• Participant is considered an adult according to local regulation at the time of signing the informed consent form (ICF).
• Female participant is not pregnant, confirmed by serum pregnancy test and medical evaluation by interview and at least 1 of the following conditions apply:
• Not a woman of childbearing potential (WOCBP)
• WOCBP who agrees to follow the contraceptive guidance from the time of informed consent through at least 6 months after final study intervention administration.
• Female participant must agree not to breastfeed starting at screening and throughout the study period and for 6 months after the final study intervention administration.
• Female participant must not donate ova starting at screening and throughout the study period and for 6 months after the final study intervention administration.
• Male participant with female partner(s) of childbearing potential (including breastfeeding partner) must agree to use contraception throughout the treatment period and for 6 months after the final study intervention administration.
• Male participant must not donate sperm during the treatment period and for 6 months after the final study intervention administration.
• Male participant with pregnant or breastfeeding partner(s) must agree to remain abstinent or use a condom for the duration of the pregnancy or time partner is breastfeeding throughout the study period and for 6 months after the final study intervention administration.
• Participant's tumor sample is positive for claudin (CLDN)18.2 expression by central immunohistochemistry (IHC) testing.
• Participant has radiographically-confirmed, locally advanced, unresectable or metastatic disease within 28 days prior to the first dose of study intervention.
• Participant has measurable disease according to Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1 within 28 days prior to the first dose of study intervention. For participant with only 1 measurable lesion and prior radiotherapy, the lesion must be outside the field of prior radiotherapy or must have documented progression following radiation therapy.
• Participant has QT interval by Fredericia (QTcF) =< 470 msec.
• Participant agrees not to participate in another interventional study while receiving study treatment in the present study.
• Participant has Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1.
• Participant has predicted life expectancy >= 12 weeks.
• Participant must meet all of criteria based on laboratory tests within 7 days prior to the first dose of study drug. In case of multiple laboratory data within this period, the most recent data should be used. If a participant has received a recent blood transfusion, the laboratory tests must be obtained >= 2 weeks after any blood transfusion. Disease Specific Criteria: Gastric/GEJ Cancer
• Participant has histologically confirmed gastric or gastroesophageal junction (GEJ) adenocarcinoma.
• Participant with gastric or GEJ adenocarcinoma who has progressed, is intolerant, has refused, or for whom there is no standard approved therapies that impart significant clinical benefit (no limit to the number of prior treatment regimens). Disease Specific Criteria: Pancreatic Cancer
• Participant has histologically or cytologically confirmed pancreatic adenocarcinoma.
• Participant with pancreatic adenocarcinoma who has progressed, is intolerant, has refused, or for whom there is no standard approved therapies that impart significant clinical (no limit to the number of prior treatment regimens).
• Participant has received other investigational agents, or antineoplastic therapy including immunotherapy or devices concurrently or within 21 days or 5 times the half-life, whichever is shorter, prior to first dose of study intervention administration.
• Participant has any condition which makes the participant unsuitable for study participation.
• Participant has known immediate or delayed hypersensitivity or contraindication to any component of study treatment.
• Participant has had prior severe allergic reaction or intolerance to known ingredients of ASP2138 or other antibodies, including humanized or chimeric antibodies.
• Participant weighs < 40 kg.
• Participant has received systemic immunosuppressive therapy, including systemic corticosteroids 14 days prior to first dose of study intervention. Participant using a physiologic replacement dose of hydrocortisone or its equivalent (defined as up to 30 mg per day of hydrocortisone or up to 10 mg per day of prednisone), receiving a single daily dose of systemic corticosteroids or receiving systemic corticosteroids as pre-medication for radiologic imaging contrast use are allowed.
• Participant has a complete gastric outlet syndrome or a partial gastric outlet syndrome with persistent/recurrent vomiting.
• Participant has significant gastric bleeding and/or untreated gastric ulcers that exclude the participant from participation.
• Participant has symptomatic CNS metastases or participant has evidence of unstable CNS metastases even if asymptomatic (e.g., progression on scans). Participants with previously treated CNS metastases are eligible, if they are clinically stable and have no evidence of CNS progression by imaging for at least 4 weeks prior to start of study treatment and are not requiring immunosuppressive doses of systemic steroids (> 30 mg per day of hydrocortisone or > 10 mg per day of prednisone or equivalent) for longer than 2 weeks.
• Participant is known to have HIV infection. However, participants with cluster of differentiation (CD4) + T cell counts >= 350 cells/µL and no history of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)-defining opportunistic infections within the past 6 months are eligible. NOTE: Screening for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection should be conducted per local requirements.
• Participant is known to have active hepatitis B (positive hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg]) or hepatitis C infection. Testing is required for known history of these infections or as mandated by local requirements. NOTE: Screening for these infections should be conducted per local requirements.
• For participant who is negative for HBsAg, but hepatitis B core antibody (HBc Ab) positive, a hepatitis B virus (HBV) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) test will be performed and if positive the participant will be excluded.
• Participant with positive hepatitis C virus (HCV) serology, but negative HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) test results are eligible.
• Participant treated for HCV with undetectable viral load results are eligible
• Participant has had within 6 months prior to first dose of study intervention any of the following: unstable angina, myocardial infarction, ventricular arrhythmia requiring intervention or hospitalization for heart failure.
• Participant has active infection requiring systemic therapy that has not completely resolved within 7 days prior to the start of study intervention.
• Participant has active autoimmune disease that has required systemic immunosuppressive treatment within the past 1 month prior to the start of study intervention.
• Participant has a clinically significant disease or co-morbidity that may adversely affect the safe delivery of treatment within this study or make the participant unsuitable for study participation.
• Participant has psychiatric illness or social situations that would preclude study compliance.
• Participant has had a major surgical procedure 28 days before start of study intervention and has not fully recovered.
• Participant has received radiotherapy for locally advanced unresectable or metastatic gastric or GEJ or metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma 14 days prior to start of study intervention and has NOT recovered from any related toxicity.
• Participant has another malignancy for which treatment is required.
• Participant who has received an CLDN18.2-targeted investigational agent (e.g., zolbetuximab or chimeric antigen receptor CLDN18.2-specific T cells) prior to first dose of study intervention administration is not eligible for dose escalation cohorts. However, a participant who has received an CLDN18.2-targeted investigational agent greater than 28 days or 5 half-lives (whichever is longer) prior to first dose study intervention administration is eligible for dose expansion cohorts only, with the exception of participants who have experienced Grade >= 3 gastrointestinal (GI) toxicity after receiving an CLDN18.2-targeted investigational agent.
• Participant has a history or complication of interstitial lung disease.

Inclusion Criteria Age -Patients must be ≥ 1 and ≤ 21 years of age at the time of enrollment. Diagnosis
• Cohort A: Patients must have a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia with ≥ 5% blasts in the bone marrow (M2 or M3), with or without extramedullary disease) or a diagnosis of lymphoblastic lymphoma.
• Cohorts B & C: Patients must have a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), lymphoblastic lymphoma, or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia with any level of detectable disease (minimal residual disease level acceptable) with or without extramedullary disease Performance Level -Karnofsky > 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky > 50% for patients ≤ 16 years of age. Prior Therapy
• Patients must have recovered from the acute toxic effects (≤ Grade 2 or baseline) of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy prior to entering this study, unless otherwise specified. Subjects with disease related cytopenias will be eligible.
• Patients must have relapsed or refractory disease after attaining at least a first remission. They may be in first to third relapse..
• Patients with Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) positive disease must have received at least two prior tyrosine kinase inhibitors.
• Patients who have experienced their relapse after a Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) are eligible, provided they have no evidence of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) and are at least 100 days post-transplant at the time of enrollment.
• Prior anthracycline lifetime cumulative exposure: Patients must have less than 320 mg/m2 (or 400 mg/m2 if prior cardioprotection) lifetime exposure of anthracycline chemotherapy. 1. Cohort A: Patients must have less than 320 mg/m2 (or 400 mg/m2 if prior cardioprotection) lifetime exposure of anthracycline chemotherapy (See Appendix 2 for anthracycline calculation worksheet). 2. Cohorts B & C: There is no limit on prior anthracycline exposure.
• Hematopoietic growth factors: It must have been at least seven days since the completion of therapy with granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (GCSF) or other growth factors at the time of enrollment. It must have been at least 14 days since the completion of therapy with pegfilgrastim (Neulasta®).
• Biologic anti-neoplastic agents: At least seven days after the last dose of a biologic agent. For agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond seven days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur. The duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair or vice chair.
• Monoclonal antibodies: At least three half-lives (or 30 days—whichever is longer) of the antibody must have elapsed after the last dose of monoclonal antibody. (e.g., Rituximab = 66 days, Epratuzumab = 69 days)
• Immunotherapy: At least 30 days after the completion of any type of immunotherapy, e.g. tumor vaccines, chimeric antigen receptor T-cells.
• Recent prior chemotherapy: At least 10 days after standard vincristine and the completion of any type of chemotherapy induction regimen. At least 3 weeks after radiation therapy. At least 30 days after the completion of any investigational neoplastic agent is also required. An investigational agent is defined as any drug that is not approved and licensed for sale by the FDA for institutions in the United States, by Health Canada for institutions in Canada and by The Therapeutic Goods Administration for institutions in Australia. Exceptions:
• There is no time restriction in regard to prior intrathecal chemotherapy provided there is complete recovery from any acute toxic effects of such; it is allowable to enroll a patient that has received IT Cytarabine (ARA-C), IT Methotrexate (MTX) or triple IT therapy within 14 days of enrollment as part of their evaluation to diagnose disease relapse. The IT therapy given within 14 days of initiation of protocol specified chemotherapy, may substitute for the day 1 IT in cohorts A and B
• Subjects with rapidly progressive disease may receive hydroxyurea until they begin study therapy;
• Patients who relapse while on maintenance-type ALL therapy or are receiving maintenance therapy for disease stabilization will not require a wash-out period before entry into this study. However, there must be at least 10 days after any dose of standard vincristine. Renal and Hepatic Function
• Renal function: Patient's serum creatinine must be ≤ 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) according to age. If the serum creatinine is greater than 1.5 times normal, the patient must have a calculated creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ≥ 70milliliter/min/1.73m2. Alternatively, a 24-hour creatinine clearance may also be used.
• Hepatic function: alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) must be < 5 x institutional upper limit of norm ULN. Total bilirubin must be ≤ 1.5 x ULN (except in the case of subjects with documented Gilbert's disease ≤ 5 × ULN). Cardiac Function -Patients must have a shortening fraction ≥ 27% or an ejection fraction ≥ 55% by echocardiogram, cardiac MRI or multigated acquisition scan (MUGA). Reproductive Function
• Female patients must not be pregnant and those of childbearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test confirmed within one week prior to enrollment.
• Female patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on this study.
• Male and female patients of childbearing potential must agree to use an effective method of contraception during the study. Exclusion Criteria Patients will be excluded if they have isolated testicular disease. Patients will be excluded if they have previously received Marqibo®. Patients will be excluded if they have a known allergy to any of the drugs used in the study, with the exception that patients with an allergy to PEG-asparaginase who can receive Erwinia asparaginase are eligible. Patients unable to receive any formulation of asparaginase may only enroll on cohort C Patients will be excluded if they have active, uncontrolled systemic fungal, bacterial, viral or other infection despite appropriate antibiotics or other treatment. Patients who require azole antifungal agents will be excluded. Azoles must be discontinued at least one week prior to the start of Marqibo®. Patients will be excluded if there is a plan to administer non-protocol chemotherapy, radiation therapy, another investigational agent or immunotherapy during the study period. Patients with pre-existing, persistent grade 2 or greater sensory or motor neuropathy from any cause will be excluded. Patients will be excluded if they have, significant concurrent disease, illness, psychiatric disorder or social issue that would compromise patient safety or adherence with the protocol treatment or procedures or interfere with consent, study participation, follow up, or interpretation of study results.Patients with Down syndrome will not be eligible for enrollment on Cohort A Patients with a known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) will will be excluded due to the increased risk of complications such as severe infection and unknown interaction of Marqibo® with antiretroviral drugs. Active hepatitis B or C infection as defined by seropositive for hepatitis B (hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)) or hepatitis C and elevated liver transaminases (defined as above the ULN per the institution normal ranges).

