Search Results
Testing the Timing of Pembrolizumab Alone or With Chemotherapy as First Line Treatment and Maintenance in Non-small Cell Lung Cancer
This phase III trial studies whether pembrolizumab alone as a first-line treatment, followed by pemetrexed and carboplatin with or without pembrolizumab after disease progression is superior to induction with pembrolizumab, pemetrexed and carboplatin followed by pembrolizumab and pemetrexed maintenance in treating patients with stage IV non-squamous non-small cell lung cancer. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as pembrolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Chemotherapy drugs, such as pemetrexed, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Carboplatin is in a class of medications known as platinum-containing compounds. It works in a way similar to the anticancer drug cisplatin, but may be better tolerated than cisplatin. Carboplatin works by killing, stopping or slowing the growth of cancer cells. It is not yet known whether giving first-line pembrolizumab followed by pemetrexed and carboplatin with or without pembrolizumab works better in treating patients with non-squamous non-small cell cancer.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Patients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed stage IV non-squamous non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) (includes M1a, M1b, and M1c stage disease, American Joint Committee on Cancer [AJCC] 8th edition). Patients with stage IIIB and IIIC disease are eligible if they are not candidates for combined chemotherapy and radiation. Prior chemo-radiation therapy (RT) for stage III with recurrence is allowed
• Patients must have PD-L1 expression Tumor Proportion Score (TPS) >= 1% in tumor cells. If PD-L1 expression TPS is unevaluable or the testing could not be completed, the patients are not eligible. The assay must have been performed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) (or equivalent) certified laboratory
• Patients must have measurable or non-measurable disease. The presence of malignant pleural fluid alone is sufficient to satisfy this eligibility criterion. Baseline imaging assessments and measurements used to evaluate all measurable or non-measurable sites of disease must be done within 4 weeks prior to study registration
• NOTE: If patient receives pemetrexed, follow institutional guidelines to drain fluids
• Patients must be >= 18 years of age
• Patients must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 to 1
• Patients must NOT have received the following:
• Prior systemic chemotherapy or immunotherapy for advanced metastatic NSCLC. Patients treated with any prior checkpoint inhibitors for metastatic lung cancer are ineligible. Chemotherapy for non-metastatic disease (e.g. adjuvant therapy) or immunotherapy for locally advanced stage III disease, or treated with neoadjuvant IO is allowed if at least 6 months have elapsed between the last dose of the prior therapy and study registration. Local therapy, e.g. palliative radiation, is allowed as long as a period of 14 days has passed between completion of local therapy and the start of protocol treatment. Registration during the 14 days is allowed. Palliative radiation must be to non-target lesions. Palliative radiation to pre-existing lesions while on protocol treatment is allowed as long as these areas have not grown to RECIST defined progression. Development of any new metastasis is considered progression. Concurrent radiation and protocol treatment is not allowed; protocol treatment may resume after completion of radiation as long as patient does not have greater than grade 2 side effects from radiation per physician discretion.
• Methotrexate (MTX) given in low doses for non-malignant conditions with last dose at least 14 days prior to date of registration will be allowed. Other low dose chemotherapeutics for non-malignant conditions will be considered, but review by the study chair is required
• Palliative radiation to non-target lesions (bone metastasis) is allowed if the patient develops symptoms
• Patients with known EGFR mutations (except exon 20 insertion), BRAF mutations (V600) or ALK or ROS1 translocations or other driver mutations that can be treated with oral tyrosine kinase inhibitors are excluded
• Patients with treated brain metastases are eligible if follow-up brain imaging obtained at least 14 days after central nervous system (CNS)-directed therapy shows no evidence of progression. CNS progression counts as progression and patients must move on to the next phase after CNS treatment. Patients with asymptomatic new (at screening) or progressive brain metastases (active brain metastases at screening) are eligible if the treating physician determines that immediate CNS specific treatment is not required and is unlikely to be required during the first cycle of therapy
• Patients are eligible if off steroids for at least 14 days prior to protocol treatment
• Anticonvulsants are allowed
• Patients with asymptomatic, sub-centimeter brain metastasis who at the discretion of investigators do not need immediate CNS directed therapies are eligible
• Patients with prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment does not have the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen are eligible for this trial
• Patients must not have known pre-existing and clinically active interstitial lung disease, or a known history of (non infectious) pneumonitis that required steroids, or current pneumonitis
• Patients must not have significant gastrointestinal disorders with diarrhea as a major symptom (e.g., Crohn's disease, malabsorption, etc.)
• Patients must not have history of auto-immune condition (including Guillain-Barre Syndrome or Multiple Sclerosis) requiring ongoing or intermittent systemic treatment in the past 2 years prior to registration (i.e., with use of disease modifying agents, corticosteroids or immunosuppressive drugs). Replacement therapy (e.g., thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency, etc.) is not considered a form of systemic treatment
• Patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification. To be eligible for this trial, patients should be class 2B or better
• Patients must not have any other concomitant serious illness or organ system dysfunction that in the opinion of the investigator would either compromise patient safety or interfere with the evaluation of the safety of the study drug
• Patients must not receive any other investigational agents during the course of therapy
• Patients must not be pregnant or breast-feeding due to potential harm to the fetus or infant from cytotoxic chemotherapy and the unknown risk of pembrolizumab (MK-3475). All patients of childbearing potential must have a blood test or urine study within 72 hours prior to registration to rule out pregnancy. A patient of childbearing potential is anyone, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria: 1) has achieved menarche at some point; 2) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or 3) has not been naturally postmenopausal (amenorrhea following cancer therapy does not rule out childbearing potential) for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months)
• Patients must use accepted and effective method(s) of contraception or by abstaining from sexual intercourse from time of registration, while on study treatment, and continue for 120 days after the last dose of study treatment
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1500/mm^3 (within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Platelets >= 100,000/mm^3 (within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Prothrombin time (PT)/international normalized ratio (INR) (only if on active anticoagulation with warfarin or any formulations of heparin) =< 3.0 (within 14 day prior to randomization)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 mg/dL (obtained within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) < 5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) (obtained within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) < 5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) (obtained within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Calculated creatinine clearance >= 45 ml/min to be eligible to receive pemetrexed (obtained within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Serum creatinine =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (obtained within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Patients must not have a known history of active tuberculosis (TB)
• Patients must not have a diagnosis of immunodeficiency or receive systemic steroid therapy or any other form of immunosuppressive therapy within 7 days prior to the first dose of protocol treatment
• Patients must not have received a live vaccine within 30 days prior to randomization. Patients are permitted to receive inactivated vaccines and any non-live vaccines including those for the seasonal influenza and COVID-19 (Note: intranasal influenza vaccines, such as Flu-Mist [registered trademark] are live attenuated vaccines and are not allowed). If possible, it is recommended to separate study drug administration from vaccine administration by about a week (primarily, in order to minimize an overlap of adverse events)
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
• For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable or on suppressive therapy, if indicated. Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
Safety and Efficacy of Quizartinib in Children and Young Adults With Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML), a Cancer of the Blood
Quizartinib is an experimental drug. It is not approved for regular use. It can only be used in medical research. Children or young adults with a certain kind of blood cancer (FLT3-ITD AML) might be able to join this study if it has come back after remission or is not responding to treatment.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Has diagnosis of AML according to the World Health Organization (WHO) 2008 classification with ≥5% blasts in bone marrow, with or without extramedullary disease
• In first relapse or refractory to first-line high-dose chemotherapy with no more than 1 attempt (1 to 2 cycles of induction chemotherapy) at remission induction - prior HSCT is permitted
• Has presence of the FLT3-ITD activating mutation in bone marrow or peripheral blood as defined in the protocol
• Is between 1 month and 21 years of age at the time the Informed Consent/Assent form is signed
• Has protocol-defined adequate performance status score
• Has fully recovered from the acute clinically significant toxicity effects of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy, per protocol guidelines
• Has protocol-defined adequate renal, hepatic and cardiac functions
• If of reproductive potential, is permanently sterile or agrees to use highly effective birth control upon enrollment, during the period of therapy, and for 6 months following the last dose of quizartinib, etoposide, fludarabine, methotrexate, or cytarabine, whichever is later
• If female of child-bearing potential, tests negative for pregnancy and agrees not to breast feed
• Male participants must be surgically sterile or willing to use highly effective birth control during the treatment period, and for 6 months following the last dose of quizartinib, etoposide, fludarabine, methotrexate, or cytarabine, whichever is later.
• Participant/legal representative is capable of understanding the investigational nature of the study, potential risks, and benefits, and the patient (and/or legal representative) signs a written assent/informed consent
• Has been diagnosed with isolated central nervous system relapse, acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL), juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia, French-American-British classification M3 or WHO classification of APL with translocation, or with myeloid proliferations related to Down syndrome
• Has uncontrolled or pre-defined significant cardiovascular disease as detailed in the protocol
• Has systemic fungal, bacterial, viral or other infection that is exhibiting ongoing signs/symptoms related to the infection without improvement despite appropriate antibiotics or other treatment. The patient must be off vasopressors and have negative blood cultures for at least 48 hours prior to the start of systematic protocol therapy.
• Has known active clinically relevant liver disease (e.g., active hepatitis B or active hepatitis C)
• Has known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
• Has history of hypersensitivity to any of the study medications or their excipients
• Is receiving or is anticipated to receive concomitant chemotherapy, radiation, or immunotherapy other than as specified in the protocol
• Has any significant concurrent disease, illness, psychiatric disorder or social issue that would compromise subject safety or compliance, interfere with consent/assent, study participation, follow up, or interpretation of study results
• Is currently participating in another investigative interventional procedure (observational or long-term interventional follow-up is allowed)
• Is otherwise considered inappropriate for the study by the Investigator
Immunotherapy With Nivolumab and Ipilimumab Followed by Nivolumab or Nivolumab With Cabozantinib for Patients With Advanced Kidney Cancer, The PDIGREE Study
This phase III trial compares the usual treatment (treatment with ipilimumab and nivolumab followed by nivolumab alone) to treatment with ipilimumab and nivolumab, followed by nivolumab with cabozantinib in patients with untreated renal cell carcinoma that has spread to other parts of the body. The addition of cabozantinib to the usual treatment may make it work better. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as nivolumab and ipilimumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Cabozantinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. It is not yet known how well the combination of cabozantinib and nivolumab after initial treatment with ipilimumab and nivolumab works in treating patients with renal cell cancer that has spread to other parts of the body.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• STEP I REGISTRATION CRITERIA
• Histologically documented renal cell carcinoma with clear cell component, including patients who have sarcomatoid or rhabdoid features
• Any metastatic disease, including visceral, lymph node, other soft tissue and bone, measurable per RECIST 1.1.
