on the investigator's judgement are acceptable.
* An uncontrolled intercurrent illness including but not limited to ongoing or active infection requiring antibiotic, antifungal, or antiviral therapy, symptomatic heart failure, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements.
* Any other major illness that, in the investigator's judgment, could substantially increase the risk associated with participation in this study.
* Any other diseases, metabolic dysfunction, physical examination finding, or clinical laboratory finding giving reasonable suspicion of a disease or condition that contraindicates the use of an investigational drug or that may affect the interpretation of the results or render the participant at high-risk for treatment complications.
Prior/Concomitant Therapy
* Received prior treatment with lurbinectedin or trabectedin.
* Received prior treatment with any investigational product within 4 weeks of first infusion of study intervention. Observational studies are permitted.
* Received live or live attenuated vaccines within 4 weeks of the first dose of study treatment or plans to receive live vaccines during study participation. Administration of inactive vaccines or messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA) vaccines (for example, inactivated influenza vaccines or COVID-19 vaccines) are allowed.
* Had major surgery ≤ 4 weeks or radiation therapy ≤ 2 weeks prior to enrollment unless fully recovered. Prior palliative radiotherapy is permitted, provided it was completed at least 2 weeks prior to participant enrollment.
* Received prior allogeneic bone marrow transplantation or solid organ transplant.
* Received chemotherapy ≤ 3 weeks prior to start of study intervention.
Diagnostic Assessments
* Hepatitis B virus (HBV) or Hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection at screening (positive HBV surface antigen or Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for HCV RNA if HCV antibody test is positive).
* Human immunodeficiency infection at screening (positive anti-HIV antibody).
Other Exclusions
* Has a known or suspected hypersensitivity to any of the components of the study intervention.
* The participant or parent(s)/guardian(s) is/are unable to comply with the study visit schedule and other protocol requirements, in the opinion of the investigator DRUG: Lurbinectedin
Refractory Ewing Sarcoma, Relapsed Ewing Sarcoma, Ewing Sarcoma, Sarcoma
Solid Tumors, lurbinectedin, ewing's sarcoma, soft tissue sarcoma, sarcomas
Children’s Health
A Study to Test the Addition of the Drug Cabozantinib to Chemotherapy in Patients With Newly Diagnosed Osteosarcoma
This phase II/III trial tests the safety, side effects, and best dose of the drug cabozantinib in combination with standard chemotherapy, and to compare the effect of adding cabozantinib to standard chemotherapy alone in treating patients with newly diagnosed osteosarcoma. Cabozantinib is in a class of medications called kinase inhibitors which block protein signals affecting new blood vessel formation and the ability to activate growth signaling pathways. This may help slow the growth of tumor cells. The drugs used in standard chemotherapy for this trial are methotrexate, doxorubicin, and cisplatin (MAP). Methotrexate stops cells from making DNA and may kill tumor cells. It is a type of antimetabolite. Doxorubicin is in a class of medications called anthracyclines. It works by slowing or stopping the growth of tumor cells in the body. Cisplatin is in a class of medications known as platinum-containing compounds. It works by killing, stopping or slowing the growth of tumor cells. Adding cabozantinib to standard chemotherapy may work better in treating newly diagnosed osteosarcoma.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Matthew Campbell
ALL
up to 40 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05691478
STU-2023-0179
Inclusion Criteria:
* Patients must be \< 40 years of age at the time of enrollment.
* Patients must have a body surface area of \>= 0.8 m\^2 at the time of enrollment.
* Patients must have histologic diagnosis (by institutional pathologist) of newly diagnosed high grade osteosarcoma. Primary tumors of all extremity and axial sites are eligible as long as diagnosis of high-grade osteosarcoma is established. Osteosarcoma as a second malignancy is eligible if no prior exposure to systemic chemotherapies.
* Feasibility Phase (NOTE: as of Amendment #2B, the feasibility phase has been completed) Patients must have metastatic disease and a resectable primary tumor. Designation of a primary tumor as resectable will be determined at the time of diagnosis by the institutional multidisciplinary team.
For this study, metastatic disease is defined as one or more of the following:
* Lesions which are discontinuous from the primary tumor, are not regional lymph nodes, and do not share a bone or body cavity with the primary tumor. Skip lesions in the same bone as the primary tumor do not constitute metastatic disease. Skip lesions in an adjacent bone are considered bone metastases.
* Lung metastases: defined as biopsy-proven metastasis or the presence of one or more pulmonary lesions \>= 5 mm, OR multiple pulmonary lesions \>= 3 mm or greater in size.
* Bone metastases: Areas suspicious for bone metastasis based on fludeoxyglucose F-18 (18F-FDG)-positron emission tomography (PET) scan (or whole body technetium-99 bone scan if 18F-FDG-PET is unavailable at the treating institution) require confirmatory biopsy or supportive anatomic imaging of at least one suspicious site with either magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) (whole body 18F-FDG-PET/CT or 18F-FDG-PET/MR scans are acceptable).
* Efficacy Phases (Phase 2/3) NOTE: as of Amendment #2B, the efficacy phase is open for enrollment.
Patients with both localized and metastatic disease are eligible for the efficacy phase, regardless of resectability. Patients will be enrolled to two separate cohorts:
* Cohort 1 (Standard Risk): Patients with non-pelvic primary osteosarcoma deemed to be resectable at the time of diagnosis by the institutional multidisciplinary team, without evidence of metastatic lesions.
* Cohort 2 (High-Risk): Patients with a primary pelvic tumor, a primary tumor designated as unresectable by the institutional multidisciplinary team, AND/OR radiographic evidence of metastatic lesions.
* A serum creatinine based on age/sex as follows (within 7 days prior to enrollment unless otherwise indicated):
* (Age: Maximum Serum Creatinine \[mg/dL\]; Sex)
* 1 month to \< 6 months: 0.4 (male); 0.4 (female)
* 6 months to \< 1 year: 0.5 (male); 0.5 (female)
* 1 to \< 2 years: 0.6 (male); 0.6 (female)
* 2 to \< 6 years: 0.8 (male); 0.8 (female)
* 6 to \< 10 years: 1 (male); 1 (female)
* 10 to \< 13 years: 1.2 (male); 1.2 (female)
* 13 to \< 16 years: 1.5 (male); 1.4 (female)
* \>= 16 years: 1.7 (male); 1.4 (female)
* OR - a 24 hour urine creatinine clearance \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2
* OR - a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2. GFR must be performed using direct measurement with a nuclear blood sampling method OR direct small molecule clearance method (iothalamate or other molecule per institutional standard).
* Note: Estimated GFR (eGFR) from serum creatinine, cystatin C or other estimates are not acceptable for determining eligibility.
* Total bilirubin =\< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment unless otherwise indicated)
* Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase \[ALT\]) =\< 135 U/L (within 7 days prior to enrollment unless otherwise indicated)
* Note: For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L
* No history of congenital prolonged corrected QT (QTc) syndrome, New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class III or IV congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, serious cardiac arrhythmias
* Shortening fraction of \>= 27%, or
* Ejection fraction of \>= 50%
* Corrected QT interval by Fridericia (QTcF) \< 480 msec on electrocardiogram. Patients with Grade 1 prolonged QTc (450-480 msec) at time of study enrollment should have correctable causes of prolonged QTc addressed if possible (i.e., electrolytes, medications).
* Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \>= 1000/uL (within 7 days prior to enrollment unless otherwise indicated)
* Platelet count \>= 100,000/uL (transfusion independent, defined as not receiving platelet transfusions within a 7-day period prior to enrollment) (within 7 days prior to enrollment unless otherwise indicated)
* Hemoglobin \>= 8.0 g/dL (within 7 days prior to enrollment unless otherwise indicated)
* International normalized ratio (INR) =\< 1.5 (within 7 days prior to enrollment unless otherwise indicated)
* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible as long as they are NOT receiving anti-retroviral agents that are strong inhibitors or inducers of CYP3A4, CYP2D6, and/or MRP2 transporter protein.
* All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent.
* All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patients who have received previous systemic therapy for osteosarcoma or a prior oncologic diagnosis.
* Patients who have central nervous system metastases.
* Patients with central cavitating pulmonary lesions invading or encasing any major blood vessels in the lung.
* Patients who are unable to swallow tablets. Tablets cannot be crushed or chewed.
* Patients with gastrointestinal disorders including active disorders associated with a high risk of perforation or fistula formation. Specifically, no clinically significant gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding, GI perforation, bowel obstruction, intra-abdominal abscess or fistula for 6 months prior to enrollment, no hemoptysis or other signs of pulmonary hemorrhage for 3 months prior to enrollment.
* Patients with active bleeding or bleeding diathesis. No clinically significant hematuria, hematemesis, or hemoptysis or other history of significant bleeding within 3 months prior to enrollment.
* Patients with uncompensated or symptomatic hypothyroidism. Patients who have hypothyroidism controlled with thyroid replacement hormone are eligible.
* Patients with moderate to severe hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh B or C).
* Patients who have had primary tumor resection or attempted curative resection of metastases prior to enrollment.
* Patients who have undergone other major surgical procedure (eg, laparotomy) within 14 days prior to enrollment. Thoracoscopic procedures for diagnostic purposes (biopsy of lung nodule) and central access such as port-a-cath placement are allowed.
* Patients with a history of serious or non-healing wound or bone fracture (pathologic fracture of primary tumor is not considered exclusion).
* Patients with any medical or surgical conditions that would interfere with gastrointestinal absorption of cabozantinib.
* Patients with previously identify allergy or hypersensitivity to components of the study treatment formulations.
* Patients who are receiving any other investigational agent not defined within this protocol are not eligible.
* Patients who in the opinion of the investigator may not be able to comply with the safety monitoring requirements of the study are not eligible.
* Patients who received enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants within 14 days prior to enrollment.
* Patients with a prior history of hypertension (\> 95th percentile for age, height, and sex for patients \< 18 years and \> 140/90 mmHg for patients \>= 18 years requiring medication for blood pressure control.
* Patients who are receiving drugs that prolong QTc.
* Patients receiving anticoagulation with oral coumarin agents (eg warfarin), direct thrombin inhibitors (eg dabigatran), direct factor Xa inhibitor betrixaban, or platelet inhibitors (eg, clopidogrel). Low dose aspirin for cardioprotection (per local applicable guidelines) and low dose, low molecular weight heparins (LMWH) are permitted. Anticoagulation with therapeutic doses of LMWH and direct factor Xa inhibitors rivaroxaban or apixaban are allowed in subjects who are on a stable dose for at least 6 weeks before the first dose of study treatment, and who have had no complications from a thromboembolic event or the anticoagulation regimen.
* Patients receiving strong CYP3A4 inducers or strong CYP3A4 inhibitors.
* Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential.
* Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants.
* Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of protocol therapy. PROCEDURE: Bone Scan, DRUG: Cabozantinib S-malate, DRUG: Cisplatin, PROCEDURE: Computed Tomography, DRUG: Doxorubicin Hydrochloride, PROCEDURE: Magnetic Resonance Imaging, DRUG: Methotrexate, PROCEDURE: Surgical Procedure, PROCEDURE: X-Ray Imaging
High Grade Osteosarcoma, Localized Osteosarcoma, Metastatic Osteosarcoma, Secondary Osteosarcoma, Bones and Joints
Children’s Health
A Study to Compare Standard Therapy to Treat Hodgkin Lymphoma to the Use of Two Drugs, Brentuximab Vedotin and Nivolumab
This phase III trial compares the effect of adding immunotherapy (brentuximab vedotin and nivolumab) to standard treatment (chemotherapy with or without radiation) to the standard treatment alone in improving survival in patients with stage I and II classical Hodgkin lymphoma. Brentuximab vedotin is in a class of medications called antibody-drug conjugates. It is made of a monoclonal antibody called brentuximab that is linked to a cytotoxic agent called vedotin. Brentuximab attaches to CD30 positive lymphoma cells in a targeted way and delivers vedotin to kill them. A monoclonal antibody is a type of protein that can bind to certain targets in the body, such as molecules that cause the body to make an immune response (antigens). Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as nivolumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Chemotherapy drugs such as doxorubicin hydrochloride, bleomycin sulfate, vinblastine sulfate, dacarbazine, and procarbazine hydrochloride work in different ways to stop the growth of cancer cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Cyclophosphamide is in a class of medications called alkylating agents. It works by damaging the cell's deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and may kill cancer cells. It may also lower the body's immune response. Etoposide is in a class of medications known as podophyllotoxin derivatives. It blocks a certain enzyme needed for cell division and DNA repair and may kill cancer cells. Vincristine is in a class of medications called vinca alkaloids. It works by stopping cancer cells from growing and dividing and may kill them. Prednisone is in a class of medications called corticosteroids. It is used to reduce inflammation and lower the body's immune response to help lessen the side effects of chemotherapy drugs. Radiation therapy uses high energy x-rays to kill tumor cells and shrink tumors. Adding immunotherapy to the standard treatment of chemotherapy with or without radiation may increase survival and/or fewer short-term or long-term side effects in patients with classical Hodgkin lymphoma compared to the standard treatment alone.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Ksenya Shliakhtsitsava
ALL
5 Years to 60 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05675410
STU-2023-0552
Inclusion Criteria:
* Patients must be 5 to 60 years of age at the time of enrollment
* Patients with newly diagnosed untreated histologically confirmed classic Hodgkin lymphoma (cHL) (nodular sclerosis, mixed cellularity, lymphocyte-rich, or lymphocyte-depleted, or not otherwise specified \[NOS\]) with stage I or II disease
* Patients must have bidimensionally measurable disease (at least one lesion with longest diameter \>= 1.5 cm)
* Patients must have a whole body or limited whole body PET scan performed within 42 days prior to enrollment. PET-CT is strongly preferred. PET-MRI allowed if intravenous contrast enhanced CT is also obtained
* Pediatric patients (age 5-17 years) with known or suspected mediastinal disease must have an upright posteroanterior (PA) chest X-ray (CXR) for assessment of bulky mediastinal disease.
* Note: Pediatric patients who have received both a CT chest and upright PA CXR may meet the definition of bulk through either modality.
* Patients \>= 18 years must have a performance status corresponding to Zubrod scores of 0, 1 or 2
* Patients =\< 17 years of age must have a Lansky performance score of \>= 50
* Pediatric patients (age 5-17 years): A serum creatinine based on age/sex as follows (within 28 days prior to enrollment):
* 2 to \< 6 years (age): 0.8 mg/dL (male), 0.8 mg/dL (female)
* 6 to \< 10 years (age): 1 mg/dL (male), 1 mg/dL (female)
* 10 to \< 13 years (age): 1.2 mg/dL (male), 1.2 mg/dL (female)
* 13 to \< 16 years (age): 1.5 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
* \>= 16 years (age): 1.7 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female) OR a 24 hour urine creatinine clearance \>= 50 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 (within 28 days prior to enrollment) OR a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) \>= 50 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 (within 28 days prior to enrollment). GFR must be performed using direct measurement with a nuclear blood sampling method OR direct small molecule clearance method (iothalamate or other molecule per institutional standard)
* Note: Estimated GFR (eGFR) from serum or plasma creatinine, cystatin C or other estimates are not acceptable for determining eligibility
* For adult patients (age 18 years or older) (within 28 days prior to enrollment): Creatinine clearance \>= 30 mL/min, as estimated by the Cockcroft and Gault formula or a 24-hour urine collection. The creatinine value used in the calculation must have been obtained within 28 days prior to registration. Estimated creatinine clearance is based on actual body weight
* Total bilirubin =\< 2 x upper limit of normal (ULN) (within 28 days prior to enrollment)
* Unless due to Gilbert's disease, lymphomatous involvement of liver or vanishing bile duct syndrome
* Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) =\< 3 x ULN (within 28 days prior to enrollment)
* Unless due to Gilbert's disease, lymphomatous involvement of liver or vanishing bile duct syndrome
* Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =\< 3 x ULN (within 28 days prior to enrollment)
* Unless due to Gilbert's disease, lymphomatous involvement of liver or vanishing bile duct syndrome
* Shortening fraction of \>= 27% by echocardiogram (ECHO), multigated acquisition scan (MUGA), or functional cardiac imaging scan (within 28 days prior to enrollment) or ejection fraction of \>= 50% by radionuclide angiogram, ECHO, MUGA, or cardiac imaging scan (within 28 days prior to enrollment)
* Diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide (DLCO) \>= 50% of predicted value as corrected for hemoglobin by pulmonary function test (PFT) (within 28 days prior to enrollment). If unable to obtain PFTs, the criterion is: a pulse oximetry reading of \> 92% on room air
* Known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
* For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated. Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patients with nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma
* Patients with a history of active interstitial pneumonitis or interstitial lung disease
* Patients with a diagnosis of inherited or acquired immunodeficiency that is poorly controlled or requiring active medications, such as primary immunodeficiency syndromes or organ transplant recipients
* Patients with any known uncontrolled intercurrent illness that would jeopardize the patient's safety such as infection, autoimmune conditions, cardiac arrhythmias, angina pectoris, and gastrointestinal disorders affecting swallowing and/or absorption of pills
* Patients with a condition requiring systemic treatment with either corticosteroids (defined as equivalent to \> 10 mg daily predniSONE for patients \>= 18 years or \> 0.5 mg/kg \[up to 10 mg/day\] for patients \< 18 years) or other immunosuppressive medications within 14 days prior to enrollment
* Note: Replacement therapy such as thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency is not considered a form of systemic treatment. Inhaled or topical steroids, and adrenal replacement doses (=\< 10 mg daily for patients \>= 18 years or =\< 0.5 mg/kg \[up to 10 mg/day\] predniSONE equivalents) are permitted in the absence of active autoimmune disease
* Note: Steroid use for the control of Hodgkin lymphoma symptoms is allowable, but must be discontinued by cycle 1, day 1
* Short term use of corticosteroids for premedication or treatment of an allergy or hypersensitivity is considered an acceptable use of corticosteroids.
* Patients with peripheral neuropathy \> grade 1 at the time of enrollment or patients with known Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome
* Patients with a prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment has the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen
* Administration of prior chemotherapy, radiation, or antibody-based treatment for cHL
* Prior solid organ transplant
* Prior allogeneic stem cell transplantation
* Live vaccine within 30 days prior to planned day 1 of protocol therapy (e.g., measles, mumps, rubella, varicella, yellow fever, rabies, bacillus Calmette Guerin \[BCG\], oral polio vaccine, and oral typhoid). Administration of messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA) vaccines are permitted
* Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test within 28 days prior to enrollment is required for female patients of childbearing potential
* Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants starting with the first dose of study therapy and for at least 6 months after the last treatment
* Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use a highly effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study drug therapy. Following therapy, patients will be advised to use contraception as per institutional practice or as listed below for investigational agents, whichever is longer
* Men and women of childbearing potential (WOCBP) must use effective contraception during the study and for 2 months for WOCBP and 4 months for men, after last dose of brentuximab vedotin
* WOCBP must continue contraception for a period of at least 5 months after the last dose of nivolumab
* All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
* All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, BIOLOGICAL: Bleomycin Sulfate, DRUG: Brentuximab Vedotin, PROCEDURE: Computed Tomography, DRUG: Cyclophosphamide, DRUG: Dacarbazine, DRUG: Doxorubicin Hydrochloride, DRUG: Etoposide, DRUG: Etoposide Phosphate, OTHER: Fludeoxyglucose F-18, RADIATION: Involved-site Radiation Therapy, PROCEDURE: Magnetic Resonance Imaging, BIOLOGICAL: Nivolumab, PROCEDURE: Positron Emission Tomography, DRUG: Prednisolone, DRUG: Prednisone, DRUG: Procarbazine Hydrochloride, OTHER: Questionnaire Administration, DRUG: Vinblastine Sulfate, DRUG: Vincristine Sulfate
Lugano Classification Limited Stage Hodgkin Lymphoma AJCC v8, Lymphoma
Children’s Health
AFFINITY DUCHENNE: RGX-202 Gene Therapy in Participants With Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)
RGX-202 is a gene therapy designed to deliver a transgene for a novel microdystrophin that includes functional elements of naturally-occurring dystrophin including the C-Terminal (CT) domain. This is a multicenter, open-label dose evaluation clinical study to assess the safety, tolerability, and clinical efficacy of a one-time intravenous (IV) dose of RGX-202 in participants with Duchenne. For additional information on how to participate (or be considered for the study), please follow this link: https://mytomorro.ws/affinity-ct-gov
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Elaine.Most@UTSouthwestern.edu
Susan Iannaccone
MALE
1 Year to 11 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05693142
STU-2022-0270
Part 1 - Key
Inclusion Criteria:
* The participant's legal guardian(s) is (are) willing and able to provide written, signed informed consent prior to any study-related procedures; and, where applicable, the minor participant has provided written or verbal assent according to local requirements.
* Is a male at least 4 years of age and less than 12 years of age at consent or 1 to \<4 years of age at the time of dosing and ≥ 10 kg at the time of screening.
* Must meet any of the following criteria:
* DMD gene mutation in exons 18 and above, and a clinical picture consistent with typical DMD with the exception of a participant (Cohort 1b) with DMD gene mutation in exons 12-17.
* Participant is able to walk 100 meters independently without assistive devices. Cohort 2c participant must be able to walk 10 meters independently without assistive devices. Cohort 1b participant must be able to walk with or without assistive devices.
* Participant is able to complete the TTSTAND per protocol-specific criteria.
* Participant has been on a stable dose of systemic glucocorticoids according to the standard of care for at least 12 weeks. Cohort 2c participants must be consistently on or off a stable dose of systemic glucocorticoids according to the standard of care for at least 12 weeks.
* Clinical laboratory test results, including hepatic and renal function, are within the normal range during screening, or if abnormal, are not clinically significant, in the opinion of the investigator.
* Documentation is provided at screening visit for participant's adherence to the local country's vaccination schedule. The parent(s) or legal guardian(s) must be willing to have their child receive a meningococcal vaccine, if not already vaccinated.
* Participant and parent(s)/legal guardian(s) are willing and able to comply with scheduled visits, study intervention administration plan, and study procedures.