• Patients must have undergone complete surgical resection of their stage IB (>= 4 cm), II, or non-squamous IIIA NSCLC per American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 7th edition and have had negative margins; N3 disease is not allowed
• Baseline chest computed tomography (CT) with or without contrast must be performed within 6 months (180 days) prior to randomization to ensure no evidence of disease; if clinically indicated additional imaging studies must be performed to rule out metastatic disease
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0 or 1
• Patients must be registered to the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) trial prior to randomization
• Positive for translocation or inversion events involving the ALK gene locus (e.g. resulting in echinoderm microtubule associated protein like 4 [EML4]-ALK fusion) as determined by the Vysis Break Point fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) assay and defined by an increase in the distance between 5? and 3? ALK probes or the loss of the 5? probe; this must have been performed:
• By a local Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory: report must indicate the results as well as the CLIA number of the laboratory which performed the assay; tissue must be available for submission for central, retrospective confirmation of the ALK fusion status via ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) OR
• Patient registered to and the ALK fusion status performed centrally on the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216)
• Women must not be pregnant or breast-feeding
• All females of childbearing potential must have a blood or urine pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to randomization to rule out pregnancy; a female of childbearing potential is any woman, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria: 1) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or 2) has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months)
• Women of childbearing potential and sexually active males must be strongly advised to practice abstinence or use an accepted and effective method of contraception
• Patients must NOT have uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, serious ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• No known interstitial fibrosis or interstitial lung disease
• No prior treatment with crizotinib or another ALK inhibitor
• No ongoing cardiac dysrhythmias of grade >= 2 National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version 4.0, uncontrolled atrial fibrillation (any grade), or corrected QT (QTc) interval > 470 msec
• No use of medications, herbals, or foods that are known potent cytochrome P450, subfamily 3A, polypeptide 4 (CYP3A4) inhibitors or inducers, included but not limited to those outlined
• Patients must be adequately recovered from surgery at the time of randomization
• The minimum time requirement between date of surgery and randomization must be at least 4 weeks (28 days)
• The maximum time requirement between surgery and randomization must be:
• 3 months (90 days) if no adjuvant chemotherapy was administered
• 8 months (240 days) if adjuvant chemotherapy was administered
• 10 months (300 days) if adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation therapy were administered
• Patients must have completed any prior adjuvant chemotherapy or radiation therapy 2 or more weeks (6 or more weeks for mitomycin and nitrosoureas) prior to randomization and be adequately recovered at the time of randomization
• NOTE: Patients taking low dose methotrexate for non-malignant conditions and other cytotoxic agents for non-malignant conditions are allowed to continue treatment while on study
• NOTE: Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy or radiation therapy for the resected lung cancer is not permitted
• Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Total serum bilirubin =< 1.5 x ULN
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1500/mm^3
• Platelets >= 30,000/mm^3
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL
• Serum creatinine =< 2 x ULN
• Prior to randomization patients with any non-hematologic toxicity from surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation must have recovered to grade =< 1 with the exception of alopecia and the criteria outlined
• Patients must not have any history of locally advanced or metastatic cancer requiring systemic therapy within 5 years from randomization, with the exception of in-situ carcinomas and non-melanoma skin cancer; patients must have no previous primary lung cancer diagnosed concurrently or within the past 2 years
• Patients may not be receiving any other investigational agents while on study

• Subjects of all races and ethnic origins over 18 years of age will be recruited.
• Patients must have suspicious or known to be malignant solitary pulmonary nodule,5cm or less in size.
• Patients with a contraindication to MRI examinations will be excluded from this study. Contraindications to MRI examinations include:
• Medically unstable
• Heart failure
• Unstable angina
• Child bearing
• Lactating
• Not a surgical candidate
• Any contraindication per MRI Screening Form (Appendix A attached). This is the same form used in clinical practice at UT Southwestern.
• Titanium implants, pacemakers
• Poorly controlled diabetes
• Body weight greater than 300 pounds
• Claustrophobic
• Since each patient is receiving a gadolinium based contrast agent intravenously:
• eGFR < 45 mL/min/1.73m2
• Sickle cell disease
• Hemolytic anemia

• Status post radical prostatectomy for histologically confirmed adenocarcinoma of the prostate
• pathologically confirmed T1-T3 disease
• no sign of lymph node or metastatic disease
• pT1-pT3pNxMx patients in whom standard NCCN or AUA guidelines would suggest are at low risk for pelvic lymph node or metastatic disease and who would not require confirmatory imaging for metastatic disease. This includes patients with Gleason 6 or 7(T2 disease) and PSA less than 20.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group(ECOG) status 0-2
• adequate renal and liver function as well as bone marrow reserve (measured serum creatinine <2mg/dl, bilirubin ≤ 1.5 mg/dl, ANC ≥ 1.5 x 10 (3) uL, platelets ≥ 50 x K/uLL, and hemoglobin ≥ 10 g/dL)
• 30-80 y/o at time of diagnosis with a life expectancy of >= 3 yrs
• focally positive surgical margins are permitted
• no plan to receive adjuvant hormone or radiation therapy
• PSA at the time of enrollment must be undetectable
• life expectancy of 3 years
• must not have exceeded 3 months from time of surgery to enrollment into study
• T3b or T4 or node positive disease
• macroscopic residual disease after surgery
• hormone therapy before surgery
• history of gallbladder problems or gallstones, or biliary obstruction, unless patient had cholecystectomy
• radiation therapy as primary treatment after surgery
• INR value greater than 1.5
• AST/ALT are equal or greater than 2 times the upper limit of normal
• antiplatelet or anticoagulant agents- patients taking 81mg of Aspirin will be allowed with close observation
• history of gastric or duodenal ulcers or untreated hyperacidity syndromes
• patients who are currently taking curcumin and are unwilling to stop or plan to take curcumin during the study

• Age > 18 years.
• ECOG performance status (PS) 0, 1, or 2.
• Radiographic findings consistent with non-small cell lung cancer, including lesions with ground glass opacities with a solid component of 50% or greater. Those with ground glass opacities and <50% solid component will be excluded.
• The primary tumor in the lung must be biopsy confirmed non-small cell lung cancer within 180 days prior to randomization.
• Tumor ≤ 4 cm maximum diameter, including clinical stage IA and selected IB by PET/CT scan of the chest and upper abdomen performed within 180 days prior to randomization. Repeat imaging within 90 days prior to randomization is recommended for re-staging but is not required based on institutional norms.
• All clinically suspicious mediastinal N1, N2, or N3 lymph nodes (> 1 cm short-axis dimension on CT scan and/or positive on PET scan) confirmed negative for involvement with NSCLC by one of the following methods: mediastinoscopy, anterior mediastinotomy, EUS/EBUS guided needle aspiration, CT-guided, video-assisted thoracoscopic or open lymph node biopsy within 180 days of randomization.
• Tumor verified by a thoracic surgeon to be in a location that will permit sublobar resection.
• Tumor located peripherally within the lung. NOTE: Peripheral is defined as not touching any surface within 2 cm of the proximal bronchial tree in all directions. See below. Patients with non-peripheral (central) tumors are NOT eligible.
• No evidence of distant metastases.
• Availability of pulmonary function tests (PFTs
•spirometry, DLCO, +/- arterial blood gases) within 180 days prior to registration. Patients with tracheotomy, etc, who are physically unable to perform PFTs (and therefore cannot be tested for the Major criteria in 3.1.11 below) are potentially still eligible if a study credentialed thoracic surgeon documents that the patient's health characteristics would otherwise have been acceptable for eligibility as a high risk but nonetheless operable patient (in particular be eligible for sublobar resection).
• Patient at high-risk for surgery by meeting a minimum of one major criteria or two minor criteria
• Major Criteria
• FEV1 ≤ 50% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• DLCO ≤ 50% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• Minor Criteria
• Age ≥75
• FEV1 51-60% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• DLCO 51-60% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• Pulmonary hypertension (defined as a pulmonary artery systolic pressure greater than 40mm Hg) as estimated by echocardiography or right heart catheterization
• Study credentialed thoracic surgeon believes the patient is potentially operable but that a lobectomy or pneumonectomy would be poorly tolerated by the patient for tangible or intangible reasons. The belief must be declared and documented in the medical record prior to randomization.
• Poor left ventricular function (defined as an ejection fraction of 40% or less)
• Resting or Exercise Arterial pO2 ≤ 55 mm Hg or SpO2 ≤ 88%
• pCO2 > 45 mm Hg
• Modified Medical Research Council (MMRC) Dyspnea Scale ≥ 3.
• No prior intra-thoracic radiation therapy for previously identified intra-thoracic primary tumor (e.g. previous lung cancer) on the ipsilateral side. NOTE: Previous radiotherapy as part of treatment for head and neck, breast, or other non-thoracic cancer is permitted so long as possible radiation fields would not overlap. Previous chemotherapy or surgical resection specifically for the lung cancer being treated on this protocol is NOT permitted.
• No prior lung resection on the ipsilateral side.
• Non-pregnant and non-lactating. Women of child-bearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test prior to registration. Peri-menopausal women must be amenorrheic > 12 months prior to registration to be considered not of childbearing potential.
• No prior invasive malignancy, unless disease-free for ≥ 3 years prior to registration (exceptions: non-melanoma skin cancer, in-situ cancers).
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
• evidence of distant metastases
• prior intra-thoracic radiation therapy. NOTE: Previous radiotherapy as part of treatment for head and neck, breast, or other non-thoracic cancer is permitted so long as possible radiation fields would not overlap. Previous chemotherapy or surgical resection specifically for the lung cancer being treated on this protocol is NOT permitted. No prior lung resection on the ipsilateral side.
• pregnant and lactating women
• prior invasive malignancy, unless disease-free for ≥ 3 years prior to registration (exceptions: non-melanoma skin cancer, in-situ cancers).

• Female ≥ 18 years
• Previously histologically proven diagnosis of a. Endometrial Cancer: recurrent or persistent endometrial carcinoma refractory to conventional therapy or established treatments with the following histologic epithelial cell types i. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma, serous adenocarcinoma, undifferentiated carcinoma, clear cell adenocarcinoma, mixed epithelial carcinoma, adenocarcinoma not otherwise specified, mucinous adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and transitional cell carcinoma b. Ovarian Cancer: recurrent or persistent ovarian or primary peritoneal cancer refractory to established treatments with the following histologic epithelial cell types i. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma, serous adenocarcinoma, undifferentiated carcinoma, clear cell adenocarcinoma, mixed epithelial carcinoma, adenocarcinoma not otherwise specified. c. Cervical cancer: squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix refractory to conventional therapy or established treatments with the following histologic epithelial cell types: i. Squamous cell carcinoma, adenosquamous carcinoma or adenocarcinoma Measurable disease defined as at least one lesion that can be accurately measured in at least one dimension (longest dimension to be recorded). Each lesion must be ≥ 20mm when measured by conventional techniques, including palpation, plain x-ray, CT, and MRI or ≥ 10mm when measured by spiral CT.
• Life expectancy ≥ 3 months
• Able to take orally administered study medication
• Must sign approved informed consent and authorization permitting release of personal health information.
• Patient must have adequate: 1. Bone marrow function: absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥ 1,500/mm^3, equivalent to Common Toxicity Criteria (CTC) grade 1, platelets ≥ 100,000/mm^3 2. Renal function: creatinine ≤ 1.5 x institutional upper limit normal (ULN), CTC grade 1. Note: If creatinine is > 1.5 x ULN, creatinine clearance must be > 50 mL/min. 3. Hepatic function: bilirubin ≤ 1.5 x ULN (CTC grade 1) or ≤ 3.0 x ULN for subjects with Gilbert Syndrome; AST and ALT ≤ 3.0 ×ULN. 4. Coagulation profile: PT such that international normalized ratio (INR) is ≤ 1.55 (or an in-range INR, usually between 2 and 3, if a patient is on a stable dose of therapeutic warfarin or low molecular weight heparin) and a PTT < 1.2 times control. 5. ECOG performance ≤ 2
• Patient of child-bearing potential must agree to use contraceptive measures starting 1 week before the administration of the first dose of AL3818 until 4 weeks after discontinuing study drug and have a negative serum pregnancy test prior to study entry and cannot be lactating.
• Ability and willingness to comply with the study protocol for the duration of the study and with follow-up procedures.
• Patients with serious, non-healing wound, ulcer or bone fracture.
• Patients with active bleeding or pathologic conditions that carry high risk of bleeding, such as known bleeding disorder, coagulopathy, or tumor involving major vessels.
• Patient with history or evidence upon physical examination of CNS disease, including primary brain tumor, seizures not controlled with standard medical therapy, any brain metastases or history of cerebrovascular accident (CVA, stroke) transient ischemic attack (TIA) or subarachnoid hemorrhage within 6 months of the first date of treatment on this study. a. Patients with metastatic CNS tumors may participate in this trial, if the patient is > 4 weeks from therapy completion (including radiation and/or surgery), is clinically stable at the time of study entry and is not receiving corticosteroid therapy.
• Patients with proteinuria: patients discovered to have a urine protein of 1+ on dipstick or ≥ 30 mg/dl at baseline should undergo a 24-hour urine collection, which must be an adequate collection and must demonstrate < 1000 mg protein/24 hours to allow participation in the study.
• Patients with clinically significant cardiovascular disease including uncontrolled hypertension, myocardial infarction or unstable angina within 6 months prior to registration. New York Heart Association (NYHA) Grade II or greater congestive heart failure, Serious cardiac arrhythmia requiring medication, Grade II or greater peripheral vascular disease.
• Patients who are pregnant or nursing.
• Women of childbearing potential who are unable to use contraceptive measures during study therapy and for at least 3 months after completion of AL3818 therapy.
• Patients with uncontrolled hypokalemia, hypomagnesaemia, and/or hypocalcaemia.
• Hemoptysis within 3 months prior to first scheduled dose of AL3818.
• Patients with acute or chronic liver disease, active hepatitis A or B with known cirrhosis or liver dysfunction.
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy within 4 weeks (6 weeks in cases of mitomycin C, nitrosourea, lomustine) prior to first scheduled dose of AL3818 or a major surgical procedure within 28 days or minor surgical procedure performed within 7 days prior to first scheduled dose of AL3818.
• Concomitant treatment with strong inhibitors or inducers of CYP3A4, CYP2C9 and CYP2C19 who cannot be switched to other alternative medications .
• Known history of human immunodeficiency virus infection (HIV).
• Subjects with active bacterial infections (other than uncomplicated urinary tract infection) and/or receiving systemic antibiotics.
• Patients with other invasive malignancies, with the exception of non-melanoma skin cancer, who had (or have) any evidence of other cancer present within the last 5 years or whose previous cancer treatment contraindicates this protocol therapy.
• History of non-malignant GI bleeding, gastric stress ulcerations, or peptic ulcer disease within the past 3-months that in the opinion of the investigator may place the patient at risk of side effects on an anti-angiogenesis product.
• History of significant vascular disease (e.g. aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection).
• Intra-abdominal abscess within the last 3 months.
• Pre-existing uncontrolled hypertension as documented by 2 baseline BP readings taken at least one hour apart, defined as systolic bloodpressure (BP) >160 mm Hg or diastolic BP > 90 mm Hg pressure.
• QTcF>470 msec on screening ECG.
• A history of additional risk factors for TdP (e.g., heart failure, hypokalemia, family history of Long QT Syndrome).
• The use of concomitant medications that prolong the QT/QTc interval. Baseline echocardiogram (within 2 months) with left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) < 50%.
• History of difficulty swallowing, malabsorption, active partial or complete bowel obstruction, or other chronic gastrointestinal disease or condition that may hamper compliance and/or absorption of AL3818.
• History of pancreatitis and/or renal disease or pancreatitis that includes histologically confirmed glomerulonephritis, biopsy proven tubulointerstitial nephritis, crystal nephropathy, or other renal insufficiencies.
• Treatment with an investigational agent within the longest time frame of either 5 half- lives or 30 days of initiating study drug.
• Known recreational substance abuse.
• Known hypersensitivity to AL3818 or components of the formulation.