• Measurable disease as defined in the protocol.
• Must be intermediate or poor risk patient per International Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma Database (IMDC) criteria (1 or more of the following): Karnofsky performance status [KPS] < 80, < 1 year from diagnosis [including initial nephrectomy] to systemic treatment for metastatic disease, hemoglobin less than lower limit of normal [LLN], corrected calcium concentration greater than upper limit of normal [ULN], absolute neutrophil count greater than ULN, platelet count > ULN).
• Central nervous system (CNS) disease permitted, if stable and not otherwise causing symptoms or needing active treatment.
• Karnofsky performance status >= 70%.
• No prior treatment with PD-1, PD-L1, or CTLA-4 targeting agents (including but not limited to nivolumab, pembrolizumab, pidilizumab, durvalumab, atezolizumab, tremelimumab, and ipilimumab), or any other drug or antibody specifically targeting T-cell co-stimulation or checkpoint pathways. The only exception is for prior treatment with nivolumab or other PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 targeting therapy on pre- or post-operative trials, as long as > 1 year since completion of systemic therapy.
• No prior previous systemic therapy for renal cell carcinoma (prior HD IL-2 [> 28 days] and prior adjuvant sunitinib > 180 days since completion and prior immunotherapy as above are allowed).
• No systemic cancer therapy less than 28 days prior to registration; no radiation therapy less than 14 days prior to registration. There must be a complete recovery and no ongoing complications from radiotherapy.
• Not pregnant and not nursing, because this study involves an agent that has known genotoxic, mutagenic and teratogenic effects. Therefore, for women of childbearing potential only, a negative serum or urine pregnancy test done =< 14 days prior to registration is required.
• Age >= 18 years
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500/mm^3.
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3.
• Hemoglobin >= 8 g/dL.
• Calculated (Calc.) creatinine clearance >= 30 mL/min.
• Urine protein =< 1+ or urine protein to creatinine (UPC) ratio < 1.
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) (except for patients with known or likely Gilbert's syndrome, for whom total bilirubin up to 3 mg/dL is allowed with direct bilirubin =< 20% total bilirubin)
• Aspartate aminotransferase/alanine aminotransferase (AST/ALT) =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) or < 5 x ULN if hepatic metastases present.
• STEP 2 REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA
• Successful completion of at least 1 cycle of ipilimumab/nivolumab.
• Resolution of any treatment-related adverse events to grade 1 or less per dose modification section (this criteria does not include any adverse events [AEs] not attributable to treatment which are present due to disease), with prednisone-equivalent dosing at 10 mg daily or less. Exceptions for this criteria include patients receiving replacement hormone treatments (such as levothyroxine for treatment-related hypothyroidism or glucocorticoid replacement for adrenal insufficiency). Please contact study chair if further discussion is needed.
• No more than 80 days from last dose of ipilimumab/nivolumab.
• Active autoimmune disease requiring ongoing therapy.
• Ongoing acute toxicity > grade 2 from previous treatment.
• History of severe allergic, anaphylactic or other hypersensitivity reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies.
• Active hepatitis B/C, or active tuberculosis (PPD response without active TB is allowed)
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) -infected patients with detectable viral load within 6 months prior to registration. Patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months prior to registration are eligible.
• Concurrent use of immunosuppressive medication including prednisone above 10 mg daily.
• Uncontrolled adrenal insufficiency.
• Uncontrolled hypertension (systolic blood pressure [BP] >150 mmHg or diastolic BP > 90 mmHg).
• Major surgery less than 28 days prior to registration.
• Any serious non-healing wound, ulcer, or bone fracture within 28 days prior to registration.
• Any arterial thrombotic events within 180 days prior to registration.
• Clinically significant hematuria, hematemesis, or hemoptysis within 12 weeks prior to registration.
• Cavitating pulmonary lesions or known endotracheal or endobronchial disease manifestations.
• Lesions encasing or invading any major blood vessels (this does not include tumor thrombus extending into/through renal vein/inferior vena cava [IVC]). Patients with tumor thrombus extending into/through renal vein are considered eligible.
• Moderate of severe hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh B or C).
• Any history of untreated pulmonary embolism or deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the 180 days prior to registration. (Any asymptomatic, treated pulmonary embolism or asymptomatic, treated deep venous thrombosis > 30 days prior to registration allowed).
• Corrected QT interval calculated by the Fridericia formula (QTcF) > 500 ms.
• Unstable cardiac arrhythmia within 6 months prior to registration.
• Any gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding =< 180 days, hemoptysis, or other signs of pulmonary hemorrhage =< 90 days prior to registration.
• History of abdominal fistula, gastrointestinal perforation, intra-abdominal abscess, bowel obstruction, or gastric outlet obstruction within 180 days prior to registration.
• Active peptic ulcer disease, inflammatory bowel disease, or malabsorption syndrome within 28 days prior to registration.
• Untreated hypothyroidism (treated hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement therapy is allowed. Abnormal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is acceptable with normal T3/free T4 if treated on thyroid replacement therapy)
• Evidence of pancreatitis, history of organ transplant, or history of congenital QT syndrome.
• Active treatment with coumarin agents (e.g., warfarin), direct thrombin inhibitors (e.g., dabigatran), direct Xa inhibitor betrixaban or platelet inhibitors (e.g., clopidogrel) within 5 days of registration. Allowed anticoagulants include: prophylactic use of low-dose aspirin for cardio-protection (per local applicable guidelines) and low-dose low molecular weight heparins (LMWH), therapeutic doses of LMWH or anticoagulation with direct factor Xa inhibitors rivaroxaban, edoxaban, apixaban. Allowed also in patients with known brain metastases who are on a stable dose of the anticoagulant for at least 1 week prior to registration without clinically significant hemorrhagic complications from the anticoagulation regimen or the tumor.
• Significant cardiac ischemia events (ST elevation myocardial infarction [STEMI] or non-ST elevation myocardial infarction [NSTEMI]) within 6 months or active NY Heart Association class 3-4 heart failure symptoms
Chemoradiotherapy With or Without Atezolizumab in Treating Patients With Localized Muscle Invasive Bladder Cancer
This phase III trial studies how well chemotherapy and radiation therapy work with or without atezolizumab in treating patients with localized muscle invasive bladder cancer. Radiation therapy uses high energy rays to kill tumor cells and shrink tumors. Chemotherapy drugs, such as gemcitabine, cisplatin, fluorouracil and mitomycin-C, work in different ways to stop the growth of cancer cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Giving chemotherapy with radiation therapy may kill more tumor cells. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as atezolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Giving atezolizumab with radiation therapy and chemotherapy may work better in treating patients with localized muscle invasive bladder cancer compared to radiation therapy and chemotherapy without atezolizumab.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: If this will be the first patient from a registering site to receive a given RT modality (3DCRT vs. IMRT), the site must first submit pre-RT planning documents within 3 days of Step 1 registration and receive approval from Imaging and Radiation Oncology Core (IROC) before randomizing the patient to Step 2. If this will not be the first patient to receive a specific RT modality, the patient should be immediately randomized to Step 2 on the same day.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: If patient required review of pre-RT planning, randomization must occur within 14 days of initial registration.
• Patients must have histologically proven, T2-T4a N0M0 urothelial carcinoma of the bladder within 120 days prior to randomization and no intervening treatment between the histologic proof and randomization. Patients with mixed urothelial carcinoma will be eligible for the trial, but the presence of small cell carcinoma will make a patient ineligible. Patients with lymph nodes >= 1.0 cm in shortest cross-sectional diameter on imaging (computed tomography [CT]/magnetic resonance imaging [MRI] of abdomen and pelvis) must have a biopsy of the enlarged lymph node showing no tumor involvement within 70 days prior to randomization. These patients may be suitable for neoadjuvant chemotherapy and radical cystectomy and are eligible for this trial if they seek out a bladder sparing treatment strategy, however patients who have received prior systemic chemotherapy for bladder cancer are not eligible for the trial.
• Patients must undergo a transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT) within 70 days prior to randomization. In a situation where a patient is referred from outside to the enrolling institution, patient must have a repeat office cystoscopy by the urologist who will be following the patient on the clinical trial to assess the adequacy of the prior TURBT. This cystoscopy can be performed in urologist office without general anesthesia. Patient may then undergo repeat TURBT if deemed necessary as standard of care by the treating urologist. Patients may have either completely or partially resected tumors as long as the treating urologist attempted maximal resection. Patient must not have T4b disease
• Patients must undergo radiological staging within 70 days prior to randomization. Imaging of chest, abdomen, and pelvis must be performed using CT or MRI. Patients must not have evidence of T4bN1-3 disease. Eligibility is based on the local radiology report.
• Patients with hydronephrosis are eligible if they have unilateral hydronephrosis and kidney function meets criteria specified.
• Patient must be planning to receive one of the protocol specified chemotherapy regimens.
• All adverse events associated with any prior surgery and intravesical therapy must have resolved to Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) grade =< 2 prior to randomization.
• Patients must be >= 18 years of age
• Patient may or may not be radical cystectomy candidates.
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >=1,500/microliter (mcL) (within 28 days prior to randomization).
• Platelets >= 100,000/mcL (within 28 days prior to randomization).
• Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL (within 28 days prior to randomization).
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (IULN) (except patients with Gilbert's syndrome, who must have a total bilirubin < 3.0 mg/dL) (within 28 days prior to randomization).
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or alanine aminotransferase (ALT) < 2.5 x IULN (within 28 days prior to randomization).
• Patients must have adequate renal function as evidenced by calculated creatinine clearance >= 25 mL/min. The creatinine used to calculate the clearance result must have been obtained within 28 days prior to randomization.
• Patients must have Zubrod performance status =< 2.
• Patients must have a baseline electrocardiography (ECG) performed within 30 days prior to randomization.
• If patient has a known history of hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV), they must meet the following criteria within 28 days prior to randomization.
• Patients with past or resolved hepatitis B infection (defined as having a negative hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg] test and a positive anti-HBc [antibody to hepatitis B core antigen] antibody test) are eligible.
• Patients positive for hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody are eligible only if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is negative for HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA).