Part 2 and 3 Inclusion Criteria:
* The participant's legal guardian(s) is (are) willing and able to provide written, signed informed consent prior to any study-related procedures; and, where applicable, the minor participant has provided written or verbal assent according to local requirements.
* DMD gene mutation with any mutation except for those with deletions or point mutations in exons 8, 9 and/or 10.
* Participant is able to complete the TTSTAND per protocol-specific criteria.
* Clinical laboratory test results, including hepatic and renal function, are within the normal range during screening, or if abnormal, are not clinically significant, in the opinion of the investigator.
* Documentation is provided at screening visit for participant's adherence to the local country's vaccination schedule. The parent(s) or legal guardian(s) must be willing to have their child receive a meningococcal vaccine, if not already vaccinated.
* Participant and parent(s)/legal guardian(s) are willing and able to comply with scheduled visits, study intervention administration plan, and study procedures.
* Is a male at least 1 year of age and ≥ 10 kg at the time of screening.
* Participants 1 to \<4 years of age must meet the following criteria:
* is able to walk 10 meters independently without assistive devices.
* must be consistently on or off a stable dose of systemic glucocorticoids according to the standard of care for at least 12 weeks.
* Participants 4 years and older must meet the following criteria:
* are able to walk 100 meters independently without assistive devices.
* have been on a stable dose of systemic glucocorticoids according to the standard of care for at least 12 weeks.
* have a NSAA total score ≥16.
Part 1 Exclusion Criteria:
* Participant has any condition that would contraindicate treatment with immunosuppression.
* Participant has received ataluren (a protein restoration therapy) or an exon-skipping therapy for the treatment of DMD within 6 months of study entry or is unable to refrain from taking ataluren or exon-skipping therapy for a duration of 5 years from the time of RGX-202 administration.
* Participant has received any investigational or commercial gene therapy product over his lifetime.
* Participant is currently taking any other investigational intervention (other than corticosteroids) or has taken any other investigational intervention (other than corticosteroids) within 3 months prior to the scheduled Day 1 intervention. If your corticosteroid is vamorolone, the participant will be asked to temporarily convert his daily dosing to prednisolone/prednisone during a short period of time around RGX-202 administration. He will be allowed to revert back to his baseline vamorolone regimen at the original per kilogram dose at which he entered the study and should remain on this for 24 months unless the investigator determines that this is not clinically indicated or possible.
* Participant has impaired cardiac function defined as a left ventricular ejection fraction of \< 55% on screening cardiac assessments (echocardiogram or MRI).
* Participant is not a good candidate for the study, in the opinion of the investigator.
Part 2 and 3 Exclusion Criteria:
* Participant has any condition that would contraindicate treatment with immunosuppression.
* Participant has received givinostat within 3 months of study entry or has received ataluren (a protein restoration therapy) or an exon-skipping therapy for the treatment of DMD within 6 months of study entry or is unable to refrain from taking ataluren or exon-skipping therapy for a duration of 5 years from the time of RGX-202 administration.
* Participant has received any investigational or commercial gene therapy product over his lifetime.
* Participant is currently taking any other investigational intervention (other than corticosteroids) or has taken any other investigational intervention (other than corticosteroids) within 3 months prior to the scheduled Day 1 intervention. If your corticosteroid is vamorolone, the participant will be asked to temporarily convert his daily dosing to prednisolone/prednisone during a short period of time around RGX-202 administration. He will be allowed to revert back to his baseline vamorolone regimen at the original per kilogram dose at which he entered the study and should remain on this for 24 months unless the investigator determines that this is not clinically indicated or possible.
* Participant has detectable AAV8 total binding antibodies in serum.
* Participant has impaired cardiac function defined as a left ventricular ejection fraction of \< 55% on screening cardiac assessments echocardiogram or MRI).
* Participant is not a good candidate for the study, in the opinion of the investigator. GENETIC: RGX-202
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Gene therapy, DMD, Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, Duchenne
Children’s Health
A Multi-Institution Study of TGFβ Imprinted, Ex Vivo Expanded Universal Donor NK Cell Infusions as Adoptive Immunotherapy in Combination With Gemcitabine and Docetaxel in Patients With Relapsed or Refractory Pediatric Bone and Soft Tissue (TINKS)
The purpose of this study is to determine if the addition of infusions of a type of immune cell called a "natural killer", or NK cell to the sarcoma chemotherapy regimen GEM/DOX (gemcitabine and docetaxel) can improve outcomes in people with childhood sarcomas that have relapsed or not responded to prior therapies. The goals of this study are: * To determine the safety and efficacy of the addition of adoptive transfer of universal donor, TGFβ imprinted (TGFβi), expanded NK cells to the pediatric sarcoma salvage chemotherapeutic regimen gemcitabine/docetaxel (GEM/DOX) for treatment of relapsed and refractory pediatric sarcomas To determine the 6-month progression free survival achieved with this treatment in patients within cohorts of relapsed or refractory osteosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma and non-rhabdomyosarcoma soft tissue sarcoma. * To identify toxicities related to treatment with GEM/DOX + TGFβi expanded NK cells Participants will receive study drugs that include chemotherapy and NK cells in cycles; each cycle is 21 days long and you can receive up to 8 cycles. * Gemcitabine (GEM): via IV on Days 1 and 8 * Docetaxel (DOX): via IV on Day 8 * Prophylactic dexamethasone: Day 7-9 to prevent fluid retention and hypersensitivity reaction * Peg-filgrastim (PEG-GCSF) or biosimilar: Day 9 to help your white blood cell recover and allow more chemotherapy to be given * TGFβi NK cells: via IV on Day 12
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Avanthi Shah
ALL
2 Years to 40 Years old
PHASE1
NCT05634369
STU-2023-0706
Inclusion Criteria:
• Patients must be between the ages ≥ 2 years and ≤ 40 years of age and have had a relapsed or refractory osteosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma or non-rhabdomyosarcoma soft tissue sarcoma.
• Patients must have measurable disease using RECIST 1.1 criteria
• Patients must have had at least one and no more than four total lines of cytotoxic systemic treatment for relapse sarcoma. Local control with surgical resection or radiation therapy of the primary tumor and any metastatic sites as clinically indicated as standard of care per the treating physician must be considered prior to enrollment.
• Prior Therapy: Therapy may not have been received more recently than the timeframes defined below: * Myelosuppressive chemotherapy: Patients must not have received myelosuppressive therapy within 14 days of protocol therapy * Radiation: At least 2 weeks must have elapsed from the start of protocol therapy since local palliative XRT (small port); 4 weeks must have elapsed for all other radiation therapy * Hematopoietic Cell Transplant (HCT): Patients must have at least 6 weeks elapsed after autologous and allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplant * Biologic (anti-neoplastic agent): At least 7 days or 5 half-lives of the drug, whichever is longer, must have elapsed from the start of protocol therapy since the completion of therapy with a biologic agent. * Monoclonal antibodies: At least 3 weeks must have elapsed from the start of protocol therapy since prior therapy that included a monoclonal antibody. * Prior use of Gemcitabine and/or Docetaxel: Patients who have received these agents for prior treatment may be included if previous treatments were given ≥ 6 months prior to enrollment on this study, and there were no allergic reactions, pulmonary edema or fibrosis, Grade 3 or higher neuropathy or other non-hematologic Grade 4 adverse events related to gemcitabine and/or docetaxel therapies. 4\) Performance status: Karnofsky ≥ 60 for patients ≥16 years of age. Lansky score of ≥ 60 for patients \< 16 years of age (see Appendix A) 5) Organ Function Requirements: Patients must have normal organ and marrow function within 7 days of starting protocol therapy as defined below: * Absolute Neutrophil Count ≥1000/mcL * Platelet count ≥100,000/mcL transfusion independent defined as no platelet transfusions within the last 72 hours * Total bilirubin \< 1.5x upper limit of normal for age * AST(SGOT)/ALT(SGPT) ≤ 2.5 x institutional upper limit of normal * Serum creatinine \< 1.5 x upper limit of normal based on age/gender (Table 3) OR creatinine clearance ≥70 mL/min/1.73 m2 for patients with creatinine levels above institutional normal * Shortening fraction ≥ 27% by ECHO OR ejection fraction of ≥ 50% by ECHO or gated radionuclide study * Echocardiogram done within 12 months of study entry will be acceptable. If patient has required anthracycline chemotherapy since last ECHO and enrollment on this study, echocardiogram should be repeated. * No evidence for dyspnea at rest, no chronic oxygen requirement, and room air pulse oximetry \>94% if there is a clinical indication for pulse oximetry 6) Neuropathy: Patients must have ≤ Grade 2 neuropathy at enrollment 7) Patients with seizure disorders may be enrolled if seizures are well controlled on anti-convulsant, with the exception of diazepam given its potential deleterious effects on NK cell activity. 8\) Contraception: The effects of expanded NK cells on the developing human fetus are unknown. For this reason and because the chemotherapeutic preparative agents as well as other therapeutic agents used in this trial are known to be teratogenic, women of child-bearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry and for the duration of study participation. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she or her partner is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. Men treated or enrolled on this protocol must also agree to use adequate contraception prior to the study, for the duration of study participation, and 4 months after completion of preparatory regimen administration. 9\) All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must have the ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent/assent document.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Patients who are receiving any other investigational agents.
• Patients must not be receiving any additional medicines being given for the specific purpose of treating cancer
• Patients with a history of allergic reactions attributed to docetaxel, gemcitabine, or peg-filgrastim or biosimilar
• Patients who have received any prior cellular therapies, such as CAR-T cells or other expanded or manufactured cellular products.
• Patients with bone marrow only disease are not eligible for this study.
• Patients with any of the following "Intermediate" (rarely metastasizing) or "malignant" Grade 2 or Grade 3 tumors of any size, as defined in the WHO Classification of Soft Tissue Tumors are not eligible for this study: * So-called fibrohistiocytic tumors - plexiform fibrohistiocytic tumor, giant cell tumor of soft tissues * Fibroblastic/myofibroblastic tumors - solitary fibrous tumor, malignant solitary fibrous tumor, inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor, low grade myofibroblastic sarcoma, myxoinflammatory fibroblastic sarcoma, atypical myxoinflammatory fibroblastic tumor, myxofibrosarcoma, low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma, sclerosing epithelioid fibrosarcoma * Tumors of uncertain differentiation - epithelioid sarcoma, alveolar soft part sarcoma, clear cell sarcoma of soft tissue, angiomatoid fibrous histiocytoma, ossifying fibromyxoid tumour, myoepithelioma, myoepithelial carcinoma, extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma, neoplasms with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation (PEComa), initial sarcoma, atypical fibroxanthoma, mixed tumor NOS, phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor, malignant ossifying fibromyxoid tumor, malignant mixed tumor, malignant phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor * Chondro-osseous tumors - extraskeletal osteosarcoma * Pericytic (perivascular) tumors - malignant glomus tumor * Nerve sheath tumors - malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, malignant granular cell tumor, epithelioid malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, malignant Triton tumor * Undifferentiated sarcomas (with a specific pathologic category in the WHO classification) - undifferentiated round cell sarcoma, undifferentiated epithelioid sarcoma, undifferentiated spindle cell sarcoma
• Patients who, in the judgment of the treating physician, has tumors near critical structures for which transient swelling would cause substantial symptoms, such as tumor within the bowel mucosa
• Patients with CNS metastatic disease will not be eligible for this study.
