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412 Study Matches
Sonocloud-9 in Association With Carboplatin Versus Standard-of-Care Chemotherapies (CCNU or TMZ) in Recurrent GBM (SONOBIRD)
The brain is protected from any toxic or inflammatory molecule by the blood-brain barrier (BBB). This physical barrier is located at the level of the blood vessel walls. Because of these barrier properties, the blood vessels are also impermeable to the passage of therapeutic molecules from the blood to the brain. The development of effective treatments against glioblastoma is thus limited due to the BBB that prevents most drugs injected in the bloodstream from getting into brain tissue where the tumour is seated. The SonoCloud-9 (SC9) is an investigational device using ultrasound technology and specially developed to open the BBB in the area of and surrounding the tumour. The transient opening of the BBB allows more drugs to reach the brain tumour tissue. Carboplatin is a chemotherapy that is approved to treat different cancer types alone or in combination with other drugs, and has been used in the treatment of glioblastoma. Despite its proven efficacy in the laboratory on glioblastoma cells, carboplatin does not readily cross the BBB in humans. A clinical trial has shown that in combination with the SonoCloud-9, more carboplatin can reach the brain tumour tissue. The objective of the proposed trial is to show that the association - carboplatin with the SonoCloud-9 - will increase efficacy of the drug in patients with recurrent glioblastoma.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Toral Patel
ALL
18 Years to old
PHASE3
NCT05902169
STU-2023-1253
Inclusion Criteria:
• Histologically proven glioblastoma (WHO criteria 2021), absence of IDH mutation demonstrated by negative IDH1 R132H staining on Immunohistochemistry.
• Patient must have received prior first line therapy that must have contained both:
• Prior surgery or biopsy and standard fractionated radiotherapy (1.8-2 Gy/fraction, \>56 Gy\<66 Gy) or hypofractionated radiotherapy (15 x 2.66 Gy or similar regimen)
• One line of maintenance chemotherapy and/or immune- or biological therapy, (with or without Tumor-Treating Fields)
• First, unequivocal disease progression with
• measurable tumor (\>100 mm2 or 1 cm3, based on RANO criteria) documented (e.g., increase of 25% in tumor diameter) on MRI performed within 14 days of inclusion and,
• interval of a minimum of 12 weeks since the completion of prior radiotherapy, unless there is a new lesion outside the radiation field or unequivocal evidence of viable tumor on histopathological sampling
• Patient is candidate for craniotomy and at least 50% resection of enhancing region
• Maximal enhancing tumor diameter prior to inclusion ≤ 5 cm on T1w. (In case of planned lobectomy, post operative peritumoral brain or residual size ≤5 cm)
• WHO performance status ≤ 2 (equivalent to Karnofsky Performance Status (KPS) ≥ 70)
• Age ≥ 18 years
• Participant must be recovered from acute toxic effects (\
• ≥ 6 weeks of prior bevacizumab
• Adequate hematologic, hepatic, and renal laboratory values within 14 days of inclusion i.e.:
• Hemoglobin ≥ 10 g/dL, platelets ≥ 100,000/mm3, neutrophils ≥ 1500/mm3.
• Liver function test with ≤ grade 1 alterations, except if due to antiepileptic drug therapy or isolated increased bilirubin due to Gilbert syndrome
• Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of at least 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 using Cockcroft Gault formula
• Patient able to understand clinical trial information and willing to provide signed and informed consent
• Patient of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test within 14 days of inclusion and must agree to use a medically-acceptable method of birth control during the treatment period and, if randomized in the experimental arm, for at least 1 month after the last cycle of carboplatin
• A male patient must agree to use condoms during the treatment period and, if randomized in the experimental arm, for at least 3 months after the last cycle of carboplatin; the patient must also refrain from donating sperm during this period.
• Patient must be a beneficiary of a health plan that covers routine patient care costs. Patient must be a beneficiary of or affiliated with a social security scheme (according to country-specific requirements) Non-
Inclusion Criteria:
• Multifocal enhancing tumor on T1w (unless all localized in a 5 cm diameter area)
• Posterior fossa tumor
• Known BRAF/ NTKR mutated patients
• Patient at risk of surgery site infection (e.g., 2 or more previous craniotomies/neurosurgery within the last 3 months, poor skin condition, and/or previously infected surgical field, or any other condition that is of increased infectious risk in the opinion of the neurosurgeon)
• Patient treated at high, stable -or average- dose of corticosteroids (≥ 6 mg/day dexamethasone or equivalent) in the 7 days prior to inclusion. Patients on dexamethasone for reasons other than mass effect may still be enrolled.
• Contra-indication to carboplatin, CCNU or TMZ
• Known history of hypersensitivity reactions to perflutren lipid microsphere components or to any of the inactive ingredients in ultrasound resonator
• Patient has received bevacizumab for other reasons (such as tumor progression) than treating edema
• Peripheral neuropathy or neuropathy ≥ grade 2
• Uncontrolled epilepsy or evidence of intracranial pressure
• Patient with known intracranial aneurism or having presented intra-tumor significant spontaneous hemorrhage
• Patient with unremovable coils, clips, shunts, intravascular stents, and/or wafer, or reservoirs
• Patient with medical need to be on continued anti-platelet aggregation therapy and/or anticoagulation. Patients for whom anticoagulation/platelet aggregation can be temporarily interrupted may be eligible after discussion and prior authorization by the sponsor.
• Patient receiving enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drugs (namely phenytoin, carbamazepine and derivatives, phenobarbital), unless switched on another antiepileptic regimen
• History of other malignancy within 3 years prior to study start with the exception of adequately treated basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, non-melanomatous skin cancer or carcinoma in situ of the uterine cervix
• Patient with known or suspected active or chronic infections
• Patient with known significant cardiac disease, known to have right-to-left shunts, severe pulmonary hypertension (pulmonary artery pressure \> 90 mm Hg), uncontrolled systemic hypertension, or acute respiratory distress syndrome
• Known sensitivity/allergy to gadolinium, or other intravascular contrast agents
• Patient with impaired thermo-regulation or temperature sensation
• Pregnant, or breastfeeding patient
• Any other serious patient medical or psychological condition that may interfere with adequate and safe delivery of treatment and care (e.g., positive human immunodeficiency virus \[HIV\] status, potential blood-borne infections,...), circumstance (e.g., sinus opening during surgery), psychological, morphological characteristics (e.g., skin characteristics, bone thickness), or any pre-existing comorbidities that in the investigator's opinion may prevent the implantation of the device, may impair the ability of the patient to receive treatment with SonoCloud-9 or may be confounding for evaluation of the clinical trial endpoints
• Patients under guardianship, curatorship, under legal protection or deprived of liberty by an administrative or judicial decision Exclusion Criterion: Occurrence of any major medical illnesses or impairments that in the Investigator's opinion may hampered the ability of the patient to receive treatment with SonoCloud-9 or may be confounding for evaluation of the clinical endpoints.
DEVICE: SonoCloud-9 (SC9), DRUG: Carboplatin, DRUG: Lomustine, DRUG: Temozolomide
Glioblastoma, Recurrent Glioblastoma, GBM, Brain and Nervous System
carboplatin, SonoCloud, blood-brain barrier, Low Intensity Pulsed Ultrasound (LIPU)
UT Southwestern
Mitoquinone/mitoquinol Mesylate As Oral and Safe Postexposure Prophylaxis for Covid-19
Adults who do not have major health, kidney, gastrointestinal disease will be randomized to receive oral mitoquinone/mitoquinol mesylate (Mito-MES) versus placebo to prevent the development and progression of COVID-19 after high-risk exposure to a person with confirmed SARS-CoV-2 infection.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Theodoros.Kelesidis@UTSouthwestern.edu
Theodoros Kelesidis
ALL
18 Years to 65 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05886816
STU-2023-0524
Inclusion Criteria:
Age 18-65 years old Asymptomatic (no symptoms of viral infection) on study entry High risk exposure without use of masks to confirmed case of COVID-19 Members in a household one of which is a confirmed case of COVID-19 Negative baseline SARS-COV-2 diagnostic test
Exclusion Criteria:
* Women with variations in physiological functions due to hormones that may effect immune function and (transgender, pregnant, breastfeeding)
* Specific significant clinical diseases \[cardiovascular disease (such as coronary artery/vascular disease), heart disease (such as congestive heart failure, cardiomyopathy, atrial fibrillation), lung disease (such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, bronchiectasis, pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusions), kidney disease (glomerular filtration rate or GFR less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2), liver disease (such as cirrhosis, hepatitis), major immunosuppression (such as history of transplantation, uncontrolled HIV infection, cancer on active chemotherapy\] based on history. Participants with well controlled HIV (CD4 count \> 500 cells/mm\^3 and HIV viral load \< 50 copies/ml) and people with remote history of cancer not on active treatment will be allowed to participate.
* History of known gastrointestinal disease (such as gastroparesis) that may predispose patients to nausea
* History of auto-immune diseases
* Chronic viral hepatitis
* Use of systemic immunomodulatory medications (e.g. steroids) within 4 weeks of enrollment
* Any participant who has received any investigational drug within 30 days of dosing
* History of underlying cardiac arrhythmia
* History of severe recent cardiac or pulmonary event
* A history of a hypersensitivity reaction to any components of the study drug or structurally similar compounds including Coenzyme Q10 and idebenone
* Unable to swallow tablets
* Use of any investigational products within 4 weeks of enrollment
* Any other clinical condition or prior therapy that, in the opinion of the investigator, would make the patient unsuitable for the study or unable to comply with the study requirements.
* Eligible for other FDA approved treatment for post-exposure prophylaxis against SARS-CoV-2
* Use of Coenzyme Q10 or Vitamin E \< 120 days from enrollment DRUG: Mitoquinone/mitoquinol mesylate, OTHER: Placebo
SARS-CoV Infection, COVID-19, Lung/Thoracic, Nose
SARS-CoV Infection, COVID-19, Post-exposure prophylaxis
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
A Study to Evaluate Impact of Efanesoctocog Alfa on Long-term Joint Health in Participants With Hemophilia A
This is a prospective, observational, multi-center longitudinal cohort study to describe the real-world effectiveness, safety and treatment usage of efanesoctocog alfa in patients with hemophilia A treated per standard of care in the US and Japan. Patients will be enrolled in the study after the introduction of efanesoctocog alfa in the hemophilia treatment landscape in each study country. Decision to initiate treatment with commercially available efanesoctocog alfa will be made by the treating physician independently from the decision to include patients in the study. No study medication is provided. The data related to efanesoctocog alfa effectiveness, safety and usage will be collected prospectively during routine visits (expected annual/semi-annual visits) for up to 5 years following enrollment /treatment initiation.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, lindsey.hartland@childrens.com
Jessica Garcia
ALL
Not specified
NCT05911763
STU-2023-0545
Inclusion Criteria:
* Have a diagnosis of hemophilia A
* Patients starting efanesoctocog alfa treatment as per standard of care no more than one month prior to the enrollment date, for either on demand or prophylaxis. Patients starting efanesoctocog alfa treatment for a surgery event may also be enrolled only if the treatment is prescribed at enrollment.
* Physician's decision to treat the patient with efanesoctocog alfa is made prior to and independently of participation in the study.
* Signed and dated informed consent provided by the patient, or by the patient's legally acceptable representative for patients under the legal age before any study-related activities are undertaken. Assent should be obtained for pediatric patients according to local regulations.
Exclusion Criteria:
Diagnosed with other known bleeding disorder
* Participation in an investigational medicinal product trial at enrollment visit, or intake of an Investigational Medicinal Product within 3 months prior to inclusion in this study
* Current diagnosis of a FVIII inhibitor, defined as inhibitor titer ≥0.60 BU/mL
"The above information is not intended to contain all considerations relevant to a potential participation in a clinical trial." DRUG: Efanesoctocog Alfa BIVV001
Hemophilia A
Children’s Health
Testing Pump Chemotherapy in Addition to Standard of Care Chemotherapy Versus Standard of Care Chemotherapy Alone for Patients With Unresectable Colorectal Liver Metastases: The PUMP Trial
This phase III trial compares hepatic arterial infusion (HAI) (pump chemotherapy) in addition to standard of care chemotherapy versus standard of care chemotherapy alone in treating patients with colorectal cancer that has spread to the liver (liver metastases) and cannot be removed by surgery (unresectable). HAI uses a catheter to carry a tumor-killing chemotherapy drug called floxuridine directly into the liver. HAI is already approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in metastatic colorectal cancer to the liver, but it is only available at a small number of hospitals, and most of the time it is not used until standard chemotherapy stops working. Standard chemotherapy drugs work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Adding HAI to standard chemotherapy may be effective in shrinking or stabilizing unresectable colorectal liver metastases.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Cecilia Ethun
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE3
NCT05863195
STU-2024-0075
Inclusion Criteria:
* Patient must be \>= 18 years of age
* Patient must have confirmed unresectable liver confined metastatic colorectal cancer (CRC).
* Patient must not have radiographically or clinically evident extrahepatic disease (including but not limited to radiographically positive periportal lymph nodes).
* NOTE: Patients found to have positive periportal nodes at the time of HAI placement can remain on study.
* Patient may have calcified pulmonary nodules, and/or =\< 5 indeterminate and stable (for a minimum of 3 months on chemotherapy) pulmonary nodules each measuring =\< 6 mm in maximal axial dimension.
* Patient's primary tumor may be in place.
* Patient must have received 3-6 months of previous first-line chemotherapy that meet one of the following three criteria: a) have received at least 6 but no more than 12 cycles of first-line cytotoxic chemotherapy (where 1 cycle = 14 days) OR b) have received at least 4 but no more than 8 cycles of first-line cytotoxic chemotherapy (where 1 cycle = 21 days) OR c) have developed new colorectal liver metastases (CRLM) within 12 months of completing adjuvant systemic therapy for stage II-III colorectal cancer.
* NOTE: First-line chemotherapy may have included any of the following regimens as listed in the National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) Guidelines: leucovorin calcium (folinic acid), fluorouracil, and oxaliplatin (FOLFOX) (or equivalent), leucovorin calcium (calcium folinate), 5-fluorouracil, and irinotecan (FOLFIRI) (or equivalent), leucovorin calcium (calcium folinate), 5-fluorouracil, oxaliplatin, and irinotecan (FOLFOXIRI), each with or without any of the following: bevacizumab, cetuximab, or panitumumab.
* Patient must have stable or responding disease on first-line chemotherapy by RECIST 1.1 criteria
* Patient must meet the following criteria for technical unresectability:
* A margin-negative resection requires resection of three hepatic veins, both portal veins, or the retrohepatic vena cava OR a resection that leaves less than two adequately perfused and drained segments.
* NOTE: Institutional multidisciplinary review is required to confirm unresectability and rule out radiographically positive extrahepatic disease.
* Patient must undergo CT angiography (chest/abdomen/pelvis) to confirm acceptable hepatic arterial anatomy for HAI and to rule out extrahepatic disease within 4 weeks prior to randomization.
* Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status 0-1 and be clinically fit to undergo surgery as determined by the pre-operative evaluation.
* Leukocytes \>= 3,000/mcL (obtained =\< 14 days prior to protocol randomization)
* Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \>= 1,500/mcL (obtained =\< 14 days prior to protocol randomization)
* Platelets \>= 100,000/mcL (obtained =\< 14 days prior to protocol randomization)
* Total Bilirubin =\< 1.5 mg/dL (obtained =\< 14 days prior to protocol randomization)
* Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)(serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase \[SGOT\])/alanine aminotransferase (ALT)(serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase \[SGPT\]) =\< 3.0 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (obtained =\< 14 days prior to protocol randomization)
* Creatinine =\< 1.5 x institutional ULN OR creatinine clearance \>= 50 mL/min calculated by the Cockcroft-Gault method (obtained =\< 14 days prior to protocol randomization)
* Calcium \>= institutional lower limit of normal (LLN)
* Patients with a prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment does not have the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen are eligible for this trial.
* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months of randomization are eligible for this trial. Testing for HIV is not required for entry onto the study
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patient must not have a liver tumor burden exceeding 70% of total liver volume.
* Patient must not have had prior radiation to the liver (prior radiation therapy to the pelvis is acceptable if completed at least 2 weeks prior to randomization).
* Patient must not have had prior trans-arterial bland embolization, chemoembolization (TACE) or radioembolization (TARE).
* Patient must not have had prior treatment with HAI/floxuridine (FUDR)
* Patient must not have microsatellite instability-high (MSI-H) colorectal cancer.
* Patient must not have CRLM that could be resected with 2-stage hepatectomy, including associating liver partition and portal vein ligation (ALPPS).
* Patient must not have an active infection, serious or non-healing active wound, ulcer, or bone fracture.
* Patient must not have any serious medical problems which would preclude receiving the protocol treatment or would interfere with the cooperation with the requirements of this trial.
* Patient must not have cirrhosis and/or clinical or radiographic evidence of portal hypertension
* Patient must not be pregnant or breast-feeding due to the potential harm to an unborn fetus and possible risk for adverse events in nursing infants with the treatment regimens being used.
* All patients of childbearing potential must have a blood test or urine study within 14 days prior to randomization to rule out pregnancy.
* A patient of childbearing potential is defined as anyone, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria: 1) has achieved menarche at some point, 2) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or 3) has not been naturally postmenopausal (amenorrhea following cancer therapy does not rule out childbearing potential) for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months).