• Patients who are known to be positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are eligible only if they have all of the following:
• A stable regimen of highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART)
• No requirement for concurrent antibiotics or antifungal agents for the prevention of opportunistic infections
• A CD4 count above 250 cells/mcL and an undetectable HIV viral load on standard PCR-based tests within 28 days prior to randomization.
• Female patients of childbearing potential must have a serum pregnancy test prior to randomization. Patients must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential teratogenic side effects of the protocol treatment. Women of child-bearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of protocol treatment, and for 5 months (150 days) after the last dose of all study drugs. A woman is considered to be of "reproductive potential" if she has had a menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months.
• Patients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking for future studies.
• Patients who can complete Patient-Reported Outcome instruments in English or Spanish must agree to complete the EORTC QLQ-C30, the EORTC QLQ-BLM30, the EPIC Bowel Assessment, and the EQ-5D-5L per protocol schedule of assessment.
• As a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system.
• Patients must not have had urothelial carcinoma or histological variant at any site outside of the urinary bladder within the previous 24 months except Ta/T1/carcinoma in situ (CIS) of the upper urinary tract including renal pelvis and ureter if the patient had undergone complete nephroureterectomy.
• Patients must not have diffuse CIS based on cystoscopy and biopsy.
• Patient must not have received any systemic chemotherapy for their bladder cancer.
• Patient must not have had prior pelvic radiation.
• Patients must not have received prior treatment for muscle invasive bladder cancer including neoadjuvant chemotherapy for the current tumor.
• Patients must not have received any systemic therapy (including, but not limited to, interferon alfa-2b, high dose IL-2, pegylated interferon [PEG-IFN], anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1), for non-muscle invasive bladder cancer. Prior intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG), interferon, and intravesical chemotherapy are allowed.
• Patients must not have received any of the following prohibited therapies within 28 days prior to randomization or be planning to receive any of the following prohibited therapies during protocol treatment:
• Anti-cancer systemic chemotherapy or biological therapy not specified in the protocol.
• Immunotherapy not specified in this protocol.
• Systemic or intravesical use of any non-study anti-cancer agent (investigational or non-investigational).
• Investigational agents other than atezolizumab.
• Live vaccines: Examples of live vaccines include, but are not limited to, the following: measles, mumps, rubella, chicken pox, shingles, yellow fever, rabies, BCG, and typhoid (oral) vaccine. Seasonal influenza vaccines for injection are generally killed virus vaccines and are allowed; however, intranasal influenza vaccines (e.g. Flu-Mist) are live attenuated vaccines, and are not allowed. Prior administration of intravesical BCG is allowed.
• Glucocorticoids for any purpose other than to modulate symptoms from an event of suspected immunologic etiology. The use of physiologic doses of corticosteroids (defined as 10 mg prednisone) are acceptable, however site investigators should consult with the study chair for any dose higher than 10 mg prednisone. Dexamethasone 4 mg IV with chemotherapy to prevent nausea is allowed.
• RANKL infusion: Concurrent denosumab (which binds the cytokine RANKL) for any known indication is prohibited due to interaction with study medication.
• Patients must not have a major surgical procedure within 28 days prior to randomization. If patient had any surgical procedure then they should have recovered to full presurgical performance status and surgical adverse events should have resolved to grade =< 2. TURBT is not considered a major surgical procedure.
• Patients must not have received treatment with systemic immunosuppressive medications (including, but not limited to, prednisone, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, thalidomide, and anti-tumor necrosis factor [anti-TNF] agents) within 14 days prior to randomization. Exceptions:
• Patients may have received acute, low dose, systemic immunosuppressant medications (e.g., a one-time dose of dexamethasone for nausea).
• The use of inhaled corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids (e.g., fludrocortisone) for patients with orthostatic hypotension or adrenocortical insufficiency is allowed. Physiological doses equivalent of 10 mg prednisone daily are allowed. Short term steroids given as antiemetic therapy, e.g. 4 mg dexamethasone or equivalent once a week, is allowed.
• Patients must not have received a live, attenuated vaccine within 4 weeks prior to randomization or anticipate that such a live, attenuated vaccine will be required while on protocol treatment and up to 5 months after the last dose of protocol treatment.
• Inactivated influenza vaccination should be given during influenza season only (approximately October to March). Patients must not receive live, attenuated influenza vaccine within 4 weeks prior to randomization or while on protocol treatment and up to 5 months after the last dose of protocol treatment.
• Patients must not have undergone prior allogeneic bone marrow transplantation or prior solid organ transplantation.
• Patients must not have clinically significant liver disease that precludes patient from treatment regimens prescribed on the study (including, but not limited to, active viral, alcoholic or other autoimmune hepatitis, cirrhosis or inherited liver disease).
• Patient must not have history of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonitis (including drug induced), organizing pneumonia (i.e., bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, etc.), or evidence of active pneumonitis.
• Patients must not have an active infection requiring oral or IV antibiotics within 14 days prior to randomization. Patients receiving prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., for prevention of a urinary tract infection or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) are not eligible. If patient develops urinary tract infection after TURBT they must have recovered from the infection prior to registration.
• Patients must not have active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in past two years (i.e., with use of disease modifying agents, corticosteroids or immunosuppressive drugs). Replacement therapy (e.g., thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency, etc.) is not considered a form of systemic treatment. Autoimmune diseases include, but are not limited to, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, vascular thrombosis associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, Wegener's granulomatosis, Sjogren's syndrome, Bell's palsy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune thyroid disease, vasculitis, Graves' disease treated with methimazole or glomerulonephritis.
• Patient must not have a history of active tuberculosis.
• No other prior malignancy is allowed except for the following: adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer, adequately treated Stage I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for two years. Patients with localized prostate cancer who are being followed by an active surveillance program are also eligible.
• Patients must not be known to be allergic to Chinese hamster egg or ovary cell products and must not have any known major allergic reactions to any study drug.
Clazakizumab for the Treatment of Chronic Active Antibody Mediated Rejection in Kidney Transplant Recipients (IMAGINE)
This trial investigates the efficacy and safety of clazakizumab [an anti-interleukin (IL)-6 monoclonal antibody (mAb)] for the treatment of CABMR in recipients of a kidney transplant.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Jarrett.Hubbard@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Inclusion criteria:
• Age 18-75 years.
• Living donor/deceased donor kidney transplant recipients ≥6 months from time of transplant.
• Diagnosis of CABMR determined by kidney biopsy and the presence of HLA DSA using single-antigen bead-based assays. NOTE: If conducted within 12 months (+3 weeks) prior to the start of the screening period, and no intervening treatments have been administered, the biopsy does not need to be repeated at Screening. If conducted within 6 months (+ 3 weeks) prior to the start of Screening, the DSA analysis does not need to be repeated at screening. To be considered for determination of study eligibility, the biopsy and DSA analysis must be performed at least 2 months ± 2 weeks after the end of any prior treatment for ABMR (including CABMR) or TCMR, in order to show continuing CABMR and presence of HLA DSA. In addition, with the exception of steroids, treatments for ABMR or TCMR are not allowed within 3 months prior to the start of screening. The following histopathologic and serologic diagnostic criteria (based on Banff 2015 criteria [Loupy et al, 2017]) must be met for inclusion:
• Morphologic evidence of chronic tissue injury, as demonstrated by TG (cg>0). Biopsies without evidence of chronic tissue injury on light microscopy, but with glomerular basement membrane double contours on electron microscopy (cg1a) are eligible.
• Evidence of current/recent antibody interaction with vascular endothelium, including 1 or more of the following.
• Linear C4d staining in peritubular capillaries or medullary vasa recta (C4d2 or C4d3 by immunofluorescence on frozen sections, or C4d > 0 by immunohistochemistry on paraffin sections).
• At least moderate microvascular inflammation ([g + ptc] ≥ 2) in the absence of recurrent or de novo glomerulonephritis, although in the presence of acute TCMR, borderline infiltrate, or infection, ptc ≥ 2 alone is not sufficient and g must be ≥ 1. NOTE: The local pathologist's diagnosis must be reviewed by a central pathologist to confirm eligibility for entry into the study. Biopsies with other histopathologic changes (eg, BKV nephropathy or recurrent glomerulonephritis) may be eligible if concurrent CABMR changes (as detailed above) are present and determined to be the predominant cause of renal dysfunction.
• Serologic evidence of circulating DSA to HLA. NOTE: The local laboratory DSA results must be reviewed and confirmed by the central HLA reviewer during the screening period.
• Exclusion criteria:
• Multi-organ transplant recipient (except for simultaneous kidney-pancreas or previous multiple kidney transplants) or cell transplant (islet, bone marrow, stem cell) recipient.
• Treatment for ABMR (including CABMR) or TCMR within 3 months prior to the start of screening with the exception of steroids.
• Received T cell depleting agents (e.g., alemtuzumab, anti-thymocyte globulin) within 3 months prior to the start of screening.
• Pregnant, breastfeeding, or unwillingness to practice adequate contraception.
• Active tuberculosis (TB) or history of active TB.
• History of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection or positive for HIV.
• Seropositive for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
• Hepatitis C virus (HCV) RNA positive.
HOPE in Action Trial of HIV+ Deceased Donor Liver Transplants for HIV+ Recipients
The primary objective of this study is to determine if an HIV-infected donor liver (HIVD+) transplant is safe with regards to major transplant-related and HIV-related complications
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studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Jarrett.Hubbard@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Participant meets the standard criteria for liver transplant at the local center.
• Participants being listed for a simultaneous liver kidney (SLK) are eligible if participants meet the standard criteria for both organs.
• Participant is able to understand and provide informed consent.
• Participant meets with an independent advocate per the HIV Organ Policy Equity (HOPE) Act Safeguards and Research Criteria.
• Documented HIV infection (by any licensed assay or documented history of detectable HIV-1 RNA).*
• Participant is ≥ 18 years old.
• Opportunistic complications: prior history of certain opportunistic infections is not an exclusion if the participant has received appropriate therapy and has no evidence of active disease. Medical record documentation should be provided whenever possible.
• CD4+ T-cell count: ≥ 100/µL within 16 weeks prior to transplant if no history of AIDS-defining infection; or ≥ 200 μL if history of opportunistic infection is present.
• HIV-1 RNA is below 50 RNA/mL.* Viral blips between 50-400 copies will be allowed as long as there are not consecutive measurements > 200 copies/mL. *Organ recipients who are unable to tolerate anti-retroviral therapy (ART) due to organ. failure or recently started ART may be eligible despite a detectable viral load if safe and effective ART to be used by the recipient after transplantation is described.