• Concomitant Medications: * Due to their effect on NK cell function, systemic corticosteroids outside of the supportive dexamethasone given from day 7 through 9 should be used ONLY for life-threatening conditions (i.e., life-threatening allergic reactions and anaphylaxis such as bronchospasm, stridor) unresponsive to other measures. The use of dexamethasone as an anti-emetic is not permitted. Corticosteroid therapy can be used as a premedication for transfusion in patients known to have a history of transfusion reactions or for treatment of an unexpected transfusion reaction (hydrocortisone 2 mg/kg or less or an equivalent dose of an alternative corticosteroids). The use of steroids during protocol therapy other than the study- required prophylactic dexamethasone doses requires clear justification and documentation of use for a life-threatening condition. * The following are also prohibited while on study treatment * Strong CYP3A4 inducers. Because the lists of these agents are constantly changing, it is important to regularly consult a frequently-updated list such as http://medicine.iupui.edu/clinpharm/ddis/; medical reference texts such as the Physicians' Desk Reference may also provide this information. * Diazepam * Chemotherapeutic agents other than the study drugs
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to: * ongoing or active infection * psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• Pregnancy or Breast-Feeding: Pregnant or breast-feeding woman will not be entered on this study due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies with Gemcitabine and Docetaxel
• HIV Infection: HIV-positive patients on combination antiretroviral therapy are ineligible because of the potential for pharmacokinetic interactions with the study medications. In addition, these patients are at increased risk of lethal infections when treated with marrow-suppressive therapy. Appropriate studies will be undertaken in patients receiving combination antiretroviral therapy when indicated
• Patients who in the opinion of the investigator may not be able to comply with the safety monitoring requirements of the study are not eligible.
BIOLOGICAL: GEM/DOX + TGFBi expanded NK cells
Pediatric Sarcoma, Refractory, Pediatric Sarcoma, Relapsed, Bones and Joints, Sarcoma, Soft Tissue
Children’s Health
A Phase 1/2/3 Study of TSHA-102 Gene Therapy in Females With Rett Syndrome (REVEAL Pivotal Study)
The primary objectives of this study are to evaluate the safety of a single intrathecal (IT) dose of TSHA-102 in females with typical Rett syndrome, to select the TSHA-102 dose with the best benefit/risk profile based on the totality of safety and efficacy data and to evaluate the efficacy and safety of TSHA-102 at the selected dose.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, patricia.plumb@utsouthwestern.edu
Benjamin Greenberg
FEMALE
6 Years to 21 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05606614
STU-2024-0619
Inclusion Criteria:
* Females between the ages of 12 and \<22 in Part A (closed) and females between the ages of 6 and \<22 in Part B (pivotal cohort).
* Participant has a clinical diagnosis of classic/typical Rett syndrome with a documented pathogenic mutation of the methyl-CpG-binding protein 2 (MECP2) gene that results in loss of gene function.
* Participants must be willing to receive blood or blood products for the treatment of an AE if medically needed.
* Participants and parent/caregiver must agree to reside within easy access to the study site prior to the baseline visit and at least 3 months after TSHA-102 treatment
Exclusion Criteria:
* Participant has another neurodevelopmental disorder independent of the MECP2 loss-of-function mutation, or any other genetic syndrome with a progressive course.
* Participant has a history of brain injury that causes neurological problems or had grossly abnormal psychomotor development in the first 6 months of life.
* Participant has a diagnosis of atypical Rett syndrome or a MECP2 gene mutation that does not cause Rett syndrome.
* Participant requires invasive ventilatory support.
Note: Other protocol defined inclusion/exclusion criteria may apply GENETIC: TSHA-102
Rett Syndrome
Rett Syndrome, Neurodevelopmental disorder, Rett, MECP2, AAV9, Typical Rett Syndrome, Classic Rett Syndrome, RTT, Rett Disorder, Retts, MECP2-Related Disorder, Gene Therapy, Intrathecal Administration, Genetic Diseases, X-Linked, Nervous System Diseases, Developmental Regression, TSHA-102, miRARE, Self-complementary Vector, Neurologic Manifestations, Intellectual Disability, Pathologic Process, X-Linked Intellectual Disability, Congenital, Hereditary, and Neonatal Diseases and Abnormalities
Children’s Health
Studying the Effect of Levocarnitine in Protecting the Liver From Chemotherapy for Leukemia or Lymphoma
This phase III trial compares the effect of adding levocarnitine to standard chemotherapy versus (vs.) standard chemotherapy alone in protecting the liver in patients with leukemia or lymphoma. Asparaginase is part of the standard of care chemotherapy for the treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), lymphoblastic lymphoma (LL), and mixed phenotype acute leukemia (MPAL). However, in adolescent and young adults (AYA) ages 15-39 years, liver toxicity from asparaginase is common and often prevents delivery of planned chemotherapy, thereby potentially compromising outcomes. Some groups of people may also be at higher risk for liver damage due to the presence of fat in the liver even before starting chemotherapy. Patients who are of Japanese descent, Native Hawaiian, Hispanic or Latinx may be at greater risk for liver damage from chemotherapy for this reason. Carnitine is a naturally occurring nutrient that is part of a typical diet and is also made by the body. Carnitine is necessary for metabolism and its deficiency or absence is associated with liver and other organ damage. Levocarnitine is a drug used to provide extra carnitine. Laboratory and real-world usage of the dietary supplement levocarnitine suggests its potential to prevent or reduce liver toxicity from asparaginase. The overall goal of this study is to determine whether adding levocarnitine to standard of care chemotherapy will reduce the chance of developing severe liver damage from asparaginase chemotherapy in ALL, LL and/or MPAL patients.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Kathleen Ludwig
ALL
15 Years to 40 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05602194
STU-2023-1026
Inclusion Criteria:
* \>= 15 and \< 40 years at time of diagnosis
* Newly diagnosed B-ALL, T-ALL, lymphoblastic lymphoma (LLy), or mixed-phenotype acute leukemia/lymphoma (MPAL)
* Note: Philadelphia chromosome (PH)+ and PH-like acute leukemia are eligible (use of tyrosine kinase inhibitors \[TKI\] or CRLF2- targeted concomitant medication must be documented, if used)
* Conjugated bilirubin =\< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age, regardless of baseline bilirubin (within 7 days prior to enrollment), and
* Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (ALT) =\< 225 U/L (=\< 5x ULN) (within 7 days prior to enrollment), and
* Note: For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L and serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (AST) to 50 U/L regardless of baseline
* SGOT (AST) =\< 250 U/L (=\< 5x ULN) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Note: For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L and SGOT (AST) to 50 U/L regardless of baseline
* For patients receiving ursodiol prior to enrollment, laboratory values must meet above criteria off ursodiol for 7 days
* PEDIATRIC PATIENTS (AGE 15-17 years):
* A 24-hour urine creatinine clearance \>= 30 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) OR
* A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) \>= 30 mL/min/1.73 m\^2. GFR must be performed using one of the following methods (within 7 days prior to enrollment):
* Estimated GFR (eGFR) \>= 30 mL/min/1.73 m\^2.
* An online calculator is available through the National Kidney Foundation at https://www.kidney.org/professionals/kdoqi/gfr\_calculatorped
* Measured GFR \>= 30 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 (any age). If measured GFR is used, it must be performed using direct measurement with a nuclear blood sampling method or small molecule clearance method (iothalamate or other molecule per institutional standard)
* ADULT PATIENTS (AGE 18 YEARS OR OLDER): Creatinine clearance \>= 30 mL/min, as estimated by the Cockcroft and Gault formula or a 24-hour urine collection (within 7 days prior to enrollment). Estimated creatinine clearance is based on actual body weight
* An online calculator is available through the National Kidney Foundation at https://www.kidney.org/professionals/kdoqi/gfr\_calculatorcoc
* Berlin-Frankfurt-Munich (BFM), Children's Oncology Group (COG), or C10403-based Induction regimen and must be inclusive of \>= 1 dose of pegaspargase or calaspargase pegol, and
* First dose of asparaginase must be planned within the first week of induction therapy, and
* Dose of pegaspargase or calaspargase pegol must be \>= 1,000 IU/ m\^2 (dose-capping permitted per primary regimen)
* Note: Co-enrollment on a therapeutic consortia trial is not required
* All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
* All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
Exclusion Criteria:
* Down syndrome
* Known inherited or autoimmune liver disease impacting conjugated bilirubin (e.g., Alagille syndrome, primary sclerosing cholangitis, other)
* Known biopsy (or imaging) proven severe liver fibrosis (Batts-Ludwig \>= stage 3)
* Unable to tolerate oral formulation of study drug at enrollment
* Patients who received chemotherapy or treatment for a prior malignancy are not eligible
* The following are permitted: steroid prophase, hydroxyurea, or other cytoreduction prior to initiation of Induction chemotherapy (must be documented) and chemotherapy for current diagnosis (i.e. initiation of Induction therapy within enrollment window). Chemotherapy prior to enrollment for treatment of a non-malignancy (e.g., steroid or methotrexate for autoimmune disease) is also permitted and must be documented
* Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects in humans are unknown for study drug. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
* Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
* Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, DRUG: Calaspargase Pegol, DIETARY_SUPPLEMENT: Levocarnitine, DRUG: Pegaspargase, OTHER: Quality-of-Life Assessment
B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia With t(9,22)(q34.1,q11.2), BCR-ABL1, B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, BCR-ABL1-Like, Lymphoblastic Lymphoma, Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia, T Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Lymphoid Leukemia, Lymphoma
Children’s Health
Standardizing Treatments for Pulmonary Exacerbations - Aminoglycoside Study (STOP360AG)
The purpose of this study is to look at pulmonary exacerbations in people with cystic fibrosis (CF) that need to be treated with antibiotics given through a tube inserted into a vein (intravenous or IV). A pulmonary exacerbation is a worsening of respiratory symptoms in people with CF that needs medical intervention. Both doctors and CF patients are trying to understand the best way to treat pulmonary exacerbations. This study is trying to answer the following questions about treating a pulmonary exacerbation: - Do participants have the same improvement in lung function and symptoms if they are treated with one type of antibiotic (called beta-lactams or β-lactams) versus taking two different types of antibiotics (tobramycin and β-lactams)? - Is taking one type of antibiotic just as good as taking two types?