* Patient must not expect to conceive or father children by using accepted and effective method(s) of contraception or by abstaining from sexual intercourse for the duration of their participation in the study. BIOLOGICAL: Bevacizumab, BIOLOGICAL: Cetuximab, PROCEDURE: Computed Tomography, DRUG: Floxuridine, DRUG: Fluorouracil, PROCEDURE: Implantation, PROCEDURE: Intrahepatic Infusion Procedure, DRUG: Irinotecan, DRUG: Leucovorin, DRUG: Oxaliplatin, BIOLOGICAL: Panitumumab, PROCEDURE: Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography
Metastatic Colorectal Carcinoma, Metastatic Malignant Neoplasm in the Liver, Stage IV Colorectal Cancer AJCC v8, Unresectable Colorectal Carcinoma, Colon, Liver, Rectum
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
A Study Evaluating the Effectiveness and Safety of Risdiplam Administered in Pediatric Patients With Spinal Muscular Atrophy Who Experienced a Plateau or Decline in Function After Gene Therapy (HINALEA 2)
This is an open-label, single-arm, multicenter clinical study to evaluate the effectiveness and safety of risdiplam administered in pediatric participants with SMA and 2 SMN2 copies who previously received onasemnogene abeparvovec and experience a plateau or decline in function. Participants to be enrolled are children \<2 years of age genetically diagnosed with SMA.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Tammy.Ramm@UTSouthwestern.edu
Kaitlin Batley
ALL
3 Months to 24 Months old
PHASE4
NCT05861999
STU-2023-1071
Inclusion Criteria:
* \<2 years of age at the time of informed consent
* Confirmed diagnosis of 5q-autosomal recessive SMA
* Confirmed presence of two SMN2 gene copies
* Administration of onasemnogene abeparvovec pre-symptomatically or post-symptomatically
* Has received onasemnogene abeparvovec for SMA no less than 3 months prior to enrollment
* In the opinion of the investigator, has demonstrated a plateau or decline in function post-gene therapy (with a duration of 6 months or less) documented by 2 individual time points in the functions as follows: swallowing AND one additional function/ability (respiratory, motor function, other) per appropriate expectation.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Treatment with investigational therapy prior to initiation of study treatment
* Any unresolved standard-of-care laboratory abnormalities per the onasemnogene abeparvovec prescribing information
* Concomitant or previous administration of a SMN2-targeting antisense oligonucleotide or SMN2 splicing modifier either in a clinical study or as part of medical care
* Requiring invasive ventilation or tracheostomy
* Presence of feeding tube and an OrSAT score of 0
* Hospitalization for pulmonary event within the last 2 months, or any planned hospitalization at the time of screening
* Any major illness requiring hospitalization within 1 month before the screening examination or any febrile illness within 1 week prior to screening and up to first dose administration. DRUG: risdiplam
Muscular Atrophy, Spinal
Children’s Health
A Study Evaluating the Effectiveness and Safety of Risdiplam Administered as an Early Intervention in Pediatric Participants With Spinal Muscular Atrophy After Gene Therapy (HINALEA 1)
This is an open-label, single-arm, multicenter clinical study to evaluate the effectiveness and safety of risdiplam administered as an early intervention in pediatric participants with spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) and 2 SMN2 copies who have previously received onasemnogene abeparvovec. Participants are children \< 2 years of age genetically diagnosed with SMA.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Tammy.Ramm@UTSouthwestern.edu
Kaitlin Batley
ALL
3 Months to 24 Months old
PHASE4
NCT05861986
STU-2023-0862
Inclusion Criteria:
* \<2 years of age at the time of informed consent
* Confirmed diagnosis of 5q-autosomal recessive SMA
* Confirmed presence of two SMN2 gene copies
* Administration of onasemnogene abeparvovec pre-symptomatically or post-symptomatically
* Has received onasemnogene abeparvovec for SMA no less than 3 months, but not more than 7 months, prior to enrollment
* Has, in the opinion of the investigator, not experienced clinically significant decline in function from the time of onasemnogene abeparvovec administration
Exclusion Criteria:
* Treatment with investigational therapy prior to initiation of study treatment
* Any unresolved standard-of-care laboratory abnormalities per the onasemnogene abeparvovec prescribing information
* Concomitant or previous administration of a SMN2-targeting antisense oligonucleotide or SMN2 splicing modifier either in a clinical study or as part of medical care
* Requiring invasive ventilation or tracheostomy
* Requiring awake non-invasive ventilation or with awake hypoxemia (SaO2 \<95%) with or without ventilator support
* Presence of feeding tube and an OrSAT score of 0
* Hospitalization for pulmonary event within the last 2 months, or any planned hospitalization at the time of screening
* Any major illness requiring hospitalization within 1 month before the screening examination or any febrile illness within 1 week prior to screening and up to first dose administration. DRUG: risdiplam
Muscular Atrophy, Spinal, Other
Children’s Health
Safety and Efficacy of Epcoritamab With Gemcitabine, Dexamethasone, and Cisplatin (GDP) Salvage Chemotherapy in Relapsed Refractory Large B-cell Lymphoma
Subjects with relapsed large cell lymphoma will receive 3 cycles of combination therapy consisting of GDP and epcoritamab. Each cycle will last 21 days. GDP consists of gemcitabine 1000 mg/m2 IV on Days 1 and 8, cisplatin 75 mg/m2 IV on Day 1, and dexamethasone 40 mg orally on Days 1 through 4. Epcoritamab will be administered subcutaneously (SC) on Days 1, 8, and 15. Patients will receive granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) between Day 8 through Day 10 of each cycle of combination therapy. Patients will then undergo radiology imaging for disease assessment. Patients may proceed to SCT(autologous or allogeneic) or CAR T-cell therapy or epcoritamab monotherapy upon completion of Cycle 3 per investigator discretion. The rationale for subjects not proceeding to autoSCT or CAR T-cell therapy will be captured in the eCRFs. Patients who do not undergo SCT or CAR T-cell therapy may have the option to receive study treatment with epcoritamab monotherapy following completion of Cycle 3. Epcoritamab monotherapy will be offered to selected subjects who become ineligible to undergo SCT or CAR T-cell therapy (such as social situation, change in subject decision). The decision to offer epcoritamab monotherapy will be per investigator's discretion. However, subjects must have demonstrated a response to the combination therapy (partial remission or complete remission) per disease assessment scans prior to offering epcoritamab monotherapy. Epcoritamab monotherapy should begin 2 weeks following Cycle 3 Day 15. Monotherapy will consist of epcoritamab 48 mg administered subcutaneously on Days 1 and 15 of each 28 day cycle for Cycle 4 to Cycle 9 or until unacceptable toxicity, or disease progression per the Lugano Criteria.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Elif Yilmaz
ALL
18 Years to old
PHASE2
NCT05852717
STU-2024-1048
Inclusion Criteria:
• Written informed consent and HIPAA authorization for release of personal health information prior to registration. NOTE: HIPAA authorization may be included in the informed consent or obtained separately.
• Age ≥ 18 years at the time of consent.
• ECOG Performance Status of 0-2 within 28 days prior to registration.
• Histological confirmed CD20+ relapsed large cell lymphoma according to the 5th edition of the WHO classification of the hematolymphoid tumors and the 2022 international consensus classification of mature lymphoid neoplasms including de-novo and transformed from prior indolent B-cell NHL such as follicular lymphoma, or marginal zone lymphoma (33, 34). NOTE: Subjects with high-grade B-cell lymphoma (HGBCL), NOS subtype, and high-grade B-cell lymphoma with c-MYC, Bcl2 and/or Bcl6 rearrangements (double or triple hit lymphoma) are eligible. Patients with primary mediastinal B-cell lymphoma, and T-cell histiocyte-rich B-cell lymphoma, primary cutaneous diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, leg type, Intravascular large B-cell lymphoma, Epstein-Barr virus-positive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, NOS, Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma associated with chronic inflammation, and ALK-positive large B-cell lymphoma are eligible. Patients with Burkitt lymphoma or lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma are not eligible.
• Positron emission tomography (PET) positive measurable disease with at least 1 node having the longest diameter (LDi) greater than (\>) 1.5 centimeter (cm) or 1 extranodal lesion with LDi \>1 cm (per the Lugano Criteria 2014).
• Have received at least 1 prior line of systemic therapy for the treatment of large cell lymphoma. NOTE: Prior radiation therapy or systemic corticosteroids will not be considered a line of therapy.
• Must have had relapsed or refractory disease following standard frontline chemotherapy. Refractory disease is defined as large cell lymphoma not achieving complete remission, progressing or relapsing within 6 months after first-line chemotherapy based on PET/CT per the Lugano criteria. Relapsed disease is defined as disease that recurs beyond 6 months after completion of initial chemotherapy based on PET/CT per the Lugano criteria.
• Patients must be deemed eligible to proceed with stem cell transplantation (autologous or allogeneic) or CAR T-cell therapy per treating physician discretion. Patients being considered for allogeneic stem cell transplant may be eligible.
• Archival tissue obtained within 2 years of signing consent is required if available and will be identified at screening and shipped prior to Cycle 2 Day 1. If archival tissue is not available, fresh tissue from a standard of care biopsy is required. If a subject does not have archival tissue or is not undergoing a standard of care biopsy, they are not eligible for the trial. NOTE: A pre-treatment fresh tissue core or excisional biopsy at screening is preferred which should be considered standard of care.
• Demonstrate adequate organ function. All screening labs to be obtained within 21 days prior to registration. \*Patients with bone marrow involvement will be eligible to participate in the study but must meet hematologic parameters.
• Life expectancy of ≥ 6 months, as determined by the enrolling physician or protocol designee.
• Females subjects of childbearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test within 24 hours prior to study treatment. If a urine test is done and it is positice ir cannot be confirmed as negative, a serum pregnancy test will be required.
• Female subjects of childbearing potential and male subjects must be willing to abstain from penile-vaginal intercourse or to use an effective method(s) of contraception.
• As determined by the enrolling physician or protocol designee, ability of the subject to understand and comply with study procedures for the entire length of the study.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Previous treatment with gemcitabine, cisplatin, and epcoritamab or other bispecific T-cell engager antibody (BiTE) such aas glofitamab, mosunetuzumab, or odronextamab.
• Known active central nervous system or meningeal involvement by large cell lymphoma at time of screening. Patients diagnosed with CNS disease who achieved and maintained CNS CR at the time of relapse are eligible. Lumbar puncture must be done in this case prior to study entry to demonstrate CNS CR status. Tests to investigate CNS involvement are required otherwise only if clinically indicated (i.e. disease suspected on basis of symptoms or other findings).
• Contraindication to any drug contained in the combination therapy regimen (GDP).
• Known hypersensitivity or allergic reaction to epcoritamab or its' excipients.
• Use of any standard or experimental anti-large cell lymphoma therapy (including nonpalliative radiation, chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radio-immunotherapy, or any other anticancer therapy) \< 14 days prior to C1D1. NOTE: Prednisone up to 50 mg or equivalent for 5 days is permitted; palliative radiation is permitted only if on non-target lesions).
• Major surgery \< 14 days of Cycle 1 Day 1.
• Neuropathy Grade ≥ 2 (CTCAE v.5.0).
• Patients with a history of other malignancies, except adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancer, non-invasive superficial bladder cancer, curatively treated in-situ cancer of the cervix, DCIS of the breast, localized low grade prostate cancer (up to Gleason score 6), or other solid tumours curatively treated with no evidence of disease for at least 3 years.
• Active bacterial, viral, fungal, mycobacterial, parasitic, or other infection (excluding fungal infections of nail beds) requiring systemic treatment within 7 days prior to the first dose of study treatment. Prophylactic antibacterial, antiviral, and antifungal agents are allowed.
• Active HIV infection. NOTE: Testing for HIV antibody is required at the time of screening. Those with positive HIV antibody will require HIV viral load by PCR testing. Patients with detectable viral load will not be eligible for the study. Those with positive antibody but undetectable viral load and CD4 \>200 will be eligible.
• Testing for hepatitis B (HBV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV) is required at screening. Hepatitis B testing will consist of Hepatitis B surface Antigen (HBsAg), Hepatitis B Core Antibody (HBcAb) and Hepatitis Surface Antibody (HBsAb). Hepatitis C testing will consist of Hepatitis C Antibody (HCAb). Subjects with a history of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection must have an undetectable HBV viral load on suppressive therapy, if indicated. Subjects with evidence of prior HBV but who are PCR-negative are permitted in the trial but should receive prophylactic antiviral therapy. Subjects with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, the HCV viral load must be undetectable to be eligible for this trial. Subjects who received treatment for HCV that was intended to eradicate the virus may participate if hepatitis C RNA levels are undetectable.
• Pregnant or breastfeeding (NOTE: breast milk cannot be stored for future use while the mother is being treated on study).
• Any life-threatening illness, medical condition, or organ system dysfunction which, in the Investigator's opinion, could compromise the subject's safety, or being compliant with the study procedures.
PROCEDURE: AutoSCT OR CAR T-cell Therapy, DRUG: GDP, DRUG: Epcoritamab
Large Cell Lymphoma, Diffuse, Relapsed Cancer, Refractory Cancer, Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma
UT Southwestern
Direct Access Carotid Artery Stenting Using the Neuroguard IEP System (PERFORMANCE III)
The PERFORMANCE III study is a prospective, multicenter single-arm, open label study to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of the Neuroguard IEP® Direct System for the treatment of carotid artery stenosis in subjects at elevated risk for carotid endarterectomy (CEA). Eligible patients greater than or equal to 20 years of age and less than or equal to 80 years of age, are those who have been diagnosed with either de-novo atherosclerotic or post CEA restenotic lesion(s) in the internal carotid arteries (ICA) or at the carotid bifurcation with greater than or equal to 50% stenosis if symptomatic or greater than or equal to 70% stenosis if asymptomatic.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Madison.Baehner@UTSouthwestern.edu
Michael Siah
ALL
20 Years to 80 Years old
NA
NCT05845710
STU-2023-0722
General Inclusion Criteria
• Male and non-pregnant, non-breastfeeding female subjects whose age is ≥ 20 or ≤ 80 years of age.
• Subject is willing and capable of complying with and understands all study protocol requirements, including the specified follow-up visits, and can be contacted by telephone.
• Subject has signed a written informed consent form that has been approved by the local governing Institutional Review Board (IRB) of the respective clinical site.
• Subject is diagnosed with carotid artery stenosis treatable with carotid artery stenting via direct carotid access and is considered a high operative risk for carotid endarterectomy (CEA).
• Subject is diagnosed with either:
• Symptomatic carotid stenosis ≥ 50% as determined by angiography, CTA, or duplex ultrasound. Symptomatic is defined as having stroke, transient ischemic attack (TIA) in the ipsilateral hemisphere supplied by the target vessel carotid lesion or ipsilateral transient monocular blindness (amaurosis fugax) within 180 days prior to the procedure; or
• Asymptomatic carotid stenosis ≥ 70% as determined by angiography, CTA, or duplex ultrasound.
• Subject has a lesion located in the internal carotid artery (ICA) and/or common carotid artery (CCA).
• Subject has a modified Rankin Scale of ≤ 2 at the time of procedure.
• Females of child-bearing potential have a negative pregnancy test within 24 hours prior to the index procedure.
• Subject is willing and able to take dual anti platelet therapy for a minimum of 30 days following the index procedure.
• Subject meets at least one physiologic or one anatomic high-risk criteria. Anatomic High-Risk Conditions for CEA
• Target lesion at or above C2 (level of jaw). 2. Prior head and neck surgery in the region of the carotid artery. 3. Tracheostomy or tracheostoma. 4. Surgically inaccessible lesion or hostile neck which the investigator deems safe for direct carotid access including but not limited to:
• Prior neck irradiation
• Radial neck dissection
• Cervical spine immobility 5. Prior ipsilateral CEA. 6. Prior cranial nerve injury. 7. Severe tandem lesions. 8. Occlusion of the contralateral CCA or ICA. 9. Severe bilateral ICA stenosis. Physiological High-Risk Conditions for CEA
• Subject is ≥ 70 years of age (maximum 80 years) at the time of enrollment.
• Subject has NYHA Class III or IV congestive heart failure (CHF).
• Subject has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with FEV1 \< 50, on intermittent or chronic oxygen therapy, or a resting PO2 of ≤ 60 mmHg (room air). 4 Subject has left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≤ 35%. 5. Subject has angina class 3 or 4 or unstable angina. 6. Subject has a history of recent myocardial infarction (between 30 days and 6 weeks prior to index the procedure).
• Subject has coronary artery disease with two or more vessels with ≥ 70% stenosis.
• Subject has planned coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) or peripheral vascular surgery between 31 and 60 days after index procedure.
• Subject has restenosis following a prior carotid endarterectomy (CEA). Angiographic Inclusion Criteria
• Subject has a lesion located in the internal carotid artery (ICA) and/or common carotid artery (CCA).
• Single de novo or restenotic (post carotid endarterectomy \[CEA\]) target lesion or severe tandem lesions that can be covered by a single Neuroguard stent.
• Target lesion is treatable with a single stent of up to 40 mm in length.
• Index vessel diameter (segment covered by the mid-portion of the stent) is between 4.0 mm and 6.0 mm at the site of the target lesion.
• Distal vessel diameter at the site of Neuroguard filter deployment is between 4.0 mm and 7.0 mm.
• Distal common carotid artery diameter (segment covered by proximal portion of the stent) is between 4.0 mm and 8.0 mm.
• Sufficient landing zone exists in the cervical internal carotid artery distal to the target lesion to allow for the safe and successful deployment of the integrated Neuroguard filter.
• At least 5 cm of atherosclerosis free space in the ipsilateral common carotid artery between the sheath insertion site and the proximal edge of the target lesion.
• Common carotid artery reference diameter is at least 6 mm.
• Target vessel must meet diameter requirements as set forth in the Neuroguard IEP Direct System Instructions for Use (IFU). General Exclusion Criteria
• Life expectancy of less than one year in the opinion of the investigator at the time of enrollment.
• Currently requiring an organ transplantation.
• An evolving acute stroke
• Anticipated or existing potential sources of emboli including left ventricular aneurysm, aortic or mitral mechanical heart valve, severe calcific aortic stenosis (valve area \< 1.0 cm2), endocarditis, moderate to severe mitral stenosis, known previously symptomatic patent foramen ovale (PFO), left atrial thrombus, any intracardiac mass.
• Deep being thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE) treated within the past 12 months.
• Recently (\< 60 days) implanted heart valve.
• Subject has experienced any episode of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter within the past 6 months or has a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter requiring chronic anticoagulation.
• History of chronic atrial flutter or chronic atrial fibrillation.
• Anticoagulation with Phenprocoumon (Marcumar®), warfarin, direct thrombin inhibitors, or anti-Xa agents within 14 days of the index procedure.
• Subject with a known hypercoaguable state.
• Acute febrile illness (temperature ≥ 100.4°F or 38°C) or active infection.
• Subject with a SARS-CoV-2/COVID-19 infection within 21 days prior to the index procedure.
• Acute myocardial infarction \< 30 days prior to index procedure.
• Any major surgical procedure (i.e., intraabdominal or intrathoracic surgery or any surgery / interventional procedure involving cardiac or vascular system) 30 days prior to or within 30 days following the index procedure.
• History of disabling stroke with substantial residual disability (modified Rankin score ≥ 3).
• Subject has had a transient ischemic attack (TIA) or amaurosis fugax within 48 hours prior to the index procedure.
• Known severe carotid stenosis contralateral to the target lesion requiring treatment within 30 days of the index procedure.
• Any other neurological deficit not due to stroke that may confound neurological assessments.
• Subject has contralateral laryngeal or vagus nerve injury.
• Subject has severe dementia.
• Subject has intracranial tumor.
• Known hypersensitivity to nitinol or its components (e.g., nickel, titanium).
• History of intracranial hemorrhage within the 12 months prior to the index procedure.
• History of gastrointestinal (GI) bleed within 30 days prior to the index procedure that would interfere with antiplatelet therapy.
• Any condition that precludes proper angiographic assessment or makes direct carotid artery access unsafe (e.g., severe hepatic impairment, malignant hypertension, morbid obesity).
• Subject has less than 5 cm between the direct carotid access site and the proximal edge of the target lesion.
• Known hypersensitivity to contrast media that cannot be adequately premedicated.