• All cancer cases with an International Classification of Diseases for Oncology (ICD)-O histologic behavior code of two "2" (carcinoma in situ) or three "3" (malignant), in remission
• Patient must have completed curative therapy (surgery and/or radiation and/or chemotherapy) within the past 12 months at a Childrens Oncology Group (COG) institution
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2; use Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age
• At the time of consent, patient or parent/guardian reports less than 420 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity over the last week
• Patient and at least one parent/guardian are able to read and write English, Spanish, and/or French; at least 1 parent/guardian must be able to read and write English, Spanish, and/or French in order to assist the patient with using their physical activity tracking device account
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
• Patients with previous hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT)
• Patients with significant concurrent disease, illness, psychiatric disorder or social issue that would compromise patient safety or compliance with protocol therapy, or interfere with consent, study participation, follow up, or interpretation of study results
• Female patients who are pregnant are not eligible; women of childbearing potential require a negative pregnancy test
• Female patient who is postmenarcheal and has not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method (including abstinence) for the duration of study participation
• Patients with a cognitive, motor, visual or auditory impairment that prevents computer use (e.g. unresolved posterior fossa syndrome) are not eligible

1. Age ≥ 18 years. 2. ECOG Performance Score of 2 or better/Karnofsky Performance score of 50-60 or better. 3. Biopsy-proven non-hematopoietic malignancy, except for germ cell cancer. Small cell lung carcinoma is eligible for this study. 4. Six or more metastases on diagnostic or treatment planning imaging, which include either CT Brain (with contrast) or MR Brain (with or without contrast) imaging. 5. Largest tumor <= 4 cm. 6. No prior SRS to the lesions which will be treated on protocol. 7. Women of child-bearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and for 90 days following completion of therapy. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, marital status, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months). 8. Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent. 1. Prior whole brain radiotherapy 2. Patients with leptomeningeal metastasis. (NOTE: For the purposes of exclusion, LMD is a clinical diagnosis, defined as positive CSF cytology and/or equivocal radiologic or clinical evidence of leptomeningeal involvement. Patients with leptomeningeal symptoms in the setting of leptomeningeal enhancement by imaging (MRI) would be considered to have LMD even in the absence of positive CSF cytology, unless a parenchymal lesion can adequately explain the neurologic symptoms and/or signs. In contrast, an asymptomatic or minimally symptomatic patient with mild or nonspecific leptomeningeal enhancement (MRI) would not be considered to have LMD. In that patient, CSF sampling is not required to formally exclude LMD, but can be performed at the investigator's discretion based on level of clinical suspicion.) 3. Patients with life expectancy < 4 months. 4. Psychiatric illness/social situations that, in the opinion of the investigator, would limit compliance with study requirements. 5. Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.

1. Orthotopic heart transplantation 2. Age < 21 years at time of transplant 3. Stable immunosuppression at the time of randomization with no contraindication to everolimus, tacrolimus, or mycophenolate mofetil 4. Planned follow-up at a study site for the 30 month duration of the study. 5. Subject or legal adult representative capable of providing informed consent (in general, assent will be sought for children aged 12 years or older). 1. Multi-organ transplant (e.g. heart-lung or heart-liver). 2. Known hypersensitivity to everolimus, sirolimus, tacrolimus or mycophenolate mofetil (MMF), or to components of the drug products. 3. Patients on maintenance corticosteroid therapy exceeding a dose equivalent of prednisone 0.1 mg/kg/day at randomization. 4. High-risk for rejection defined as active rejection, recurrent (≥ 2 episodes of grade 2R rejection) cellular rejection, recurrent rejection (≥ 2 episodes of any grade) with hemodynamic compromise, steroid-resistant rejection or unresolved antibody-mediated rejection during the first 6 months post-heart transplant 5. Graft dysfunction (LVEF <40% or wedge pressure >22 mmHg or cardiac index <2.2 L/min/m2) 6. Stage 4 or 5 CKD (eGFR <30 ml/min/1.73 m2) or moderate proteinuria (urine protein to urine creatinine ratio >0.5 mg/mg). 7. Active infection requiring hospitalization or treatment dose medical therapy. 8. Patients with ongoing wound healing problems, clinically significant wound infection requiring continued therapy or other severe surgical complication in the opinion of the Site Principal Investigator. 9. Fasting Serum Cholesterol ≥300 mg/dL OR greater than or equal to 7.75 mmol/L, AND fasting triglycerides ≥2.5x the upper limit of normal (ULN). Note: In case one or both of these thresholds are exceeded, the patient can only be included after initiation of appropriate lipid lowering medication, and reduction of serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels to below exclusion ranges is confirmed. 10. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. 11. Diagnosis of post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) during the first 6 months post-heart transplant. 12. History of non-adherence to medical regimens. 13. Patients who are treated with drugs that are strong inducers or inhibitors of cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4) and cannot discontinue the treatment 14. Patients who are pregnant or breast-feeding or intend to get pregnant during the study period.

1. Age ≥ 18 years. 2. Appropriate staging studies identifying patient as AJCC 7th edition clinical stage T1 (a, b, or c) or T2 (a, b, or c) adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland. The patient should not have direct evidence of regional or distant metastases after appropriate staging studies. See Appendix I for details on AJCC 7th Edition staging criteria. Histologic confirmation of cancer will be required by biopsy performed within 12 months of registration. T-staging may be assessed by multi-parametric imaging alone if digital rectal examination was deferred. 3. The patient's Zubrod performance status must be 0-2 (see Appendix II for definition). 4. The Gleason summary score should be less than or equal to 7 [Grade group 1 (Gleason 3+3=6), group 2 (Gleason 3+4=7), and group 3 (Gleason 4+3=7) are allowed]. See Appendix III for details on definitions. While a template biopsy is recommended, it is not required in the case of MRI fusion biopsy performed on all dominant MR lesions (defined as PIRADS v2 4-5). 5. Baseline AUA symptom score ≤19 (see Appendix IV for questionnaire) without need for maximum medical therapy (specifically, not on tamsulosin 0.8mg daily). 6. EPIC sexual domain composite score 60-100 (see Appendix V). 7. Multi-parametric MRI evaluation of the prostate is required for this study within 12 months of registration. Gross radiographic disease on MRI (defined as PIRADS v2 score 3-5) must be > 5mm at minimum distance from at least one side's neurovascular bundle, which is typically the closest of the neurovascular elements to the prostate. 8. The serum PSA should be less than or equal to 20 ng/ml within 90 days of registration. -Study entry PSA must not be obtained during the following time frames: (1) 10-day period following prostate biopsy; (2) following initiation of ADT or anti-androgen therapy; (3) within 30 days after discontinuation of finasteride; (4) within 90 days after discontinuation of dutasteride; (5) within 5 days of a digital rectal examination (which is not a required exam on the protocol). 9. Ultrasound or MRI based volume estimation of prostate gland ≤ 80 grams. Cytoreduction therapy (finasteride or dutasteride only) may be considered for those with >60 gram size. 10. All patients must be willing and capable to provide informed consent to participate in the protocol within the 30 days prior to registration. 1. Subjects with clinical (digital rectal examination) evidence of extraprostatic extension (T3a) or seminal vesicle involvement (T3b). MRI evidence of equivocal/potential but not definite extraprostatic extension is allowed, as long as it is unilateral and not on the side of the gland proposed for neurovascular element sparing. In equivocal cases of potential extracapsular extension on MRI only, discretion is left to the treating physician. 2. MRI evidence of gross disease (defined as PIRADS v2 score 3-5 lesions) ≤5mm of BOTH neurovascular bundles, which are the most proximate of the neurovascular elements planned for sparing on this protocol. 3. Patients with all three intermediate risk factors (PSA >10 and ≤ 20, Gleason 7, clinical stage T2b-T2c) who ALSO have ≥50% of the number of their template biopsy cores positive for cancer are ineligible. 4. Inability to undergo multi-parametric MRI. 5. Evidence of metastatic disease. Note bone scan is not required for this study given the low-intermediate NCCN risk cohort to be enrolled. 6. Evidence of clinical nodal involvement of the pelvis. Biopsy is required for lymph nodes over ≥1.5cm in short-axis measured size. 7. No currently active ADT or anti-androgen therapy at time of registration is allowed. Further, no more than 3 cumulative months of prior ADT or anti-androgen therapy is allowed. If either has been used by the patient, there must be a demonstration of testosterone recovery (>50ng/dL serum blood level), EPIC sexual domain score ≥60, and at least 1 month between demonstration of testosterone recovery and study registration (any one measurement of testosterone recovery suffices). 8. Testosterone ≤ 50 ng/dL (any one measurement >50 ng/dL suffices for inclusion) within 90 days of study entry. 9. Subjects who have had previous pelvic radiotherapy or have had chemotherapy or surgery for prostate cancer. 10. Subjects who have plans to receive other concomitant or post treatment adjuvant antineoplastic therapy while on this protocol including surgery, cryotherapy, conventionally fractionated radiotherapy, hormonal therapy, or chemotherapy given as part of the treatment of prostate cancer. 11. Subjects who have undergone previous transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) within 1 year of enrollment or ablative procedures to the prostate for benign prostatic hyperplasia or other conditions (i.e. cryotherapy, HIFU). 12. Subjects who have baseline severe urinary symptoms, as defined by AUA symptom score >19 (alpha-blocker medication allowed except if taking tamsulosin 0.8mg daily at baseline which indicates compensated severe symptoms and also can affect sexual function). 13. Subjects who have a history of significant psychiatric illness that would confound informed consent. 14. Severe, active co-morbidity, defined as follows: 1. Unstable angina and/or congestive heart failure requiring hospitalization within the last 6 months 2. Myocardial infarction within the last 6 months 3. Acute bacterial or fungal infection requiring intravenous antibiotics at time of registration 4. Patients with active inflammatory colitis (including Crohn's Disease and ulcerative colitis) currently requiring systemic steroids and/or systemic immunosuppression are not eligible. 15. Subjects with a known allergy to polyethylene glycol hydrogel (rectal spacer material) or contraindication to spacer products (SpaceOAR). 16. Subjects with uncontrolled coagulation disorder which cannot be controlled with anticoagulants. 17. Men active with partners of reproductive potential who do not agree that they will use an effective contraceptive method during treatment and 6 months after treatment. 18. Men who require erectile function medication or aid to achieve an erection sufficient for intercourse. Ability to achieve erection sufficient for intercourse without medication or aid at least once time in the month prior to registration is sufficient for inclusion. 19. Men who have clinically significant penile malformation (i.e. Peyronie's disease) or history of penile implantation are excluded. 20. If DRE is performed, patient may not have palpable disease on side of gland to be planned for neurovascular sparing. Given the poor accuracy of DRE, such a finding should be confirmed by MRI and/or biopsy to harbor actual disease before excluding a patient on this basis.