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Crystal.Neugin@UTSouthwestern.edu
Raksha Jain
All
6 Years and over
Phase 4
NCT05548283
STU-2022-0891
Inclusion Criteria:
• All genders ≥ 6 years of age at Visit 1
• Documentation of a CF diagnosis
• Clinician intent to treat index CF PEx with a planned 14-day course of IV antimicrobials
• At least one documented Pa positive culture within two years prior to Visit 1
Exclusion Criteria:
• Participant is not pregnant
• No known renal impairment or history of solid organ transplantation
• No IV antimicrobial treatment, ICU admission, pneumothorax, or hemoptysis within 6 weeks prior to Visit 1
• No use of investigational therapies, new CF transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulators, or treatment for Nontuberculous mycobacteria (NTM) within 4 weeks prior to Visit 1
• No history of hypersensitivity, vestibular, or auditory toxicity with aminoglycosides
• No more than one day of IV aminoglycosides administered for the current PEx treatment prior to Visit 1
Drug: Beta-lactam antibiotic, Drug: Aminoglycoside
Cystic Fibrosis, Cystic Fibrosis Pulmonary Exacerbation, Lung/Thoracic
Cystic Fibrosis, CF, Cystic Fibrosis Pulmonary Exacerbation, aminoglycoside, beta-lactam, β-lactam, STOP, STOP360
UT Southwestern
Percutaneous Intervention Versus Observational Trial of Arterial Ductus in Low Weight Infants (PIVOTAL)
Patent Ductus Arteriosus is a developmental condition commonly observed among preterm infants. It is a condition where the opening between the two major blood vessels leading from the heart fail to close after birth. In the womb, the opening (ductus arteriosus) is the normal part of the circulatory system of the baby, but is expected to close at full term birth. If the opening is tiny, the condition can be self-limiting. If not, medications/surgery are options for treatment. There are two ways to treat patent ductus arteriosus - one is through closure of the opening with an FDA approved device called PICCOLO, the other is through supportive management (medications). No randomized controlled trials have been done previously to see if one of better than the other. Through our PIVOTAL study, the investigators aim to determine is one is indeed better than the other - if it is found that the percutaneous closure with PICCOLO is better, then it would immediately lead to a new standard of care. If not, then the investigators avoid an invasive costly procedure going forward.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Emilie.Vannguyen@UTSouthwestern.edu
Sushmita Yallapragada
ALL
7 Days to 32 Days old
NA
NCT05547165
STU-2022-1102
Inclusion Criteria:
• EPIs born between 22-weeks+0 days (220/7 wks) and 27-weeks+6 days (276/7 wks) gestation, inclusive
• Admitted to a study NICU
• Birth weight ≥700-grams
• Mechanically ventilated at time of consent and randomization
• HSPDA ("PDA Score" ≥6) noted on echocardiogram (ECHO)
• Randomization is able to be performed within 5 days of the qualifying ECHO and when infant is 7-32 days postnatal
Exclusion Criteria:
Clinical Exclusion Criteria
• Life-threatening congenital defects (including congenital heart disease such as aortic coarctation or pulmonary artery stenosis). PDA and small atrial/ventricular septal defects are permitted;
• Congenital lung abnormalities, (e.g. restrictive lung disease);
• Pharyngeal or airway anomalies (tracheal stenosis, choanal atresia);
• Treatment for acute abdominal process (e.g., necrotizing enterocolitis);
• Infants with planned surgery;
• Active infection requiring treatment;
• Chromosomal defects (e.g., Trisomy 18);
• Neuromuscular disorders;
• Infants whose parents have chosen to allow natural death (do not resuscitate order) or for whom limitation of intensive care treatment is being considered (e.g. severe intraventricular hemorrhage)
• Physician deems that the infant would not be a Percutaneous PDA Closure candidate due to clinical instability; however, if the infant's clinical status improves before 30-days postnatal and all inclusion criteria are still met, then the infant may be enrolled. ECHO-based Exclusion Criteria
• Pulmonary hypertension (defined by ductal right to left shunting for \>33% of the cardiac cycle) in which early PDA closure may increase right ventricular afterload and compromise pulmonary and systemic blood flow;
• Evidence of cardiac thrombus that might interfere with device placement;
• PDA diameter larger than 4 mm at the narrowest portion (consistent with FDA-approved instructions for Piccolo™ device use).
• PDA length smaller than 3 mm (consistent with FDA-approved instructions for Piccolo™ device use).
• PDA that does not meet inclusion requirements ("PDA Score" \<6).\* \* If a potential participant is found to have a PDA meeting eligibility requirements on a subsequent ECHO during the required period of 7 - 30 postnatal days of age, they may then be declared eligible to participate and enrolled, provided all other inclusion criteria are met and exclusion criteria are not met. Other Exclusion Criteria
• Parents or legal guardian do not speak English or Spanish
DEVICE: Percutaneous Patent Ductus Arteriosus Closure (PPC), COMBINATION_PRODUCT: Responsive Management Intervention, DIAGNOSTIC_TEST: Echocardiogram, cardiac
Ductus Arteriosus, Patent
PDA
Children’s Health
Melpida: Recombinant Adeno-associated Virus (serotype 9) Encoding a Codon Optimized Human AP4M1 Transgene (hAP4M1opt)
MELPIDA is proposed for the treatment of subjects with SPG50 and targets neuronal cells to deliver a fully functional human AP4M1 cDNA copy via intrathecal injection to counter the associated neuronal loss. Outcomes will evaluate the safety and tolerability of a single dose of MELPIDA, which will be measured by the treatment-associated adverse events (AEs) and serious adverse events (SAEs). Secondarily, the trial will explore efficacy in terms of disease burden assessments.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Sydney.Cooper@UTSouthwestern.edu
Susan Iannaccone
ALL
4 Months to 10 Years old
PHASE1
NCT05518188
STU-2022-0886
Inclusion Criteria:
• Age 4 months-10 years old
• Confirmed diagnosis of SPG50 disease by:
• Genomic DNA mutation analysis demonstrating homozygous or compound heterozygous, confirmed pathogenic variants in the AP4M1 gene
• Clinical history or examination features consistent with SPG50 and that include neurologic dysfunction
• Parent/legal guardian willing to provide written informed consent for their child prior to participation in the study
• Subject able to comply with all protocol requirements and procedures
• Ability to stand for more than 5 seconds OR
• Ability to take 5 steps independently or with a walker OR
• Modified Ashworth Scale score 2 or below (Ankles).
Exclusion Criteria:
• Inability to participate in study procedures (as determined by the site investigator)
• Presence of a concomitant medical condition that precludes lumbar puncture (LP) or use of anesthetics
• History of bleeding disorder or any other medical condition or circumstance in which lumbar puncture is contraindicated according to local institutional policy
• Inability to be safely sedated in the opinion of the clinical anesthesiologist
• Active infection, at the time of dosing, based on clinical observations
• Concomitant illness or requirement for chronic drug treatment that in the opinion of the PI creates unnecessary risks for gene transfer
• Inability of the patient to undergo MRI according to local institutional policy
• Inability of the patient to undergo any other procedure required in this study
• The presence of significant non-SPG50 related CNS impairment or behavioral disturbances that would confound the scientific rigor or interpretation of results of the study
• Have received an investigational drug within 30 days prior to screening or plan to receive an investigational drug (other than gene therapy) during the study.
• Enrollment and participation in another interventional clinical trial
• Contraindication to MELPIDA or any of its ingredients
• Contraindication to any of the immune suppression medications used in this study
• Clinically significant abnormal laboratory values (GGT, ALT, and AST, or total bilirubin \> 3 × ULN, creatinine ≥ 1.5 mg/dL, hemoglobin \[Hgb\] \< 6 or \> 20 g/dL; white blood cell \[WBC\] \> 20,000 per cmm) prior to gene replacement therapy.
BIOLOGICAL: MELPIDA
Spasticity, Muscle, Microcephaly, Intellectual Deficiency, Growth Retardation, SPG50, Spastic Paraplegia
Children’s Health
Molecular and Clinical Risk-Directed Therapy for Infants and Young Children With Newly Diagnosed Medulloblastoma
This is a multi-center, multinational phase 2 trial that aims to explore the use of molecular and clinical risk-directed therapy in treatment of children 0-4.99 years of age with newly diagnosed medulloblastoma.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Daniel Bowers
ALL
to 59 Months old
PHASE2
NCT05535166
STU-2023-0119
Inclusion Criteria - Screening Phase (All Patients)
* Participants with presumptive/suspected newly diagnosed medulloblastoma.
* Participant meets one of the following criteria at the time of screening:
* Age \< 36 months OR Age ≥ 36 months and \< 60 months with presumptive/suspected non-metastatic disease
* Participant must have adequate tumor tissue from primary tumor for central review of pathology and molecular classification by methylation and IHC
* Participant must be able to begin treatment as outlined in the protocol within 36 days of definitive surgery (day of surgery is Day 0). In case a second surgery is clinically indicated to remove the residual tumor prior to starting treatment, the second surgery will be considered as the definitive surgery (Day 0).
* Parent or legal guardian can understand and is willing to sign a written informed consent document according to institutional guidelines.
Exclusion Criteria - Screening Phase
* Participants with other clinically significant medical disorders (i.e., serious infections or significant cardiac, pulmonary, hepatic, psychiatric, or other organ dysfunction) that could compromise their ability to tolerate protocol therapy or would interfere with the study procedure.
Inclusion Criteria - Study Enrollment (All Patients)
* Participant must be \< 60 months of age at time of enrollment.
* Note: Each treatment stratum has additional specific age requirements
* Participant must have confirmation of newly diagnosed medulloblastoma per Central Review:
* Central review includes histopathology, IHC and St. Jude Clinical Genomic Methylation Profiling conducted on MLPNet. If tissue or the extracted DNA does not meet quality control criteria for methylation analysis or if methylation classifier is unable assign molecular group/subgroup within the assigned classifier (MLPNet) parameters, then IHC will be used to define molecular group of these cases. IHC cannot be used to determine molecular subgroup. Therefore, IHC defined SHH patients will be enrolled on Stratum S-1 under "SHH-NOS", and all NWNS and indeterminate molecular group will be enrolled on stratum N.
* Note: Diagnosis of medulloblastoma, as well as group and subgroup assignment, will be done by central pathology review at St. Jude only. No outside testing is allowed for trial enrollment.
* Participant must have disease staged by MRI of the brain and spine and by cytologic examination of CSF\* and be placed into the following categories:
* M0: no evidence of metastatic disease.
* must include a negative CSF cytology result
* M1: Tumor cells found in the CSF but no other evidence of metastasis
* M2: Intracranial tumor beyond the primary tumor site
* M3: Metastatic disease in the spine
* M4: Extraneural metastatic disease
* \*All participants are to undergo CSF cytologic examination regardless of presence or absence of gross metastatic disease unless procedure is medically contraindicated. CSF is to be obtained by lumbar puncture (LP) performed at least 10 days after surgery. If LP is medically contraindicated, ventricular CSF from a shunt or Ommaya reservoir may be used for staging but this is not the preferred option due to lower sensitivity. If LP is medically contraindicated and the patient doesn't have a shunt or reservoir for CSF sampling, the treating physician should reach out to PI or Co-PI regarding decision on enrollment to SJiMB21. The decision to enroll without CSF cytology will be made on case-by-case basis.
* Note: Participants who have M2 disease and positive CSF will be assigned to M3.
* Note: Participants will be assigned to the highest stage number for which they meet eligibility.
* Note: Treatment stratums may have additional stage requirements.
* Patient must have received no previous radiotherapy, chemotherapy, or other brain tumor-directed therapy other than corticosteroid therapy and surgery.
* Participant must have a Lansky performance score of \> 30 (except for patients with posterior fossa syndrome.
* Participant must have adequate organ function prior to study entry, as defined by:
* Absolute neutrophil counts (ANC) \>750/mm\^3
* Platelet count ≥ 50,000/mm\^3 without support of a platelet transfusion within 7 days
* Hemoglobin ≥8.0 g/dL (with or without support of a blood transfusion).