• Hemoglobin (Hgb) \< 8 gm/dL, platelet count \< 100,000, international normalized ratio (INR) \> 1.5 (irreversible), or heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
• Subject has a serum creatinine \> 2.5 mg/dL on the day of the index procedure.
• History or current indication of bleeding diathesis or coagulopathy including thrombocytopenia or an inability to receive heparin in amounts sufficient to maintain an activated clotting time (ACT) at ≥ 250 seconds, or uncorrectable severe anemia.
• Contraindication, intollerance or allergy to standard of care study medications, including antiplatelet therapy or aspirin.
• Previously enrolled in this study or currently enrolled in another interventional device or drug study that has not yet reached the primary endpoint.
• Potential for subject non-compliance with protocol-required follow up or antiplatelet medication in the opinion of the investigator.
• Subject is otherwise unsuitable for intervention or surgery in the opinion of the investigator. Angiographic Exclusion Criteria
• Total occlusion of the target carotid artery.
• Previously placed stent in the target vessel or the planned arteriotomy site.
• Excessive circumferential calcification of the target lesion, defined as \> 3 mm of thickness of calcification seen in orthogonal views on fluoroscopy or on CTA.
• Qualitative characteristics of ipsilateral common carotid artery, ipsilateral external carotid artery, or target lesion that preclude or make difficult the safe introduction of the direct access sheath.
• Angiographic evidence of a mobile filling defect or fresh thrombus in the target carotid artery.
• Presence of "string sign" of the target lesion (a sub-totally occluded, long segment of the true lumen of the artery with markedly reduced contrast flow).
• Non-atherosclerotic carotid stenosis (e.g., dissection, fibromuscular dysplasia).
• Proximal/ostial CCA stenosis ≥ 50% or intracranial stenosis more severe than the target lesion.
• Subject in whom direct carotid access is not possible, including severe tortuosity or stenosis that requires additional endovascular procedures or that prevents safe and expeditious vascular access.
• Subject with intracranial pathology, that in the opinion of the investigator, makes the patient inappropriate for study participation (e.g., arteriovenous malformation, intracranial tumor, microangiopathy or large vessel cerebral vascular disease, etc.) or that would confound the neurological evaluation.
• Angiographic, CT, MR or ultrasound evidence of atherosclerosis of the common carotid artery that would preclude or make difficult safe placement of the sheath and other endovascular devices to the target artery as needed for carotid stenting.
• Angiographic, CT, MR or ultrasound evidence of severe tortuosity of the cervical internal carotid artery. Severe vascular tortuosity is defined as 2 or more bends of 90 degrees or more within 4 cm of the target lesion.
• Angiographic, CT, MR or ultrasound evidence of angulation or tortuosity (≥ 90 degree) of the common carotid artery (CCA) that will transmit a severe loop to the internal carotid after sheath placement.
• Subject with \> 50% stenosis in the common carotid artery (CCA) proximal to the target lesion.
• Male and non-pregnant, non-breastfeeding female subjects whose age is ≥ 20 or ≤ 80 years of age.
• Subject is willing and capable of complying with and understands all study protocol requirements, including the specified follow-up visits, and can be contacted by telephone.
• Subject has signed a written informed consent form that has been approved by the local governing Institutional Review Board (IRB) of the respective clinical site.
• Subject is diagnosed with carotid artery stenosis treatable with carotid artery stenting via direct carotid access and is considered a high operative risk for carotid endarterectomy (CEA).
• Subject is diagnosed with either:
• Symptomatic carotid stenosis ≥ 50% as determined by angiography, CTA, or duplex ultrasound. Symptomatic is defined as having stroke, transient ischemic attack (TIA) in the ipsilateral hemisphere supplied by the target vessel carotid lesion or ipsilateral transient monocular blindness (amaurosis fugax) within 180 days prior to the procedure; or
• Asymptomatic carotid stenosis ≥ 70% as determined by angiography, CTA, or duplex ultrasound.
• Subject has a lesion located in the internal carotid artery (ICA) and/or common carotid artery (CCA).
• Subject has a modified Rankin Scale of ≤ 2 at the time of procedure.
• Females of child-bearing potential have a negative pregnancy test within 24 hours prior to the index procedure.
• Subject is willing and able to take dual anti platelet therapy for a minimum of 30 days following the index procedure.
• Subject meets at least one physiologic or one anatomic high-risk criteria. Anatomic High-Risk Conditions for CEA
• Target lesion at or above C2 (level of jaw). 2. Prior head and neck surgery in the region of the carotid artery. 3. Tracheostomy or tracheostoma. 4. Surgically inaccessible lesion or hostile neck which the investigator deems safe for direct carotid access including but not limited to:
• Prior neck irradiation
• Radial neck dissection
• Cervical spine immobility 5. Prior ipsilateral CEA. 6. Prior cranial nerve injury. 7. Severe tandem lesions. 8. Occlusion of the contralateral CCA or ICA. 9. Severe bilateral ICA stenosis. Physiological High-Risk Conditions for CEA
• Subject is ≥ 70 years of age (maximum 80 years) at the time of enrollment.
• Subject has NYHA Class III or IV congestive heart failure (CHF).
• Subject has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with FEV1 \< 50, on intermittent or chronic oxygen therapy, or a resting PO2 of ≤ 60 mmHg (room air). 4 Subject has left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≤ 35%. 5. Subject has angina class 3 or 4 or unstable angina. 6. Subject has a history of recent myocardial infarction (between 30 days and 6 weeks prior to index the procedure).
• Subject has coronary artery disease with two or more vessels with ≥ 70% stenosis.
• Subject has planned coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) or peripheral vascular surgery between 31 and 60 days after index procedure.
• Subject has restenosis following a prior carotid endarterectomy (CEA). Angiographic Inclusion Criteria
• Subject has a lesion located in the internal carotid artery (ICA) and/or common carotid artery (CCA).
• Single de novo or restenotic (post carotid endarterectomy \[CEA\]) target lesion or severe tandem lesions that can be covered by a single Neuroguard stent.
• Target lesion is treatable with a single stent of up to 40 mm in length.
• Index vessel diameter (segment covered by the mid-portion of the stent) is between 4.0 mm and 6.0 mm at the site of the target lesion.
• Distal vessel diameter at the site of Neuroguard filter deployment is between 4.0 mm and 7.0 mm.
• Distal common carotid artery diameter (segment covered by proximal portion of the stent) is between 4.0 mm and 8.0 mm.
• Sufficient landing zone exists in the cervical internal carotid artery distal to the target lesion to allow for the safe and successful deployment of the integrated Neuroguard filter.
• At least 5 cm of atherosclerosis free space in the ipsilateral common carotid artery between the sheath insertion site and the proximal edge of the target lesion.
• Common carotid artery reference diameter is at least 6 mm.
• Target vessel must meet diameter requirements as set forth in the Neuroguard IEP Direct System Instructions for Use (IFU). General Exclusion Criteria
• Life expectancy of less than one year in the opinion of the investigator at the time of enrollment.
• Currently requiring an organ transplantation.
• An evolving acute stroke
• Anticipated or existing potential sources of emboli including left ventricular aneurysm, aortic or mitral mechanical heart valve, severe calcific aortic stenosis (valve area \< 1.0 cm2), endocarditis, moderate to severe mitral stenosis, known previously symptomatic patent foramen ovale (PFO), left atrial thrombus, any intracardiac mass.
• Deep being thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE) treated within the past 12 months.
• Recently (\< 60 days) implanted heart valve.
• Subject has experienced any episode of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter within the past 6 months or has a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter requiring chronic anticoagulation.
• History of chronic atrial flutter or chronic atrial fibrillation.
• Anticoagulation with Phenprocoumon (Marcumar®), warfarin, direct thrombin inhibitors, or anti-Xa agents within 14 days of the index procedure.
• Subject with a known hypercoaguable state.
• Acute febrile illness (temperature ≥ 100.4°F or 38°C) or active infection.
• Subject with a SARS-CoV-2/COVID-19 infection within 21 days prior to the index procedure.
• Acute myocardial infarction \< 30 days prior to index procedure.
• Any major surgical procedure (i.e., intraabdominal or intrathoracic surgery or any surgery / interventional procedure involving cardiac or vascular system) 30 days prior to or within 30 days following the index procedure.
• History of disabling stroke with substantial residual disability (modified Rankin score ≥ 3).
• Subject has had a transient ischemic attack (TIA) or amaurosis fugax within 48 hours prior to the index procedure.
• Known severe carotid stenosis contralateral to the target lesion requiring treatment within 30 days of the index procedure.
• Any other neurological deficit not due to stroke that may confound neurological assessments.
• Subject has contralateral laryngeal or vagus nerve injury.
• Subject has severe dementia.
• Subject has intracranial tumor.
• Known hypersensitivity to nitinol or its components (e.g., nickel, titanium).
• History of intracranial hemorrhage within the 12 months prior to the index procedure.
• History of gastrointestinal (GI) bleed within 30 days prior to the index procedure that would interfere with antiplatelet therapy.
• Any condition that precludes proper angiographic assessment or makes direct carotid artery access unsafe (e.g., severe hepatic impairment, malignant hypertension, morbid obesity).
• Subject has less than 5 cm between the direct carotid access site and the proximal edge of the target lesion.
• Known hypersensitivity to contrast media that cannot be adequately premedicated.
• Hemoglobin (Hgb) \< 8 gm/dL, platelet count \< 100,000, international normalized ratio (INR) \> 1.5 (irreversible), or heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
• Subject has a serum creatinine \> 2.5 mg/dL on the day of the index procedure.
• History or current indication of bleeding diathesis or coagulopathy including thrombocytopenia or an inability to receive heparin in amounts sufficient to maintain an activated clotting time (ACT) at ≥ 250 seconds, or uncorrectable severe anemia.
• Contraindication, intollerance or allergy to standard of care study medications, including antiplatelet therapy or aspirin.
• Previously enrolled in this study or currently enrolled in another interventional device or drug study that has not yet reached the primary endpoint.
• Potential for subject non-compliance with protocol-required follow up or antiplatelet medication in the opinion of the investigator.
• Subject is otherwise unsuitable for intervention or surgery in the opinion of the investigator. Angiographic Exclusion Criteria
• Total occlusion of the target carotid artery.
• Previously placed stent in the target vessel or the planned arteriotomy site.
• Excessive circumferential calcification of the target lesion, defined as \> 3 mm of thickness of calcification seen in orthogonal views on fluoroscopy or on CTA.
• Qualitative characteristics of ipsilateral common carotid artery, ipsilateral external carotid artery, or target lesion that preclude or make difficult the safe introduction of the direct access sheath.
• Angiographic evidence of a mobile filling defect or fresh thrombus in the target carotid artery.
• Presence of "string sign" of the target lesion (a sub-totally occluded, long segment of the true lumen of the artery with markedly reduced contrast flow).
• Non-atherosclerotic carotid stenosis (e.g., dissection, fibromuscular dysplasia).
• Proximal/ostial CCA stenosis ≥ 50% or intracranial stenosis more severe than the target lesion.
• Subject in whom direct carotid access is not possible, including severe tortuosity or stenosis that requires additional endovascular procedures or that prevents safe and expeditious vascular access.
• Subject with intracranial pathology, that in the opinion of the investigator, makes the patient inappropriate for study participation (e.g., arteriovenous malformation, intracranial tumor, microangiopathy or large vessel cerebral vascular disease, etc.) or that would confound the neurological evaluation.
• Angiographic, CT, MR or ultrasound evidence of atherosclerosis of the common carotid artery that would preclude or make difficult safe placement of the sheath and other endovascular devices to the target artery as needed for carotid stenting.
• Angiographic, CT, MR or ultrasound evidence of severe tortuosity of the cervical internal carotid artery. Severe vascular tortuosity is defined as 2 or more bends of 90 degrees or more within 4 cm of the target lesion.
• Angiographic, CT, MR or ultrasound evidence of angulation or tortuosity (≥ 90 degree) of the common carotid artery (CCA) that will transmit a severe loop to the internal carotid after sheath placement.
• Subject with \> 50% stenosis in the common carotid artery (CCA) proximal to the target lesion.
DEVICE: Neuroguard IEP Direct System
Carotid Stenosis, Carotid Artery Diseases, Cardiovascular
carotid artery stent
UT Southwestern
Optimization of Saturation Targets and Resuscitation Trial (OptiSTART) (OptiSTART)
This study is designed to answer one of the fundamental gaps in knowledge in the resuscitation of preterm infants at birth: What is the optimal target oxygen saturation (SpO2) range that increases survival without long-term morbidities? Oxygen (O2) is routinely used for the stabilization of preterm infants in the delivery room (DR), but its use is linked with mortality and several morbidities including bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD). To balance the need to give sufficient O2 to correct hypoxia and avoid excess O2, the neonatal resuscitation program (NRP) recommends initiating preterm resuscitation with low (≤ 30%) inspired O2 concentration (FiO2) and subsequent titration to achieve a specified target SpO2 range. These SpO2 targets are based on approximated 50th percentile SpO2 (Sat50) observed in healthy term infants. However, the optimal SpO2 targets remain undefined in the preterm infants. Recent data suggest that the current SpO2 targets (Sat50) may be too low. The investigators plan to conduct a multicenter RCT of Sat75 versus Sat50 powered for survival without BPD. The investigators will randomize 700 infants, 23 0/7- 30 6/7 weeks' GA, to 75th percentile SpO2 goals (Sat75, Intervention) or 50th percentile SpO2 goals (Sat50, control). Except for the SpO2 targets, all resuscitations will follow NRP guidelines including an initial FiO2 of 0.3. In Aim 1, the investigators will determine whether targeting Sat75 compared to Sat50 increases survival without lung disease (BPD). In addition, the investigators will compare the rates of other major morbidities such as IVH. In Aim 2, the investigators will determine whether targeting Sat75 compared to Sat50 increases survival without neurodevelopmental impairment at 2 years of age. In Aim 3, the investigators will determine whether targeting Sat75 compared to Sat50 decreases oxidative stress.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, shelby.unger@UTSouthwestern.edu
Vishal Kapadia
ALL
0 Minutes to 10 Minutes old
NA
NCT05849077
STU-2022-0441
Inclusion Criteria:
-Neonates with OB gestational age 22-30 weeks
Exclusion Criteria:
* Prenatally diagnosed cyanotic congenital heart disease
* Prenatally diagnosed congenital diaphragmatic hernia
* Parents request no resuscitation
* If preductal saturations can not be measured by 3 minutes after pulse oximeter sensor is applied to the newborn OTHER: Sat75, OTHER: Sat50
Premature Infants, Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia, Intraventricular Hemorrhage, Neurodevelopmental Outcomes
neonatal resuscitation, oxygen
Children’s Health; Parkland Health & Hospital System
A Study With Tovorafenib (DAY101) as a Treatment Option for Progressive, Relapsed, or Refractory Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis
This phase II trial tests the safety, side effects, best dose and activity of tovorafenib (DAY101) in treating patients with Langerhans cell histiocytosis that is growing, spreading, or getting worse (progressive), has come back (relapsed) after previous treatment, or does not respond to therapy (refractory). Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a type of disease that occurs when the body makes too many immature Langerhans cells (a type of white blood cell). When these cells build up, they can form tumors in certain tissues and organs including bones, skin, lungs and pituitary gland and can damage them. This tumor is more common in children and young adults. DAY101 may stop the growth of cancer cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Using DAY101 may be effective in treating patients with relapsed or refractory Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Erin Butler
ALL
180 Days to 22 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05828069
STU-2023-0818
Inclusion Criteria:
* 180 days- \< 22 years (at time of study enrollment)
* Patient must have a body surface area of ≥ 0.3 m\^2
* Patients with progressive, relapsed, or recurrent LCH with measurable disease at study entry
* Patients must have had histologic verification of LCH (from either original diagnosis or relapse/progression) at the time of study entry (must be obtained within 28 days prior to enrollment and start of protocol therapy) (repeat if necessary)
* Tissue confirmation of relapse is recommended but not required
* Pathology report must be submitted for central confirmation of diagnosis within 7 days of enrollment.
* Formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) blocks or unstained slides (initial diagnosis and/or subsequent biopsies) will be required for retrospective central confirmation of diagnosis and molecular studies
* Patients with mixed histiocytic disorders (e.g. LCH with juvenile xanthogranuloma) may be included
* Patients must have measurable disease, documented by radiographic imaging (LCH- specific response criteria (must be obtained within 28 days prior to enrollment and start of protocol therapy) (repeat if necessary).