• Participant must have or be willing to start seeing a primary medical care provider with expertise in HIV management.
• Participant is willing to comply with all medications related to participant's transplant and HIV management.
• For participants with a history of aspergillus colonization or disease, no current clinical evidence of active disease.
• Agreement to use contraception.
• Participant is not suffering from significant wasting (e.g. body mass index < 21) thought to be related to HIV disease.
• Participant has a history of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), or primary central nervous system (CNS) lymphoma.*
• Participant is pregnant or breastfeeding. (Note: Participants who become pregnant post-transplant will continue to be followed in the study and will be managed per local site practice. Women that become pregnant should not breastfeed.)
• Past or current medical problems or findings from medical history, physical examination or laboratory testing that are not listed above, which, in the opinion of the investigator, may pose additional risks from participation in the study, may interfere with the participant's ability to comply with study requirements or that may impact the quality or interpretation of the data obtained from the study.
Efficacy and Safety of Pembrolizumab (MK-3475) in Combination With Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) in High-Risk Non-Muscle Invasive Bladder Cancer (HR NMIBC) (MK-3475-676/KEYNOTE-676)
This study is designed to assess the antitumor efficacy and safety of pembrolizumab in combination with BCG, compared to BCG monotherapy, in participants with HR NMIBC that is either persistent or recurrent following adequate BCG induction (Cohort A), or that is naïve to BCG treatment (Cohort B). The primary hypothesis for Cohort A is that the combination of pembrolizumab plus BCG has a superior complete response rate (CRR) as assessed by central pathology review compared to BCG in participants with carcinoma in situ (CIS). The primary hypothesis for Cohort B is that the combination of pembrolizumab plus BCG (either reduced maintenance or full maintenance) has a superior Event Free Survival (EFS) compared to BCG.
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• Have locally and blinded independent central review (BICR)-confirmed histological diagnosis of high-risk non-muscle invasive (T1, high grade Ta and/or CIS) UC of the bladder
• Has undergone cystoscopy/ transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT) to remove all resectable disease
• Has provided tissue for biomarker analysis
• Has Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0, 1 or 2
• Has adequate organ function
• During the treatment period and for ≥7 days after the last dose of BCG, male participants are EITHER abstinent from heterosexual intercourse as their preferred and usual lifestyle and agree to remain abstinent, OR, must agree to use contraception unless confirmed to be azoospermic
• Female participants who are not pregnant, not breastfeeding, and either not a woman of child bearing potential (WOCBP); or are a WOCBP who agrees to use a contraception method that is highly effective or remains abstinent from heterosexual intercourse during the treatment period and for ≥7 days after the last dose of BCG or 120 days after the last dose of pembrolizumab, whichever comes last BCG Post-induction Cohort (Cohort A) Only
• Has been treated with one adequate course of BCG induction therapy for the treatment of HR NMIBC
• Following adequate BCG induction therapy, must have persistent or recurrent HR NMIBC
• Has a history of or concurrent locally advanced (i.e., T2, T3, T4) or metastatic UC
• Has concurrent extra-vesical (i.e, urethra, ureter, renal pelvis) non-muscle invasive urothelial carcinoma or a history of extra-vesical non-muscle invasive UC
• Has received prior therapy with anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1, or anti-PD-L2 agent or with an agent directed to another stimulatory or co-inhibitory T-cell receptor
• Has received prior systemic anti-cancer therapy including investigational agents within 4 weeks of start of study treatment
• Is currently participating in or has participated in a study of an investigational agent or has used an investigational device within 4 weeks of start of study treatment
• Has a diagnosis of immunodeficiency or is receiving chronic systemic steroid therapy or any other form of immunosuppressive therapy within 7 days of start of study treatment
• Has a known additional malignancy that is progressing or requires active treatment within the past 3 years
• Has an active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in past 2 years
• Has a history of (non-infectious) pneumonitis/interstitial lung disease that required steroids or has current pneumonitis/interstitial lung disease
• Has one or more of the following contraindications to BCG: prior BCG sepsis or systemic infection, total bladder incontinence, or an adverse experience to a previous BCG instillation that resulted in treatment discontinuation and precludes retreating with BCG
• Has an active infection or diagnosis requiring systemic antimicrobial therapy
• Has a known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
• Has a known history of Hepatitis B or known active Hepatitis C virus infection
• Has current active tuberculosis
• Has had an allogenic-tissue/solid organ transplant
• Has any contraindication(s) to IV contrast or is otherwise unable to have screening imaging with IV contrast performed BCG Post-induction Cohort (Cohort A) Only - Has persistent T1 disease following an induction course of BCG BCG Naïve Cohort (Cohort B) Only
• Has received any prior treatment with BCG for their NMIBC within the past 2 years prior to study entry
Study Of Palbociclib Combined With Chemotherapy In Pediatric Patients With Recurrent/Refractory Solid Tumors
A study to learn about safety and find out maximum tolerable dose of palbociclib given in combination with chemotherapy (temozolomide with irinotecan or topotecan with cyclophosphamide) in children, adolescents and young adults with recurrent or refractory solid tumors (phase 1). Phase 2 to learn about the efficacy of palbociclib in combination with irinotecan and temozolomide when compared with irinotecan and temozolomide alone in the treatment of children, adolescents, and young adults with recurrent or refractory Ewing sarcoma (EWS).
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canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Histologically confirmed relapsed or refractory solid tumor as follows:
• For dose escalation and dose determination parts: Histologically confirmed relapsed or refractory solid tumor (including CNS tumors but not lymphomas). Patients with Diffuse Intrinsic Pontine Glioma do not require histological only radiographic confirmed relapse to enroll.
• For dose expansion and tumor specific cohorts: Histologically confirmed relapsed or refractory solid tumor including but not limited to EWS, rhabdoid tumor, rhabdomyosarcoma, neuroblastoma, and medulloblastoma. Patients with Diffuse Intrinsic Pontine Glioma do not require histological only radiographic confirmed relapse to enroll. EWS is not eligible for TOPO and CTX tumor-specific cohorts.
• For randomized Phase 2 part: Histologically confirmed Ewing sarcoma at diagnosis or at relapse, with presence of EWSR1-ETS or FUS-ETS rearrangement. Histopathology confirmation of both EWSR1-ETS or FUS-ETS rearrangement partners is required OR availability of formalin fixed paraffin embedded (FFPE) tumor tissue sample for central testing. Patient must have relapsed or have refractory disease and at least evaluable disease in at least one site other than bone marrow that can be followed by imaging.
• Age ≥2 and <21 years at the time of study entry.
• Lansky performance status ≥50% for patients ≤16 years of age, or Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) 0, 1 or 2 for patients >16 years of age.
• Adequate bone marrow function.
• Absolute neutrophil count ≥1000/mm3;
• Platelet count ≥100,000/mm3 (transfusion independent, no platelet transfusion in past 7 days prior study entry);
• Hemoglobin ≥8.5 g/dL (transfusion allowed).
• Adequate renal function: Serum creatinine level based on age/gender must within protocol specified limits.
• Adequate liver function, including:
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤2.5 × upper limit of normal (ULN) or ≤5 × ULN for age, if attributable to disease involvement of the liver;
• Total bilirubin ≤1.5 × ULN for age, unless the patient has documented Gilbert's syndrome.
• Patients enrolled to Phase 1 portion of the study and tumor specific cohorts must have measurable disease as defined by RECIST version 1.1 or modified RANO criteria for CNS disease or INRC for neuroblastoma. Patients with EWS enrolled to Phase 2 portion of the study are eligible with evaluable disease (eg, bone only disease with no soft tissue component).
• Recovered to CTCAE Grade ≤1, or to baseline, from any non-hematological acute toxicities of prior surgery, chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiotherapy, differentiation therapy or biologic therapy, with the exception of alopecia.
• Serum/urine pregnancy test (for all girls ≥8 years of age) negative at screening and at the baseline visit. Exclusion:
• Phase 1 and tumor specific cohorts: For palbociclib with IRN and TMZ combination, prior treatment with a CDK4/6 inhibitor or progression while on treatment with an IRN-containing regimen that includes TMZ. Patients who have received the combination of IRN and TMZ and did not progress while on these medications are eligible. For patients enrolling in the palbociclib with TOPO and CTX combination, prior treatment with a CDK4/6 inhibitor or progression while on treatment with a TOPO-containing regimen that includes CTX. Patients who have received the combination of TOPO and CTX and did not progress while on these medications are eligible. Phase 2 portion: prior treatment with a CDK4/6 inhibitor or progression while on treatment with an IRN-containing or TMZ-containing regimen. Patients who have received IRN and/or TMZ and did not progress while on these medications are eligible.
• Prior intolerability to IRN and/or TMZ plus/minus palbociclib with IRN and TMZ combination and prior intolerability to TOPO and/or CTX for TOPO and CTX combination.
• Use of strong cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A inhibitors or inducers. Patients who are receiving strong uridine diphosphate-glucuronosyl transferase 1A1 (UGT1A1) inhibitors within 12 days of Cycle 1 Day 1 (C1D1) are not eligible for the palbociclib with IRN and TMZ combination. Patients who are receiving strong UGT1A1 inhibitors within 12 days of C1D1 are eligible for the palbociclib with TOPO and CTX combination (See Section 5.7.1 for list of products.)
• Systemic anti cancer therapy within 2 weeks prior to study entry and 6 weeks for nitrosoureas.
• Prior irradiation to >50% of the bone marrow (see Appendix 9).
• Participation in other studies involving investigational drug(s) within 2 weeks or 5 half lives, whichever is longer, prior to study entry.
• Major surgery within 4 weeks prior to study entry. Surgical biopsies or central line placement are not considered major surgeries.
• For IRN and TMZ with/without palbociclib combinations: known or suspected hypersensitivity to palbociclib, IRN and/or TMZ. For combination of palbociclib with TOPO and CTX: known or suspected hypersensitivity to palbociclib, TOPO and/or CTX.
• Patients with known symptomatic brain tumors or brain metastases and require steroids, unless they have been on a stable or on a decreasing steroid dose for >14 days.
• Patients with previously diagnosed brain metastases are eligible if they have completed their prior treatment and have recovered from the acute effects of radiation therapy or surgery prior to study entry for these metastases for at least 14 days post radiation and 4 weeks post-surgery and are neurologically stable.
• Hereditary bone marrow failure disorder.