• Women of childbearing potential must not be known to be pregnant or lactating
• Patients must be scheduled for, or have intent to schedule, a screening mammogram
• Patients must be able to tolerate digital breast tomosynthesis and full-field digital mammographic imaging required by protocol.
• Patients must be willing and able to provide a written informed consent
• Patients must not have symptoms or signs of benign or malignant breast disease (eg, nipple discharge, breast lump) warranting a diagnostic rather than a screening mammogram, and/or other imaging studies (eg, sonogram); patients with breast pain are eligible as long as other criteria are met
• Patients must not have had a screening mammogram within the last 11 months prior to date of randomization
• Patients must not have previous personal history of breast cancer including ductal carcinoma in situ
• Patients must not have breast enhancements (e.g., implants or injections)
• ANNUAL SCREENING REGIMEN ELIGIBILITY CHECK
• To be eligible for inclusion in the annual screening regimen one of the following three conditions must be met in addition to the eligibility criteria above:
• Patients are pre-menopausal; OR
• Post-menopausal aged 45-69 with any of the following three risks factors:
• Dense breasts (BIRADS density categories c-heterogeneously dense or d-extremely dense), or
• Family history of breast cancer (first degree relative with breast cancer), or, positive genetic testing for any deleterious genes that indicate an increased risk for breast cancer, or
• Currently on hormone therapy; OR
• Post-menopausal ages 70-74 with either of the following two risk factors:
• Dense breasts (BIRADS density categories c-heterogeneously dense or d-extremely dense), or
• Currently on hormone therapy
• Postmenopausal women are defined as those with their last menstrual period more than 12 months prior to study entry; for the purpose of defining menopausal status for women who have had surgical cessation of their periods, women who no longer have menses due to hysterectomy and oophorectomy will be considered postmenopausal; women who no longer have menses due to hysterectomy without oophorectomy will be considered premenopausal until age 52 and postmenopausal thereafter
• All other postmenopausal women are eligible for inclusion in the biennial screening regimen
• For those women who cannot be assigned to annual or biennial screening at the time of study entry and randomization because they are postmenopausal, have no family history or known deleterious breast cancer mutation, are not on hormone therapy AND have not had a prior mammogram, breast density will be determined by the radiologist?s recording of it at the time of interpretation of the first study screening examination, either DM or TM; for those who are randomized to TM, radiologists will assign BI-RADS density through review of the DM or synthetic DM portion of the TM examination; such women cannot be part of the planned stratification by screening frequency and are expected to represent far less than 1% of the Tomosynthesis Mammographic Imaging Screening Trial (TMIST) population
• Breast density will be determined by prior mammography reports, when available; all other risk factors used to determine patient eligibility for annual or biennial screening will be determined by subject self-report

• Must have newly diagnosed multiple myeloma with a history of a minimum of 4 cycles of induction therapy, have received high-dose therapy (HDT) and autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT) within 12 months of the start of induction therapy, and be within 6 months of ASCT on the date of randomization
• Must have a very good partial response (VGPR) or better response assessed per International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG) 2016 criteria at the time of randomization
• Must have archived bone marrow samples collected before induction treatment (that is, at diagnosis) or before transplant (for example, at the end of induction) or have existing results on the index multiple myeloma clone based on Adaptive Biotechnologies' next generation sequencing (NGS)-based minimal residual disease (MRD) assay. Archived bone marrow samples will be used for calibration of myeloma clonal cells to facilitate assessment of primary end point by NGS. If an existing result on index myeloma clone is available from Adaptive Biotechnologies' NGS-based MRD assay, as part of institutional procedures, an archived bone marrow sample is not required as long as Adaptive Biotechnologies is able to retrieve historical results on the index myeloma clone form the clinical database. Any one of the following archived samples are required: (a) Greater than 1 milliliter (mL) viable frozen bone marrow aspirated aliquot (preferred) collected in an ethylenediaminetetra-acetic acid (EDTA) tube, frozen, and stored at a temperature of -80 centigrade (°C), or; (b) Non-decalcified diagnostic bone marrow aspirate clot sections (block or slides) for MRD assessment: (i) A formalin fixed paraffin embedded (FFPE) block of bone marrow aspirate clot, or slides (preferably 5, if available), 5 micrometer each, of non-decalcified bone marrow, or; (ii) Slides (preferably 5, if available), bone marrow aspirate smear; (iii) Please note, bone marrow core sections are not acceptable samples for analysis; (iv) In exceptional circumstances when index myeloma clone cannot be identified from the archived bone marrow sample, a post-transplant sample can be used to identify myeloma clone with permission from the sponsor
• Must have residual disease as defined by detectable MRD (Adaptive Biotechnologies' NGS based MRD assay)
• Must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of 0, 1, or 2
• A history of malignancy (other than multiple myeloma) unless all treatment of that malignancy was completed at least 2 years before consent and the participant has no evidence of disease before the of date of randomization. Exceptions are squamous and basal cell carcinomas of the skin, carcinoma in situ of the cervix or breast, or other non-invasive lesion that in the opinion of the investigator, with concurrence with the sponsor's medical monitor, is considered cured with minimal risk of recurrence within 3 years
• Must not have progressed on multiple myeloma (MM) therapy at any time prior to screening
• Have had prior treatment/therapy with: (a) Daratumumab or any other anti-cluster of differentiation 38 (CD38) therapies, (b) Focal radiation therapy within 14 days prior to randomization with the exception of palliative radiotherapy for symptomatic management but not on measurable extramedullary plasmacytoma. Radiotherapy within 14 days prior to randomization on measurable extramedullary plasmacytoma is not permitted even in the setting of palliation for symptomatic management, or (c) Plasmapheresis within 28 days of randomization
• Be exhibiting clinical signs of meningeal or central nervous system involvement due to multiple myeloma
• Have known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with a forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) less than (<) 50 percent (%) of predicted normal
• Have known moderate or severe persistent asthma within the past 2 years or current uncontrolled asthma of any classification
• Have any of the following: (a) Known history of seropositivity for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV); (b) Seropositive for hepatitis B (defined by a positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg]. Participants with resolved infection (that is, participants who are HBsAg negative but positive for antibodies to hepatitis B core antigen [anti-HBc] and/or antibodies to hepatitis B surface antigen [anti-HBs]) must be screened using real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) measurement of hepatitis B virus (HBV) DNA levels. Those who are PCR positive will be excluded. EXCEPTION: Participants with serologic findings suggestive of HBV vaccination (anti-HBs positivity as the only serologic marker) AND a known history of prior HBV vaccination, do not need to be tested for HBV DNA by PCR; (c) Seropositive for hepatitis C (anti-hepatitis C virus [HCV] antibody positive or HCV-RNA quantitation positive), except in the setting of a sustained virologic response, defined as aviremia at least 12 weeks after completion of antiviral therapy)

• Metastatic disease defined as new or progressive lesions on cross-sectional imaging or bone scan. Patients must have at least:
• One measurable site of disease as per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) version (v) 1.1
• One bone lesion on bone scan (tec99 or sodium fluoride [NaF] PET/CT, CT or MRI) for the bone-only cohort.
• Histologically confirmed diagnosis of one of the following metastatic cohorts:
• Small cell/ neuroendocrine carcinoma of the bladder- All urothelial carcinomas with any amount of neuroendocrine differentiation (including small cell differentiation) will be included. If the tumor is purely neuroendocrine, metastasis from another site of origin should be clinically excluded
• Adenocarcinoma of the bladder, or urachal adenocarcinoma, or bladder/urethra clear cell adenocarcinoma
•must be pure (per World Health Organization [WHO] definition), (i.e. urothelial carcinoma with glandular differentiation is not considered a pure adenocarcinoma
• Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder
•must be pure (i.e. urothelial carcinoma with squamous differentiation is not considered a pure squamous cell carcinoma)
• Plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma
•Tumor should show predominantly > or equal ~ 50% plasmacytoid histology (including all types of discohesive growth, such as tumors with signet-ring and/or rhabdoid features as well)
• Any penile cancer
• Sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma
•Tumor should be predominantly sarcomatoid ~ 50% (including rhabdoid differentiation) is also unclassified renal cell carcinomas (RCCs): all (assuming they are high grade with metastasis) malignant angiomyolipomas are allowed
• Sarcomatoid urothelial carcinoma
•Tumor should show predominantly ~ 50% sarcomatoid differentiation
• Renal medullary carcinoma
•Per WHO definition, ideally confirmed with immunostains
• Renal collecting duct carcinoma
•Per WHO definition (medullary involvement, predominant tubular morphology, desmoplastic stromal reaction, high grade cytology, infiltrative growth pattern, and absence of other renal cell carcinoma subtype or urothelial carcinoma)
• Bone only urothelial carcinoma or other non-prostate GU tumor
• Urethra carcinoma- May be of any histology but if urothelial carcinoma then must be isolated to the urethra and not have metachronous or synchronous urothelial carcinoma of the bladder
• Other miscellaneous histologic variants of the urothelial carcinoma, such as, but not limited to : micropapillary (Tumor should show predominantly > or equal 50% micropapillary architecture), giant cell, lipid-rich, clear cell and nested variants (Tumor should predominantly > or equal 50% show these features), large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma, lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma and mixed patterns will be considered, as well as small cell neuroendocrine prostate cancer (Only treatment-naïve primary small cell of prostate with any amount of small cell component allowed. Post-treatment small cell prostatic carcinomas are not allowed), Malignant testicular Sertoli or Leydig cell tumors, and papillary and chromophobe RCC
• Note: Translocation positive renal cell carcinoma patients are eligible. However, AREN1721 should be considered before this trial
• Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) slides from diagnostic tumor tissue for retrospective central pathology review
• Patients may have received up to 2 systemic anti-cancer treatments or be treatment naive. Patients with small cell carcinoma should have received a platinum-based combination regimen either as neoadjuvant, adjuvant or first-line treatment). Patients in the bone-only cohort may be urothelial carcinoma histology but must receive standard cisplatin-based chemotherapy (if cisplatin-eligible)
• Age >= 18 years
• Patients must be able to swallow oral formulation of the tablets
• Karnofsky performance status >= 80%
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mcL
• Platelet count >= 75,000/mcL
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN). For subjects with known Gilbert's disease or similar syndrome with slow conjugation of bilirubin, total bilirubin =< 3.0 mg/dL
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 3.0 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (or =< 5 x ULN for patients with liver metastases or Gilbert's disease)
• Creatinine =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) OR creatinine clearance >= 40 mL/min/1.73 m^2 (calculated using the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology [CKD-EPI] equation or Cockcroft-Gault formula) for patients with creatinine levels above institutional normal
• Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL (transfusion of packed red blood cells [PRBCs] allowed)
• Serum albumin >= 3.2 g/dL
• Lipase and amylase =< 2.0 x ULN and no radiologic (on baseline anatomical imaging) or clinical evidence of pancreatitis
• Prior treatment with MET or VEGFR inhibitors is allowed. However, prior cabozantinib will not be allowed. Also, patients that have received both prior MET or VEGF and prior PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 (sequentially or in combination) are also not allowed
• Prior treatment with any therapy on the PD-1/PD-L1 axis or anti- CTLA-4/CTLA-4 inhibitors is allowed, either in the perioperative or in the metastatic setting. However, patients that have received both prior MET or VEGF and prior PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 (sequentially or in combination) are not allowed
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients are eligible if on stable dose of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART), no clinically significant drug-drug interactions are anticipated with the current HAART regimen, CD4 counts are greater than 350 and viral load is undetectable
• Patients with rheumatoid arthritis and other rheumatologic arthropathies, Sjogren's syndrome and psoriasis controlled with topical medication only and patients with positive serology, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-thyroid antibodies etc. are eligible but should be considered for rheumatologic evaluation for the presence of target organ involvement and potential need for systemic treatment
• Patients with vitiligo, endocrine deficiencies including thyroiditis managed with replacement hormones or medications (e.g. thyroiditis managed with propylthiouracil [PTU] or methimazole) including physiologic oral corticosteroids are eligible
• Patients who have evidence of active or acute diverticulitis, intra-abdominal abscess, and gastrointestinal (GI) obstruction, within 12 months are not eligible
• Women of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test =< 7 days prior to registration
• Women of childbearing potential include women who have experienced menarche and who have not undergone successful surgical sterilization (hysterectomy, bilateral tubal ligation, or bilateral oophorectomy) or are not postmenopausal. Post menopause is defined as amenorrhea >= 12 consecutive months. Note: women who have been amenorrheic for 12 or more months are still considered to be of childbearing potential if the amenorrhea is possibly due to prior chemotherapy, antiestrogens, ovarian suppression or any other reversible reason
• Pregnant women may not participate in this study because with cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab have potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with these agents
• The patient has received no cytotoxic chemotherapy (including investigational cytotoxic chemotherapy) or biologic agents (e.g., cytokines or antibodies) within 2 weeks before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no radiation therapy:
• To the lungs and mediastinum or abdomen within 4 weeks before the first dose of study treatment, or has ongoing complications, or is healing from prior radiation therapy
• To brain metastasis within 3 weeks for whole-brain radiotherapy (WBXRT), and 2 weeks for stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT) before the first dose of study treatment
• To the abdomen within 4 weeks before the first dose of study treatment, or has ongoing complications, or is healing from prior radiation therapy
• To any other site(s) within 2 weeks before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no radionuclide treatment within 6 weeks of the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no prior treatment with a small molecule kinase inhibitor within 14 days or five half-lives of the compound or active metabolites, whichever is longer, before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no prior treatment with hormonal therapy within 14 days or five half-lives of the compound or active metabolites, whichever is longer, before the first dose of study treatment. Subjects receiving gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists and antagonists are allowed to participate
• The patient has not received any other type of investigational agent within 14 days before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient must have recovered to baseline or Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) =< grade 1 from toxicity due to all prior therapies except alopecia, neuropathy and other non-clinically significant adverse events (AEs) defined as lab elevation with no associated symptoms or sequelae
• The patient may not have active brain metastases or epidural disease. Patients with brain metastases previously treated with whole brain radiation or radiosurgery who are asymptomatic and do not require steroid treatment for at least 2 weeks before starting study treatment are eligible. Neurosurgical resection of brain metastases or brain biopsy is permitted if completed at least 3 months before starting study treatment. Baseline brain imaging with contrast-enhanced CT or MRI scans for subjects with known brain metastases is required to confirm eligibility
• No concomitant treatment with warfarin. Aspirin (up to 325 mg/day), thrombin or factor Xa inhibitors, low-dose warfarin (=< 1 mg/day), prophylactic and therapeutic low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) are permitted
• No chronic concomitant treatment with strong CYP3A4 inducers (e.g., dexamethasone, phenytoin, carbamazepine, rifampin, rifabutin, rifapentine, phenobarbital, and St. John's wort) or strong CYP3A4 inhibitors
• Because the lists of these agents are constantly changing, it is important to regularly consult medical reference texts such as the Physicians' Desk Reference may also provide this information. As part of the enrollment/informed consent procedures, the patient will be counseled on the risk of interactions with other agents, and what to do if new medications need to be prescribed or if the patient is considering a new over-the-counter medicine or herbal product
• The patient has not experienced any of the following:
• Clinically-significant gastrointestinal bleeding within 6 months before the first dose of study treatment
• Hemoptysis of >= 0.5 teaspoon (2.5 mL) of red blood per day within 1 months before the first dose of study treatment
• Any other signs indicative of pulmonary hemorrhage within 3 months before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has no tumor invading any major blood vessels
• The patient has no evidence of tumor invading the GI tract (esophagus, stomach, small or large bowel, rectum or anus), or any evidence of endotracheal or endobronchial tumor within 28 days before the first dose of cabozantinib. Patients with rectal tumor masses are not eligible
• The patient has no uncontrolled, significant intercurrent or recent illness including, but not limited to, the following conditions:
• Cardiovascular disorders including:
• Congestive heart failure (CHF): New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III (moderate) or class IV (severe) at the time of screening.
• Concurrent uncontrolled hypertension defined as sustained blood pressure (BP) > 150 mm Hg systolic, or > 90 mm Hg diastolic despite optimal antihypertensive treatment within 7 days of the first dose of study treatment
• The subject has a corrected QT interval calculated by the Fridericia formula (QTcF) > 500 ms within 28 days before randomization. Note: if initial QTcF is found to be > 500 ms, two additional electrocardiograms (EKGs) separated by at least 3 minutes should be performed. If the average of these three consecutive results for QTcF is =< 500 ms, the subject meets eligibility in this regard
• Any history of congenital long QT syndrome
• Any of the following within 6 months before registration of study treatment:
• Unstable angina pectoris
• Clinically-significant cardiac arrhythmias (patients with atrial fibrillation are eligible)
• Stroke (including transient ischemic attack [TIA], or other ischemic event)
• Myocardial infarction
• Cardiomyopathy
• No significant gastrointestinal disorders particularly those associated with a high risk of perforation or fistula formation including:
• Any of the following that have not resolved within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment:
• Active peptic ulcer disease
• Acute diverticulitis, cholecystitis, symptomatic cholangitis or appendicitis, or malabsorption syndrome
• None of the following within 2 years before the first dose of study treatment:
• Abdominal fistula or genitourinary fistula
• Gastrointestinal perforation
• Bowel obstruction or gastric outlet obstruction
• Intra-abdominal abscess. Note: Complete resolution of an intra-abdominal abscess must be confirmed prior to initiating treatment with cabozantinib even if the abscess occurred more than 2 years before the first dose of study treatment
• Disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement are not eligible
• No other clinically significant disorders such as:
• Severe active infection requiring IV systemic treatment within 14 days before the first dose of study treatment
• Serious non-healing wound/ulcer/bone fracture within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment
• History of organ or allogeneic stem cell transplant
• Concurrent uncompensated hypothyroidism or thyroid dysfunction within 7 days before the first dose of study treatment (for asymptomatic patients with an elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], thyroid replacement may be initiated if clinically indicated without delaying the start of study treatment)
• No history of major surgery as follows:
• Major surgery within 3 months of the first dose of cabozantinib; however, if there were no wound healing complications, patients with rapidly growing aggressive cancers, may start as soon as 6 weeks if wound has completely healed post-surgery
• Minor surgery within 1 month of the first dose of cabozantinib if there were no wound healing complications or within 3 months of the first dose of cabozantinib if there were wound complications excluding core biopsies and mediport placement
• Complete wound healing from prior surgery must be confirmed before the first dose of cabozantinib irrespective of the time from surgery
• No history of severe hypersensitivity reaction to any monoclonal antibody
• No evidence of active malignancy, requiring systemic treatment within 2 years of registration
• No history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to cabozantinib, nivolumab, ipilimumab or other agents used in study
• No positive test for hepatitis B virus surface antigen (HBV sAg) or hepatitis C virus ribonucleic acid (HCV antibody) indicating acute or chronic infection. If HBV sAG is positive, subsequent ribonucleic acid (RNA) polymerase chain reaction (PCR) must be negative
• No patients with active autoimmune disease or history of autoimmune disease that might recur, which may affect vital organ function or require immune suppressive treatment including systemic corticosteroids. These include, but are not limited to patients with a history of immune related neurologic disease, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune (demyelinating) neuropathy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis; systemic autoimmune disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), connective tissue diseases, scleroderma, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), Crohn's, ulcerative colitis, hepatitis; and patients with a history of toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), Stevens-Johnson syndrome, or phospholipid syndrome should be excluded because of the risk of recurrence or exacerbation of disease