* Patients must have progressive or refractory disease or experience relapse after at least one previous systemic treatment strategy
* Pathogenic somatic mutation detected in genes encoding tyrosine kinase receptors (CSFR1, ERBB3 or ALK), RAS or RAF (may be from original or subsequent biopsy or peripheral blood/bone marrow aspirate). Clinical mutation reports may include quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) (e.g. BRAFV600E) and/or Sanger or next generation sequencing. Immunohistochemistry (e.g. VE1 antibody for BRAFV600E) alone is not sufficient
* Participant must be able to take an enteral dose and formulation of medication. Study medication is only available as an oral suspension or tablet, which may be taken by mouth or other enteral route such as nasogastric, jejunostomy, or gastric tube
* Karnofsky \>= 50% for patients \> 16 years of age and Lansky \>= 50% for patients =\< 16 years of age
* Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1 or 2. Use Karnofsky for patients \> 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =\< 16 years of age
* Myelosuppressive chemotherapy: Patients must not have received within 14 days of entry onto this study
* Investigational agent or any other anticancer therapy not defined above: Patients must not have received any investigational agent or any other anticancer therapy (including MAPK pathway inhibitor) for at least 14 days prior to planned start of tovorafenib (DAY101)
* Radiation therapy (RT): Patient must not have received RT within 2 weeks after the last dose fraction of RT
* Patients must have fully recovered from any prior surgery
* Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, targeted inhibitor, and/or radiotherapy with toxicities reduced to grade 1 or less (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events \[CTCAE\] version 5.0)
* Steroids: =\< 0.5 mg/kg/day of prednisone equivalent (maximum 20 mg/day) averaged during the month prior to study enrollment is permissible
* Strong inducers or inhibitors of CYP2C8 are prohibited for 14 days before the first dose of tovorafenib (DAY101) and from planned administration for the duration of study participation
* Medications that are breast cancer resistant protein (BCRP) substrates that have a narrow therapeutic index are prohibited for 14 days before the first dose of tovorafenib (DAY101) and for the duration of study participation
* Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \>= 750/uL unless secondary to bone marrow involvement, in such cases bone marrow involvement must be documented (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment, must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Platelet count \>= 75,000/uL (unsupported/without transfusion within the past 7 days) (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment, must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Patients with marrow disease must have platelet count of \>= 75,000/uL (transfusion support allowed) and must not be refractory to platelet transfusions. Bone marrow involvement must be documented
* Hemoglobin \>= 8 g/dL (unsupported/without transfusion within the past 7 days). Patients with marrow disease must have hemoglobin \>= 8 g/dL (transfusion support allowed). Bone marrow involvement must be documented
* Hematopoietic growth factors: At least 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g., Neulasta \[registered trademark\]) or 7 days for short-acting growth factor
* A serum creatinine based on age/sex as follows (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment, must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Age: 6 months to \< 1 year; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL):= 0.5 mg/dl (male and female)
* Age: 1 to \< 2 years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL): = 0.6 mg/dl (male and female)
* Age: 2 to \< 6 years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL): = 0.8 mg/dl (male and female)
* Age: 6 to \< 10 years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL): = 1.0 mg/dl (male and female)
* Age: 10 to \< 13 years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL): = 1.2 mg/dl (male and female)
* 13 to \< 16 years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL): = 1.5 mg/dl (male) and 1.4 mg/dl (female)
* Age: \>= 16 years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL): = 1.7 mg/dl (male) and 1.4 mg/dl (female)
* OR- a 24 hour urine creatinine clearance \>= 50 mL/min/1.73 m\^2
* OR- a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) \>= 50 mL/min/1.73 m\^2. GFR must be performed using direct measurement with a nuclear blood sampling method OR direct small molecule clearance method (iothalamate or other molecule per institutional standard)
* Note: Estimated GFR (eGFR) from serum creatinine, cystatin C or other estimates are not acceptable for determining eligibility
* Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated) =\< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment, must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =\< 3 x ULN for age (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment, must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Serum albumin \>= 2 g/dl must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment, must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* For patients with liver disease caused by their histiocytic disorder (as evaluated on radiographic imaging or biopsy): patients may be enrolled with abnormal bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase (AST), ALT and albumin with documentation of histiocytic liver disease
* Fractional shortening (FS) of \>= 25% or ejection fraction of \>= 50%, as determined by echocardiography or multigated acquisition scan (MUGA) within 28 days prior to study enrollment. Depending on institutional standard, either FS or left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) is adequate for enrollment if only one value is measured; if both values are measured, then both values must meet criteria above (must be obtained within 28 days prior to enrollment and start of protocol therapy) (repeat if necessary)
* No evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry \> 94% if there is clinical indication for determination; unless it is due to underlying pulmonary LCH
* Central Nervous System Function Defined As:
* Patients with seizure disorder may be enrolled if well controlled
* Central nervous system (CNS) toxicity =\< Grade 2
* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial unless antiretroviral therapy interacts with the metabolism of tovorafenib (DAY101) and cannot safely be changed to antivirals that do not interact with study medication
Exclusion Criteria:
* LCH arising along with other hematologic malignancy (e.g. mixed LCH with acute lymphoblastic leukemia) or any history of non-histiocytic malignancy
* Disease scenarios as below will be excluded
* Skin-limited disease
* Gastrointestinal (GI) tract involvement only (those that have disease that can be determined by endoscopic biopsies only)
* LCH-associated neurodegeneration (LCH-ND) without parenchymal lesions or other systemic lesions
* Patients with activating mutations in MAP2K1 are not eligible for this study due to drug target specificity. Mutation status will be submitted to study team within 7 days of enrollment
* Refractory nausea and vomiting, malabsorption, or external biliary shunt that would preclude adequate absorption of tovorafenib (DAY101)
* Uncontrolled systemic bacterial, viral, or fungal infection
* Major surgical procedure or significant traumatic injury within 14 days prior to study enrollment, or anticipation of need for major surgical procedure during the course of the study. Placement of a vascular access device or minor surgery is permitted within fourteen (14) days of study enrollment (provided that the wound has healed)
* History of significant bowel resection that would preclude adequate absorption or other significant malabsorptive disease
* Ophthalmologic considerations: Patients with known significant ophthalmologic conditions or known risk factors for retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) are not eligible
* History of solid organ or hematopoietic bone marrow transplantation
* Clinically significant active cardiovascular disease, or history of myocardial infarction, or deep vein thrombosis/pulmonary embolism within 6 months prior to enrollment, ongoing cardiomyopathy, or current prolonged QT interval \> 440 ms based on triplicate electrocardiogram (ECG) average
* History of Grade \>= 2 CNS hemorrhage or history of any CNS hemorrhage within 28 days of study entry
* History of any drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS) syndrome or Stevens Johnsons syndrome (SJS) or who are allergic to tovorafenib (DAY101) or any of its components
* CTCAE version (V). 5.0 Grade 3 symptomatic creatinine kinase (CPK) elevation ( \> 5 x ULN)
* Female patients who are pregnant are ineligible. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
* Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants are ineligible
* Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation are ineligible. Women of childbearing potential must use non-hormonal contraception during tovorafenib treatment and for at least 28 days after the last dose. Men should use effective contraception and must not father a child while taking tovorafenib and for 14 days after the last dose PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, PROCEDURE: Bone Marrow Aspiration, PROCEDURE: Bone Marrow Biopsy, PROCEDURE: Computed Tomography, PROCEDURE: Echocardiography Test, PROCEDURE: FDG-Positron Emission Tomography and Computed Tomography Scan, PROCEDURE: Lumbar Puncture, PROCEDURE: Multigated Acquisition Scan, DRUG: Tovorafenib
Recurrent Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis, Refractory Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis, Bones and Joints, Other Skin, Brain and Nervous System, Liver, Lung/Thoracic, Other Hematopoietic, Small Intestine
Children’s Health
The Rhythm Evaluation for AntiCoagulaTion With Continuous Monitoring of Atrial Fibrillation (REACT-AF)
REACT-AF is a multicenter prospective, randomized, open-label, blinded endpoint (PROBE design), controlled trial comparing the current Standard Of Care (SOC) of continuous Direct Oral Anticoagulation (DOAC) use versus time-delimited (1 month) DOAC guided by an AF-sensing Smart Watch (AFSW) in participants with a history of paroxysmal or persistent Atrial Fibrillation (AF) and low-to-moderate stroke risk.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Vukile.Mlambo@utsouthwestern.edu
Mark Link
ALL
22 Years to 85 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05836987
STU-2023-0473
Inclusion Criteria:
• 22-85 years of age.
• English speaking participants. Spanish-only speakers may be included in the future at select sites appropriately translated.
• History of non-permanent atrial fibrillation.
• CHA2DS2-VASC score of 1-4 for men and 2-4 for women without prior stroke or Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA), The CHA2DS2-VASc score is a point-based system used to stratify the risk of stroke in Atrial Fibrillation (AF) patients. The acronym CHA2DS2-VASc stands for congestive heart failure, hypertension, age ≥75 (doubled), diabetes, stroke (doubled), vascular disease, age 65 to 74 and sex category (female). Congestive heart failure defined as: The presence of signs and symptoms of either right (elevated central venous pressure, hepatomegaly, dependent edema) or left ventricular failure (exertional dyspnea, cough, fatigue, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, cardiac enlargement, rales, gallop rhythm, pulmonary venous congestion) or both, confirmed by non-invasive or invasive measurements demonstrating objective evidence of cardiac dysfunction and/or ejection fraction \< 40%.
• The participant is on a DOAC at the time of screening and willing to stay on DOAC for duration of study.
• Willing and able to comply with the protocol, including: * Possession of a smart watch-compatible smart phone (iPhone that supports the latest shipping iOS) with a cellular service plan * Be willing to wear the smart watch for the suggested minimum of 14 hours a day * Expected to be within cellular service range at least 80% of the time
• Willing and able to discontinue DOAC
• The participant is willing and able to provide informed consent.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Valvular or permanent atrial fibrillation.
• Current treatment with warfarin and unwilling or unable to take a DOAC.
• The participant is a woman who is pregnant or nursing.
• The participant is being treated with chronic aspirin, another anti-platelet agent, or chronic NSAIDS outside of current medical guidelines (e.g., primary stroke prevention in patients with atrial fibrillation, primary prevention of cardiovascular events, pain relief, fever, gout) and is unwilling or unable to discontinue use for the study duration.
• Existing cardiac rhythm device or indication for a permanent pacemaker, Implantable Cardioverter-Defibrillator (ICD) or Cardiac Resynchronization Therapy (CRT) device or planned insertable cardiac monitor. Insertable cardiac monitors are permitted unless they are being used to guide anticoagulation treatment.
• Known or suspected symptomatic or asymptomatic atrial fibrillation lasting ≥ 1 hour/month over the last 3 months.
• Any documented single AF episode lasting ≥ 1 hour on standard of care or study-provided external cardiac monitor of \> 6 days duration performed within 45 days prior to randomization. Shorter monitoring durations may be acceptable for inclusion at the discretion of the site PI based on the totality of monitoring data and approval of the study PI.
• Ablation for AF within the last 2 months.
• Prior or anticipated left atrial appendage occlusion or ligation.
• Mechanical prosthetic valve(s) or severe valve disease.
• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
• Participant needs DOAC for reasons other than preventing stroke or arterial embolism resulting from AF (i.e., preventing Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) or PE) or needs permanent OAC (i.e., congenital heart defects, prosthetic heart valve).
• Participants deemed high risk for non-cardioembolic stroke (i.e., significant carotid artery disease defined as stenosis \> 75%) based on the investigator's discretion.
• The participant is enrolled, has participated within the last 30 days, or is planning to participate in a concurrent drug and/or device study during the course of this clinical trial. Co-enrollment in concurrent trials is only allowed with documented pre-approval from the study manager; there is no concern that co-enrollment could confound the results of this trial.
• The participant has a tattoo, birthmark, or surgical scar over the dorsal wrist area on the ipsilateral side that the AFSW may be worn.
• The participant has a tremor on their ipsilateral side that the AFSW may be worn.
• Any concomitant condition that, in the investigator's opinion, would not allow safe participation in the study (e.g., drug addiction, alcohol abuse).
• Known hypersensitivity or contraindication to direct oral anticoagulants.
• Documented prior stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic) or transient ischemic attack.
• Reversible causes of AF (e.g., cardiac surgery, pulmonary embolism, untreated hyperthyroidism). AF ablation does not constitute reversible AF.
• \> 5% burden of premature atrial or ventricular depolarizations on pre-enrollment cardiac monitoring.
• History of atrial flutter that has not been treated with ablation (participants in atrial flutter and have been ablated are eligible for enrollment).
• Stage 4 or 5 chronic kidney disease.
• Conditions associated with an increased risk of bleeding: * Major surgery in the previous month * Planned surgery or intervention in the next three months that would require cessation of anticoagulation \> 2 weeks. * History of intracranial, intraocular, spinal, retroperitoneal, or atraumatic intra- articular bleeding * Gastrointestinal hemorrhage within the past year unless the cause has been permanently eliminated (e.g., by surgery) * Symptomatic or endoscopically documented gastroduodenal ulcer disease in the previous 30 days * Hemorrhagic disorder or bleeding diathesis * Need for anticoagulant treatment for disorders other than AF * Uncontrolled hypertension (Systolic Blood Pressure \>180 mmHg and/or Diastolic Blood Pressure \>100 mmHg)
DEVICE: AFSW Guided DOAC, DRUG: Continuous DOAC therapy
Atrial Fibrillation, Heart
Atrial Fibrillation, Anticoagulation, AF-sensing Smart Watch, Ischemic Stroke, Systemic Embolism
UT Southwestern
A Long-term, Post-marketing Safety Study of Palynziq in Patients With PKU (PALace) (PALace)
This is a 10-year multi-center, global, observational study to further characterize the safety profile of pegvaliase, including hypersensitivity reactions, long-term safety and tolerability, and the effectiveness of the additional risk minimization measures (aRMMs) (European Union (EU) only) in subjects receiving pegvaliase for the treatment of PKU. Subjects for whom a clinical decision has been made that they will receive pegvaliase to treat their PKU within 30 days following the date of enrollment (incident-users) or have previously started treatment with pegvaliase at the date of enrollment (prevalent-users) are eligible for participation in this study.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Juana.Luevano@UTSouthwestern.edu
Markey McNutt
All
Not specified
NCT05813678
STU-2023-0263
Inclusion Criteria:
• Documented diagnosis of PKU per local standard of care
• Currently receiving or planned to receive pegvaliase treatment within 30 days after the date of enrollment, including subjects who previously received pegvaliase as part of the clinical development program and have completed study participation.
• Subject (or legally authorized representative) is willing and able to provide written informed consent after the nature of the study has been explained and prior to any data collection.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Subject has any kind of disorder that, in the opinion of the investigator, may compromise the ability of the subject to give written informed consent and/or comply with any aspect of the study.
• Currently participating in an interventional study of any investigational product, device, or procedure
• Previously enrolled in this study (eg, subjects who have been withdrawn from the study and wish to participate again at a later date)
• German subjects <16 years if age
Drug: Pegvaliase
Phenylketonuria (PKU), Other Endocrine System
Observational, Safety Study, Pegvaliase, Palynziq, PKU, Phenylketonuria, Phase 4
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
A Study to Compare Iberdomide Maintenance Versus Lenalidomide Maintenance Therapy Following Autologous Stem Cell Transplant in Participants With Newly Diagnosed Multiple Myeloma
The purpose of this study is to compare the effectiveness of iberdomide maintenance to lenalidomide maintenance therapy after autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT) in participants with newly diagnosed multiple myeloma (NDMM).
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Larry Anderson
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE3
NCT05827016
STU-2023-0468
Inclusion Criteria
* Confirmed diagnosis of symptomatic multiple myeloma (MM).
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group performance status (ECOG) score of 0, 1, or 2.
* Received 3 to 6 cycles of an induction therapy that includes a proteasome inhibitor (PI) and immunomodulatory (IMiD) \[eg, bortezomib thalidomide and dexamethasone (VTd), lenalidomide, bortezomib and dexamethasone (RVd)\] with or without a CD38 monoclonal antibody, daratumumab + bortezomib/thalidomide/dexamethasone \[D-VTd\] and daratumumab + bortezomib/ lenalidomide/dexamethasone \[D-VRd\]), or VCd / daratumumab + bortezomib/cyclophosphamide/dexamethasone \[D-VCd\], and followed by a single or tandem autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT). Post-stem cell transplant consolidation is permitted.
* Participants within 12 months (single transplant) or 15 months (tandem transplant) from initiation of induction therapy who achieved at least a partial response (PR) after autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT) with or without consolidation, according to International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG 2016) criteria.
Exclusion Criteria
* Progressive disease or clinical relapse (as defined by IMWG response criteria) following ASCT with or without consolidation or is not responsive to primary therapy.
* Smoldering myeloma, solitary plasmacytoma or nonsecretory myeloma.
* Known central nervous system/meningeal involvement of MM.
* Prior history of malignancies, other than MM, unless the participant has been free of the disease for ≥ 5 years.
* Other protocol-defined Inclusion/Exclusion criteria apply.
DRUG: Iberdomide, DRUG: Lenalidomide
Multiple Myeloma
Multiple Myeloma, Iberdomide, CC-220, Lenalidomide, MM, NDMM, Maintenance, Autologous stem cell transplant, ASCT, CELMoD, Cereblon Modulators
UT Southwestern
Long Term Efficacy and Safety of Orlistat for Type 1 Hyperlipoproteinemia
Type I hyperlipoproteinemia (T1HLP, also known as familial chylomicronemia syndrome or FCS) is a rare diseasewhere the blood triglycerides (fats) are very high. It is caused by lack of certain enzymes and proteins in the bodythat are important in disposing circulating fats from blood. Treatment of T1HLP patients who have very high levels of blood fats (≥ 1,000 mg/dL) is challenging as conventional triglyceride-lowering medications, such as fibrates and fishoil, are ineffective. The purpose of this trial is to study the long-term efficacy and safety of orlistat for reducing blood triglyceride levels in patients with T1HLP.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, CHANDNA.VASANDANI@UTSouthwestern.edu
Abhimanyu Garg
ALL
8 Years to 70 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05816343
STU-2019-0776
* Type I hyperlipoproteinemia confirmed by bi-allelic disease-causing variants in any one of the T1HLP genes (LPL, APOC2, APOA5, LMF1, GPIHBP1, or GCKR).
* Subjects who have a fasting TG greater than or equal to 750 mg/dL at the end of run-in period of 8 weeks will be eligible for randomization.
* Age ≥ 8 years
* Well controlled diabetes mellitus with hemoglobin A1c \< 8%
* Off orlistat for a period of 2 months
Exclusion Criteria:
* Secondary hypertriglyceridemia due to diabetes, renal disease, , alcoholism and drug therapy such as estrogens and estrogen analogues, steroids, HIV-1 protease inhibitors, retinoic acid derivatives, interferons, or lasparaginase.
* On lomitapide or participating in clinical trial of volanesorsen and olezarsen
* On cyclosporine
* Having serum TSH outside of the normal range if on levothyroxine supplementation.
* Use of levothyroxine to suppress TSH in individuals with thyroid cancer.
* Pregnant or lactating women
* Significant liver disease (elevated transaminases \> 2 times upper limit of normal)
* Alcohol abuse (\> 7 drinks or 84 g per week for women and \> 14 drinks or 168 g per week for men)
* Severe anemia (hematocrit \< 24%)
* Illicit drug use (cocaine, marijuana, LSD, etc.)