* Normal liver function as defined by Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) concentration ≤ 3 x 45 U/L and total bilirubin ≤ 3 x 1.0.
* Adequate renal function as defined by a serum creatinine concentration:
* Age - 0 to \<1year; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dl) - Male 0.5; Female 0.5
* Age - 1 to \< 2years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dl) - Male 0.6; Female 0.6
* Age - 1 to \< 2yearsr; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dl) - Male 0.8; Female 0.8
* Participant's parent or legal guardian has the ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document according to institutional guidelines.
Inclusion Criteria - Stratum S-2
* Participant must have confirmed diagnosis of the following medulloblastoma molecular group and subgroup per Central Review.
* Medulloblastoma SHH-2
* Participant must meet one of the following criteria at time of enrollment:
* Age \<36 months OR Age ≥ 36 months and \< 60 months with non-metastatic disease (M0) Inclusion Criteria - Stratum S-1
* Participant must have confirmed diagnosis of one of the following medulloblastoma molecular subgroups per Central Review.
* Medulloblastoma SHH-1
* Medulloblastoma SHH-3
* Medulloblastoma SHH-4
* Medulloblastoma SHH-NOS
* Includes medulloblastoma cases that could not be assigned to a molecular subgroup using the DNA methylation classifier, but which are in the SHH group and/or cases defined as SHH by IHC.
* Participant must be \< 36 months of age at time of enrollment
* Note: Patients who are \< 36 months of age, regardless of metastatic status (M0/M+), are eligible for enrollment on stratum S-1.
Inclusion Criteria - Stratum N
* Participant must have confirmed diagnosis of one of the following medulloblastoma molecular subgroups per Central Review.
* Medulloblastoma G3
* Medulloblastoma G4
* Medulloblastoma - Not classified into SHH (i.e., NWNS or indeterminate)
* Includes medulloblastoma cases that could not be assigned to a molecular group using the DNA methylation classifier but which are in the NWNS class and/or defined as NWNS by IHC.
* Participant must be \<36 months of age at time of enrollment
* All NWNS patients (M+ and M0) are eligible for enrollment in stratum N
Exclusion Criteria - All Patients
* CNS embryonal tumor other than medulloblastoma, for example, patients with diagnosis of Atypical Teratoid/Rhabdoid Tumor (ATRT), PNET, Pineoblastoma, Ependymoma, and ETMR are excluded.
* Participant with prior treatment for medulloblastoma, including:
* Radiotherapy
* Chemotherapy
* Cancer directed immunotherapy
* Targeted agents
* NOTE: Corticosteroid therapy is acceptable; prior treatment with chemotherapy, immunotherapy or targeted agents for non-cancer directed indications are acceptable as long as these have been stopped at least 14 days prior to start of therapy or 2 half-lives from last dose. (i.e., methotrexate for juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, JAK inhibitor therapy for eczema, etc.)
* Participant who is actively receiving any other investigational agents.
* Participant with other clinically significant medical disorders (i.e., serious infections or significant cardiac, pulmonary, hepatic, psychiatric, or other organ dysfunction) that could compromise their ability to tolerate protocol therapy or would interfere with the study procedures or results.
PROCEDURE: Surgical resection, PROCEDURE: Ommaya/VPS, DRUG: Methotrexate, DRUG: Cisplatin, DRUG: Vincristine, DRUG: Cyclophosphamide, DRUG: Carboplatin, DRUG: Topotecan, DRUG: Etoposide, DRUG: Pegfilgrastim, DRUG: Filgrastim, RADIATION: Irradiation, OTHER: Educational and Media Intervention, OTHER: SOC, Educational and Media Intervention, DRUG: Methotrexate
Medulloblastoma, Brain and Nervous System
SJiMB21, Brain Cancer, Brain Tumors in Children, Medulloblastoma Sonic Hedgehog subgroup 1, Medulloblastoma Sonic Hedgehog subgroup 2, Medulloblastoma Sonic Hedgehog subgroup 3, Medulloblastoma Sonic Hedgehog subgroup 4, Medulloblastoma Sonic Hedgehog-not otherwise specified, Medulloblastoma G3, Medulloblastoma G4, Medulloblastoma indeterminate, MLPNet, Neural Net Classification Pipeline, Non-WNT non-SHH medulloblastoma, Posterior fossa syndrome, St. Jude Brain Tumor Studies, Treatment for Brain Tumors in Infants and Young Children, Untreated Childhood Medulloblastoma
Children’s Health
Treatment of Obstructive Sleep Apnea With Personalized Surgery in Children With Down Syndrome (TOPS-DS) (TOPS-DS)
The overall objective of this randomized clinical trial is to test the effectiveness of a personalized approach to the surgical treatment of OSA in children with Down syndrome (DS).The estimated prevalence of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) in children with DS ranges from 45-83%, compared to 1-6% in the general pediatric population. Untreated OSA in children has been associated with daytime sleepiness, cognitive or behavioral problems, and cardiovascular complications, all which are common in children with DS. Adenotonsillectomy (AT) is the first line treatment for OSA in children, however, most large studies of AT outcomes have excluded children with DS. Available evidence demonstrates that AT is far less effective in children with DS than in the general pediatric population, with 48 to 95% of children with DS having persistent OSA after AT. Medical treatments such as positive airway pressure (PAP) therapy are frequently inadequate or poorly tolerated in this population, so many children with DS and OSA remain untreated. Drug-induced sleep endoscopy (DISE) enables direct observation of the sites and patterns of obstruction during sedated sleep using a flexible endoscope passed through the nose into the pharynx. DISE was developed to guide surgical decisions in adult OSA, and in recent years has also been used to design personalized surgical interventions in children. Using this DISE Rating Scale, the investigators have demonstrated that children with DS are more prone to tongue base and supraglottic obstruction than non-DS children, suggesting the need for more personalized surgical treatments that are tailored to the common sources of obstruction in this population. Several small case series demonstrate that DISE-directed surgery can be effective in treating OSA in children with DS. However, because there have been few prospective studies and no randomized trials comparing different treatment options in this population, there remains uncertainty about whether such a personalized approach leads to superior outcomes compared to the first line AT. It is the investigators' hypothesis that personalized DISE-directed surgery that uses existing procedures to address specific fixed and dynamic anatomic features causing obstruction in each child with DS will be superior to the current first line approach of AT. This novel approach may improve OSA outcomes and reduce the burden of unnecessary AT or secondary surgery for persistent OSA after an ineffective AT.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Francesca.Chambers@UTSouthwestern.edu
Ron Mitchell
ALL
2 Years to 17 Years old
NA
NCT05508971
STU-2022-0838
Requirements to participate in study:
Child has a diagnosis of Down syndrome (Trisomy 21). Child has a diagnosis of moderate to severe OSA diagnosed by PSG (oAHI ≥ 5). Child age is 2.00 to 17.99 years of age. Caregiver can provide signed and dated consent and is 18 years of age or older at the time of consent.
Caregiver can speak, read, and write in English or Spanish. Caregiver is primary caretaker of the child. Child is not expecting their own child. Child is eligible for surgical treatment
Cannot participate in study if:
Child has history of previous tonsillectomy, tonsillotomy, or partial tonsillectomy.
Child has any contraindication to surgery (e.g. bleeding disorders). Child has significant cardiopulmonary comorbidity besides OSA requiring supplemental oxygen, subglottic or tracheal stenosis, tracheostomy dependence.
Caregiver is unwilling or unable to comply with study procedures. Child is or plans to have their own child.
PROCEDURE: DISE-Directed Surgery, PROCEDURE: Adenotonsillectomy
Obstructive Sleep Apnea, Down Syndrome
Children’s Health
A Study to Give Treatment Inside the Eye to Treat Retinoblastoma
This phase II trial tests the safety and side effects of adding melphalan (by injecting it into the eye) to standard chemotherapy in early treatment of patients with retinoblastoma (RB). RB is a type of cancer that forms in the tissues of the retina (the light-sensitive layers of nerve tissue at the back of the eye). It may be hereditary or nonhereditary (sporadic). RB is considered harder to treat (higher risk) when there are vitreous seeds present. Vitreous seeds are RB tumors in the jelly-like fluid of the eye (called the vitreous humor). The term, risk, refers to the chance of the cancer not responding to treatment or coming back after treatment. Melphalan is in a class of medications called alkylating agents. It may kill cancer cells by damaging their deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and stopping them from dividing. Other chemotherapy drugs given during this trial include carboplatin, vincristine, and etoposide. Carboplatin is in a class of medications known as platinum-containing compounds. It works in a way similar to the anticancer drug cisplatin, but may be better tolerated than cisplatin. Carboplatin works by killing, stopping or slowing the growth of cancer cells. Vincristine is in a class of medications called vinca alkaloids. It works by stopping cancer cells from growing and dividing and may kill them. Etoposide is in a class of medications known as podophyllotoxin derivatives. It blocks a certain enzyme needed for cell division and DNA repair and may kill cancer cells. Adding melphalan to standard chemotherapy early in treatment may improve the ability to treat vitreous seeds and may be better than standard chemotherapy alone in treating retinoblastoma.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Daniel Bowers
ALL
up to 18 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05504291
STU-2023-0581
Inclusion Criteria:
* Patient must be \< 18 years of age at enrollment
* Patient must have newly diagnosed intraocular (localized) retinoblastoma and meet one of the following criteria:
* Unilateral Group D retinoblastoma with vitreous seeding; OR
* Bilateral retinoblastoma with worst eye Group D, with vitreous seeding present and the contralateral eye is Group A-C; OR
* Bilateral Group D retinoblastoma with at least one eye with vitreous seeding; OR
* Bilateral retinoblastoma with one Group D eye with vitreous seeding and one Group E eye where the Group E eye has been enucleated prior to any therapy. Note exclusion for high-risk features
* Bilateral retinoblastoma with one Group D eye with vitreous seeding and one Group E eye where the Group E eye has not been enucleated prior to any therapy at the discretion of the treating physician. Note exclusion for patients with evidence of metastatic or extra orbital spread
* Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1 or 2. Use Karnofsky for patients \> 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =\<16 years of age
* Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \>= 750/uL (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment unless otherwise indicated)
* Platelet count \>= 75,000/uL (transfusion independent) (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* A serum creatinine based on age/sex as follows (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment; must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment):
* 1 month to \< 6 months = 0.4 (male and female)
* 6 months to \< 1 year = 0.5 (male and female)
* 1 to \< 2 years = 0.6 (male and female)
* 2 to \< 6 years = 0.8 (male and female)
* 6 to \< 10 years = 1.0 (male and female)
* 10 to \< 13 years = 1.2 (male and female)
* 13 to \< 16 years = 1.5 (male) and 1.4 (female)
* \>= 16 years = 1.7 (male) and 1.4 (female) OR - a 24-hour urine Creatinine clearance \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 OR - a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2. GFR must be performed using direct measurement with a nuclear blood sampling method OR direct small molecule clearance method (iothalamate or other molecule per institutional standard)
* Note: Estimated GFR (eGFR) from serum creatinine, cystatin C or other estimates are not acceptable for determining eligibility
* For patients \< 1 month of age, serum creatinine levels must be \< 1.5 x the treating institution's creatinine upper limit of normal (ULN) for patients \< 1 month of age or the creatinine clearance or radioisotope GFR must be \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2
* The threshold creatinine values were derived from the Schwartz formula for estimating GFR utilizing child length and stature data published by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)
* Total bilirubin =\< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment; must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase \[ALT\]) =\< 135 U/L (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment; must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Note: For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patients with evidence of metastatic or extra-orbital spread
* Patients must not have an invasive infection at time of protocol entry
* Patients must not have had any prior anti-cancer therapy other than cryotherapy and/or laser therapy (green or infrared) to the study eye(s) and non-study eye, including systemic chemotherapy, intra-arterial chemotherapy, radioactive plaque, brachytherapy, or radiation therapy.