• Patients must be women with newly diagnosed histologically proven invasive carcinoma of the breast with no evidence of metastases, staged as per site standard of care.
• Patients must have been treated by BCS or mastectomy with clear margins of excision. Post-mastectomy positive margins for invasive disease and/or DCIS is not allowed. Multifocal disease (i.e. the presence of two or more foci or breast cancer within the same breast quadrant) and multicentric disease (i.e. the presence of two or more foci of breast cancer in different quadrants of the same breast) are allowed.
• Patients with T3N0 disease are eligible.
• Patients with disease limited to nodal micrometastases are eligible
• Patients with nodal macrometastases (>2mm) treated by axillary dissection must have 1-3 positive axillary nodes (macrometastases, > 2 mm).
• Patients treated by mastectomy and SLNB alone must have only 1-2 positive axillary nodes (macrometastases, > 2 mm).
• Patients must be ER ≥ 1% and HER2 negative on local testing
• Patients must have an Oncotype DX recurrence score ≤25 obtained from testing of breast tumour tissue from a core biopsy or from the surgical specimen.
• Patient must consent to provision of, and investigator(s) must agree to submit to the CCTG Central Tumour Bank, a representative formalin fixed paraffin block of tumour tissue in order that the specific correlative marker assays described in the protocol may be conducted
• Patient must consent to provision of samples of blood in order that the specific correlative marker assays described in the protocol may be conducted.
• Patients must have had endocrine therapy initiated or planned for ≥ 5 years. Premenopausal women will receive ovarian ablation plus aromatase inhibitor therapy or tamoxifen if adjuvant chemotherapy was not administered. For all patients, endocrine therapy can be given concurrently or following RT.
• Patients may or may not have had adjuvant chemotherapy.
• RT must commence within 16 weeks of definitive surgery if the patient is not treated with chemotherapy. If adjuvant chemotherapy is given, RT must begin within 12 weeks after the last dose. (Note: adjuvant chemotherapy may be ongoing at the time of randomization). Definitive surgery is defined as the last breast cancer-related surgery.
• Patient's ECOG performance status must be 0, 1 or 2.
• Patient's age must be ≥ 35 years.
• For the first 736 eligible English or French-speaking subjects who have agreed to optional questionnaire completion: Patient is able (i.e. sufficiently fluent) and willing to complete the quality of life, health utilities and lost productivity questionnaires in either English or French (note: enrollment completed 2022Aug02)
• Patient consent must be appropriately obtained in accordance with applicable local and regulatory requirements
• Patients must be accessible for treatment and follow-up. Investigators must assure themselves the patients randomized on this trial will be available for complete documentation of the treatment, adverse events, and follow-up.
• In accordance with CCTG policy, protocol treatment is to begin within 6 weeks of patient randomization.
• Women of childbearing potential must have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method. A woman is considered to be of "childbearing potential" if she has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months.
• Patients with nodal disease limited to isolated tumour cells (pN0i+ < 0.2 mm).
• Patients with pT3N1 and pT4 disease (Note: patients with T3N0 are eligible).
• Any prior history, not including the index cancer, of ipsilateral invasive breast cancer or ipsilateral DCIS treated with radiation therapy. (Patients with synchronous or previous ipsilateral LCIS are eligible.)
• Synchronous or previous contralateral invasive breast cancer. (Patients with contralateral DCIS are eligible unless previously treated with radiation.)
• History of non-breast malignancies except adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancers, in situ cancers treated by local excision or other cancers curatively treated with no evidence of disease for ≥ 5 years.
• Patients who are pregnant.
• Patients that have had prior ipsilateral chestwall/thoracic radiation.
• Patients treated with chemo or endocrine therapy administered in the neoadjuvant setting for breast cancer. Endocrine therapy exposure 12 weeks or less prior to surgery is permitted.
• Patients with serious non-malignant disease (e.g. cardiovascular, scleroderma etc.) which would preclude RT.
• Patients with any serious active or co-morbid medical conditions, laboratory abnormality, psychiatric illness, active or uncontrolled infections, or serious illnesses or medical conditions that would prevent the patient from participating or to be managed according to the protocol (according to investigator's decision).

• Patients with suspected renal cell carcinoma with planned surgery or patients with metastatic RCC and a tissue diagnosis. (In standard clinical practice, biopsy is not routinely performed in patients who will be having surgery).
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
• Patient must be able to lie still for a 30 to 60 minute PET/CT scan.
• One of the following: 1. Patients with locally advanced RCC planned for surgery determined to be a high risk of recurrence, defined by presence of at least clinical T2 or thioredoxin 1 (TxN1), OR patients with metastatic RCC for whom treatment with metastasectomy is planned by the treating physician. 2. Patients with metastatic RCC for whom immuno-oncology (IO) therapy is planned.
• Women of child-bearing potential must agree to undergo and have documented a negative pregnancy test on the day of 89Zr-DFO-Atezolizumab administration. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months).
• History of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to atezolizumab or any other chimeric or humanized antibodies.
• Uncontrolled severe and irreversible intercurrent illness or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements.
• Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.
• Significant autoimmune disease requiring treatment with either prednisone (or steroid equivalent) at a dose > 10 mg/day or other immunosuppressive agents. (Replacement steroid therapy is acceptable).
• Any patient for whom ICI therapy would be contraindicated for other reasons. Patients with adverse reactions to ICI therapy may undergo second 89Zr-DFO-Atezolizumab injection and PET/CT at the discretion of the treating physician considering that the dose of antibody represents 1% of a single therapeutic dose and therefore unlikely to cause adverse events.
• Subjects unable to provide informed consent.
• Subjects who are claustrophobic or have other contraindications to PET/CT.
• Subjects must not weigh more than the maximum weight limit for the table for the PET/CT scanner where the study is being performed. (>200 kg or 440 lbs).

1. Histologically or pathologically confirmed diagnosis of AML based on WHO classification that has relapsed after, or is refractory to, two, three, or four prior induction regimens that may have included intensive chemotherapy (e.g., "7+3" cytarabine and daunorubicin), epigenetic therapy (i.e., azacitidine or decitabine), or targeted therapy (e.g., FLT-3, IDH-1/2, BCL-2, monoclonal antibody). (Relapse is defined as reemergence of ≥5% leukemia blasts in bone marrow or ≥1% blasts in peripheral blood ≥90 days after first CR or CR without complete platelet recovery (CRp). Refractory AML is defined as persistent disease ≥28 days after initiation of intensive induction therapy (up to two induction cycles) or relapse <90 days after first CR or CRp. Refractory disease for patients undergoing hypomethylating agent induction is defined as lack of remission following at least 2 cycles of epigenetic therapy without reduction in bone marrow blast status.) Patients with a history of IPSS-R high or very high risk MDS that transformed to AML during treatment with hypomethylating drugs and then relapse following or are refractory to a subsequent AML induction regimen may be enrolled as Second Salvage AML patients. Additionally, patients with a history of MPN in accelerated phase (MPN-AP) or high-risk primary myelofibrosis (PMF) that transformed to AML during treatment with hypomethylating drugs and then relapse following or are refractory to a subsequent AML induction regimen may be enrolled as Second Salvage AML patients. 2. Aged ≥ 18 years. 3. ECOG Performance Status of 0, 1 or 2. 4. Adequate clinical laboratory values (i.e., plasma creatinine <2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for the institution, bilirubin <2.5 x ULN, alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST) ≤2.5 x ULN). 5. Absence of active central nervous system (CNS) involvement by leukemia. Patients with previously diagnosed CNS leukemia are eligible if the CNS leukemia is under control and intrathecal treatment may continue throughout the study. 6. Absence of uncontrolled intercurrent illnesses, including uncontrolled infections, cardiac conditions, or other organ dysfunctions. 7. Signed informed consent prior to the start of any study specific procedures. 8. Women of child-bearing potential must have a negative serum or urine pregnancy test. 9. Male and female patients must agree to use acceptable contraceptive methods for the duration of the study and for at least one month after the last drug administration. 1. The interval from prior treatment to time of study drug administration is < 2 weeks for cytotoxic agents or < 5 half-lives for noncytotoxic agents. Exceptions: Use of hydroxyurea is allowed before the start of study and is to be discontinued prior to the initiation of study treatment. At the investigator's discretion, for patients with significant leukocytosis that develops during the early treatment cycles, hydroxyurea may be administered. The hydroxyurea should be discontinued as soon as clinically appropriate. 2. Any >grade 1 persistent clinically significant toxicities from prior chemotherapy. 3. Inadequate Cardiac (left ventricular ejection fraction ≤40%) function. 4. White blood cell (WBC) count >15,000/μL (Note: Patients considered for possible venetoclax-containing regimen must have WBC ≤10k/μL prior to initiating venetoclax treatment). 5. For patients with prior hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT): 1. Less than 3 months since HSCT 2. Acute Graft versus Host Disease (GvHD) >Grade 1 3. Chronic GvHD >Grade 1 6. Any concomitant condition that in the opinion of the investigator could compromise the objectives of this study and the patient's compliance. 7. A pregnant or lactating woman. 8. Current malignancies of another type. Exceptions: Patients may participate if they have previously treated and currently controlled prostate cancer, or adequately treated in situ cervical cancer or basal cell skin cancer, or other malignancies with no evidence of disease for 2 years or more. 9. Patient has acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL). 10. Patients with known HIV, active HBV or active HCV infection (note: testing for these infections is not required). For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated. Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load. 11. Documented or known clinically significant bleeding disorder.