* Major surgery in the past three months
* Congestive heart failure
* Serum creatinine greater than 2.5 mg/dL
* Cancer within the past five years
* Gastrointestinal surgery in the past
* Current therapy with anti-coagulants, digoxin and anti-arrhythmics
* Chronic malabsorption syndromes
* Cholestasis
* Acute illnesses such as acute pancreatitis in the last 8 weeks
* Previous history of renal calcium oxalate stones DRUG: Orlistat, DRUG: Placebo
Type 1 Hyperlipoprotenemia
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Pembrolizumab vs. Observation in People With Triple-negative Breast Cancer Who Had a Pathologic Complete Response After Chemotherapy Plus Pembrolizumab
The phase III trial compares the effect of pembrolizumab to observation for the treatment of patients with early-stage triple-negative breast cancer who achieved a pathologic complete response after preoperative chemotherapy in combination with pembrolizumab. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as pembrolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. This trial may help researchers determine if observation will result in the same risk of cancer coming back as pembrolizumab after surgery in triple-negative breast cancer patients who achieve pathologic complete response after preoperative chemotherapy with pembrolizumab.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Heather McArthur
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE3
NCT05812807
STU-2023-0742
Inclusion Criteria:
* Age \>= 18 years
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status 0-2
* Triple Negative Breast Cancer:
* Patients with a history of stage T1cN1-2 or T2-4N0-2 breast cancer according to the primary tumor-regional lymph node anatomic staging criteria of the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC), 8th edition as determined by the investigator in radiologic assessment, clinical assessment or both
* Patients must have no residual invasive disease in the breast or lymph nodes after the completion of neoadjuvant therapy. Residual ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is allowed. Isolated tumor cells are considered node-negative
* Estrogen (ER) and progesterone (PR) =\< 10%; HER2-negative by American Society of Clinical Oncology (ASCO)/College of American Pathologists (CAP) guidelines (immunohistochemistry \[IHC\] and fluorescence in situ hybridization \[FISH\])
* If invasive disease was present in both breasts, participation in the study is permitted as long as the eligibility criteria are met for both tumors/breasts
* Patients must have received neoadjuvant chemotherapy in combination with pembrolizumab for a minimum of 6 cycles. All systemic chemotherapy and ICI therapy should have been completed preoperatively
* An interval of no more than 12 weeks between the completion date of the final surgery and the date of randomization
\* Note: Adjuvant radiation can be given on study. If given, it is encouraged to be given concurrently with pembrolizumab, per investigator discretion. Treatment with adjuvant pembrolizumab is strongly discouraged prior to participation in this trial, but if administered (e.g., if patients are awaiting pathology results), pembrolizumab may be administered for up to 6 weeks post-surgery and must be completed prior to registration
* Use of investigational anti-cancer agents must be discontinued at time of registration
* Adequate excision: Surgical removal of all clinically evident disease in the breast and lymph nodes as follows:
* Breast surgery: Total mastectomy or breast-conserving surgery with histologically negative margins, including no ink on tumor for DCIS, at the time of excision
\*\* For patients who undergo breast-conserving surgery, the margins of the resected specimen must be histologically free of ductal carcinoma in-situ (DCIS) as determined by the local pathologist. If pathologic examination demonstrates DCIS at the line of resection, additional operative procedures may be performed to obtain clear margins. If DCIS is still present at the resected margin after re-excision(s), the patient must undergo total mastectomy to be eligible. Patients with margins positive for classic lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) are eligible without additional resection
* Lymph node surgery:
* For a patient with clinically N0 disease, a sentinel lymph node biopsy should have been performed at time of surgical evaluation, and if pathologically node positive, the patient is no longer eligible. Isolated tumor cells are considered node-negative
* For a patient with clinically N1 disease at diagnosis (with positive results from a fine-needle aspiration, core biopsy, or sentinel node biopsy performed prior to preoperative therapy) additional surgical evaluation of the axilla following preoperative therapy is required
\*\*\* If they become cN0 (no palpable adenopathy), then a sentinel lymph node biopsy could have been performed at time of surgery (axillary dissection would also be permitted); if the sentinel lymph node biopsy is positive, the patient is no longer eligible
* If sentinel node biopsy performed before preoperative therapy was negative, no additional surgical evaluation of the axilla is required after preoperative therapy. If sentinel node biopsy performed before preoperative therapy was positive, an ALND is required after preoperative therapy
* If the only sentinel node identified by isotope scan is in the internal mammary chain, surgical evaluation of the axilla is still required
* If sentinel node evaluation after preoperative therapy is negative, no further additional surgical evaluation of the axilla is required
* Axillary dissection without sentinel node evaluation is permitted as the initial or sole axillary evaluation after preoperative therapy
* If breast-conserving surgery was performed but patient will not be receiving breast radiation, the patient is not eligible
* Not pregnant and not nursing, because this study involves an agent whose genotoxic, mutagenic and teratogenic effects on the developing fetus and newborn are unknown. Therefore, for women of childbearing potential only, a negative serum or urine pregnancy test done =\< 7 days prior to randomization is required
* Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \>= 1,000/mm\^3
* Platelet Count \>= 100,000/mm\^3
* Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) \>= 15 mL/min/1.73m\^2
* Total Bilirubin =\<1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN)
\* Patients with Gilbert's disease with a total bilirubin =\< 2.5 x ULN and direct bilirubin within normal limits are permitted
* Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) serum aspartate aminotransferase \[SGOT\] / alanine aminotransferase (ALT) serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase \[SGPT\] =\< 3 x institutional ULN
* Patients must be willing to provide tumor tissue from the diagnostic core biopsy. If inadequate tumor tissue is available, patients are still eligible to participate in the trial
* Patients with a prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment does not have the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen are eligible for this trial
* Patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification. To be eligible for this trial, patients should be class 2B or better
* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months prior to registration are eligible for this trial
Exclusion Criteria:
* No stage IV (metastatic) breast cancer
* No history of any prior (ipsi- or contralateral) invasive breast cancer. Prior DCIS is allowed
* No evidence of recurrent disease following preoperative therapy and surgery
* No known active liver disease, e.g. due to hepatitis B virus (HBV), hepatitis C virus (HCV), autoimmune hepatic disorders, or sclerosing cholangitis
* No history of intolerance, including Grade 3 or 4 infusion reaction or hypersensitivity to pembrolizumab or murine proteins or any components of the product
\* Note: Prior immune-related adverse events (irAEs) are allowed if they resolved and the patient tolerated subsequent therapy without requiring chronic steroids for the irAE
* No medical conditions that require chronic systemic steroids (\>10 mg prednisone daily or equivalent) or any other form of immunosuppressive medications and has required such therapy in the last two years. Replacement therapy (e.g. thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency, etc.) is not considered a form of systemic therapy
* Patients who are unable or unwilling to comply with the requirements of the protocol per investigator assessment are not eligible BIOLOGICAL: Pembrolizumab, OTHER: Patient Observation, PROCEDURE: Biopsy, PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, OTHER: Questionnaire Administration, OTHER: Quality-of-Life Assessment
Anatomic Stage I Breast Cancer AJCC v8, Anatomic Stage II Breast Cancer AJCC v8, Anatomic Stage III Breast Cancer AJCC v8, Early Stage Triple-Negative Breast Carcinoma, Breast - Female, Breast - Male
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Replacing Invasive Cystoscopy With Urine Testing for Non-muscle Invasive Bladder Cancer Surveillance (ReplaceCysto)
The purpose of this research is to determine whether bladder cancer monitoring can be improved by replacing some cystoscopy procedures with urine testing. Specifically, this study examines whether there are any differences in urinary symptoms, discomfort, number of invasive procedures, anxiety, complications, cancer recurrence or cancer progression when some cystoscopy procedures are replaced with urine testing.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Yair Lotan
ALL
18 Years and over
NA
NCT05796375
STU-2023-0996
Inclusion Criteria:
• Aged 18 years or older
• History of low grade intermediate-risk non-muscle invasive bladder cancer, defined as most recent pathology report showing any of the following: * multifocal low grade non-invasive urothelial carcinoma of any size * solitary low grade non-invasive urothelial carcinoma greater than 3cm in size * recurrent low grade non-invasive urothelial carcinoma
• Stated willingness to comply with all study procedures and availability for the duration of the study
• No evidence for recurrence at cystoscopy ≤4 months after most recent tumor resection
• Ability to consent in English or Spanish
Exclusion Criteria:
• History of total cystectomy of the bladder.
• History of urinary diversion (e.g., neo-bladder, colon pouch, or ileal conduit).
• History of muscle-invasive bladder tumor.
• Pregnancy or lactation.
• History of urothelial carcinoma of the ureter or renal pelvis status post endoscopic treatment or with evidence of recurrent upper tract disease (inclusion allowed if status post nephroureterectomy and recurrence free at time of inclusion)
• Anatomic constraints making cystoscopy impossible (e.g., history of urethrectomy, obliterated urethra secondary to stricture).
• Inability to provide a voided urine sample.
PROCEDURE: Cystoscopy, DIAGNOSTIC_TEST: Bladder EpiCheck urine test, DIAGNOSTIC_TEST: Xpert Bladder Cancer Monitor urine test
Non-muscle-invasive Bladder Cancer, Urinary Bladder
Bladder, Cancer, Urology, Cystoscopy, Xpert, EpiCheck, Urine test
UT Southwestern
A Study to Compare Darolutamide Given With Androgen Deprivation Therapy (ADT) With ADT in Men With Hormone Sensitive Prostate Cancer and Raise of Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) Levels After Local Therapies (ARASTEP)
Researchers are looking for a better way to treat men at high-risk of biochemical recurrence (BCR) of prostate cancer. BCR means that in men who had prostate cancer and were treated by either surgery and/ or radiation therapy, the blood level of a specific protein called PSA rises. PSA is a marker of prostate cancer cells activity. The PSA increase means that the cancer has come back even though conventional imaging such as computed tomography (CT) scans, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and bone scans does not show any lesion of prostate cancer. Recently a more sensitive imaging method called prostate-specific membrane antigen \[PSMA\] positron emission tomography \[PET\]) /computed tomography \[CT\]) scan may identify prostate cancer lesions not detectable by conventional imaging. Men with BCR have a higher risk of their cancer spreading to other parts of the body, particularly when PSA levels raised to a certain limit within a short period of time after local therapies. Once the cancer spreads to other parts of the body, it can become even harder to treat. In men with prostate cancer, male sex hormones (also called androgens) like testosterone can help the cancer grow and spread. To reduce androgens levels in these patients, there are treatments that block androgens production in the body called androgen deprivation therapy (ADT). ADT is often used to stop prostate cancer. Another way to stop prostate cancer growth and spread is to block the action of androgen receptors on prostate cancer cells called androgen receptor inhibitors (ARIs). The new generation ARIs including darolutamide can block the action of androgens receptors and are available for the treatment of prostate cancer in addition to ADT. It is already known that men with prostate cancer benefit from these treatments. The main objective of this study is to learn if the combination of darolutamide and ADT prolongs the time that the participants live without their cancer getting worse, or to death due to any cause, compared to placebo (which is a treatment that looks like a medicine but does not have any medicine in it) and ADT given for a pre-specified duration of 24 months. To do this, the study team will measure the time from the date of treatment allocation to the finding of new cancer spread in the participants by using PSMA PET/CT, or death due to any cause. The PSMA PET/CT scans is performed using a radioactive substance called a "tracer" that specifically binds to the prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) which is a protein often found in large amounts on prostate cancer cells. To avoid bias in treatment, the study participants will be randomly (by chance) allocated to one of two treatment groups. Based on the allocated treatment group, the participants will either take darolutamide plus ADT or placebo plus ADT twice daily as tablets by mouth. The study will consist of a test (screening) phase, a treatment phase and a follow-up phase. The treatment duration is pre-specified to be 24 months unless the cancer gets worse, the participants have medical problems, or they leave the study for any reason. In addition, image guided radiotherapy (IGRT) or surgery is allowed and your doctor will explain the benefits and risks of this type of therapy. During the study, the study team will: * take blood and urine samples. * measure PSA and testosterone levels in the blood samples * do physical examinations * check the participants' overall health * examine heart health using electrocardiogram (ECG) * check vital signs * check cancer status using PSMA PET/CT scans, CT, MRI and bone scans * take tumor samples (if required) * ask the participants if they have medical problems About 30 days after the participants have taken their last treatment, the study doctors and their team will check the participants' health and if their cancer worsened. The study team will continue to check this and regularly ask the participants questions about medical problems and subse
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Tian Zhang
MALE
18 Years and over
PHASE3
NCT05794906
STU-2024-0462
Inclusion Criteria:
* Capable of giving signed informed consent as described which includes compliance with the requirements, restrictions listed in the informed consent form (ICF), and in this protocol.
* Male ≥18 years of age at the time of signing the informed consent.
* Histologically or cytologically confirmed adenocarcinoma of prostate.
* Prostate cancer initially treated by: radical prostatectomy (RP) followed by adjuvant radiotherapy (ART), or salvage radiotherapy (SRT), or RP in participants who are unfit for (or refused) ART or SRT, or primary radiotherapy (RT).
* High-risk biochemical recurrence (BCR), defined as Prostate-specific antigen doubling time (PSADT) \<12 months calculated using the formula provided by the Sponsor, and PSA ≥0.2 ng/mL after ART or SRT post RP or after RP in participants who are unfit for ART or SRT (local or central values accepted), or PSA ≥2 ng/mL above the nadir after primary RT only (local or central values accepted).
* Participants must undergo prostate-specific membrane antigen positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PSMA PET/CT) within the 42-day Screening period using either 18F-DCFPyL (piflufolastat F 18) or 68Ga-PSMA-11 which will be assessed by blinded independent central review (BICR) to identify at least one PSMA PET/CT lesion of prostate cancer.
* Serum testosterone ≥150 ng/dL (5.2 nmol/L) (local assessment is allowed whenever central assessment cannot be done).
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1.
* Blood counts at screening: Hemoglobin ≥9.0 g/dL (participant must not have received blood transfusion within 7 days prior to sample being taken); Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥1.5x10\^9/L (participant must not have received any growth factor within 4 weeks prior to sample being taken); Platelet count ≥100x10\^9/L.
* Screening values of: Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN); Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) ≤1.5 x ULN; Total bilirubin (TBL) ≤1.5 ULN, (except participants with a diagnosis of Gilbert's disease); Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) \>40 ml/min/1.73 m\^2 calculated by the CKD-EPI formula.
* Sexually active male participants must agree to use contraception as detailed in the protocol during the Treatment period and for at least 1 week after the last dose of study treatment, and refrain from donating sperm during this period.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Pathological finding consistent with small cell, ductal or ≥50 % component of neuroendocrine carcinoma of the prostate.
* History of bilateral orchiectomy.
* Metastases or recurrent /new malignant lesions in prostate gland/bed seminal vesicles, lymph nodes below the CIA bifurcation on conventional imaging (CI) as assessed by BICR during screening.
* Brain metastasis on PSMA PET /CT by BICR at screening.
* High-risk BCR after primary radiotherapy with new loco-regional lesions on screening PSMA PET/CT who are eligible for curative salvage prostatectomy.
Note: Participants treated with curative salvage prostatectomy after primary RT who meet the PSA criteria (inclusion criteria 5) may be considered for the study.
* Prior treatment with second generation (e.g. enzalutamide, apalutamide) androgen receptor inhibitors (ARIs) and CYP 17 inhibitors (e.g., abiraterone) within 18 months prior to signing of the ICF.
* Prior treatments with PSMA-radiotherapeutics within 12 months prior to randomization.
* Prior radiotherapy (including image-guided radiotherapy) as primary, adjuvant or salvage treatment completed within 8 weeks prior to signing of the ICF.
* Any prior malignancy (other than adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, superficial bladder cancer, or any other cancer in situ currently in complete remission) within 5 years.
* History of pelvic radiotherapy for other malignancy. DRUG: Darolutamide (BAY1841788, Nubeqa), OTHER: Placebo matching darolutamide, OTHER: ADT
Biochemically Recurrent Prostate Cancer, Prostate
darolutamide, high risk BCR, PSMA PET imaging
UT Southwestern
The GORE VBX FORWARD Clinical Study: A Comparison of the GORE® VIABAHN® VBX Balloon Expandable Endoprosthesis to Bare Metal Stenting for Patients With Complex Iliac Occlusive Disease
The objective of this prospective, multicenter, randomized, controlled clinical trial is to demonstrate the superiority of the VBX Device for primary patency when compared to bare metal stenting in complex iliac occlusive disease.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Antonio.SolanoAvendano@UTSouthwestern.edu
Melissa Kirkwood
ALL
18 Years and over
NA
NCT05811364
STU-2023-0754
Inclusion Criteria:
* Age ≥ 18 years at time of informed consent signature
* Informed Consent Form (ICF) is signed by the subject
* Subject can comply with protocol requirements, including follow-up
* Patient has symptomatic claudication, rest pain, or minor tissue loss (Rutherford Category 2-5)
* Patient has de novo or restenotic lesion(s) found in the common and/or external iliac artery(ies)
* Patient has: Unilateral or bilateral single or multiple lesions (\>50% stenosis or chronic total occlusion) each between 4 and 11 cm in length
* Patient has a target vessel diameter visually estimated to be approximately between 5 mm and 13 mm
* Patient has a sufficient (\<50% stenotic) common femoral artery and at least one sufficient (\<50% stenotic) femoral artery (deep or superficial).
* Patient has at least one sufficient (\<50% stenotic) infrapopliteal run-off vessel.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Life expectancy \<1 year
* Patient is pregnant at time of informed consent.
* Patient has a known allergy to stent or stent graft components (including nitinol, stainless steel, or heparin).
* Patient has severe chronic renal insufficiency (serum creatinine level \> 2.5mg/dL) and not undergoing hemodialysis.
* Patient has evidence of a systemic infection.
* Patient has a known intolerance to antithrombotic medications that prevent compliance with study or control device Instructions for Use.
* Patient has had vascular catheterization of the lower extremities within 30 days of randomization (excluding diagnostic angiograms for the study procedure).
* Patient has previous stenting in the iliac arteries.
* Patient has previous surgical bypass in the target limb.
* Patient is currently participating in another investigative clinical study unless received written approval by the sponsor.
* Patient has a lesion requiring drug-coated balloon angioplasty, atherectomy, lithotripsy, or any ablative device to facilitate stent delivery.
* Patient has an abdominal aortic artery lesion or aneurysm.
* Patient has a lesion that requires stent placement within 2 cm of the inguinal ligament.
* Patient has isolated common iliac artery stenosis that can be treated with a single device (i.e., common iliac artery stenosis that does not require kissing stents or extend into the external iliac artery).
* Patient has outflow disease that requires concomitant interventions (i.e. common femoral endarterectomy or femoral / tibial revascularization). DEVICE: Stenting of the Common and/or External Iliac Arteries with the GORE® VIABAHN® VBX Balloon Expandable Endoprosthesis, DEVICE: Stenting of the Common and/or External Iliac Arteries with Bare Metal Stent
Aortoiliac Occlusive Disease, Peripheral Arterial Disease, Other Hematopoietic
UT Southwestern
Study of JANX008 in Subjects with Advanced or Metastatic Solid Tumor Malignancies
This study is a first-in-human (FIH), Phase 1/1b, open-label, multicenter dose escalation and dose expansion study to assess the safety, tolerability, pharmacokinetics (PK), pharmacodynamics (PD), and preliminary anti-tumor activity of JANX008 in adult subjects with advanced or metastatic carcinoma expressing EGFR.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Tian Zhang
ALL
18 Years to 100 Years old
PHASE1
NCT05783622
STU-2023-0808
Inclusion Criteria:
* Subjects ≥18 years of age at the time of signing informed consent
* Histologically or cytologically documented locally advanced or metastatic NSCLC, SCCHN, CRC, RCC, SCLC, PDAC, TNBC
* Progressed or was intolerant to all available therapies known to confer clinical benefit appropriate for the tumor type
* Adequate organ function
* At least 1 measurable lesion per RECIST 1.1
Exclusion Criteria:
* Treatment with anti-cancer therapy within 28 days or ≤5 elimination half-lives, whichever is earlier, before enrollment
* Prior treatment with EGFR-targeted bispecific T cell engager or CAR-T cell therapy
* Prior treatment with CD3 engaging bispecific antibodies
* Clinically significant cardiovascular diseases
* Active clinically significant infection (bacterial, viral, fungal, mycobacteria, or other)
* On supplemental oxygen
* Any medical condition or clinical laboratory abnormality likely to interfere with assessment of safety or efficacy of study treatment DRUG: JANX008
Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer, Renal Cell Carcinoma, Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Head and Neck, Colorectal Carcinoma, Small Cell Lung Cancer, Pancreatic Ductal Adenocarcinoma, Triple-Negative Breast Cancer, Colon, Kidney, Larynx, Lip, Oral Cavity and Pharynx, Lung/Thoracic, Rectum
UT Southwestern
Activity and Safety of Danvatirsen and Pembrolizumab in HNSCC (PEMDA-HN)
Open-label, Phase II, randomized, controlled study evaluating the efficacy and safety of danvatirsen in combination with pembrolizumab compared with pembrolizumab alone as first-line treatment of patients with recurrent/metastatic (R/M) HNSCC. Two-thirds of patients will be randomized to receive danvatirsen and pembrolizumab and one-third will be randomized to receive pembrolizumab alone.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Randall Hughes
ALL
18 Years to old
PHASE2
NCT05814666
STU-2024-0198
Inclusion Criteria:
• Must have given written informed consent (signed and dated).