* Note: A study eye is defined as being Group D with vitreous seeding. Patients may have had enucleation of one eye as long as the remaining eye is Group D with vitreous seeds
* Patients with bilateral disease who undergo enucleation of a Group E eye prior to initiation of therapy and show evidence of high-risk histopathology features in the enucleated eye. High-risk histopathology includes choroid involvement \>= 3 mm, post lamina optic nerve involvement, full thickness scleral invasion or optic nerve invasion to the cut end
* Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
* Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
* Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation
* All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
* All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, DRUG: Carboplatin, DRUG: Etoposide, PROCEDURE: Examination Under Anesthesia, PROCEDURE: Magnetic Resonance Imaging, DRUG: Melphalan, PROCEDURE: Ultrasound Biomicroscopy, DRUG: Vincristine
Bilateral Retinoblastoma, Childhood Intraocular Retinoblastoma, Group D Retinoblastoma, Stage I Retinoblastoma, Unilateral Retinoblastoma, Eye and Orbit
Children’s Health
Study of Inebilizumab in Pediatric Subjects With Neuromyelitis Optica Spectrum Disorder
A Phase 2, open-label, multicenter study to evaluate the pharmacokinetics (PK), pharmacodynamics (PD), and safety of inebilizumab in eligible pediatric participants 2 to \< 18 years of age with recently active neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder (NMOSD) who are seropositive for autoantibodies against aquaporin-4 (AQP4-immunoglobulin \[Ig\]G).
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, patricia.plumb@utsouthwestern.edu
Cynthia Wang
ALL
2 Years to 17 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05549258
STU-2022-0915
Inclusion Criteria:
* Male or female participants, minimum body weight of 15 kg, age 2 to \< 18 years at the time of screening.
* Positive serum anti-AQP4-IgG result at screening and diagnosed with NMOSD according to the criteria of Wingerchuk et al, 2015.
* Documented history of one or more NMOSD acute relapses within the last year, or 2 or more NMOSD acute relapses within 2 years prior to screening.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Any condition that, in the opinion of the Investigator, would interfere with the evaluation or administration of the Investigational Product or interpretation of participant safety or study results.
* Concurrent/previous enrollment in another clinical study involving an investigational treatment within 4 weeks or 5 published half-lives of the investigational treatment, whichever is the longer, prior to Day 1.
* Evidence of significant hepatic, renal, or metabolic dysfunction or significant hematological abnormality (one repeat test may be conducted to confirm results within the same screening period).
* B-cell counts \< one-half of the lower limit of normal (LLN) for age according to the central laboratory.
* Receipt of the following at any time prior to Day 1:
• Alemtuzumab
• Total lymphoid irradiation
• Bone marrow transplant
• T-cell vaccination therapy * Receipt of rituximab or any experimental B-cell depleting agent within 6 months prior to screening unless B-cell counts have returned to ≥ one-half the LLN. * Receipt of intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) within one month prior to Day 1. * Receipt of any of the following within 2 months prior to Day 1:
• Cyclosporine
• Methotrexate
• Mitoxantrone
• Cyclophosphamide
• Tocilizumab
• Satralizumab
• Eculizumab * Receipt of natalizumab (Tysabri®) within 6 months prior to Day 1. * Severe drug allergic history or anaphylaxis to 2 or more food products or medicine (including known sensitivity to acetaminophen/paracetamol, diphenhydramine or equivalent antihistamine, and methylprednisolone or equivalent glucocorticoid). * Diagnosed with a concurrent autoimmune disease that is uncontrolled (unless approved by the medical monitor). * Recent receipt of live/attenuated vaccine or blood transfusion. Receipt of any of the following:
• Any live or attenuated vaccine within 4 weeks prior to Day 1 (administration of killed vaccines and nucleoside-modified mRNA-based vaccines is acceptable; the Sponsor recommends that Investigators ensure all participants are up to date on required vaccinations prior to study entry).
• Bacillus Calmette Guérin vaccine within one year of screening.
• Blood transfusion within 4 weeks prior to screening or during screening. * Clinically significant serious active or chronic viral, bacterial, or fungal infection that requires treatment with anti-infectives, hospitalization, or, in the Investigator's opinion, represents an additional risk to the participant, within 2 months prior to Day 1. * Known history of congenital or acquired immunodeficiency (e.g., due to human immunodeficiency virus \[HIV\] infection, splenectomy, immunosuppression-related or idiopathic T-cell deficiencies) that predisposes the participant to infection. * Positive test for chronic hepatitis B infection at screening, defined as either: a. Positive hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), or b. Positive hepatitis B core (HBc) antibody (anti-HBc) plus negative hepatitis B surface (HBs) antibody (anti-HBs). * Positive test for hepatitis C virus antibody. * Negative test for varicella zoster virus (VZV)-IgG. * History of cancer, apart from squamous cell or basal cell carcinoma of the skin treated with documented success of curative therapy \> 3 months prior to Day 1. * History of active or latent tuberculosis (TB), or a positive QuantiFERON®-TB Gold test at screening, unless treatment for TB was completed per local guidelines. Participants with latent TB or a positive QuantiFERON®-TB Gold test who are actively on anti-TB treatment can enroll if they have completed at least one month of anti-TB treatment and intend to complete the full course of anti-TB treatment. Participants with an indeterminate QuantiFERON®-TB Gold test result can enroll if a repeat QuantiFERON®-TB Gold test is negative or a tuberculin skin test is negative. * For participants who may undergo MRI scans:
• Unable to undergo an MRI scan (e.g., hypersensitivity to Gd-containing MRI contrast agents, implanted pacemakers, defibrillators, or other metallic objects on or inside the body that limit performing MRI scans), or
• Unable to tolerate or comply with the MRI procedure.
DRUG: Inebilizumab
Neuromyelitis Optica Spectrum Disorder
NMOSD
Children’s Health
MASA Valve Early Feasibility Study (MVEFS)
The MASA Valve Early Feasibility Study (MVEFS) multi-site interventional clinical trial within the United States of America with each center following a common protocol.The objective of the trial is to evaluate the safety and probable benefit of MASA Valve in the indicated subset of patients requiring Right Ventricular Outflow Tract Reconstruction (RVOTR). As an early feasibility study, the purpose is determine the feasibility of success of the device in order to gather early data towards a future pivotal study and/or regulatory clearance submission.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, madison.munson@childrens.com
Karl Reyes
All
0 Years to 22 Years old
N/A
NCT05452720
STU-2023-0657
Inclusion Criteria:
• At least one of the following: Right Ventricular to Pulmonary Artery mean gradient > 35mm Hg, moderate or severe Pulmonary regurgitation (≥3+), or clinical indication for replacement of their native or prosthetic pulmonary valve with a prosthesis.
• Age < 22 years
• Patient is geographically stable and willing to return for 1 year follow-up for the trial.
• Patient's legal guardian should be willing to provide informed consent (IC) at the hospital location where they are being enrolled.
• The patient, and the patient's parent / legal representative where appropriate, and the treating physician agree that the subject will return for all required post-procedure follow up visits and the subject will comply with clinical investigation plan required follow-up visits.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Patient is in need of or has presence of a prosthetic heart valve at any other position
• Patient has a need for concomitant surgical procedures (non-cardiac)
• Patients with previously implanted pacemaker (including defibrillators) or mechanical valves
• Patient has an active bacterial or viral infection or requiring current antibiotic therapy (if temporary illness, patient may be a candidate 4 weeks after discontinuation of antibiotics)
• Patient has an active endocarditis
• Leukopenia, according to local laboratory evaluation of white blood cell count
• Acute or chronic anemia, according to local laboratory evaluation of hemoglobin Patients can be transfused to meet eligibility criteria
• Thrombocytopenia, defined as Platelet count < 150,000/mm3 Patients can be transfused to meet eligibility criteria
• Severe chest wall deformity, which would preclude placement of the PV conduit
• Known hypersensitivity to anticoagulants and antiplatelet drugs and to the device materials
• Immunocompromised patient defined as: autoimmune disease, patients receiving immunosuppressant drugs or immune stimulant drugs
• Patient has chronic inflammatory / autoimmune disease
• Need for emergency cardiac or vascular surgery or intervention
• Major or progressive non-cardiac disease (liver failure, renal failure, cancer) that has a life expectancy of less than one year
• Currently participating, or participated within the last 30 days, in an investigational drug or device study
• Alcohol or drug abuse as defined by DSM IV-TR criteria for substance abuse - this includes the illicit use of cannabis within the last 12 months
• Patient has medical, social or psychosocial factors that, in the opinion of the Investigator, could have impact on safety or compliance
Device: Surgical Right Ventricular Outflow Tract Reconstruction
Tetrology of Fallot, Pulmonary Stenosis, Truncus Arteriosus, Transposition of Great Vessels, Pulmonary Atresia, Ross Procedure
Right Ventricular Outflow Tract Reconstruction, Pulmonary Valve, MASA Valve, Pulmonary Valve Replacement
Children’s Health
Pediatric Influence of Cooling Duration on Efficacy in Cardiac Arrest Patients (P-ICECAP) (ICECAP)
This is a multicenter trial to establish the efficacy of cooling and the optimal duration of induced hypothermia for neuroprotection in pediatric comatose survivors of cardiac arrest. The study team hypothesizes that longer durations of cooling may improve either the proportion of children that attain a good neurobehavioral recovery or may result in better recovery among the proportion already categorized as having a good outcome.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Kirstie.LeDoux@UTSouthwestern.edu
Joshua Wolovits
All
2 Days to 17 Years old
N/A
NCT05376267
STU-2022-0800
Inclusion criteria:
• Age 2 days to < 18 years with corrected gestational age of at least 38 weeks
• Chest compressions for at least 2 minutes
• Coma or encephalopathy after resuscitation from Out-of-Hospital Cardiac Arrest (OHCA)
• Requires continuous mechanical ventilation through endotracheal tube or tracheostomy
• Definitive temperature control device initiated
• Randomization within 6 hours of Return of Spontaneous Circulation (ROSC)
• Informed consent from Legally Authorized Representative (LAR) including intent to maintain life support for 120 hours Exclusion criteria:
• Glasgow Coma Motor Score (GCMS) = 6
• LAR does not speak English or Spanish
• Duration of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) > 60 minutes
• Severe hemodynamic instability with continuous infusion of epinephrine or norepinephrine of 2 micrograms per kilogram per minute (μg/kg/minute) or initiation of Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
• Pre-existing severe neurodevelopmental deficits with Pediatric Cerebral Performance Category (PCPC) =5 or progressive degenerative encephalopathy
• Pre-existing terminal illness, unlikely to survive to one year