Participants must satisfy the following criteria to be enrolled in the study: Inclusion
• Participant is ≥ 18 years of age at the time of signing the ICF.
• Participant has a history of multiple myeloma (MM) with relapsed and/or refractory disease
• Participant must have measurable disease.
• Participant has an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group Performance Status (ECOG PS) of 0 or 1. Exclusion Criteria
• Participant has symptomatic central nervous system involvement of MM.
• Participant had a prior autologous stem cell transplant ≤ 3 months prior to starting CC-99712.
• Participant had a prior allogeneic stem cell transplant with either standard or reduced intensity conditioning ≤ 6 months prior to starting CC-99712 or is on systemic immunosuppression for graft-versus host disease.
• Subject is a pregnant or lactating female.
• Subject has known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.
• Subject has active hepatitis B or C (HBV/HCV) infection. Other protocol-defined inclusion/exclusion criteria apply

• Histologically confirmed, recurrent, non-muscle-invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder. Variant pathology are allowed
• Tumor with specified fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) mutations or fusions
• Bacillus Calmette- Guerin (BCG)-unresponsive after adequate BCG therapy or BCG experienced participants
• Refuses or is not eligible for cystectomy (Cohort 1 and Cohort 2 only)
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status Grade 0-1
• Must sign an informed consent form (ICF) (or their legally acceptable representative must sign) indicating that he or she understands the purpose of, and procedures required for, the study and is willing to participate in the study
• A woman of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test (beta-hCG [beta-human chorionic gonadotropin]) (urine or serum) within 7 days before randomization (Cohort 1) or the first dose of study drug (Cohort 2 and Cohort 3)
• Adequate bone marrow, liver, and renal function as specified in the protocol
• Histologically confirmed, muscle-invasive (T2 or higher stage) urothelial carcinoma of the bladder
• Histopathology demonstrating any small cell component, pure adenocarcinoma, pure squamous cell carcinoma, or pure squamous CIS of the bladder
• Prior treatment with an FGFR inhibitor
• Active malignancies other than the disease being treated under study. The only allowed exceptions are: (a) skin cancer treated within the last 24 months that is considered completely cured (b) adequately treated lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) and ductal CIS (c) history of localized breast cancer and receiving antihormonal agents, or history of localized prostate cancer (N0M0) and receiving androgen deprivation therapy
• Current central serous retinopathy or retinal pigment epithelial detachment of any grade

• Participants must have discontinued all previous treatments for cancer or investigational agents ≥7 days after the last dose or per the type of previous treatment as stated in the protocol and must have recovered from the acute effects to ≤Grade 2 for alopecia and decreased tendon reflex and to ≤Grade 1 for all other effects at the time of enrollment, unless otherwise noted. Consult with the Lilly clinical research physician or scientist for the appropriate length of time prior to the first dose of study treatment.
• Participants with relapsed, recurrent, or refractory DSRCT.
• Participants must:
• Have measurable disease by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors, Version (RECIST) 1.1.
• Have received at least one prior line of systemic treatment (including neoadjuvant and adjuvant chemotherapy). This prior treatment must include approved therapies for which they are eligible, unless the participant is not a suitable candidate for the approved therapy.
• Not be eligible for surgical resection at time of enrollment.
• Adequate cardiac function, defined as: Shortening fraction of ≥27% by echocardiogram, or ejection fraction of ≥50% by gated radionuclide study.
• Adequate blood pressure (BP) control, defined as:
• Participants ≥18 years: Controlled hypertension defined as systolic BP ≤150 millimeters of mercury (mmHg) or diastolic BP ≤90 mmHg where standard medical management is permitted. Please note that ≥2 serial BP readings should be obtained and averaged to determine baseline BP.
• Participants <18 years: A BP ≤95th percentile for age, height, and gender measured as described in National High Blood Pressure Education Program Working Group (NHBPEPWG) on High Blood Pressure in Children and Adolescents (2004), where standard medical management is permitted. Please note that ≥2 serial BP readings should be obtained and averaged to determine baseline BP.
• Adequate hematologic function, as defined as:
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC): ≥750/microliters (µL) granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) permitted up to 48 hours prior. Participants with documented history of benign ethnic neutropenia or other conditions could be considered with a lower ANC after discussion with and approval from the Lilly clinical research physician or scientist.
• Platelets: ≥75,000/cubic millimeters. Platelet transfusion permitted up to 72 hours prior.
• Hemoglobin: ≥8 grams per deciliter (g/dL) (≥80 g/liter). Transfusions to increase the participant's hemoglobin level to at least 8 g/dL are permitted; however, study treatment must not begin until 7 days after the transfusion, and complete blood count criteria for eligibility are confirmed within 24 hr of first study dose.
• Adequate renal function, as defined as:
• Creatinine clearance or radioscope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ≥60 milliliters/minute/meters squared OR serum creatinine meeting the following parameters:
• for participants ≥18 years of age serum creatinine ≤1.5×upper limit of normal (ULN);
• for participants <18 years of age, serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows: Age 1 to <2 years maximum serum creatinine 0.6, Age 2 to <6 years maximum serum creatinine 0.8, Age 6 to <10 years maximum serum creatinine 1.0, Age 10 to <13 years maximum serum creatinine 1.2, Age 13 to <16 years maximum serum creatinine 1.5 for males and 1.4 for females, Age 16 to <18 years maximum serum creatinine 1.7 for males and 1.4 for females.
• Urine protein meeting the following parameters:
• for participants ≥18 years of age: <2+ on dipstick or routine urinalysis. If urine dipstick or routine analysis indicates proteinuria ≥2+, then a 24-hour urine must be collected and must demonstrate <2 grams of protein in 24 hours to allow participation in the study.
• for participants <18 years of age: ≤30 milligrams per deciliter urine analysis or <2+ on dipstick. If urine dipstick or routine analysis indicates proteinuria ≥2+, then a 24-hour urine must be collected and must demonstrate <1 g of protein in 24 hours to allow participation in the study.
• Adequate liver function:
• Total bilirubin: ≤1.5×ULN. Except participants with document history of Gilbert Syndrome who must have a total bilirubin level of <3.0×ULN.
• Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST): ≤2.5×ULN OR ≤5.0×ULN if the liver has tumor involvement.
• The participant has an adequate coagulation function as defined by International Normalized Ratio ≤1.5 or prothrombin time ≤1.5×ULN, and partial thromboplastin time ≤1.5×ULN if not receiving anticoagulation therapy. For participants receiving anticoagulants, exceptions to these coagulation parameters are allowed if they are within the intended or expected range for their therapeutic use. Participants must have no history of clinically significant active bleeding (defined as within 14 days of first dose of study drug) or pathological condition that carries a high risk of bleeding (for example, tumor involving major vessels or known esophageal varices).
• The participant has adequate hematologic and organ function ≤1 week (7 days) prior to first dose of study drug.
• Female participants of childbearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test within 7 days prior to randomization. Male and female participants must agree to use highly effective contraception for the duration of the study and up to 3 months following the last dose of ramucirumab and vinorelbine, and 12 months following the last dose of cyclophosphamide in order to prevent pregnancy.
• Participants with severe and/or uncontrolled concurrent medical disease or psychiatric illness/social situation that in the opinion of the investigator could cause unacceptable safety risks or compromise compliance with the protocol.
• Participants who have active infections requiring therapy.
• Participants with an active fungal, bacterial, and/or known severe viral infection including, but not limited to, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or viral (A, B, or C) hepatitis (screening is not required).
• Participants who have had allogeneic bone marrow or solid organ transplant are excluded.
• Surgery: Participants who have had, or are planning to have, the following invasive procedures are not eligible:
• Major surgical procedure, laparoscopic procedure, or significant traumatic injury within 28 days prior to enrollment.
• Central line placement or subcutaneous port placement is not considered major surgery.
• Core biopsy, fine needle aspirate, and bone marrow biopsy/aspirate are not considered major surgeries.
• Surgical or other wounds must be adequately healed prior to enrollment.
• Bleeding and thrombosis:
• Participants with evidence of active bleeding or a history of significant (≥Grade 3) bleeding event within 3 months prior to enrollment are not eligible.
• Participants with a bleeding diathesis or vasculitis are not eligible.
• Participants with known or prior history in the prior 3 months of esophageal varices are not eligible.
• Participants with a history of deep vein thrombosis requiring medical intervention (including pulmonary embolism) within 3 months prior to study enrollment are not eligible.
• Participants with a history of hemoptysis or other signs of pulmonary hemorrhage within 3 months prior to study enrollment are not eligible.
• Cardiac:
• Participants with a history of central nervous system (CNS) arterial/venous thromboembolic events (VTEs) including transient ischemic attack (TIA) or cerebrovascular accident (CVA) within 6 months prior to study enrollment are not eligible.
• Participants with myocardial infarction or unstable angina within the prior 6 months.
• Participants with New York Heart Association Grade 2 or greater congestive heart failure (CHF).
• Participants with serious and inadequately controlled cardiac arrhythmia.
• Participants with significant vascular disease (eg, aortic aneurysm, history of aortic dissection).
• Participants with clinically significant peripheral vascular disease.
• Participants who have a history of fistula, gastrointestinal (GI) ulcer or perforation, or intra-abdominal abscess within 3 months of study enrollment are not eligible.
• Participants with a history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathy within 6 months of study enrollment are not eligible.
• Participants who have non-healing wound, unhealed or incompletely healed fracture, or a compound (open) bone fracture at the time of enrollment are not eligible.
• Participants previously treated and progressed on combination cyclophosphamide and vinorelbine regimen. Participants who received combination as maintenance therapy, without progression, would be eligible.
• Participants with a known hypersensitivity to ramucirumab, cyclophosphamide, vinorelbine or any of the excipients of the medicinal products.
• Hepatic impairment:
• Severe liver cirrhosis Child-Pugh Class B (or worse).
• Cirrhosis with a history of hepatic encephalopathy.
• Clinically meaningful ascites resulting from cirrhosis and requiring ongoing treatment with diuretics and/or paracentesis.
• History of hepatorenal syndrome.
• The participant has a bowel obstruction, history or presence of inflammatory enteropathy or extensive intestinal resection (eg, hemicolectomy or extensive small intestine resection with chronic diarrhea), Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, or chronic diarrhea.
• The participant has a urinary outflow obstruction.
• The participant has Grade 2 hematuria or non-infectious cystitis at the time of screening.
• Participants with central nervous system (CNS) involvement are ineligible.