• Aged ≥18 years at the time of informed consent.
• Recurrent/metastatic histologically or cytologically proven squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck that is considered incurable by local therapy. Eligible primary tumor locations are oropharynx, oral cavity, hypopharynx, and larynx.
• Presence of measurable tumor per RECIST v1.1 criteria.
• Detectable PD-L1 expression in tumor, defined as CPS ≥1 determined by a FDA or national regulatory agency of the country in which the patient resides.-approved test.
• Baseline fresh tumor biopsy or archival specimen.
• ECOG performance status of 0 or 1.
• Adequate organ function within 10 days of study treatment,
• Oxygen saturation on room air ≥92% by pulse oximetry.
• Females must be non-pregnant and non-lactating and either be postmenopausal or agree to adequate birth control.
• Males must be surgically sterile or agree to adequate birth control.
• Has an estimated life expectancy of at least 3 months.
• Has recovered from all complications or surgery and all toxicities of prior therapy
Exclusion Criteria:
• Prior therapy for metastatic HNSCC.
• Has disease suitable for local therapy with curative intent.
• Primary tumor of the nasopharynx.
• Has received prior therapy with an anti-programmed death 1 (PD-1), anti PD L1, or anti-programmed death-ligand-2 (PD-L2).
• Radiation therapy (or other non-systemic therapy) within 2 weeks of Day 1 of study treatment.
• Known autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment
• Known immunodeficiency or receiving systemic steroid therapy that would be the equivalent of \>10 mg prednisone daily
• Prior allogeneic tissue/solid organ transplant.
• Has significant cardiovascular disease
• Has received a live vaccine within 30 days
• Active infection requiring systemic antiviral or antimicrobial therapy
• History of (non-infectious) pneumonitis that required steroids or current pneumonitis.
• History of other malignancies
• Active HIV infection except patients who are currently stable on antiretroviral therapy for at least 4 weeks
• Active hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection.
• Treated or untreated parenchymal brain metastases or leptomeningeal disease.
• Treatment with another investigational drug, biological agent, or device within 1 month of screening, or 5 half-lives of investigational agent (if known), whichever is longer.
• Hypersensitivity to any component of danvatirsen or pembrolizumab.
DRUG: Danvatirsen, DRUG: Pembrolizumab
HNSCC, Larynx, Lip, Oral Cavity and Pharynx
UT Southwestern
A Study of Tegavivint (BC2059) in Patients With Advanced Hepatocellular Carcinoma
This study will be conducted in 2 parts. The first part is a phase 1 single-agent dose escalation,optimization, and expansion study of tegavivint in patients with advanced HCC after failure of at least one line of prior systemic therapy. In the second part of the study, the combination of tegavivint plus pembrolizumab will be assessed with a limited dose escalation followed by a randomized dose optimization.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
David Hsieh
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE1
NCT05797805
STU-2023-0867
Inclusion Criteria:
* Male or female, 18 years of age or older
* Confirmed diagnosis of HCC by either:
Histologically or cytologically documented HCC based on pathology report or Clinically confirmed diagnosis of HCC according to American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) criteria
* Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer (BCLC) Stage C disease or BCLC Stage B disease not amenable to locoregional therapy or refractory to locoregional therapy, and not amenable to a curative treatment approach
* Child-Pugh class A or ≤ 7 class B liver score (no hepatic encephalopathy) within 7 days of first dose of the investigational product(s)
* Disease progression, intolerance or contraindication to at least one line of systemic therapy for advanced HCC Prior treatment with cabozantinib or lenvatinib is allowed in the combination dose escalation and expansion parts of the study.
* Measurable disease as defined by RECIST 1.1 with spiral computerized tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Lesions situated in a previously irradiated area, or in an area subjected to other loco-regional therapy, may be considered measurable if progression has been demonstrated in such lesions.
* Willingness and ability to provide tumor biopsies during screening and while on treatment.
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1 within 7 days prior to the first dose of the investigational product(s)
* Patients must have organ and marrow function as defined below within 7 days of the first dose of the investigational product(s):
* Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥ 1.2 x 109/L
* Platelets ≥ 60 x 10\^9/L; no transfusion within 7 days prior to assessment
* Hemoglobin ≥ 9 g/dL (red blood cell transfusion or growth factors support is not allowed in the 14 days prior to the screening laboratory assessment)
* Total bilirubin ≤ ULN
* AST and ALT ≤ 5 x ULN
* Renal Function : Estimated creatinine clearance (CrCl) ≥ 50 mL/min by the Cockcroft-Gault equation using actual body weight, or Estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) ≥ 50 mL/min/1.73m2 by CKD-EPI Creatinine Equation, or Measured creatinine clearance ≥ 50 mL/min
* Albumin ≥ 2.8 g/dL
* International normalized ratio (INR) ≤ 1.7, unless the patient is receiving anticoagulant therapy as long as the patient is within therapeutic range of intended use of anticoagulants
* Washout period prior to Day 1 of Cycle 1:
* At least 21 days from the last dose of prior systemic anticancer treatment
* At least 14 days from palliative radiotherapy (≤ 10 fractions or ≤30 gray \[Gy\] total dose or at least 28 days from radiotherapy \> 30 Gy) to extrahepatic tumor lesions
* At least 28 days from local or loco-regional therapy of intrahepatic tumor lesions (e.g. surgery, radiation therapy, hepatic arterial embolization, chemoembolization, radiofrequency ablation, percutaneous ethanol injection, or cryoablation)
* Grade ≤ 1 toxicity due to any previous cancer therapy according to the NCI-CTCAE, v.5. Grade 2 is allowed in case of alopecia and/or peripheral sensory neuropathy.
* Participants with past HCV infection will be eligible for the study. The treated participants must have completed their treatment at least 1 month prior to starting study intervention and HCV viral load must be below the limit of quantification.
* Participants with controlled HBV will be eligible if they meet the following criteria:
* Antiviral therapy for HBV must be given for at least 4 weeks and HBV viral load must be less than 500 IU/mL prior to first dose of study drug. Patients on active HBV therapy with viral loads under 100 IU/mL should stay on the same therapy throughout study intervention.
* Patients who are positive for anti-hepatitis B core antibody HBc, negative for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), and negative or positive for anti-hepatitis B surface antibody (HBs), and who have an HBV viral load under 100 IU/mL, do not require HBV antiviral prophylaxis.
* Patients must have adequately controlled blood pressure (BP) with or without antihypertensive medications, defined as BP ≤ 150/90 mm Hg at Screening and no change in antihypertensive medications within 1 week before Cycle 1 Day 1.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Known fibrolamellar HCC, sarcomatoid HCC, or mixed cholangiocarcinoma and HCC.
* Patients receiving therapy with other anti-neoplastic or experimental agents
* Patients receiving concomitant strong inhibitors of CYP3A4/5 that cannot be discontinued 7 days or 5 half-lives (whichever is longer) prior to Cycle 1 Day 1.
* Patients receiving concomitant inducers of CYP3A4/5 that cannot be discontinued at least 14 days prior to Cycle 1 Day 1.
* Patients with known history of Gilbert's syndrome or other genetic conditions affecting UGT1A1 function.
* History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to tegavivint, or other agents used in study
* Malignant disease, other than that being treated in this study. Note: Patients with basal cell carcinoma of the skin, squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, or carcinoma in situ (e.g., breast carcinoma, cervical cancer in situ) who have undergone potentially curative therapy are not excluded. Other exceptions include malignancies that were treated curatively and have not recurred within 3 years prior to Cycle 1 Day 1 and any malignancy considered indolent and that has never required therapy.
* Lack of peripheral venous or central venous access or any condition that would interfere with drug administration or collection of study samples
* Known central nervous system (CNS) involvement
* Uncontrolled concurrent illness including, but not limited to:
* Ongoing or active infection (exception: HBV infection - see inclusion criteria)
* Unhealed wounds or presence of any external drainage
* Psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements; discuss with Medical Monitor if there are any questions
* Clinically significant, uncontrolled heart disease and/or cardiac repolarization abnormality, including any of the following:
* Congestive heart failure, NYHA \> Class II
* Left ventricular ejection fraction \< 50%
* Unstable angina pectoris or cardiac arrhythmia
* Baseline QTc (Fridericia) ≥ 450 milliseconds. In the event a QTc (Fridericia) measurement is not possible due to factors such as a pacemaker or bundle branch block, the patient may be evaluated by a cardiologist who must document no apparent increased risk for Torsades de Point or other morbidity associated with prolonged QTc. With such documentation, the patient may be eligible based with additional Medical Monitor review.
* Long QT syndrome or family history of idiopathic sudden death or congenital long QT syndrome
* Myocardial infarct within 6 months before Cycle 1 Day 1
* Clinically significant pericardial disease
* Any major surgery within 21 days prior to Cycle 1 Day 1. Major surgery is defined as any significantly invasive procedure into a major body cavity (abdomen, cranium etc.) and/or surgery requiring extensive recuperation (joint replacement). Please discuss with the Medical Monitor if there are any questions.
* Pregnant and breastfeeding women are excluded from this study. The effects of tegavivint on the developing human fetus have the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects. There is an unknown but potential risk for AEs in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with tegavivint
* Women of child-bearing potential (WOCBP) and men who are sexually active with WOCBP must agree to use one highly effective method of contraception, including hormonal contraceptives (e.g. combined oral contraceptives, patch, vaginal ring, injectables, and implants); intrauterine device or intrauterine system; vasectomy or tubal ligation; and one effective method of contraception, including male condom, female condom, cervical cap, diaphragm or contraceptive sponge or abstaining from sex for the duration of study participation and for at least 4 months following completion of tegavivint and pembrolizumab (if applicable) administration. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she or her partner is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately.
* HIV-positive patients on combination antiretroviral therapy are ineligible because of the potential for PK interactions with tegavivint.
* Exclusions for patients treated on study with cabozantinib or lenvatinib:
* Patients with large esophageal varices at risk of bleeding that are not being treated with conventional medical intervention: beta blockers or endoscopic treatment. Assessment of esophageal varices for patients in whom conventional medical intervention for known esophageal varices is already in place should be performed by endoscopy as per local standard of care.
* Uncontrolled hypertension (systolic blood pressure \>150 mmHg or diastolic pressure \>90 mmHg despite optimal medical management).
* Persistent proteinuria of NCI-CTCAE version 5.0 grade 3 or higher. Urine dipstick result of 3+ is allowed if protein excretion (estimated by urine protein/creatinine ratio on a random urine sample) is \<3.5 g/24 hours.
* Clinically significant bleeding NCI-CTCAE version 5.0 grade ≥ 3 within 30 days before randomization.
* Arterial or venous thrombotic or embolic events such as cerebrovascular accident (including transient ischemic attacks), deep vein thrombosis, or pulmonary embolism within 6 months before the start of study medication.
* Patients treated with medications with a known potential to prolong the QT/QTc interval.
* Hypersensitivity or intolerance to cabozantinib (patients with hypersensitivity or intolerance to cabozantinib may enroll in treatment arms exploring tegavivint plus lenvatinib if they did not have hypersensitivity or intolerance to lenvatinib).
* Hypersensitivity or intolerance to lenvatinib (patients with hypersensitivity or intolerance to lenvatinib may enroll in treatment arms exploring tegavivint plus cabozantinib if they did not have prior hypersensitivity or intolerance to cabozantinib) DRUG: Tegavivint, DRUG: Lenvatinib, DRUG: Cabozantinib
Advanced Hepatocellular Carcinoma, Liver
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Phase 1/2 Study of AOC 1020 in Adults With Facioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy (FSHD) (FORTITUDE)
A Randomized, Double-blind, Placebo-controlled, Phase 1/2 Study to Evaluate the Safety, Tolerability, Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Exploratory Efficacy of AOC 1020 Administered Intravenously to Adult Participants with Facioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy (FSHD)
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Jonathan.Thompson@UTSouthwestern.edu
Jaya Trivedi
All
18 Years to 65 Years old
Phase 1/Phase 2
NCT05747924
STU-2022-1177
Inclusion Criteria:
• FSHD1 or FSHD2 diagnosis confirmed by documented genetic testing (testing provided by Sponsor)
• Ambulatory and able to walk 10 meters (with or without assistive devices such as one cane, walking stick or braces)
• At least 1 muscle region suitable for biopsy (testing provided by Sponsor)
• Muscle weakness in both upper and lower body, as determined by Investigator
Exclusion Criteria:
• Diagnosed with congenital or infantile FSHD
• Pregnancy, intent to become pregnant within 9 months after last planned dose of Study Drug, or active breastfeeding
• Unwilling or unable to continue to comply with contraceptive requirements
• Body mass index (BMI) >35.0 kg/m2 at Screening
• History of muscle biopsy within 30 days of the screening biopsy or planning to undergo any nonstudy muscle biopsies over the duration of the study
• History of bleeding disorders, significant keloid, or other skin or muscle conditions (e.g., severe muscle wasting) that, in the opinion of the Investigator, makes the participant unsuitable for serial muscle biopsy
• Anticipated survival less than 2 years
• Blood or plasma donation within 16 weeks of Study Day 1
• Any contraindication to MRI
• Any abnormal lab values, conditions or diseases that, in the opinion of the investigator or Sponsor, would make the participant unsuitable for the study or could interfere with participation or completion of the study
• Treatment with any investigative medication within 1 month (or 5 half-lives of the drug, whichever is longer) of Screening
Drug: AOC 1020, Drug: Placebo
FSHD, FSHD1, FSHD2, FMD, FMD2, Fascioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy, Fascioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy Type 1, Fascioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy Type 2, Dystrophies, Facioscapulohumeral Muscular, Dystrophy, Facioscapulohumeral Muscular, Facioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy 1, Facioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy 2, Facio-Scapulo-Humeral Dystrophy, Atrophy, Facioscapulohumeral, Atrophies, Facioscapulohumeral, Facioscapulohumeral Atrophy, Muscular Dystrophies, Muscular Dystrophy, Facioscapulohumeral, FSH Muscular Dystrophy, Landouzy Dejerine Dystrophy, Landouzy-Dejerine Muscular Dystrophy, Dystrophies, Landouzy-Dejerine, Dystrophy, Landouzy-Dejerine, Landouzy-Dejerine Syndrome, Muscular Dystrophy, Landouzy Dejerine, Progressive Muscular Dystrophy, FSH
FORTITUDE, Avidity, Avidity Biosciences, AOC 1020
UT Southwestern
ARTEMIS: Ravulizumab to Protect Patients With CKD From CSA-AKI and MAKE (ARTEMIS)
The primary objective of this study is to assess the efficacy of a single dose of ravulizumab IV compared with placebo in reducing the risk of the clinical consequences of AKI (MAKE) at 90 days in adult participants with CKD who undergo non-emergent cardiac surgery with CPB.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, salina.shrestha@utsouthwestern.edu
Michael Jessen
All
18 Years to 90 Years old
Phase 3
NCT05746559
STU-2023-0186
Inclusion Criteria:
• Participant weighs ≥ 30 kg
• Planned non-emergent sternotomy with CPB procedure for the following surgeries:
• Multi-vessel CABG
• Valve replacement or repair; ascending aorta surgery permitted if combined with aortic valve replacement/repair
• Combined CABG and valve surgery; inclusion of single-vessel CABG when combined with valve replacement/repair is permitted
• Known CKD for at least 90 days (CKD Stage 3A, 3B, or 4)
Exclusion Criteria:
• Emergency or salvage cardiac surgery is expected at screening or randomization, as assessed by the Investigator.
• Single-vessel CABG without valve surgery is planned.
• Off-pump surgery is planned (eg, surgery without CPB).
• Recipient of a solid organ or bone marrow transplantation.
• Cardiogenic shock, hemodynamic instability, use of intra-aortic balloon pump, extracorporeal membrane oxygenation, or left ventricular assist device within 72 hours of randomization.
• Active systemic bacterial, viral, or fungal infection within 14 days prior to randomization.
• History of unexplained, recurrent infection.
• Any use of KRT or presence of AKI within 30 days of randomization
• Use of any complement inhibitors, or plasmapheresis or plasma exchange within the year prior to Screening, or planned use during the course of the study.
• Participant is not willing to be vaccinated against N meningitidis or is unwilling to receive prophylactic treatment with appropriate antibiotics, if needed
• History of or unresolved N meningitidis infection.
Drug: Placebo, Drug: Ravulizumab
Chronic Kidney Disease, CKD, Cardiac Disease, Cardiopulmonary Bypass, Kidney
Chronic Kidney Disease, CKD, Cardiac Disease, cardiopulmonary bypass
UT Southwestern
Neutrophil and Monocyte Deactivation Via the SeLective CytopheretIc Device - a Randomized Clinical Trial in Acute Kidney Injury (NEUTRALIZE-AKI)
This randomized, controlled, pivotal study is intended to determine whether up to ten sequential 24-hour treatments with the Selective Cytopheretic Device (SCD) will improve survival in patients with Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) requiring continuous kidney replacement therapy (CKRT) when compared to CKRT alone (standard of care). This study is further intended to determine whether SCD therapy will reduce the duration of maintenance dialysis secondary to AKI. This study will enroll approximately 200 subjects across 30 US sites. Participants will be patients in an intensive care unit (ICU) setting with a diagnosis of AKI requiring CKRT.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Jessica.Williams@UTSouthwestern.edu
Tamim Hamdi
ALL
18 Years and over
NA
NCT05758077
STU-2024-0432
Inclusion Criteria:
* Admitted to an ICU requiring CKRT:
• Must have AKI stage 2 or greater at the time of CKRT initiation.
• Must have been on CKRT for at least 12 hours but no greater than 48 hours at the time of enrollment. * At least 18 years of age but not older than 80 at the time of enrollment. * One additional life-threatening organ dysfunction present. * Acceptable vascular access for CKRT to include adequate lumen size and length of catheters. * Initial (non-binding) commitment to maintaining current level of care for at least 96 hours. * C-Reactive Protein \>3.5 mg/dl.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Not expected to survive next 24 hours.
* Anticipated transition to comfort measures or hospice in next 4 days.