• QTc >470 msec.
• History of clinically significant or uncontrolled cardiac disease, including:
• History of or active congestive heart failure; if patient had congestive heart failure resolve and >1 year from resolution, patient will be considered eligible;
• Clinically significant ventricular arrhythmia (such as ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation or Torsades de Pointes);
• Diagnosed or suspected congenital or acquired prolonged QT syndrome;
• Need for medications known to prolong the QT interval;
• Uncorrected hypomagnesemia or hypokalemia because of potential effects on the QT interval;
• Left ventricular ejection fraction <50% or shortening fraction <28%.
• Recent or ongoing clinically significant gastrointestinal disorder that may interfere with absorption of orally administered drugs (eg, gastrectomy).
• Severe acute or chronic medical or laboratory test abnormality that may increase the risk associated with study participation or investigational product administration or may interfere with the interpretation of study results, and in the judgment of the Investigator, would make the patient inappropriate for entry into this study.
• Investigator site staff members directly involved in the conduct of the study and their family members, site staff members otherwise supervised by the investigator, or patients who are Pfizer employees, including their family members, directly involved in the conduct of the study.
Multiparametric MRI in Evaluating Cancer Stage and Helping Treatment Planning in Patients With Prostate Cancer
This phase II trial studies how well multiparametric magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) works in evaluating cancer stage and helping treatment planning in patients with prostate cancer. Multiparametric MRI may be useful for evaluating the type of cancer in finding aggressive disease.
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canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Recently diagnosed with prostate cancer for whom definitive surgical treatment is indicated
• Not suitable to undergo MRI or receive gadolinium-based contrast agent (severe, untreatable claustrophobia; MRI-incompatible metallic objects or implanted medical devices; renal failure; weight greater than allowable by scanner per institutional standard practice)
• Prior surgical and/or non-surgical treatment for prostate cancer
• Prior hip replacement or other major pelvic surgery
Standard Systemic Therapy With or Without Definitive Treatment in Treating Participants With Metastatic Prostate Cancer
This phase III trial studies how well standard systemic therapy with or without definitive treatment (prostate removal surgery or radiation therapy) works in treating participants with prostate cancer that has spread to other places in the body. Addition of prostate removal surgery or radiation therapy to standard systemic therapy for prostate cancer may lower the chance of the cancer growing or spreading.
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canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: All patients must have a histologically or cytologically proven diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the prostate. Patients with pure small cell carcinoma* (SCC), sarcomatoid, or squamous cell carcinoma are not eligible. (*morphology must be consistent with SCC; synaptophysin or chromogranin positive by immunohistochemical staining is insufficient to diagnose SCC).
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have an intact prostate. No prior local therapy for prostate adenocarcinoma is allowed (e.g., brachytherapy, high-intensity focused ultrasound [HIFU], cryotherapy, laser ablative therapies). Any prior therapy for benign conditions, such as obstruction, are acceptable (e.g., transurethral resection of the prostate, greenlight laser ablation, microwave ablation).
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have evidence of metastatic disease on technetium bone scan and computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) within 42 days prior to starting standard systemic therapy. Metastatic disease that is detected by positron emission tomography (PET) scan only (sodium fluoride [NaF], prostate-specific membrane antigen [PSMA], anti-1-amino-3-18F-fluorocyclobutane-1-carboxylic acid [FACBC], carbon [C]11) but not conventional imaging (technetium [Tc]99 bone scan, CT or MRI) or solitary metastases by conventional imaging, must be confirmed histologically or cytologically.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients with known brain metastases are not eligible. Brain imaging studies are not required for eligibility if the patient has no neurologic signs or symptoms suggestive of brain metastasis. If brain imaging studies are performed, they must be negative for disease.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must have received no more than 28 weeks of standard systemic therapy (SST). SST is defined as current National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) guidelines for metastatic prostate cancer.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must not have progressed while on SST.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients with oligometastatic prostate cancer may receive metastasis directed therapy to up to four sites of disease prior to randomization.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a complete physical examination and medical history within 28 days prior to registration.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a PSA documented prior to initiation of SST and within 28 days prior to registration. Any additional PSAs measured while receiving SST should be recorded.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a testosterone lab documented within 28 days prior to randomization. Any additional testosterone labs measured while receiving SST should be recorded as well as pretreatment initiation if available.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: No other prior malignancy is allowed except for the following: adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, adequately treated stage 0, I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for three years.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: SPECIMEN SUBMISSION CRITERIA: Patients must be offered the opportunity to participate in translational medicine studies and specimen banking for future studies.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: QUALITY OF LIFE CRITERIA: Patients who can complete Patient-Reported Outcome instruments in English, Spanish or French, must participate in the quality of life studies.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: REGULATORY CRITERIA: Patients must be informed of the investigational nature of this study and must sign and give written informed consent in accordance with institutional and federal guidelines.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: As a part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have no evidence of disease progression during the 28 weeks of SST by PSA measure, bone scan and CT or MRI or symptomatic deterioration (as defined by physician discretion) within 28 days prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have consultation with a urologist and have surgically resectable disease regardless of definitive treatment intent or randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must have received between 22 and 28 weeks of SST as measured from the date of first hormonal therapy or surgical castration. SST is defined by current NCCN guidelines for metastatic prostate cancer.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must not be planning to receive docetaxel after randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Any toxicities from SST must have resolved to =< grade 1 (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] version 5.0) prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients may have received elective metastasis directed therapy to oligometastatic sites (=< 4 sites). All treatment must be completed prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a PSA performed within 28 days prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a testosterone < 50 ng/dL within 28 days prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a Zubrod performance status of 0 ? 1 within 28 days prior to randomization.
Testing the Combination of Olaparib and Durvalumab, Cediranib and Durvalumab, Olaparib and Capivasertib, and Cediranib Alone in Recurrent or Refractory Endometrial Cancer Following the Earlier Phase of the Study That Tested Olaparib and Cediranib in Comparison to Cediranib Alone, and Olaparib Alone
This phase II trial studies the effects of the combination of olaparib and durvalumab, cediranib and durvalumab, olaparib and capivasertib, and cediranib alone in treating patients with endometrial cancer that has come back (recurrent) or does not respond to treatment (refractory). Olaparib, cediranib, and capivasertib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Durvalumab is a monoclonal antibody that may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Testing the combinations may lower the chance of endometrial cancer growing or spreading compared to usual care.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Patients must have recurrent or persistent endometrial carcinoma, which is refractory to curative therapy or established treatments; histologic confirmation of the original primary tumor is required; patients with the following histologic epithelial cell types are eligible: endometrioid adenocarcinoma, serous adenocarcinoma, undifferentiated carcinoma, mixed epithelial carcinoma, adenocarcinoma not otherwise specified (N.O.S.); NOTE: clear cell histology is excluded
• Patients must have evaluable disease as defined by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1 or non-measurable (detectable) disease
• Measurable disease is defined as at least one lesion that can be accurately measured in at least one dimension (longest diameter to be recorded); each lesion must be >= 10 mm when measured by computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or caliper measurement by clinical exam; or >= 20 mm when measured by chest x-ray; lymph nodes must be > 15 mm in short axis when measured by CT or MRI; patients with measurable disease must have at least one "target lesion" to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST version 1.1; tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as "non-target" lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapy
• Non-measurable (detectable) disease in a patient is defined in this protocol as one who does not have measurable disease but has at least one of the following conditions:
• Ascites and/or pleural effusion attributed to tumor;
• Solid and/or cystic abnormalities on radiographic imaging that do not meet RECIST 1.1 definitions for target lesions
• Patients must have signed an approved informed consent and authorization permitting release of personal health information
• Patients must have had one prior chemotherapeutic regimen for management of endometrial carcinoma; initial treatment may include chemotherapy, chemotherapy and radiation therapy, and/or consolidation/maintenance therapy; chemotherapy administered in conjunction with primary radiation as a radio-sensitizer WILL be counted as a systemic chemotherapy regimen
• Patients are allowed to receive, but are not required to receive, one additional cytotoxic regimen for management of recurrent or persistent disease according to the following definition: cytotoxic regimens include any agent that targets the genetic and/or mitotic apparatus of dividing cells, resulting in dose-limiting toxicity to the bone marrow and/or gastrointestinal mucosa; Note: patients on this non-cytotoxic study are allowed to receive one additional cytotoxic chemotherapy regimen for management of recurrent or persistent disease, as defined above; however, patients are encouraged to enroll on second-line non-cytotoxic studies prior to receiving additional cytotoxic therapy
• Patients may have received non cytotoxic therapy including immunotherapy (1 prior line in either upfront or recurrent setting) but excluding cediranib, olaparib, AZD5363 (capivasertib), durvalumab (MEDI4736), or the combination of lenvatinib and pembrolizumab for the management of recurrent or persistent disease; prior hormonal therapy is allowed; hormonal therapy for grade 1 endometrial cancers with low volume or indolent disease is encouraged
• Bevacizumab, or one course of single-agent immune-checkpoint therapy, excluding durvalumab (MEDI4736), is permitted prior to enrollment on this trial
• Body weight > 30 kg
• Age >= 18
• The trial is open to females only (including women with an intact uterus with uterine cancer); fertile females of childbearing potential need to agree to use adequate contraceptive measures from 2 weeks prior to the study and until 1 month after study treatment discontinuation, and have a negative serum or urine pregnancy test within 3 days prior to the start of study treatment
• Patients must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0,1 or 2 (Karnofsky >= 60%) within 7 days prior to registration; patients should have no deterioration over the previous two weeks
• Hemoglobin >= 10 mg/dL with no blood transfusion in the past 28 days (within 28 days prior to administration of study drug)
• Platelet count >= 100 x 10^9/L (within 28 days prior to administration of study drug)
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1.5 x 10^9/L (within 28 days prior to administration of study drug)
• Patients must have creatinine clearance estimated of >= 51 mL/min using the Cockcroft Gault equation or based on a 24-hour urine test (within 28 days prior to administration of study drug)
• Serum bilirubin =< 1.5 X upper limit of normal (ULN) (within 28 days prior to administration of study drug)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x ULN (within 28 days prior to administration of study drug)
• Urine protein: creatinine (UPC) < 1 or < 2+ proteinuria on two consecutive dipsticks taken no less than 1 week apart. Patients with 2+ proteinuria on dipstick must also have UPC < 0.5 on 2 consecutive samples (within 28 days prior to administration of study drug)
• Patients must be able to swallow and retain oral medications and without gastrointestinal illnesses that would preclude absorption of cediranib, olaparib, or AZD5363 (capivasertib)
• Patients must have adequately controlled blood pressure (BP), with a BP no greater than 140 mmHg (systolic) and 90 mmHg (diastolic) for eligibility; patients must have a BP of =< 140/90 mmHg taken in the clinic setting by a medical professional within 2 weeks prior to starting study; patients with hypertension may be managed with up to a maximum of three antihypertensive medications; it is strongly recommended that patients who are on three antihypertensive medications be followed by a cardiologist or blood pressure specialist for management of blood pressure while on protocol
• Note: Patients must be willing and able to check and record daily blood pressure readings
• The patient or a legally authorized representative must provide study-specific informed consent prior to study entry
• Adequately controlled thyroid function, with no symptoms of thyroid dysfunction
• Postmenopausal or evidence of non-childbearing status for women of childbearing potential as confirmed by a negative urine or serum pregnancy test within 7 days prior to start of investigational products (IPs); postmenopausal is defined as:
• Age >= 60 years, or
• Age < 60 with any one or more of the conditions below:
• Amenorrheic for >= 1 year in the absence of chemotherapy and/or hormonal treatments,
• Luteinizing hormone and/or follicle stimulating hormone and/or estradiol levels in the post-menopausal range
• Radiation-induced oophorectomy with last menses > 1 year ago,
• Chemotherapy-induced menopause with > 1 year interval since last menses,
• Surgical sterilization (bilateral oophorectomy or hysterectomy)
• Patients must have a life expectancy of greater than 16 weeks
• Patients with a previous diagnosis of immune or inflammatory colitis or chronic diarrhea > 1 month without immune or inflammatory colitis are eligible with adequately controlled colitis (no diarrhea greater than grade 1 for at least 28 days) and in the absence of symptoms related to colonic dysfunction; patients who required steroids for prior immune related colitis are not eligible
• Females of child-bearing potential should use two forms of highly reliable methods of contraception from the time of screening until 4 weeks after discontinuing study treatment.