• Step 1 Patient Registration Eligibility Criteria
• Histologically confirmed muscle-invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder. Urothelial carcinoma invading into the prostatic stroma with no histologic muscle invasion is allowed, provided the extent of disease is confirmed via imaging and/or examination under anesthesia (EUA). The diagnostic TURBT sample must have been obtained within 60 days prior to registration
• 20 unstained slides (10 micron thickness) of formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) pre-treatment diagnostic transurethral resection (TUR) specimen available (for sequencing), with 2 (5 micron) slides at the start and end of the 20 slides, for a total of 22 unstained slides. An FFPE block is also acceptable
• Clinical stage T2-T4aN0/xM0 disease
• Medically appropriate candidate for radical cystectomy as assessed by surgeon
• No concomitant multifocal carcinoma in situ; a single focus is allowed
• A single muscle-invasive bladder tumor measuring ≤5 cm in size as defined by the surgeons at cystoscopic evaluation. When documented, pathologic size at cystoscopy and TURBT will take precedence over radiographic measurements of tumor size.
• No clinical or radiographic evidence for locally advanced or metastatic disease
• No prior anti-PD-1 or anti PD-L1 therapies, or systemic chemotherapy within the past 5 years (prior intravesical induction immunotherapy for non-muscle invasive disease is allowed, defined as BCG x6 doses and maintenance therapy); BCG refractory disease, defined as disease recurrence within 3 months of BCG therapy, is not allowed. Intravesical chemotherapy is allowed.
• No prior radiation therapy to the bladder or prostate
• No major surgery or radiation therapy =< 4 weeks of registration (TURBT is allowed).
• Not pregnant and not nursing. This study involves an agent that has known genotoxic, mutagenic and teratogenic effects. For women of childbearing potential only, a negative pregnancy test done =< 14 days prior to registration is required
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-1
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mm^3
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3
• Calculated creatinine clearance ≥ 55 mL/min using formula per institutional standard or investigator's discretion. The same formula should be used to calculate all subsequent creatinine clearances.
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) * (For patients with documented Gilbert's syndrome Total Bilirubin =< 3 x ULN)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x ULN
• Alkaline phosphatase =< 2.5 x ULN
• No evidence of New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional class III or IV heart disease
• No ongoing cardiac dysrhythmias of National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version 5.0 grade >= 2
• No pre-existing sensory grade >= 2 neuropathy
• No pre-existing grade >= 2 hearing loss
• No serious intercurrent medical or psychiatric illness, including serious active infection
• None of the following within the 6 months prior to study drug administration: myocardial infarction, severe/unstable angina, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft, symptomatic congestive heart failure, cerebrovascular accident, or transient ischemic attack
• No known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)-related illness or other active infection. HIV-positive patients on combination antiretroviral therapy are ineligible because of the potential for pharmacokinetic interactions with the drugs used in this trial. In addition, these patients are at increased risk of lethal infections when treated with marrow-suppressive therapy. Appropriate studies will be undertaken in patients receiving combination antiretroviral therapy, when indicated
• No history of allergic reaction attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to the agents used in this study
• No concurrent treatment on another clinical trial; supportive care trials or non-therapeutic trials (e.g., quality of life) are allowed
• No prior malignancy except for: adequately treated basal or squamous cell skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer, adequately treated stage I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for five years. Patients with localized prostate cancer who are being followed by an active surveillance program are also eligible
• Step 2 Patient Registration Eligibility Criteria
• Patients must have completed 4 or more cycles of protocol-directed chemotherapy and DDR gene results must be available
• Step 3 Patient Registration Eligibility Criteria (only patients with a DDR gene alteration)
• Deleterious alteration within 1 or more of 9 pre-defined DDR genes within the pre-treatment TURBT deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
• Cystoscopy and imaging performed to determine stage/treatment assignment

Inclusion criteria will be the same for Phase I and Phase II. 1. Pathologically proven diagnosis of stage I-IVB squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, oropharynx, hypopharynx, or larynx status post gross total resection with pathology showing one or more of the following intermediate risk factors:
• T3/4 disease (AJCC 8th edition), positive lymph node(s), close margin(s), perineural invasion, and/or lymphovascular invasion
• Close margin(s) defined as either:
• Final patient margin of <5 mm without disease on ink OR
• Initial positive margin in the specimen regardless of the final patient margin (e.g. if resection margin on the initial specimen is positive, final patient margin after subsequent resections can be ≥5 mm and still be considered close margin) 2. Age ≥18 years 3. ECOG performance status 0-2 4. Women of child-bearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and for 90 days following completion of therapy. Medically acceptable birth control (contraceptives) includes:
• approved hormonal contraceptives (such as birth control pills, patch or ring; Depo-Provera, Implanon), or
• barrier methods (such as condom or diaphragm) used with a spermicide Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months). 5. Negative serum or urine pregnancy test within 2 weeks before registration for women of childbearing potential. 6. Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent Phase I: 1. Distant metastasis 2. Stage I and II glottic squamous cell carcinoma 3. High risk factors following surgical resection requiring concurrent chemotherapy: final positive margin(s) and/or extranodal extension 4. Feeding tube dependence at baseline assessment. 5. Synchronous non-skin cancer primaries outside of the oropharynx, oral cavity, larynx, and hypopharynx except for low- and intermediate-risk prostate cancer and synchronous well-differentiated thyroid cancer. For prostate cancer, patient should not be receiving active treatment. For thyroid cancer, thyroid surgery may occur before or after treatment, provided all other eligibility criteria are met. 6. Prior invasive malignancy with an expected disease-free interval of less than 3 years 7. Prior radiotherapy to the region of the study cancer that would result in overlap of radiation fields 8. Subjects may not be receiving any other investigational agents for the treatment of the cancer under study. 9. Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that, in the opinion of the investigator, would limit compliance with study requirements 10. Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants. 11. History of severe immunosuppression, including HIV, and organ or autologous or allogeneic stem cell transplant Phase II: The exclusion criteria will be the same as Phase I except for feeding tube dependence. Patients who are feeding tube dependent are excluded from Phase I to accurately assess treatment associated toxicity affecting swallowing and oral intake. During Phase II, patients who are feeding tube dependent will be eligible to enroll and stratified at randomization.

• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: All patients must have a histologically or cytologically proven diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the prostate. Patients with pure small cell carcinoma* (SCC), sarcomatoid, or squamous cell carcinoma are not eligible. (*morphology must be consistent with SCC; synaptophysin or chromogranin positive by immunohistochemical staining is insufficient to diagnose SCC).
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have an intact prostate. No prior local therapy for prostate adenocarcinoma is allowed (e.g., brachytherapy, high-intensity focused ultrasound [HIFU], cryotherapy, laser ablative therapies). Any prior therapy for benign conditions, such as obstruction, are acceptable (e.g., transurethral resection of the prostate, greenlight laser ablation, microwave ablation).
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have evidence of metastatic disease on technetium bone scan and computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) within 42 days prior to starting standard systemic therapy. Metastatic disease that is detected by positron emission tomography (PET) scan only (sodium fluoride [NaF], prostate-specific membrane antigen [PSMA], anti-1-amino-3-18F-fluorocyclobutane-1-carboxylic acid [FACBC], carbon [C]11) but not conventional imaging (technetium [Tc]99 bone scan, CT or MRI) or solitary metastases by conventional imaging, must be confirmed histologically or cytologically.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients with known brain metastases are not eligible. Brain imaging studies are not required for eligibility if the patient has no neurologic signs or symptoms suggestive of brain metastasis. If brain imaging studies are performed, they must be negative for disease.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must have received no more than 28 weeks of standard systemic therapy (SST). SST is defined as current National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) guidelines for metastatic prostate cancer.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must not have progressed while on SST.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients with oligometastatic prostate cancer may receive metastasis directed therapy to up to four sites of disease prior to randomization.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a complete physical examination and medical history within 28 days prior to registration.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a PSA documented prior to initiation of SST and within 28 days prior to registration. Any additional PSAs measured while receiving SST should be recorded.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a testosterone lab documented within 28 days prior to randomization. Any additional testosterone labs measured while receiving SST should be recorded as well as pretreatment initiation if available.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: No other prior malignancy is allowed except for the following: adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, adequately treated stage 0, I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for three years.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: SPECIMEN SUBMISSION CRITERIA: Patients must be offered the opportunity to participate in translational medicine studies and specimen banking for future studies.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: QUALITY OF LIFE CRITERIA: Patients who can complete Patient-Reported Outcome instruments in English, Spanish or French, must participate in the quality of life studies.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: REGULATORY CRITERIA: Patients must be informed of the investigational nature of this study and must sign and give written informed consent in accordance with institutional and federal guidelines.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: As a part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have no evidence of disease progression during the 28 weeks of SST by PSA measure, bone scan and CT or MRI or symptomatic deterioration (as defined by physician discretion) within 28 days prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have consultation with a urologist and have surgically resectable disease regardless of definitive treatment intent or randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must have received between 22 and 28 weeks of SST as measured from the date of first hormonal therapy or surgical castration. SST is defined by current NCCN guidelines for metastatic prostate cancer.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must not be planning to receive docetaxel after randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Any toxicities from SST must have resolved to =< grade 1 (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] version 5.0) prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients may have received elective metastasis directed therapy to oligometastatic sites (=< 4 sites). All treatment must be completed prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a PSA performed within 28 days prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a testosterone < 50 ng/dL within 28 days prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a Zubrod performance status of 0 ? 1 within 28 days prior to randomization.

• Has a histologically- or cytologically-confirmed advanced (metastatic and/or unresectable) solid tumor (except breast or ovarian cancers whose tumor has a germline or somatic BRCA mutation) that is not eligible for curative treatment and for which standard of care therapy has failed. Participants must have progressed on or be intolerant to standard of care therapies that are known to provide clinical benefit. There is no limit on the number of prior treatment regimens.
• Has either centrally-confirmed known or suspected deleterious mutations in at least 1 of the genes involved in HRR or centrally-confirmed HRD.
• For participants receiving prior platinum (cisplatin, carboplatin, or oxaliplatin either as monotherapy or in combination) for advanced (metastatic and/or unresectable) solid tumor, have no evidence of disease progression during the platinum chemotherapy.
• Has measurable disease per RECIST 1.1 or PCWG-modified RECIST 1.1 as assessed by the local site Investigator/radiology and confirmed by BICR.
• Is able to provide a newly obtained core or excisional biopsy of a tumor lesion or either an archival formalin-fixed paraffin embedded (FFPE) tumor tissue block or slides.
• Has a life expectancy of at least 3 months.
• Has an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of either 0 or 1, as assessed within 3 days of treatment initiation.
• Male participants must agree to use contraception during the treatment period and for at least 90 days (3 months) after the last dose of study treatment and refrain from donating sperm during this period.
• Female participants must not be pregnant or breastfeeding. Additionally, female participants must either not be a woman of childbearing potential (WOCBP) or, if a WOCBP, agree to use contraception during the treatment period and for at least 30 days (1 month) after the last dose of study treatment.
• Has adequate organ function.
• Has a known additional malignancy that is progressing or has required active treatment in the last 5 years. Note: Participants with basal cell carcinoma of the skin, squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, ductal carcinoma in situ, or cervical carcinoma in situ that has undergone potentially curative therapy are not excluded.
• Has myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)/acute myeloid leukemia (AML) or with features suggestive of MDS/AML.
• Has known central nervous system (CNS) metastases and/or carcinomatous meningitis. Note: Participants with previously treated brain metastases may participate if radiologically stable, clinically stable, and without requirement for steroid treatment for at least 14 days prior to the first dose of study treatment.
• Has received colony-stimulating factors (e.g., granulocyte colony-stimulating factor [G-CSF], granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor [GM-CSF] or recombinant erythropoietin) within 28 days prior to the first dose of study treatment.
• Has a known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.
• Has known active hepatitis infection (i.e., Hepatitis B or C).
• Is unable to swallow orally administered medication or has a gastrointestinal disorder affecting absorption (e.g., gastrectomy, partial bowel obstruction, malabsorption).
• Has received prior therapy with olaparib or with any other polyadenosine 5' diphosphoribose (poly[ADP ribose]) polymerization (PARP) inhibitor.
• Has a known hypersensitivity to the components or excipients in olaparib.
• Has received previous allogenic bone-marrow transplant or double umbilical cord transplantation (dUCBT).
• Has received a whole blood transfusion in the last 120 days prior to entry to the study. Packed red blood cells and platelet transfusions are acceptable if not performed within 28 days of the first dose of study treatment.

• Histologically documented, unresectable locally advanced or metastatic urothelial carcinoma
• Measurable disease by investigator assessment according to RECIST v1.1
• Participants with prior definitive radiation therapy must have measurable disease per RECIST v1.1 that is outside the radiation field or has demonstrated unequivocal progression since completion of radiation therapy
• Participants must not have received prior systemic therapy for locally advanced or metastatic urothelial carcinoma with the following exceptions:
• Participants that received neoadjuvant chemotherapy with recurrence >12 months from completion of therapy are permitted
• Participants that received adjuvant chemotherapy following cystectomy with recurrence >12 months from completion of therapy are permitted
• Must be considered eligible to receive cisplatin- or carboplatin-containing chemotherapy, in the investigator's judgment
• Archival tumor tissue comprising muscle-invasive urothelial carcinoma or a biopsy of metastatic urothelial carcinoma must be provided for PD-L1 testing prior to randomization
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status score of 0, 1, or 2
• Adequate hematologic and organ function Exclusion Criteria
• Previously received enfortumab vedotin or other monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE)-based antibody-drug conjugate (ADCs)
• Received prior treatment with a programmed cell death ligand-1 (PD-(L)-1) inhibitor for any malignancy, including earlier stage urothelial cancer (UC), defined as a PD-1 inhibitor or PD-L1 inhibitor
• Received prior treatment with an agent directed to another stimulatory or co inhibitory T-cell receptor
• Received anti-cancer treatment with chemotherapy, biologics, or investigational agents not otherwise prohibited by exclusion criterion 1-3 that is not completed 4 weeks prior to first dose of study treatment
• Uncontrolled diabetes
• Estimated life expectancy of less than 12 weeks
• Active central nervous system (CNS) metastases
• Ongoing clinically significant toxicity associated with prior treatment that has not resolved to ≤ Grade 1 or returned to baseline
• Currently receiving systemic antimicrobial treatment for active infection (viral, bacterial, or fungal) at the time of randomization. Routine antimicrobial prophylaxis is permitted.
• Known active hepatitis B, active hepatitis C, or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.
• History of another invasive malignancy within 3 years before the first dose of study drug, or any evidence of residual disease from a previously diagnosed malignancy
• Documented history of a cerebral vascular event (stroke or transient ischemic attack), unstable angina, myocardial infarction, or cardiac symptoms consistent with New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class IV within 6 months prior to randomization
• Receipt of radiotherapy within 2 weeks prior to randomization
• Received major surgery (defined as requiring general anesthesia and >24 hour inpatient hospitalization) within 4 weeks prior to randomization
• Known severe (≥ Grade 3) hypersensitivity to any enfortumab vedotin excipient contained in the drug formulation of enfortumab vedotin
• Active keratitis or corneal ulcerations
• History of autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in the past 2 years
• History of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, organizing pneumonia, drug induced pneumonitis, idiopathic pneumonitis, or evidence of active pneumonitis on screening chest computed tomography (CT) scan
• Prior allogeneic stem cell or solid organ transplant
• Received a live attenuated vaccine within 30 days prior to randomization

• Patients with suspected BCR of prostate cancer following initial treatment with either prostatectomy or definitive EBRT of the prostate or patients with known metastatic prostate cancer who have failed systemic therapy.
• Patients being considered for salvage therapy.
• Patients must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0-3.
• Patients must be medically stable as judged by the patient's physician.
• Patients must be able to lie still for 20-40 minutes for the PET/CT scans.
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
• Patients with BCR and no known lesions should not be on antiandrogen therapy at the time of scans. Patients with known metastases who are currently being treated with anti-androgen therapy may remain on this medication.
• Patients who have or have had a biopsy proven concurrent other malignancy, excluding skin cancers.
• Patients may not weigh more than the maximum weight limit for the PET /CT scanner table (> 200 kg or 440 pounds).
• History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to 68Ga PSMA-11. Furosemide will not be administered to patients with known allergy.
• Patients must not be claustrophobic.