* Terminal condition whereby the patient is not expected to survive 28 days or any condition in which therapy is regarded as futile by the PI.
* Advanced malignancy which is actively being treated or may be treated with palliative chemotherapy or radiation.
* ICU hospitalization \> 14 days during this hospital admission (to include days spent at ICU of an outside hospital) at the time of screening.
* Active COVID-19 infection with a primary admission diagnosis of COVID-19.
* Chronic use of ventricular assist devices.
* ESRD requiring chronic kidney replacement therapy.
* History of CKD (greater than Stage 3).
* AKI stage 0 or stage 1 at the time of CKRT initiation.
* Non-ATN AKI diagnosis. We intend on relying on local nephrology subspecialty expertise to reasonably exclude non-ATN diagnoses based on clinical suspicions combined with prespecified objective criteria. If there is a reasonable suspicion that the subject has non-ATN AKI based on this, they will be excluded from the trial.
* Acute coronary syndromes, acute stroke, or acute major vascular compromise requiring medical or surgical interventions within 48 hours of randomization.
* Active hemorrhage requiring blood transfusions at the time of screening.
* Acute on Chronic Liver Failure.
* Suspicion of hepato-renal syndrome.
* Presence of any solid organ transplant at any time prior to admission.
* Severe burns with a modified Baux score \> 100 (%TBSA+Age+17 for Inhalation Injury).
* Bone marrow transplant within the last year.
* Chronic immunosuppression with an average of \>20 mg/day of prednisone or other steroid sparing immunosuppressants for the past 30 days prior to hospital admission.
* Individuals who have a history of primary or secondary immune disorders including, but not limited to, HIV or AIDS.
* Dry weight of \>150kg.
* Platelet count \<15,000/mm3.
* Patient is a prisoner or member of a vulnerable population.
* Patient is pregnant or breast feeding.
* Concurrent enrollment in another interventional clinical trial for an investigational drug or device.
* Need for plasmapheresis. DEVICE: Selective Cytopheretic Device, OTHER: Standard of Care
Acute Kidney Injury
continuous kidney replacement therapy, continuous renal replacement therapy, acute kidney injury, organ failure, inflammation, dialysis, acute tubular necrosis
UT Southwestern
Safety and Efficacy Study of Viaskin Peanut in Peanut-allergic Children 4-7 Years of Age (VITESSE)
The primary purpose of this study is to assess the efficacy and safety of daily DBV712 250 micrograms (mcg) to induce desensitization to peanut in peanut-allergic children 4-7 years of age over a 12-month treatment period.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Priscilla.Arancivia@UTSouthwestern.edu
Christopher Parrish
All
4 Years to 7 Years old
Phase 3
NCT05741476
STU-2023-0051
Key
• Aged 4 through 7 years at Visit 1 (screening).
• Physician-diagnosed peanut allergy or children with a well-documented medical history of IgE-mediated reactions after ingestion of peanut and currently following a strict peanut-free diet.
• Peanut-specific IgE of >0.7 kilo allergy unit per liter (kUA/L) and a positive peanut SPT with the largest wheal diameter of ≥6 millimeter (mm) at Visit 1.
• An ED of ≤100 mg peanut protein at screening DBPCFC. Key
• Severe generalized dermatologic disease involving the application area (interscapular region)
• Uncontrolled persistent asthma.
• Past or current immunotherapy for peanut allergy, including oral immunotherapy (OIT).
• Current immunotherapy for any allergen (including food allergy, allergic rhinitis and/or insect allergy), or treatment with any monoclonal antibody or biologic immunomodulatory therapy within 6 months prior to Visit 1.
Inclusion Criteria:
• Aged 4 through 7 years at Visit 1 (screening).
• Physician-diagnosed peanut allergy or children with a well-documented medical history of IgE-mediated reactions after ingestion of peanut and currently following a strict peanut-free diet.
• Peanut-specific IgE of >0.7 kilo allergy unit per liter (kUA/L) and a positive peanut SPT with the largest wheal diameter of ≥6 millimeter (mm) at Visit 1.
• An ED of ≤100 mg peanut protein at screening DBPCFC. Key
Exclusion Criteria:
• Severe generalized dermatologic disease involving the application area (interscapular region)
• Uncontrolled persistent asthma.
• Past or current immunotherapy for peanut allergy, including oral immunotherapy (OIT).
• Current immunotherapy for any allergen (including food allergy, allergic rhinitis and/or insect allergy), or treatment with any monoclonal antibody or biologic immunomodulatory therapy within 6 months prior to Visit 1.
Drug: DBV712, Other: Placebo
Allergy, Peanut, Other
Peanut Hypersensitivity, Epicutaneous Immunotherapy (EPIT), Epicutaneous, Immunotherapy, Viaskin, Nut and Peanut Hypersensitivity, Food Hypersensitivity, Peanut Allergy, Food Allergy, Nut and Peanut Allergy
Children’s Health
A Study to Investigate the Safety and Tolerability of Ziftomenib in Combination With Venetoclax/Azacitidine, Venetoclax, or 7+3 in Patients With AML
This Phase 1 study will assess the safety, tolerability, and preliminary antileukemic activity of ziftomenib in combination with venetoclax and azacitidine (ven/aza), ven, and 7+3 for two different molecularly-defined arms, NPM1-m and KMT2A-r.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Yazan Madanat
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE1
NCT05735184
STU-2023-0858
Key
Inclusion Criteria:
* Patients must have a documented NPM1 mutation or KMT2A rearrangement and have either newly diagnosed or relapsed/refractory AML
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0, 1, or 2
* Adequate liver, renal, and cardiac function according to protocol defined criteria
* A female of childbearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception from the time of screening through 180 days following the last dose of study intervention. A male of childbearing potential must agree to use abstinence or adequate contraception from the time of screening through 90 days following the last dose of study intervention
Key Exclusion Criteria:
* Diagnosis of either acute promyelocytic leukemia or blast chronic myelomonocytic leukemia
* Known history of BCR-ABL alteration
* Advanced malignant hepatic tumor \[for patients receiving ven/aza combination\]
* Administration of live attenuated vaccines within 14 days prior to, during, or after treatment until B-cell recovery
* Active central nervous system (CNS) involvement by AML.
* Clinical signs/symptoms of leukostasis or WBC \> 25,000 / microliter. Hydroxyurea and/or leukapheresis are permitted to meet this criterion
* Not recovered to Grade ≤1 (NCI-CTCAE v5.0) from all nonhematological toxicities except for alopecia
* Known clinically active human immunodeficiency virus, active hepatitis B or active hepatitis C infection
* For newly diagnosed cohorts: received prior chemotherapy for leukemia, except hydroxyurea and/or leukapheresis to control leukocytosis, prior treatment with all-transretinoic acid for initially suspected acute promyelocytic leukemia, or non-HMA therapy for prior myelodysplastic syndrome
* For relapsed/refractory cohorts: received chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiotherapy, or any ancillary therapy that is considered to be investigational \< 14 days prior to the first dose of ziftomenib or within 5 drug half-lives prior to the first dose of study drug
* Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, cardiac illness as defined in the protocol
* Mean corrected QT interval corrected for heart rate by Fredericia's formula (QTcF) \>480 ms on triplicate ECGs
* Uncontrolled infection
* Women who are pregnant or lactating
* An active malignancy and currently receiving chemotherapy for that malignancy or disease that is uncontrolled/progressing DRUG: Ziftomenib, DRUG: Venetoclax, DRUG: Azacitidine, DRUG: Daunorubicin, DRUG: Cytarabine
Acute Myeloid Leukemia, Mixed Lineage Acute Leukemia, Mixed Lineage Leukemia Gene Mutation, Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia, Refractory AML, AML With Mutated NPM1, Acute Myeloid Leukemia Recurrent, Acute Myeloid Leukemia, in Relapse, NPM1 Mutation, KMT2Ar, Myeloid Sarcoma, Myeloid and Monocytic Leukemia
UT Southwestern
Strategies and Treatments for Respiratory Infections &Amp; Viral Emergencies (STRIVE): Immune Modulation Strategy Trial
COVID-19 can trigger a dysregulated immune response, and previous studies have shown that immune modulation can improve outcomes in hospitalized patients. This trial is designed to determine whether intensification of immune modulation early in the course of the disease (while patients are on low flow oxygen) with abatacept (active arm) combined with standard of care (SOC) improves recovery as compared with placebo + SOC (placebo arm). For both groups, intensification of immunomodulation will be provided as part of SOC in case of signs of disease progression (patient requires high flow nasal oxygen (HFNO) or more support) and/or if the patient has rapidly increasing oxygen requirement.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Olakunbi.Latona@UTSouthwestern.edu
Mamta Jain
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE4
NCT05822583
STU-2023-0123
Inclusion Criteria:
* Confirmation of SARS-CoV2 infection by nucleic acid test (NAT) or equivalent non-NAT test \[list of approved tests in the PIM\] within 14 days of randomization.
* Requiring hospitalization for the management of COVID-19
* Has evidence of COVID-19 pneumonia (PNA) defined as either receiving supplementary oxygen ≤2L of low flow oxygen with evidence of airspace disease on chest imaging (X ray, computer tomography or ultrasound) OR receiving supplementary oxygen \>2L and \<10 L of low flow oxygen.
* Currently receiving or planned to receive (ordered) one IM drug (for example, a corticosteroid or baricitinib) as part of treatment of COVID-19 prior to randomization.
* Has started supplemental oxygen for the treatment of COVID-19 within the past 5 calendar days. Patients on home oxygen are eligible if current oxygen flow rate is increased from baseline and other above criteria are met.
* Investigator agrees that the pneumonia is due to COVID-19.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Oxygen requirement of ≥10L or more of low flow oxygen (or equivalent if using Venturi mask, etc), or requiring either HFNO, NIV, IMV, or ECMO.
* Participant has received more than one baseline IM for treatment of the current COVID-19 infection at time of trial enrollment. (Examples: corticosteroid, baricitinib, tocilizumab, anakinra, abatacept, or infliximab.)
* Participant anticipated to not meet all inclusion criteria within 24 hours of randomization in the opinion of the investigator.
* Allergy to investigational agent.
* Neutropenia (absolute neutrophil count \<1000 cells/μL) (\<1.0 x 10 3 /μL or \<1.0 G/L) on most recent lab within 2 calendar days of randomization.
* Lymphopenia (absolute lymphocyte count \<200 cells/μL) (\<0.20 x 10 3 /μL or \<0.20 G/L) on most recent lab within 2 calendar days of randomization.
* Known or suspected active or recent serious infection (bacterial, fungal, viral, or parasitic infection, excepting SARS-CoV-2) that in the opinion of the investigator could constitute a risk when taking investigational agent. Note: Broad spectrum empiric antibiotic usage does not exclude participation.
* Known or suspected history of untreated tuberculosis (TB). TB diagnosis may be suspected based on medical history and concomitant therapies that would suggest TB infection. Participants are also excluded if they have known, latent TB treated for less than 4 weeks with appropriate anti-tuberculosis therapy per local guidelines (by history only, no screening required).
* Have received any live vaccine (or live attenuated) within 3 months before screening or intend to receive a live vaccine (or live attenuated) during the trial. Use of prior non-live (inactivated) vaccinations is allowed for all participants, including any vaccine for COVID-19.
* Pre-existing immunomodulation or immunosuppression that meets any of the following: Participant has received abatacept for an indication other than COVID- 19 within 5 half-lives (65 days) of enrollment (Abatacept elimination half-life is 13.1 days.) Participant is receiving immune modulatory therapy for autoimmune, transplant management or another indication AND has one or more of the following: evidence of active infection (other than COVID-19) or has required reduction in their immune modulatory therapy in the preceding 6 months due to infectious complication (routine reduction as SOC is not an exclusion) or has required intensification in immunotherapy within the preceding 6 months due to organ rejection/worsening underlying disease status (e.g., intensification with an additional agent on top of usual immunosuppressive regimen)
* Participant has recently received or is anticipated to require immune modulatory agents for their underlying disease including chemotherapeutic treatments likely to induce neutropenia (\<1.0 x 10 9 cells/µL) or lymphopenia (\<1.0 x 10 9 cells/µL)
* Participant has untreated advanced HIV (known CD4 \<200 in the past 6 months) AND is not established on antiretroviral therapy
* Pregnancy
* Breastfeeding
* Co-enrollment in other trials not predetermined to be compatible with this trial.
* In the investigator's judgment, the patient has any advanced organ dysfunction that would not make participation appropriate.
* The treating clinician expects inability to participate in trial procedures or participation would not be in the best interests of the patient. DRUG: abatacept infusion, DRUG: Placebo group
COVID-19
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Efficacy, Safety, and Tolerability of Two Administrations of COMP360 in Participants With TRD
Efficacy, Safety, and Tolerability of two administrations of COMP360 in participants with treatment-resistant depression (TRD)
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Ann.House@UTSouthwestern.edu
Madhukar Trivedi
All
18 Years and over
Phase 3
NCT05711940
STU-2023-0052
Key
• Aged ≥18 years at Screening
• Major depression without psychotic features (single or recurrent episode as informed by the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition [DSM-5])
• If the current major depressive episode is the participant's first lifetime episode of depression, the length of the current episode must be ≥3 months and ≤2 years at Screening
• MADRS total score ≥20 at Screening and Baseline to ensure at least moderate severity of depression
• TRD, defined as failure to respond to an adequate dose and duration of two, three, or four different pharmacological treatments for the current episode as determined through the Massachusetts General Hospital Antidepressant Treatment Response Questionnaire (MGH-ATRQ) and using the supplementary advice on additional antidepressants not included in MGH-ATRQ
• At Screening, agreement to discontinue all prohibited medications Key
• Prior or ongoing bipolar disorder, any psychotic disorder, including schizophrenia, schizophreniform disorder, schizoaffective disorder, brief psychotic disorder (unless substance induced or due to a medical condition), antisocial personality disorder as assessed by a structured clinical interview (MINI 7.0.2)
• Lifetime paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal, histrionic, narcissistic personality disorder, or any ongoing serious psychiatric comorbidity based on medical history and clinical judgement
• Borderline personality disorder as demonstrated by medical history or the Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview Plus (MINI plus) - borderline personality disorder module
• Ongoing post-traumatic stress disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, or anorexia nervosa as assessed by medical history and a structured clinical interview (MINI
• 0.2)
• Psychiatric inpatient within the past 12 months prior to Screening
• Use of electroconvulsive therapy, deep brain stimulation, or vagus nerve stimulation during the current depressive episode
• Transcranial magnetic stimulation within the past six months prior to Screening
• Current enrolment in a psychological therapy programme that will not remain stable for the duration of the study. Psychological therapies cannot have been initiated within 30 days prior to Screening
• Exposure to COMP360 psilocybin therapy prior to Screening
Inclusion Criteria:
• Aged ≥18 years at Screening
• Major depression without psychotic features (single or recurrent episode as informed by the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition [DSM-5])
• If the current major depressive episode is the participant's first lifetime episode of depression, the length of the current episode must be ≥3 months and ≤2 years at Screening
• MADRS total score ≥20 at Screening and Baseline to ensure at least moderate severity of depression
• TRD, defined as failure to respond to an adequate dose and duration of two, three, or four different pharmacological treatments for the current episode as determined through the Massachusetts General Hospital Antidepressant Treatment Response Questionnaire (MGH-ATRQ) and using the supplementary advice on additional antidepressants not included in MGH-ATRQ
• At Screening, agreement to discontinue all prohibited medications Key
Exclusion Criteria:
• Prior or ongoing bipolar disorder, any psychotic disorder, including schizophrenia, schizophreniform disorder, schizoaffective disorder, brief psychotic disorder (unless substance induced or due to a medical condition), antisocial personality disorder as assessed by a structured clinical interview (MINI 7.0.2)
• Lifetime paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal, histrionic, narcissistic personality disorder, or any ongoing serious psychiatric comorbidity based on medical history and clinical judgement
• Borderline personality disorder as demonstrated by medical history or the Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview Plus (MINI plus) - borderline personality disorder module
• Ongoing post-traumatic stress disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, or anorexia nervosa as assessed by medical history and a structured clinical interview (MINI
• 0.2)
• Psychiatric inpatient within the past 12 months prior to Screening
• Use of electroconvulsive therapy, deep brain stimulation, or vagus nerve stimulation during the current depressive episode
• Transcranial magnetic stimulation within the past six months prior to Screening
• Current enrolment in a psychological therapy programme that will not remain stable for the duration of the study. Psychological therapies cannot have been initiated within 30 days prior to Screening
• Exposure to COMP360 psilocybin therapy prior to Screening
Drug: Psilocybin
Treatment Resistant Depression
psilocybin
UT Southwestern
Janus Kinase (JAK) Inhibitors to Preserve C-Peptide Production in New Onset Type 1 Diabetes (T1D)
A multi-center, placebo-controlled, double blind, 1:1:1 randomized control clinical trial testing two different JAK Inhibitors abrocitnib, ritlecitinib, and placebo in subjects with recent onset Stage 3 Type 1 Diabetes within 100 days of diagnosis.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Michelle.Murphy@UTSouthwestern.edu
Perrin White
ALL
12 Years to 35 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05743244
STU-2023-1068
Inclusion Criteria:
• Provide informed consent or assent as appropriate and, if \< 18 years of age have a parent or legal guardian provide informed consent
• Age 12-35 years (both inclusive) at the time of signing informed consent and assent
• Diagnosis of T1D within 100 days of the baseline visit (V0).
• Positive for at least one islet cell autoantibody; Glutamate decarboxylase (GAD)65A, mIAA (if obtained within 10 days of the onset of insulin therapy), IA-2A, ICA, or ZnT8A
• Stimulated C-peptide of ≥0.2 pmol/mL measured during mixed-meal tolerance test (MMTT) conducted at least 21 days from diagnosis of diabetes
• HbA1c ≤ 10 %
• Body weight ≥ 35kg at screening
• Willing to comply with intensive diabetes management and wear a Continuous Glucose Monitoring Device (CGM)
• Participants who are Cytomegalovirus (CMV) and/or Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) seronegative at screening must be CMV and/or EBV Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) negative within 30 days of randomization and may not have had signs or symptoms of a CMV and/or EBV-compatible illness lasting longer than 7 days within 30 days of the baseline visit (V0).
• Participants who are CMV and/or EBV seropositive at screening must be CMV PCR negative and/or EBV PCR \<2,000 IU/mL and must have no signs or symptoms of acute infection at the time of the baseline visit (V0).
• Be up to date on recommended vaccinations based on age of participants\*
• Participants are required to receive killed influenza vaccination at least 2 weeks prior to the baseline visit (V0) when vaccine for the current or upcoming flu season is available. Enrollment must be delayed at least 4 weeks from administration of a killed vaccine other than influenza and COVID-19 and 6 weeks from a live vaccination. Live vaccinations and non-live vaccinations (other than influzena and COVID-19) should not be given while on study drug and be postponed at least 3 months after the last dose of study drug.