• Acceptable methods of contraception include:
• Established use of oral, injected or implanted hormonal methods of contraception.
• Placement of an intrauterine device or intrauterine system.
• Barrier methods of contraception: condom or occlusive cap (diaphragm or cervical/vault caps) with spermicidal foam/gel/film/cream/suppository.
• Male partner sterilization (with the appropriate post-vasectomy documentation of the absence of sperm in the ejaculate).
• True abstinence (i.e., not engaging in sexual activity for the total duration of study treatment and the treatment washout period is an acceptable practice; however, periodic abstinence, the rhythm method, and the withdrawal method are not acceptable methods of birth control).
• Bilateral tubal occlusion or salpingectomy
• Acceptable non-hormonal birth control methods include:
• Total/True abstinence: When the patient refrains from any form of sexual intercourse and this is in line with their usual and/or preferred lifestyle; this must continue for the total duration of the trial and for at least 1 month after the last dose of study drug <
• Vasectomised sexual partner PLUS male condom. With participant assurance that partner received post-vasectomy confirmation of azoospermia.
• Tubal occlusion PLUS male condom
• Intrauterine device (IUD) PLUS male condom. Provided coils are copper-banded.
• Acceptable hormonal methods:
• Normal and low dose combined oral pills PLUS male condom.
• Cerazette (desogestrel) PLUS male condom. Cerazette is currently the only highly efficacious progesterone-based pill.
• Hormonal shot or injection (e.g., Depo-Provera) PLUS male condom.
• Etonogestrel implants (e.g., Implanon, Norplant) PLUS male condom.
• Norelgestromin/EE transdermal system PLUS male condom
• Intrauterine system [IUS] device (e.g., levonorgestrel releasing IUS -Mirena) PLUS male condom.
• Intravaginal device (e.g., EE and etonogestrel) PLUS male condom
• Prior enrollment into a clinical trial including cediranib or olaparib; Note: prior bevacizumab is not an exclusion criterion
• Prior enrollment into a clinical trial including cediranib, olaparib, AZD5363 (capivasertib), durvalumab (MEDI4736), or the combination of lenvatinib and pembrolizumab. Note: Prior bevacizumab or single-agent immune checkpoint blockade, excluding durvalumab (MEDI4736), is not an exclusion criterion
• Prior chemotherapy, endocrine therapy, radiotherapy, or investigational agents within 4 weeks
• More than one prior line of treatment with immune checkpoint blockade therapy
• Current signs/symptoms of bowel obstruction and/or signs/symptoms of bowel obstruction within the preceding 3 months
• History of gastrointestinal perforation; patients with a history of abdominal fistula will be considered eligible if the fistula was surgically repaired or has healed, there has been no evidence of fistula for at least 6 months, and patient is deemed to be at low risk of recurrent fistula
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to known ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, extensive interstitial bilateral lung disease on high resolution computed tomography (HRCT) scan or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• Concomitant use of known strong cytochrome (CYP) 3A inhibitors (e.g., itraconazole, telithromycin, clarithromycin, protease inhibitors boosted with ritonavir or cobicistat, indinavir, saquinavir, nelfinavir, boceprevir, telaprevir) or moderate CYP3A inhibitors (e.g. ciprofloxacin, erythromycin, diltiazem, fluconazole, verapamil); the required washout period prior to starting study treatments is 2 weeks for strong inhibitors, and at least 1 week for moderate inhibitors
• Concomitant use of potent inhibitors or inducers of CYP3A4 within 2 weeks before the start of study treatment (3 weeks for St John's wort), or sensitive substrates of CYP3A4, CYP2C9 and/or CYP2D6 with a narrow therapeutic window within 1 week before the start of study treatment. Concomitant use of drugs known to prolong the QT interval within 5 half-lives of the first dose of study treatment
• Pregnant women are excluded from this study because cediranib and olaparib are agents with the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects; because there is an unknown but potential risk of adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with cediranib and olaparib, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with cediranib or olaparib; these potential risks may also apply to other agents used in this study; for women of childbearing capacity a negative pregnancy test is required
• Known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive individuals are ineligible because of the potential for pharmacokinetic interactions between many anti-HIV drugs and cediranib, olaparib, and/or AZD5363 (capivasertib); in addition, these individuals are at increased risk of lethal infections when treated with marrow-suppressive therapy
• Known active hepatitis B or hepatitis C infection on antiviral treatment
• Prior history of stroke or transient ischemic attack within the last 6 months
• Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) < lower limit of normal (LLN) per institutional guidelines, or < 55%, if threshold for normal not otherwise specified by institutional guidelines, for patients with the following risk factors:
• Prior treatment with anthracyclines
• Prior treatment with trastuzumab
• Prior central thoracic radiation therapy (RT), including exposure of heart to therapeutic doses of ionizing RT
• History of myocardial infarction within 6-12 months prior to start of IPs
• Prior history of other significant impaired cardiac function
• Patients with any of the following:
• History of myocardial infarction within 6 months prior to starting treatment
• Unstable angina
• Resting electrocardiogram (ECG) with clinically significant abnormal findings or with corrected QT interval (QTc) > 470 msec on 2 or more time points within a 24 hour period or family history of long QT syndrome
• New York Heart Association functional classification of III or IV
• Prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathy
• Major surgical procedure within 4 weeks prior to starting treatment; patients must have recovered from any effects of any major surgery and surgical wound should have healed prior to starting treatment
• History of intra-abdominal abscess within 3 months prior to starting treatment
• Patients may not use any complementary or alternative medicines including natural herbal products or folk remedies as they may interfere with the effectiveness of the study treatments
• No prior allogeneic bone marrow transplant or double umbilical cord blood transplantation (dUBCT)
• Whole blood transfusions in the last 120 days prior to entry to the study (packed red blood cells and platelet transfusions are acceptable)
• Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)/treatment-related acute myeloid leukemia (t-AML) or with features suggestive of MDS/AML
• Central nervous system metastases:
• Symptomatic uncontrolled brain metastases requiring corticosteroid treatment; history of spinal cord compression unless after definitive treatment the patient has clinically stable disease (SD) for at least 28 days prior to starting IPs; in the absence of these features and in an asymptomatic patient a scan to confirm the absence of brain metastases is not required
• Other malignancy within the last 5 years except for:
• Curatively treated basal cell or squamous cell carcinoma of skin; in situ cancer of the cervix, ductal carcinoma in situ of the breast or stage 1, grade 1 endometrial carcinoma
• Curatively treated other solid tumors including lymphomas (without bone marrow involvement) with no evidence of disease for >= 5 years prior to start of IPs
• Persisting >= grade 2 Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) toxicity (except alopecia and grade 2 peripheral neuropathy) from previous anti-cancer treatment(s)
• History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to cediranib, olaparib, AZD5363 (capivasertib), or durvalumab (MEDI4736)
• Pneumonitis or moderate-severe pre-existing pulmonary disease
• Patients who have a diagnosis of immunodeficiency or are receiving systemic steroid therapy or any other form of immunosuppressive therapy within 7 days of enrollment.
• Premedication with steroids for CT scan contrast is allowed.
• Inhaled or topical corticosteroids are allowed.
• The use of mineralocorticoids (e.g., fludrocortisone) for patients with orthostatic hypotension or adrenocortical insufficiency is allowed.
• The use of physiologic doses of corticosteroids may be approved after consultation with the study chair
• Patients with active autoimmune disease or history of autoimmune disease that might recur, which may affect vital organ function or require immune suppressive treatment including systemic corticosteroids. This includes, but is not limited to, patients with a history of immune related neurologic disease, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune (demyelinating) neuropathy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis; systemic autoimmune disease such as SLE, connective tissue diseases, scleroderma, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), Crohn's, ulcerative colitis, hepatitis; and patients with a history of toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), Stevens-Johnson syndrome, or phospholipid syndrome because of the risk of recurrence or exacerbation of disease
• Patients with vitiligo, endocrine deficiencies including type I diabetes mellitus, thyroiditis managed with replacement hormones including physiologic corticosteroids are eligible
• Patients with rheumatoid arthritis and other arthropathies, Sjogren's syndrome and psoriasis controlled with topical medication and patients with positive serology, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-thyroid antibodies should be evaluated for the presence of target organ involvement and potential need for systemic treatment but should otherwise be eligible
• Active infection including tuberculosis (clinical evaluation that includes clinical history, physical examination and radiographic findings, and tuberculosis [TB] testing in line with local practice)
A Study Evaluating the Efficacy and Safety of Ralinepag to Improve Treatment Outcomes in PAH Patients
Study ROR-PH-301, ADVANCE OUTCOMES, is designed to assess the efficacy and safety of ralinepag when added to pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) standard of care or PAH-specific background therapy in subjects with World Health Organization (WHO) Group 1 PAH.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, tatyana.ganz@utsouthwestern.edu
• At least 18 years of age.