• Cardiac arrest associated with brain, thoracic, or abdominal trauma
• Active and refractory severe bleeding prior to randomization
• Extensive burns or skin lesions incompatible with surface cooling
• Planned early withdrawal of life support before 120 hours
• Sickle cell anemia
• Pre-existing cryoglobulinemia
• Non-fatal drowning in ice covered water
• Central nervous system tumor with ongoing chemotherapy
• Previous enrollment in P-ICECAP trial
• Prisoner
• Chronic hypothermia
• New post-cardiac arrest diabetes insipidus
• Pregnancy
• Age 2 days to < 18 years with corrected gestational age of at least 38 weeks
• Chest compressions for at least 2 minutes
• Coma or encephalopathy after resuscitation from Out-of-Hospital Cardiac Arrest (OHCA)
• Requires continuous mechanical ventilation through endotracheal tube or tracheostomy
• Definitive temperature control device initiated
• Randomization within 6 hours of Return of Spontaneous Circulation (ROSC)
• Informed consent from Legally Authorized Representative (LAR) including intent to maintain life support for 120 hours Exclusion criteria:
• Glasgow Coma Motor Score (GCMS) = 6
• LAR does not speak English or Spanish
• Duration of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) > 60 minutes
• Severe hemodynamic instability with continuous infusion of epinephrine or norepinephrine of 2 micrograms per kilogram per minute (μg/kg/minute) or initiation of Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
• Pre-existing severe neurodevelopmental deficits with Pediatric Cerebral Performance Category (PCPC) =5 or progressive degenerative encephalopathy
• Pre-existing terminal illness, unlikely to survive to one year
• Cardiac arrest associated with brain, thoracic, or abdominal trauma
• Active and refractory severe bleeding prior to randomization
• Extensive burns or skin lesions incompatible with surface cooling
• Planned early withdrawal of life support before 120 hours
• Sickle cell anemia
• Pre-existing cryoglobulinemia
• Non-fatal drowning in ice covered water
• Central nervous system tumor with ongoing chemotherapy
• Previous enrollment in P-ICECAP trial
• Prisoner
• Chronic hypothermia
• New post-cardiac arrest diabetes insipidus
• Pregnancy
Device: Therapeutic Hypothermia
Cardiac Arrest, Out-Of-Hospital, Hypothermia, Induced, Hypoxia-Ischemia, Brain
Bayesian Adaptive Clinical Trial, Hypothermia, therapeutic, Coma, Pediatric
Children’s Health
A Study of Treatment for Medulloblastoma Using Sodium Thiosulfate to Reduce Hearing Loss
This phase III trial tests two hypotheses in patients with low-risk and average-risk medulloblastoma. Medulloblastoma is a type of cancer that occurs in the back of the brain. The term, risk, refers to the chance of the cancer coming back after treatment. Subjects with low-risk medulloblastoma typically have a lower chance of the cancer coming back than subjects with average-risk medulloblastoma. Although treatment for newly diagnosed average-risk and low-risk medulloblastoma is generally effective at treating the cancer, there are still concerns about the side effects of such treatment. Side effects or unintended health conditions that arise due to treatment include learning difficulties, hearing loss or other issues in performing daily activities. Standard therapy for newly diagnosed average-risk or low-risk medulloblastoma includes surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy (including cisplatin). Cisplatin may cause hearing loss as a side effect. In the average-risk medulloblastoma patients, this trial tests whether the addition of sodium thiosulfate (STS) to standard of care chemotherapy and radiation therapy reduces hearing loss. Previous studies with STS have shown that it may help reduce or prevent hearing loss caused by cisplatin. In the low-risk medulloblastoma patients, the study tests whether a less intense therapy (reduced radiation) can provide the same benefits as the more intense therapy. The less intense therapy may cause fewer side effects. Radiation therapy uses high energy x-rays to kill tumor cells and shrink tumors. Cisplatin is in a class of medications known as platinum-containing compounds. It works by killing, stopping or slowing the growth of cancer cells. The overall goals of this study are to see if giving STS along with standard treatment (radiation therapy and chemotherapy) will reduce hearing loss in medulloblastoma patients and to compare the overall outcome of patients with medulloblastoma treated with STS to patients treated without STS on a previous study in order to make sure that survival and recurrence of tumor is not worsened.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Daniel Bowers
ALL
4 Years to 21 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05382338
STU-2023-0231
Inclusion Criteria:
* PRE-ENROLLMENT: Patients must be ≥ 4 years and ≤ 21 years of age at the time of enrollment
* PRE-ENROLLMENT: Patient is suspected to have newly-diagnosed medulloblastoma by institutional diagnosis
* Please note: Patients with a pending result of CSF cytology tests are eligible for NCI-2014-02057 (APEC14B1-Central Nervous System \[CNS\]) and CNS/Medulloblastoma Pre Enrollment Eligibility Screening
* PRE-ENROLLMENT: The patient and/or their parents or legal guardians must have signed informed consent for APEC14B1 Part A - Eligibility Screening and consent for the Molecular Characterization Initiative (MCI)
* PRE-ENROLLMENT: The required specimens are projected to be submitted under APEC14B1-CNS as soon as possible, preferably within 5 days of definitive surgery
* PRE-ENROLLMENT: All patients must have rapid central pathology review under APEC14B1-CNS prior to study enrollment on ACNS2031 step 1 in order to avoid discordant diagnoses and to verify diagnosis criterion for treatment on ACNS2031.
* Note: Patients with a pending result of CSF cytology tests are eligible for the rapid central pathology screening review. Confirmation of CSF negativity is needed for enrollment on the ACNS2031 protocol
* PRE-ENROLLMENT: All patients must have rapid central molecular screening review under APEC14B1-CNS prior to study enrollment on ACNS2031 step 1, in order to avoid discordant diagnoses and to verify diagnosis criterion for treatment on ACNS2031
* PRE-ENROLLMENT: All patients who have histopathology confirmed must have rapid central imaging screening review under APEC14B1 prior to study enrollment on ACNS2031 step 1
* Note: Patients must not have metastatic disease on cranial or spinal MRI. Patients with \> 1.5 cm\^2 residual tumor after initial surgical resection may undergo a second surgical resection prior to subsequent therapy to render them eligible for this study. The day of the second resection to remove residual tumor will be regarded as the day of definitive surgery (Day 0) and must be within a month (31 days) of the initial resection
* PRE-ENROLLMENT: All patients who have histopathology confirmed must have rapid central audiology review under APEC14B1-CNS prior to study enrollment on ACNS2031 step 1
* Patients must be \>= 4 years and =\< 21 years of age at the time of enrollment
* Patients must be newly diagnosed and have eligibility confirmed by rapid central pathology and molecular screening reviews performed on APEC14B1 and via the Molecular Characterization Initiative
* Average-risk cohort
* Clinico-pathologic criteria:
* M0 disease
* No diffuse anaplastic histology AND
* Molecular criteria:
* SHH, p53wt, GLI2 normal, MYCN normal, no chromosome 14q loss
* Group 3, MYC normal, no isochromosome 17q
* Group 4, no chromosome 11 loss
* Low-risk features cohort
* Clinico-pathologic criteria:
* M0 disease
* No diffuse anaplastic histology AND
* Molecular criteria:
* Group 4, chromosome 11 loss
* Patients must have negative lumbar CSF cytology
* Note: CSF cytology for staging should be performed no sooner than 14 days post operatively to avoid false positive CSF. Ideally, CSF should be obtained between day 14 and day 21 to allow for final staging status before enrollment onto the study. Patients with positive CSF cytology obtained 0 to 14 days after surgery should have cytology repeated to determine eligibility and final CSF status. Patients with negative CSF cytology from lumbar puncture obtained 0 to 14 days after surgery do not need cytology repeated. Patients with negative CSF cytology from lumbar puncture obtained prior to surgery do not need cytology repeated post-operatively
* Patients must have eligibility confirmed by Rapid Central Imaging Review performed on APEC14B1. Patients must have =\< 1.5 cm\^2 cross-sectional area of residual tumor. Whole brain MRI with and without gadolinium and spine MRI with gadolinium must be performed
* Patients must weigh \> 10 kg
* Patients must be enrolled, and protocol therapy must be projected to begin, no later than 31 days after definitive diagnostic surgery (day 0)
* Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \>= 1000/uL (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Platelet count \>= 100,000/uL (transfusion independent) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Hemoglobin \>= 8.0 g/dL (may receive red blood cell count \[RBC\] transfusions) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* A serum creatinine (within 7 days prior to enrollment) based on age/sex as follows:
* 4 to \< 6 years (age); 0.8 mg/dL (male) 0.8 mg/dL (female)
* 6 to \< 10 years (age); 1 mg/dL (male) 1 mg/dL (female)
* 10 to \< 13 years (age); 1.2 mg/dL (male) 1.2 mg/dL (female)
* 13 to \< 16 years (age); 1.5 mg/dL (male) 1.4 mg/dL (female)
* \>= 16 years (age); 1.7 mg/dL (male) 1.4 mg/dL (female) OR a 24 hour urine Creatinine clearance \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) OR a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 (within 7 days prior to enrollment). GFR must be performed using direct measurement with a nuclear blood sampling method OR direct small molecule clearance method (iothalamate or other molecule per institutional standard)
* Note: Estimated GFR (eGFR) from serum creatinine, cystatin C or other estimates are not acceptable for determining eligibility
* Total bilirubin =\< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase \[ALT\]) =\< 135 U/L (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Note: For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L
* Central nervous system function defined as:
* Patients with seizure disorder may be enrolled if on anticonvulsants and well controlled
* Patients must not be in status epilepticus, a coma or assisted ventilation at the time of study enrollment
* Auditory function defined as:
* Patients must have normal hearing (defined as International Society of Pediatric Oncology \[SIOP\] grade 0) in at least one ear confirmed by rapid central audiology review performed on APEC14B1 prior to enrollment
* All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
* All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patients with metastatic disease by either MRI evaluation or lumbar CSF cytology are not eligible. Patients who are unable to undergo a lumbar puncture for assessment of CSF cytology are ineligible
* Patients must not have received any prior radiation therapy or chemotherapy (tumor-directed therapy) other than surgical intervention and/or corticosteroids
* Patients must not have any known hypersensitivity to STS, sulfates/sulfites, or other thiol agents (e.g., amifostine, n-acetylcysteine, MESNA, and captopril)
* Pregnancy and Breastfeeding:
* Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
* Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
* Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation PROCEDURE: Audiometric Test, PROCEDURE: Auditory Brainstem Response, PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, DRUG: Cisplatin, DRUG: Cyclophosphamide, DRUG: Lomustine, PROCEDURE: Magnetic Resonance Imaging, OTHER: Quality-of-Life Assessment, RADIATION: Radiation Therapy, DRUG: Sodium Thiosulfate, OTHER: Survey Administration, DRUG: Vincristine
Childhood Medulloblastoma, Brain and Nervous System
Children’s Health