• If participant is female with reproductive potential, she must have a negative pregnancy test at screening and be willing to avoid pregnancy using a highly-effective contraceptive method for the duration of the study
• Males of reproductive age must use a highly-effective contraceptive method during the treatment phase and for 3 months following last dose of study drug * For COVID-19 vaccination, all participants will be strongly encouraged to be up-to-date with COVID-19 vaccine (s) as indicated by country-specific guidelines at least 2 weeks prior to the baseline visit (V0).
Exclusion Criteria:
• Current or ongoing use of non-insulin pharmaceuticals or medication that affect glycemic control or glucose homeostasis within 7 days prior to screening or any prohibited concomitant medication listed in section 4.8
• Untreated hypothyroidism or active Graves' disease
• Concurrent treatment with other immunosuppressive agents (including biologics or steroids), other than inhaled or topical glucocorticoids
• Active acute or chronic infection requiring treatment with oral antibiotics, antivirals, antiparasitics, antiprotozoals, or antifungals within 1 month prior to Day 0 or superficial skin infection within 1 week prior to Day 0
• Active acute or chronic infection requiring treatment with intravenous therapy (IV) within a minimum 1 month prior to Day 0 a. Specific cases should be reviewed by Infectious Disease Committee prior to enrollment
• Have active signs or symptoms of acute infection at the time of the baseline visit (V0).
• Significant trauma or major surgery within 1 month of signing informed consent.
• Considered in imminent need for surgery or with elective surgery scheduled to occur during the study
• History of disseminated herpes zoster or disseminated herpes simplex or a recurrent (more than one episode of) localized, dermatomal herpes zoster
• Have evidence of prior or current tuberculosis infection as assessed by Purified Protein Derivative (PPD), interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) or by history
• Have evidence of current or past HIV or Hepatitis B infection
• Have evidence of active Hepatitis C infection
• Have current, confirmed COVID-19 infection
• Current or history of Deep vein thrombosis (DVT), Pulmonary embolism (PE), or other thromboembolic events or history of inherited coagulopathies
• First degree relative with a history of unprovoked venous thromboembolism (i.e. without known underlying cause such as trauma, surgery, immobilization, prolonged travel, pregnancy, hormone use, or plaster cast), which suggests that a participant may be at increased risk of inherited coagulation disorder
• Any present malignancies or history of malignancy, other than a successfully treated nonmelanoma skin cancer
• History of any lymphoproliferative disorder such as EBV-related lymphoproliferative disorder, history of lymphoma, history of leukemia, or signs and symptoms suggestive of current lymphatic or lymphoid disease
• Known or suspected polymorphism in the Cytochrome P450 2C19 (CYP2C19 gene, resulting in classification as a poor CYP2C19 metabolizer).
• Have renal impairment (eGFR\< 60 mL/min)
• Currently on anti-platelet therapies, excluding low dose aspirin
• One or more screening laboratory values as stated
• Neutrophils \< 1,500 /μL
• Lymphocytes \< 800 /μL
• Platelets \< 150,000 / μL
• Hemoglobin \< 6.2 mmol/L (10.0 g/dL)
• Potassium \> 5.5 mmol/L or \<3.0 mmol/L
• Sodium \> 150mmol/L or \< 130mmol/L
• AST or ALT ≥ 2.5 times the upper limit of normal
• Bilirubin ≥ 1.5 times upper limit of normal unless diagnosed with Gilbert's syndrome
• LDL \>160 mg/dL
• Vaccination with a live virus within the last 6 weeks and killed vaccine within 4 weeks (except 2 weeks for flu vaccine and COVID vaccine)
• Be currently pregnant or lactating or anticipate becoming pregnant during the study
• Male participants able to father children and female participants of childbearing potential who are unwilling or unable to use 2 effective methods (at least 1 highly effective method) of contraception, including abstinence, as outlined in this protocol for the duration of the study and for at least 3 months after the last dose of investigational product
• Be currently participating in another T1D treatment study
• Have hearing loss with progression over the previous 5 years, or sudden hearing loss, or middle or inner ear disease such as otitis media, cholesteatoma, Meniere's disease, labyrinthitis, or other auditory condition that is considered acute, fluctuating, or progressive
• Acute coronary syndrome (e.g., myocardial infarction, unstable angina pectoris) and any history of cerebrovascular disease within 24 weeks before screening; Heart failure NYHA (New York Heart Association) III, NYHA IV
• ANY of the following conditions at screening: a. Screening 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) that demonstrates: i. Clinically significant abnormalities requiring treatment (eg, acute myocardial infarction, serious tachy- or brady-arrhythmias) or indicating serious underlying heart disease (eg, cardiomyopathy, Wolff-Parkinson- White syndrome); ii. Confirmed QT corrected using Fridericia's correction factor (QTcF) prolongation (\>450 milliseconds). b. Long QT Syndrome, a family history of Long QT Syndrome, or a history of Torsades de Pointes (TdP).
• History of chronic alcohol abuse or intravenous drug abuse or other illicit drug abuse within 2 years prior to screening
• Current or past use of tobacco or nicotine containing products more than the equivalent of 5 cigarettes per day
• Participant is the investigator or any sub-investigator, research assistant, pharmacist, study coordinator, other staff or relative thereof directly involved in the conduct of the trial
• Have any complicating medical issues or abnormal clinical laboratory results that may interfere with study conduct, or cause increased risk
• Any condition that in the investigator's opinion may adversely affect study participation or may compromise the study results
DRUG: Abrocitinib 200 MG Oral Tablet, DRUG: Ritlecitinib, DRUG: Placebo
Diabetes Mellitus, Type 1, Pancreas
TrialNet, T1D
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
A Study of Revumenib in Combination With Chemotherapy for Patients Diagnosed With Relapsed or Refractory Leukemia
This phase II trial tests the safety and best dose of revumenib in combination with chemotherapy, and evaluates whether this treatment improves the outcome in infants and young children who have leukemia that has come back (relapsed) or does not respond to treatment (refractory) and is associated with a KMT2A (MLL) gene rearrangement (KMT2A-R). Leukemia is a cancer of the white blood cells, where too many underdeveloped (abnormal) white blood cells, called "blasts", are found in the bone marrow, which is the soft, spongy center of the bones that produces the three major blood cells: white blood cells to fight infection; red blood cells that carry oxygen; and platelets that help blood clot and stop bleeding. The blasts crowd out the normal blood cells in the bone marrow and spread to the blood. They can also spread to the brain, spinal cord, and/or other organs of the body. The leukemia cells of some children have a genetic change in which a gene (KMT2A) is broken and combined with other genes that typically do not interact with one another; this is called "rearranged". This genetic rearrangement alters how other genes are turned on or off in the cell, turning on genes that drive the development of leukemia. Patients with KMT2A rearrangement have higher risk for cancer coming back after treatment. Revumenib is an oral medicine that directly targets the changes that occur in a cell with a KMT2A rearrangement and has been shown to specifically kill these leukemia cells in preclinical laboratory settings and in animals. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as vincristine, prednisone, asparaginase, fludarabine and cytarabine work in different ways to stop the growth of cancer cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. This trial is being done to find out if the combination of revumenib and chemotherapy would be safe and/or effective in treating infants and young children with relapsed or refractory KMT2A-R leukemia.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Caroline Smith
ALL
1 Month to 6 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05761171
STU-2023-1226
Inclusion Criteria:
* Patients must be 1 month to \< 6 years old at the time of study enrollment and must have had initial diagnosis of leukemia at \< 2 years old.
* Patients must have KMT2A-rearranged acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage (ALAL), or mixed phenotype acute leukemia (MPAL), which is determined to be refractory or in first marrow relapse. All patients must undergo cytogenetics and fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) testing of a relapsed/refractory blast sample at a Children's Oncology Group (COG)-approved laboratory for KMT2A-R status determination and the presence of a KMT2A- rearrangement must be confirmed by central review. Cytogenetics results must be submitted for central review by Day 10 of protocol therapy, for confirmation of KMT2A-R status. Patients enrolled with refractory disease may utilize initial diagnostic cytogenetics for eligibility and submission for central review if testing was performed at a COG approved laboratory. Patients will be eligible to remain on protocol therapy if KMT2A-R is confirmed by central review. Additional methods of assessing for KMT2A-R may be considered if FISH does not detect the rearrangement.
* Disease status at time of enrollment must be one of the following:
* First relapse (untreated): Any recurrence of marrow disease, with or without other extramedullary sites(s), at any point after achieving remission ("remission-1", per definition below) and meeting one of the below criteria. Patients must not have received any disease-directed therapy for the marrow relapse prior to enrollment, other than permitted cytoreduction.
* Relapse M1: M1 morphology (\< 5% blasts) + at least 2 confirmatory tests showing \>= 1% blasts (testing includes flow, cytogenetics, polymerase chain reaction \[PCR\]/next-generation sequencing \[NGS\] of immunoglobulin \[Ig\]/T-cell receptor \[TCR\] rearrangement, and/or PCR or NGS of fusion gene identical to diagnosis), OR
* Relapse M2: M2 morphology (5-25% blasts) + 1 confirmatory test showing \> 1% blasts, OR
* Relapse M3: M3 morphology (\> 25% blasts)
* Primary refractory, or failure to achieve remission-1: remission-1 is defined as \< 1% marrow blasts by flow MRD and resolution of extramedullary disease following at least 2 courses of frontline chemotherapy. Patients who receive 2 courses of chemotherapy and 1 course of blinatumomab are also eligible, but no further treatment attempts beyond that are permitted
* Central nervous system (CNS) disease: Patients must have CNS1 or CNS2 status and no clinical signs or neurologic symptoms suggestive of CNS leukemia, such as cranial palsy.
* Patients with CNS3 disease may receive antecedent intrathecal chemotherapy to achieve CNS1 or CNS2 status prior to enrollment.
* Patients with a history of CNS chloromatous disease are required to have no radiographic evidence of CNS disease prior to enrollment.
* White blood cell (WBC) must be \< 50,000/uL at the time of study enrollment. Patients can receive cytoreduction with hydroxyurea and/or corticosteroids for up to 7 days prior to enrollment.
* Patients \>= 12 months of age must have a performance status by Lansky Scale of \>= 50%.
* Patients must be able to take enteral medications. Acceptable routes of administration for revumenib (SNDX-5613) include: oral (PO), nasogastric (NG) tube, nasojejunal (NJ) tube, nasoduodenal (ND), and gastrostomy tube (G-tube).
* Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy prior to entering this study
* Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anti-cancer agents known to be myelosuppressive:
* \>= 14 days must have elapsed after the completion of other cytotoxic therapy, including patients who relapse during pre-Maintenance upfront therapy, with these specific exceptions: cytoreduction with hydroxyurea and/or corticosteroids, and intrathecal chemotherapy, which have no required washout periods. For patients who relapse during upfront Maintenance therapy, \>= 7 days must have elapsed after the last dose of chemotherapy. Additionally, patients must have fully recovered from all acute toxic effects of prior therapy.
* NOTE: Cytoreduction with hydroxyurea and/or corticosteroids is permitted prior to enrollment for patients with WBC \>= 50,000/uL, and by provider discretion regardless of WBC, to reduce potential risk of differentiation syndrome with revumenib initiation. Hydroxyurea and/or corticosteroids may be given for up to 7 days, with no wash-out required.
* NOTE: No waiting period is required for patients having received intrathecal cytarabine, methotrexate, and/or hydrocortisone. Intrathecal chemotherapy that is given up to 7 days prior to the initiation of protocol therapy counts as protocol therapy and not prior anti-cancer therapy. Intrathecal chemotherapy given \> 7 days prior does not count as protocol therapy.
* NOTE: Prior exposure to fludarabine and cytarabine (FLA) is permitted.
* Anti-cancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g., not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil count \[ANC\] counts): \>= 7 days after the last dose of agent.
* Antibodies: \>= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =\< 1. There is an exception for blinatumomab infusions, for which patients must have been off for at least 3 days and all drug related toxicity must have resolved to grade 2 or lower as outlined in the inclusion/exclusion criteria.
* Hematopoietic growth factors: \>= 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g., pegfilgrastim) or \>= 7 days for short-acting growth factor. For agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur. The duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned Research Coordinator.
* Interleukins, interferons and cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors): \>= 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon, or cytokines
* Stem cell infusions (with or without total body irradiation (TBI):
* Allogeneic (non-autologous) bone marrow or stem cell transplant, or stem cell boost: \>= 84 days after infusion
* Donor leukocyte infusion: \>= 28 days
* Cellular therapy: \>= 28 days after the completion of any type of cellular therapy (e.g., modified T cells, natural killer \[NK\] cells, dendritic cells, etc.)
* Radiation therapy (XRT)/external beam irradiation including protons: \>= 14 days after local XRT; \>= 84 days after TBI, craniospinal XRT or if radiation to \>= 50% of the pelvis; \>= 42 days if other substantial bone marrow radiation.
* A creatinine based on age as follows:
* Age 1 month to \< 6 months: maximum creatinine 0.4 mg/dL
* Age 6 months to \< 1 year: maximum creatinine 0.5 mg/dL
* Age 1 to \< 2 years: maximum creatinine 0.6 mg/dL
* Age 2 to \< 6 years: maximum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL OR
* a 24-hour urine creatinine clearance \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 OR
* a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2. GFR must be performed using direct measurement with a nuclear blood sampling method OR direct small molecule clearance method (iothalamate or other molecule per institutional standard).
* NOTE: Estimated GFR (eGFR) from creatinine, cystatin C or other estimates are not acceptable for determining eligibility.
* A direct bilirubin =\< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age, unless disease related
* Serum glutamic-pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase \[ALT\]) =\< 135 U/L (3 x ULN) unless disease related.
* Note: For the purpose of eligibility, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L
* Shortening fraction of \>= 27% by echocardiogram, or ejection fraction of \>= 50% by radionuclide angiogram.
* Corrected QT interval using Fridericia formula (QTcF) of \< 450 msec (using the average of triplicate measurements)
* NOTE: There are no specific electrolyte parameters for eligibility. However, it should be noted that, to limit QTc prolongation risk, patients must maintain adequate potassium and magnesium levels to initiate and continue revumenib (SNDX-5613) on protocol therapy.
* Patients must be able to comply with the safety monitoring requirements of the study, in the opinion of the treating investigator.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patients with isolated extramedullary leukemia.
* Patients diagnosed with Down syndrome.
* Patients known to have one of the following syndromes:
* Bloom syndrome, ataxia-telangiectasia, Fanconi anemia, Kostmann syndrome, Shwachman syndrome, or any other known bone marrow failure syndrome.
* Patients with a secondary KMT2A-R leukemia that developed after treatment of prior malignancy with cytotoxic chemotherapy.
* Patients with a history of congenital prolonged QT syndrome, congestive heart failure or uncontrolled arrhythmia in the past 6 months prior to study enrollment.
* Patients with an active, uncontrolled infection, further defined below:
* Positive bacterial blood culture within 48 hours of study enrollment
* Fever above 38.2 degrees Celsius (C) within 48 hours of study enrollment with clinical signs of infection. Fever that is determined to be due to tumor burden is allowed if patients have documented negative blood cultures for at least 48 hours prior to enrollment and no concurrent signs or symptoms of active infection or hemodynamic instability
* A positive fungal culture within 30 days of study enrollment or active therapy for presumed invasive fungal infection
* Patients may be receiving IV or oral antibiotics to complete a course of therapy for a prior documented infection as long as cultures have been negative for at least 48 hours and signs or symptoms of active infection have resolved. For patients with Clostridium (C.) difficile diarrhea, at least 72 hours of antibacterial therapy must have elapsed and stools must have normalized to baseline
* Active viral or protozoal infection requiring IV treatment
* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients are eligible if on effective anti-retroviral therapy that does not interact with planned study agents and with undetectable viral load within 6 months of enrollment.
* Patients with active acute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) \> grade 0 (unless skin only), or chronic GVHD \> mild (unless skin only) are not eligible. Patients with acute or chronic skin GVHD that is =\< grade 1, or chronic skin GVHD that is graded as mild are eligible.
* Patients who have received a prior solid organ transplantation.
* Patients with known Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, if treating on Regimen A (with vincristine).
* CYP3A4 Inhibitors or Inducers: Patients who require concomitant therapy with strong CYP3A4 inhibitors or moderate or strong CYP3A4 inducers, as these are prohibited during the chemotherapy combination cycles. These agents should be discontinued at least 5 half-lives prior to starting protocol therapy. Concomitant use of strong CYP3A4 inhibitor -azole antifungals are permitted during the revumenib (SNDX-5613) monotherapy cycles, with appropriate revumenib (SNDX-5613) dose modification
* P-glycoprotein (P-gp) inhibitors or inducers: Vincristine is a substrate for P-gp. Concomitant use of P-gp inhibitors or inducers with vincristine (patients receiving Regimen A Cycle 1) should be avoided.
* Investigational drugs: Patients who are currently receiving another investigational drug.
* Anti-cancer agents: Patients who are currently receiving other anti-cancer agents (exceptions: hydroxyurea and corticosteroids, which may be used as cytoreduction prior to enrollment).
* Anti-GVHD agents: Patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus, or other systemic agents to treat graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant. Patients should discontinue anti-GVHD agents \> 7 days prior to enrollment and have no evidence of worsening GVHD. Topical steroids are permitted.
* Patients who have previously been treated with revumenib (SNDX-5613). Prior exposure to other menin inhibitors is permitted.
* All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent.
* All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met. PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, PROCEDURE: Bone Marrow Aspiration, DRUG: Calaspargase Pegol, DRUG: Cytarabine, PROCEDURE: Echocardiography, DRUG: Fludarabine Phosphate, DRUG: Hydrocortisone Sodium Succinate, PROCEDURE: Lumbar Puncture, DRUG: Methotrexate, PROCEDURE: Multigated Acquisition Scan, DRUG: Prednisolone, DRUG: Prednisone, DRUG: Revumenib, DRUG: Vincristine Sulfate
Recurrent Acute Leukemia of Ambiguous Lineage, Recurrent Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Recurrent Acute Myeloid Leukemia Due to Lineage Switch From Acute Leukemia of Ambiguous Lineage, Recurrent Acute Myeloid Leukemia Due to Lineage Switch From B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, KMT2A-Rearranged, Recurrent Acute Myeloid Leukemia Due to Lineage Switch From Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia, Recurrent Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia, Refractory Acute Leukemia of Ambiguous Lineage, Refractory Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Refractory Acute Myeloid Leukemia Due to Lineage Switch From Acute Leukemia of Ambiguous Lineage, Refractory Acute Myeloid Leukemia Due to Lineage Switch From B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, KMT2A-Rearranged, Refractory Acute Myeloid Leukemia Due to Lineage Switch From Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia, Refractory Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia, Leukemia, Not Otherwise Specified, Leukemia, Other
Children’s Health