• Written informed consent in accordance with federal, local, and institutional guidelines. The patient must provide informed consent prior to the first screening procedure.
• Previously treated (up to three prior lines of therapy), histologically proven advanced squamous NSCLC.
• No prior treatment with EGFR inhibitors, IMIDs (eg, thalidomide, lenalidomide), or anti-TNF antibodies.
• No treatment with systemic glucocorticoids within 3 weeks of initiation of study therapy (topical and inhaled glucocorticoids are permitted).
• Age ≥ 18 years.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1.
• Adequate organ and marrow function as defined below:
• absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1,000/μL
• platelets ≥ 50,000/μl
• total bilirubin within normal institutional limits
• AST(SGOT)/ALT(SPGT) ≤ 2.5 X institutional upper limit of normal
• CrCl ≥ 45 ml/min
• For both male and female patients, effective methods of contraception must be used throughout the study and for 3 months following the last dose of study treatment.
• Adequate archival tissue (5-10 slides) for correlative studies.
• Subject must have measurable disease per RECIST 1.1
• Chemotherapy, radiotherapy, or other cancer therapy within two weeks prior to starting study treatment. Subjects must have recovered from prior treatment-related to toxicities to grade 1 or baseline (excluding alopecia and clinically stable toxicities requiring ongoing medical management, such as hypothyroidism from prior immune checkpoint inhibitor treatment).
• Subjects may not be receiving any other investigational agents for the treatment of the cancer under study.
• Symptomatic brain metastases or brain metastases requiring escalating doses of corticosteroids
• History of hypersensitivity or allergic reactions attributed to afatinib or prednisone.
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including but not limited to poorly controlled diabetes (which may worsen in setting of chronic prednisone therapy), symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that, in the opinion of the investigator, would limit compliance with study requirements.
• Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.

• Eastern Collaborative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance score of less than or equal to 2.
• Documented relapsed or progressive Multiple Myeloma (MM) on or after any regimen or is refractory to the most recent line of therapy.
• Positive for translocation t(11;14) as determined by an analytically validated Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization (FISH) assay per central laboratory testing.
• Received prior treatment with at least 1 prior line of therapy for MM.
• Measurable disease on Screening per International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG) criteria.
• Meets absolute neutrophil count, platelet count, hemoglobin, liver and kidney function laboratory values within 2 weeks prior to first dose of study drug.
• Has a pre-existing condition that is contraindicated including.
• Non-secretory or oligo-secretory MM
• Active plasma cell leukemia.
• Waldenström's macroglobulinemia.
• Primary amyloidosis.
• POEMS syndrome (polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal protein, and skin changes).
• Active hepatitis B or C infection based on screening blood testing.
• Known active Severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) infection.
• Significant cardiovascular disease.
• Major surgery within 4 weeks prior to first dose.
• Acute infections requiring antibiotic, antifungal or antiviral therapy within14 days prior to first dose.
• Peripheral neuropathy ≥ Grade 3 or ≥ Grade 2 with pain within 2 weeks prior to first dose.
• Uncontrolled diabetes or uncontrolled hypertension within 14 days prior to first dose.
• Any other medical condition that, in the opinion of the Investigator, would adversely affect the participant's participation in the study.
• History of other active malignancies, including myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), within the past 3 years prior to study entry Other protocol defined inclusion/exclusion criteria could apply

• Each patient must meet the following criteria to be enrolled in this study. 1. Be able to and provide written informed consent and be willing and able to comply with all study procedures 2. Adult, 18 years and older 3. AL amyloidosis Mayo stage IIIa based on the 2013 European Modification of the 2004 Standard Mayo Clinic Staging in patients with advanced cardiac involvement at the time of Screening 4. Measurable hematologic disease at Screening as defined by at least one of the following: 1. Involved/Uninvolved Free Light Chain Difference (dFLC) > 4 mg/dL or 2. Involved Free Light Chain (iFLC) > 4 mg/dL with abnormal ratio or 3. Serum Protein Electrophoresis (SPEP) m-spike > 0.5 g/dL 5. Histopathological diagnosis of amyloidosis AND confirmation of AL derived amyloid deposits by at least one of the following: 1. Immunohistochemistry or 2. Mass spectrometry or 3. Characteristic electron microscopy appearance 6. Cardiac involvement as defined by: a. Documented clinical signs and symptoms supportive of a diagnosis of heart failure in the setting of a confirmed diagnosis of AL amyloidosis in the absence of an alternative explanation for heart failure AND b. At least one of the following: i. Endomyocardial biopsy demonstrating AL cardiac amyloidosis or ii. Echocardiogram demonstrating a mean left ventricular wall thickness (calculated as [IVSd+LPWd]/2) of > 12 mm at diastole in the absence of other causes (e.g., severe hypertension, aortic stenosis), which would adequately explain the degree of wall thickening or iii. Cardiac MRI with gadolinium contrast agent diagnostic or cardiac amyloidosis 7. Planned first-line treatment for plasma cell dyscrasia is a CyBorD-based regimen administered as Standard of Care (SoC) 8. Adequate bone marrow reserve and hepatic function as demonstrated by: 1. Absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1.0 x 109/L 2. Platelet count ≥ 75 x 109/L 3. Hemoglobin ≥ 9 g/dL 4. Total direct bilirubin ≤ 2 times the upper limit of normal (x ULN) unless due to Gilbert's syndrome. 5. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) ≤ 3 x ULN 6. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤ 3 x ULN 7. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) ≤ 5 x ULN (except for patients with hepatomegaly and isozymes specific to liver, rather than bone) 9. Women of childbearing potential (WOCBP) must have a negative pregnancy test during Screening and must agree to use highly effective physician approved contraception from Screening to at least 5 months following the last study drug administration or 12 months following the last dose of her PCD therapy, whichever is longer 10. Men must be surgically sterile or must agree to use effective physician approved contraception and refrain from donating sperm from Screening to at least 5 months following the last study drug administration or 12 months following the last dose of his PCD therapy, whichever is longer
• Patients who meet any of the following criteria will not be permitted entry to the study. 1. Have any other form of amyloidosis other than AL amyloidosis 2. Received prior therapy for AL amyloidosis or multiple myeloma. A maximum exposure of 2 weeks of a CyBorD-based PCD treatment after screening laboratory samples are obtained and prior to randomization is allowed. 3. Has POEMS syndrome or multiple myeloma defined as clonal bone marrow plasma cells > 10% or biopsy-proven bony or extramedullary plasmacytoma AND any one or more of the following CRAB features: a. Evidence of end organ damage that can be attributed to the underlying plasma cell proliferative disorder, specifically: i. Hypercalcemia: serum calcium > 0.25 mmol/L (> 1mg/dL) higher than the ULN or > 2.75 mmol/L (> 11mg/dL) ii. Renal insufficiency: creatinine clearance < 40 mL per minute or serum creatinine > 177mol/L (> 2mg/dL) iii. Anemia: hemoglobin value of > 20g/L below the lowest limit of normal, or a hemoglobin value < 100g/L iv. Bone lesions: one or more osteolytic lesion on skeletal radiography, CT, or PET/CT. If bone marrow has < 10% clonal plasma cells, more than one bone lesion is required to distinguish from solitary plasmacytoma with minimal marrow involvement OR b. Any one of the following biomarkers of malignancy: i. 60% or greater clonal plasma cells on bone marrow examination ii. More than one focal lesion on MRI that is at least 5mm or greater in size 4. Have supine systolic blood pressure < 90 mmHg or symptomatic orthostatic hypotension, defined as a decrease in systolic blood pressure upon standing of > 30 mmHg despite medical management (e.g., midodrine, fludrocortisones) in the absence of volume depletion 5. Taking prednisone or its equivalent > 10 mg/day 6. Taking doxycycline 7. Receiving dialysis 8. Planned stem cell transplant during the first 6 months of protocol therapy. Stem cell collection during the protocol therapy is permitted. 9. Have had myocardial infarction, uncontrolled angina, severe uncontrolled ventricular arrhythmias within 6 months prior to screening or percutaneous cardiac intervention with recent stent or coronary artery bypass grafting within 4 months prior to screening. Exacerbation of chronic condition or new acute condition will require discussion and approval by the Medical Monitor. 10. Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction (LVEF) is < 40% by echocardiogram at Screening 11. Have severe valvular stenosis (e.g., aortic or mitral stenosis with a valve area < 1.0 cm2) or severe congenital heart disease 12. Have history of sustained ventricular tachycardia or aborted ventricular fibrillation or a history of atrioventricular nodal or sinoatrial nodal dysfunction for which a pacemaker/implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is indicated but not placed. (Participants who do have a pacemaker or ICD are allowed in the study.) 13. QT corrected by Fridericia (QTcF) is > 550 msec. Participants who have a pacemaker may be included regardless of calculated QTc interval. 14. There is evidence of acute ischemia or active conduction system abnormalities with the exception of any of the following: 1. First degree Atrioventricular (AV)-block 2. Second degree AV-block Type 1 (Mobitz Type 1/Wenckebach type) 3. Right or left bundle branch block 4. Atrial fibrillation with a controlled ventricular rate. (An uncontrolled ventricular rate [i.e., > 110 beats per minute] determined by an average of three beats in lead II or representative beats in lead II is not allowed) 15. Have had major surgery within 4 weeks of randomization or is planning major surgery during the study. Patients with surgical procedures conducted under local anesthesia may participate 16. There is active malignancy (including lymphoma) with the exception of any of the following: 1. Adequately treated basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, or in situ cervical cancer 2. Adequately treated stage I cancer from which the patient is currently in remission and has been in remission for > 2 years 3. Low-risk prostate cancer with Gleason score < 7 and prostate-specific antigen < 10 mg/mL 4. Other localized and/or low risk malignancies may be permitted with Medical Monitor approval. 17. Have received an investigational drug/device in another clinical investigational study within 60 days before Screening 18. Hypersensitivity to the study drug 19. Have received a live vaccine within 4 weeks prior to first dose of CyBorD 20. Women who are breast feeding 21. Have any other medical, social or psychological factors that could affect the patient's safety or ability to consent personally or comply with study procedures.

• First diagnosis of malignant neoplasm (International Classification of Diseases for Oncology [ICD-O] behavior code of "3") in first and continuous remission at the time of enrollment
• Curative cancer treatment must have included chemotherapy (including cellular therapy) and/or radiation (including radioactive iodine)
• Note: Childrens Oncology Group (COG) therapeutic trial participation is not required
• All cancer treatment must have been completed within 3-36 calendar months prior to enrollment
• Patients must have a life expectancy of > 1 year
• Self-report of < 420 minutes of moderate-to-vigorous physical activity per week as assessed via the study-specific Physical Activity Worksheet
• Note: See COG Study Web Page for the Godin-Shephard Leisure Time Physical Activity Questionnaire or link to online calculator
• Ambulatory and no known medical contraindications to increasing physical activity
• Note: Patients with amputation, rotationplasty, or other prothesis are not automatically excluded as long as they are ambulatory and have no known medical contraindications to increasing physical activity and all other eligibility criteria are satisfied
• No known significant physical or cognitive impairment that would prevent use of the electronic devices used for the protocol intervention (e.g. Fitbit, smartphone, tablet, or computer)
• Able to read and write English
• Note: For patients < 18 years, consenting parent/legal guardian does not have to be able to read and write English
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• Note: Informed consent may be obtained electronically/online if allowed by local site policy and Institutional Review Board (IRB)/Research Ethics Board (REB) of record
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
• Post-menarchal female patients who are pregnant or planning to become pregnant in the next year are excluded
• Note: Pregnancy status can be established by clinical history with patient. Post-menarchal female patients are eligible as long as they agree to use an effective contraceptive method (including abstinence) during study participation
• Patients with previous hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) are excluded
• Note: Patients with previous autologous HSCT, chimeric antigen receptor T-cell (CAR T-cell) therapy, and other cellular cancer therapies can participate as long as all other eligibility criteria are satisfied