• Evidence of a personally signed and dated informed consent form indicating that the subject has been informed of all pertinent aspects of the study prior to initiation of any study-related procedures.
• Subjects who are willing and able to comply with scheduled visits, treatment plan, laboratory tests, and other study procedures
• Primary diagnosis of symptomatic PAH.
• Has had a right heart catheterization (RHC) performed at or within 3 years prior to Screening (RHC will be performed during Screening if not available) that is consistent with the diagnosis of PAH.
• Has WHO/ NYHA functional class II to IV symptoms.
• If on PAH-specific background oral therapy, subject is on stable therapy with either an endothelin receptor antagonist (ERA) and/or a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor (PDE5-I) or a soluble guanylate cyclase (sGC) stimulator.
• Has a 6MWD of ≥150 meters.
• If taking concomitant medications that may affect the clinical manifestations of PAH (eg, calcium channel blockers, diuretics, digoxin, or L arginine supplementation, beta blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, or angiotensin II receptor blockers), must be on a stable dose for at least 30 days prior to the Baseline Visit and the dosage maintained throughout the study. The exception is that the dose of diuretics must be stable for at least the 10 days prior to Baseline.
• Both male and female subjects agree to use a highly effective method of birth control throughout the entire study period from informed consent through to the 30-Day Follow-up Visit, if the possibility of conception exists. Eligible male and female subjects must also agree not to participate in a conception process during the study and for 30 days after the last dose of IMP. Eligible male subjects must agree not to participate in sperm donation for 90 days after the last dose of IMP.
• For subjects with known HIV-associated PAH, a cluster designation 4 (CD4+) T-cell count <200/mm3 within 90 days of Baseline.
• Must not have 3 or more left ventricular dysfunction risk factors as defined in the study protocol.
• Has evidence of more than mild lung disease on pulmonary function tests performed within 180 days prior to, or during Screening.
• Has evidence of thromboembolic disease as determined by a V/Q lung scan or local standard of care diagnostic evaluation at or after diagnosis of PAH.
• Current diagnosis of ongoing and clinically significant sleep apnea as defined by the Investigator.
• Male subjects with a corrected QT interval using Fridericia's formula (QTcF) >450 msec and female subjects with a QTcF >470 msec on ECG recorded at Screening and analyzed by the central ECG laboratory. Subjects with evidence of intraventricular conduction delay, defined as a QRS interval greater than 110 msec, will be excluded if the QTcF is >500 msec for both males and females.
• Severe chronic liver disease (ie, Child-Pugh Class C), portal hypertension, cirrhosis or complications of cirrhosis/portal hypertension (eg, history of variceal hemorrhage, encephalopathy).
• Confirmed active infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV).
• Subjects with alanine aminotransferase or aspartate aminotransferase ≥3 times the upper limit of normal (ULN) or total bilirubin ≥2 × ULN at Screening.
• Chronic renal insufficiency as defined by serum creatinine >2.5 mg/dL or requiring dialysis at Screening.
• Hemoglobin concentration <9 g/dL at Screening.
• Subjects treated with an IV or SC prostacyclin pathway agent (eg, epoprostenol, treprostinil, or iloprost) for PAH at any time prior to Baseline (use in vasoreactive testing is permitted).
• Subjects currently on or who were treated with an inhaled or oral prostacyclin pathway agent (iloprost, treprostinil, beraprost, or selexipag) for >6 months or within 90 days prior to Baseline.
• Subject has pulmonary veno-occlusive disease.
• Malignancy diagnosed and/or treated within 5 years prior to Screening, with the exception of localized non-metastatic basal cell or squamous cell carcinoma of the skin or in-situ carcinoma of the cervix excised with curative intent.
• Subject tests positive for amphetamine, cocaine, methamphetamine, methylenedioxymethamphetamine or phencyclidine in urine drug screen performed at Screening, or has a recent history (6 months) of alcohol or drug abuse. A subject will not be excluded due to a positive drug screen caused by prescribed medications.
• Initiation or discontinuation of a cardio-pulmonary rehabilitation program based upon exercise within 90 days prior to Screening and/or planned during study participation.
• Prior participation in any study of ralinepag or participation in another interventional clinical study with medicinal products within 30 days prior to Screening. Concurrent participation in registry or observational studies is allowed, as long as the subject can fulfill all other entry criteria and comply with all study procedures.
• Any reason that, in the opinion of the Investigator or Medical Monitor, precludes the subject from participating in the study (eg, any previous or intercurrent medical condition) that may increase the risk associated with study participation or that would confound study analysis or impair study participation or cooperation.
• Known hypersensitivity to ralinepag or any of the excipients.
• Life expectancy <12 months based on the Investigator's opinion.
• Women who are pregnant, lactating or breast-feeding.
Cisplatin and Combination Chemotherapy in Treating Children and Young Adults With Hepatoblastoma or Liver Cancer After Surgery
This partially randomized phase II/III trial studies how well, in combination with surgery, cisplatin and combination chemotherapy works in treating children and young adults with hepatoblastoma or hepatocellular carcinoma. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as cisplatin, doxorubicin, fluorouracil, vincristine sulfate, carboplatin, etoposide, irinotecan, sorafenib, gemcitabine and oxaliplatin, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Giving combination chemotherapy may kill more tumor cells than one type of chemotherapy alone.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Patients in Group F must have a body surface area (BSA) >= 0.6 m^2
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2; use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• Patients must be newly diagnosed with histologically-proven primary pediatric hepatic malignancies including hepatoblastoma or hepatocellular carcinoma, except as noted below; patients with a diagnosis of hepatocellular neoplasm, not otherwise specified, should be classified and treated per hepatoblastoma treatment arms; note that rapid central pathology review is required in some cases; please note: all patients with histology as assessed by the institutional pathologist consistent with pure small cell undifferentiated (SCU) HB will be required to have testing for INI1/SMARCB1 by immunohistochemistry (IHC) according to the practices at the institution
• Patients with histology consistent with pure SCU must have positive INI1/SMARCB1 staining
• For all Group A patients, WDF status as determined by rapid review will be used to further stratify patients to Group A1 or A2
• For Groups B, C and D, rapid review is required if patients are either >= 8 years of age or have an alphafetoprotein (AFP) =< 100 at diagnosis
• For all Groups E and F patients, rapid central pathology review is required
• In emergency situations when a patient meets all other eligibility criteria and has had baseline required observations, but is too ill to undergo a biopsy safely, the patient may be enrolled without a biopsy
• Clinical situations in which emergent treatment may be indicated include, but are not limited to, the following circumstances:
• Anatomic or mechanical compromise of critical organ function by tumor (e.g., respiratory distress/failure, abdominal compartment syndrome, urinary obstruction, etc.)
• Uncorrectable coagulopathy
• For a patient to maintain eligibility for AHEP1531 when emergent treatment is given, the following must occur:
• The patient must have a clinical diagnosis of hepatoblastoma, including an elevated alphafetoprotein (AFP), and must meet all AHEP1531 eligibility criteria at the time of emergent treatment
• Patient must be enrolled on AHEP1531 prior to initiating protocol therapy; a patient will be ineligible if any chemotherapy is administered prior to AHEP1531 enrollment
• Note: If the patient receives AHEP1531 chemotherapy emergently PRIOR to undergoing a diagnostic biopsy, pathologic review of material obtained in the future during either biopsy or surgical resection must either confirm the diagnosis of hepatoblastoma or not reveal another pathological diagnosis to be included in the analysis of the study aims
• Patients may have had surgical resection of the hepatic malignancy prior to enrollment; all other anti-cancer therapy for the current liver lesion is prohibited
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 60 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or
• A serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• Age: maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL)
• 1 month to < 6 months: 0.4 (male and female)
• 6 months to < 1 year: 0.5 (male and female)
• 1 to < 2 years: 06 (male and female)
• 2 to < 6 years: 0.8 (male and female)
• 6 to < 10 years: 1 (male and female)
• 10 to < 13 years: 1.2 (male and female)
• 13 to < 16 years: 1.5 (male), 1.4 (female)
• >= 16 years: 1.7 (male), 1.4 (female)
• Total bilirubin =< 5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase [SGOT])/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) (serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase [SGPT]) < 10 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• Shortening fraction of >= 28% by echocardiogram (for patients on doxorubicin-containing regimens [Groups C, D, E2, and F] assessed within 8 weeks prior to study enrollment) or
• Ejection fraction of >= 47% by echocardiogram or radionuclide angiogram (for patients on doxorubicin-containing regimens [Groups C, D, E2, and F] assessed within 8 weeks prior to study enrollment)
• Group F patients only: QT/corrected QT (QTc) interval =< 450 milliseconds for males and =< 470 milliseconds for females (assessed within 8 weeks prior to study enrollment)
• Normal pulmonary function tests (including diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide [DLCO]) if there is clinical indication for determination (e.g. dyspnea at rest, known requirement for supplemental oxygen) (for patients receiving chemotherapy [Groups A, B, C, D, E2, F]); for patients who do not have respiratory symptoms or requirement for supplemental oxygen, pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are NOT required
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
• Prior chemotherapy or tumor directed therapy (i.e. radiation therapy, biologic agents, local therapy (embolization, radiofrequency ablation, and laser); therefore, patients with a pre-disposition syndrome who have a prior malignancy are not eligible
• Patients who are currently receiving another investigational drug
• Patients who are currently receiving other anticancer agents
• Patients with uncontrolled infection
• Patients who previously received a solid organ transplant, other than those who previously received an orthotopic liver transplantation (OLT) as primary treatment of their hepatocellular carcinoma
• Patients with hypersensitivity to any drugs on their expected treatment arm
• Group C: Patients who have known deficiency of dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD)
• Group D:
• Patients with chronic inflammatory bowel disease and/or bowel obstruction
• Patients with concomitant use of St. John's wort, which cannot be stopped prior to the start of trial treatment
• Group F:
• Patients with peripheral sensitive neuropathy with functional impairment
• Patients with a personal or family history of congenital long QT syndrome
• These criteria apply ONLY to patients who may receive chemotherapy (all groups other than Group E1):
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation
• Note for Group F: patients of childbearing potential should use effective birth control during treatment with sorafenib and for at least 2 weeks after stopping treatment
Pioglitazone to Reduce Sympathetic Overactivity in CKD Patients
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is associated with a higher risk of cardiovascular disease and death. An overactive sympathetic nervous system in CKD patients is one of the major mechanisms increasing the cardiovascular risks in this patient population. Recently, some studies have shown that a drug typically used to improve glucose control (pioglitazone) may also reduce sympathetic nerve activity and improve blood vessel function. The goal of this study is to determine whether a short-term treatment with pioglitazone can reduce sympathetic nerve impulses throughout the body in CKD patients.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, ZHENGNAN.WANG@UTSouthwestern.edu
• CKD patients classified as Stage 3 and 4 of National Kidney Foundation Classification with estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) between 15 and 59 mL/min/1.73 m2 according to the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) formula based on serum creatinine, age, gender, and race.
• Men and women 35 to 70 years of age
• Allergy to Glitazones
• Myocardial infarction
• Heart failure
• Angina
• History of kidney stones
• Liver disease (abnormal liver enzymes)
• Anemia (hemoglobin <8 g/dl)
• Cancer with current treatment
• Previous organ transplantation
• Immunosuppressant therapy
• Human immunodeficiency virus infection
• Pregnancy or lactating
• Current tobacco use
• Dilantin and oral contraceptive usage due to potential drug interaction with glitazones
• Self-identified history of hypoglycemia
PF-06821497 Treatment Of Relapsed/Refractory SCLC, Castration Resistant Prostate Cancer, and Follicular Lymphoma
A Phase 1 Dose Escalation and Expanded Cohort Study Of PF-06821497 In The Treatment Of Adult Patients With Relapsed/Refractory Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC), Castration Resistant Prostate Cancer (CRPC) And Follicular Lymphoma (FL).
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Castration resistant prostate cancer. Patients should have received either abiraterone and/or enzalutamide treatment and have evidence of prostate cancer progression (per PCWG3) Japan cohort
• Castration resistant prostate cancer that is resistant to SOC or for which no local regulatory approved SOC is available that would confer significant clinical benefit in the medical judgement of the investigator. Patients should have received either abiraterone and/or enzalutamide treatment and have evidence of prostate cancer progression (per PCWG3) China cohort
• Castration resistant prostate cancer that is intolerant/resistant to SOC or for which no local regulatory approved SOC is available that would confer significant clinical benefit in the medical judgement of the investigator. Patients who refused SOC may be eligible. Patients should have received either abiraterone and/or enzalutamide treatment and have evidence of prostate cancer progression (per PCWG3) Part 2A: • Castration resistant prostate cancer. Patients should have received either abiraterone and/or enzalutamide treatment, may have received up to 1 line of chemotherapy and have evidence of prostate cancer progression (per PCWG3) Part 2B:
• Castration resistant prostate cancer. Patients should have received abiraterone treatment, may have received up to 1 prior line of chemotherapy, have not received prior enzalutamide, apalutamide or darolutamide and have evidence of prostate cancer progression (per PCWG3)
• Patients must have radiographic evidence of disease Other inclusion criteria:
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status (PS) of 0 or 1.
• Adequate organ function Key
• Prior Chemotherapy: Part 1C , Japan cohort and China cohort (CRPC): no more than 2 previous regimens of chemotherapy Part 2A: CRPC: no more than 1 previous regimen of systemic chemotherapy Part 2B (CRPC): no more than 1 previous regimen of chemotherapy
• Prior irradiation to >25% of the bone marrow.
• QTcF interval >480 msec at screening.
• Hypertension that cannot be controlled by medications (>150/90 mmHg despite optimal medical therapy).
• Known or suspected hypersensitivity to PF 06821497 or any components or enzalutamide (CRPC)
• Active inflammatory gastrointestinal disease, chronic diarrhea, known diverticular disease or previous gastric resection or lap band surgery. Gastroesophageal reflux disease under treatment with proton pump inhibitors is allowed.
• Current use or anticipated need for food or drugs that are known strong CYP3A4/5 inducers or inhibitors, including their administration within 10 days or 5 half lives of the CYP3A4/5 inhibitor, whichever is longer prior to first dose of investigational product.
Intra-arterial Gemcitabine vs. IV Gemcitabine and Nab-Paclitaxel Following Radiotherapy for LAPC (TIGeR-PaC)
The study is a multi-center, un-blinded, randomized control study of subjects with locally advanced pancreatic adenocarcinoma which is unresectable.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Histologically or Cytopathology confirmed pancreatic adenocarcinoma with initial diagnosis within 6 weeks of consent.
• Locally advanced, unresectable disease at screening and prior to randomization, as defined by NCCN criteria determined by an on-site, experienced, multidisciplinary team
• ECOG performance status 0-1
• Age ≥ 18 years
• Adequate laboratory values prior to starting the first dose of nab-paclitaxel and gemcitabine:
• Absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1,500/μL
• Platelet count ≥ 100,000/μL
• Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL
• Serum creatinine ≤ 1.5 mg/dL OR creatinine clearance ≥ 50 mL/min/1.73 m2 for subjects with creatinine >1.5 mg/dL
• AST and ALT ≤ 3.0 X the upper normal limit of institution's normal range
• Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 X the upper normal limit of institution's normal range -OR- If biliary stent placed or planned to be placed within 6 weeks of Cycle 1 Day 1, total bilirubin ≤ 2.0 X the upper normal limit of institution's normal range
• PT and PTT must be ≤ 1.5 X upper normal limit of institution's normal range
• INR ≤ 1.5
• Life expectancy > 12 weeks
• Negative pregnancy test for women of childbearing potential (either serum or urine) within 1 day prior to administration of the first dose of chemotherapy. Women of childbearing potential should only use highly effective methods of contraception during treatment and for up to 6 months following treatment cessation.
• Provide written informed consent
• Subjects willing to participate in the study for at least 8 months
• Any prior treatment for pancreatic cancer OR more than one cycle of gemcitabine and nab-paclitaxel treatment. For subjects who have started on first cycle of gemcitabine and nab-paclitaxel treatment prior to consent, Inclusion Criterion #1 only applies in that the first gemcitabine and nab-paclitaxel dose must be within 6 weeks of confirmed diagnosis.
• Any evidence of metastatic disease or another active malignancy within the past one year except for cervical cancer in situ, in situ carcinoma of the bladder or non-melanoma carcinoma of the skin.
• Subjects unable or unwilling to have their first randomized treatment within 3 weeks of the post induction imaging and within 5 weeks of their last induction treatment
• Subjects without baseline tumor imaging
• To be determined by the sponsor and not by the site: Arterial anatomy unsuitable for IA delivery of gemcitabine to the intended tumor site, determined by CT or MRI, as determined and approved by the sponsor, which includes the following:
• Stenosis or occlusion in intended artery for treatment
• Inability to exclude major side branches in the area of the intended RenovoCath® catheter occlusion
• No suitable artery with a diameter greater than 3mm in proximity of at least one side of the tumor
• Superior mesenteric vein occlusion or stenosis that cannot be resolved with medication or intervention prior to randomization, if the superior mesenteric artery is the only viable treatment artery Note: Arterial Anatomy will be reviewed by the core imaging lab, RenovoRx Imaging Advisor, and RenovoRx Medical Monitor for approval
• Contraindications for SBRT planning which includes the following:
• Gastrointestinal mucosal infiltration evident at the time of diagnostic endoscopy
• Prior abdominal radiotherapy judged to have clinically significant degree of overlap with planned SBRT dose distribution Note: Primary tumors with a diameter greater than 7cm must be assessed on a case-by-case basis with the Central Radiation Reviewer prior to excluding patient from trial.
• Subjects with known HIV or active viral hepatitis
• Severe infections within 4 weeks prior to the first study treatment, including but not limited to hospitalization for complications of infection, bacteremia or severe pneumonia
• Signs or symptoms of infection within 2 weeks prior to the first study treatment
• Received oral or IV antibiotics for an infection within 2 weeks prior to the first study treatment. Subjects receiving prophylactic antibiotics are eligible
• History of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to gemcitabine or nab-paclitaxel
• Any anti-cancer therapy including chemotherapy, hormonal therapy, or radiotherapy within 2 weeks prior to initiation of study treatment; or herbal therapy intended as anti-cancer therapy within 1 week prior to initiation of study treatment
• Subjects with uncontrolled seizures
• Cardiovascular disease including unstable angina or life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia, myocardial infarction, stroke; or NYHA Class III or IV congestive heart failure within the last 3 months prior to the first study treatment. Subjects with prior history of Myocardial Infarction, congestive heart failure, coronary artery bypass grafting, or prior valve surgery need to have assessment of ejection fraction to ensure EF is not ≤ 40% (based upon MRI, ECHO, or Nuclear Scan), within last 3 months prior to the first study treatment
• Other severe concurrent disease, or comorbidities which make it difficult to participate in this study.
• Any of the following procedures prior to initiation of study treatment:
• Catheterization, endoscopy, stent or drain placement, within 48 hours. (Diagnostic laparoscopy without surgical intervention and/or port placement do not require any wait time prior to study treatment.)
• Minor surgery requiring light sedation (such as surgical laparoscopy) within 2 weeks
• Major surgery within 4 weeks
• Women who are breastfeeding
• Male or female subjects of reproductive potential who do not agree to either remain abstinent or employ highly effective and acceptable forms of contraception throughout their participation in the study and for 6 months after the last study treatment
• Subjects receiving any other investigational agents within 2 weeks prior to the first study treatment
• Any social situations or psychiatric illness that would limit compliance with study requirements
• Subjects unable or unwilling to have standard catherization procedure
Digital Tomosynthesis Mammography and Digital Mammography in Screening Patients for Breast Cancer
This randomized phase III trial studies digital tomosynthesis mammography and digital mammography in screening patients for breast cancer. Screening for breast cancer with tomosynthesis mammography may be superior to digital mammography for breast cancer screening and may help reduce the need for additional imaging or treatment.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Women of childbearing potential must not be known to be pregnant or lactating
• Patients must be scheduled for, or have intent to schedule, a screening mammogram
• Patients must be able to tolerate digital breast tomosynthesis and full-field digital mammographic imaging required by protocol.
• Patients must be willing and able to provide a written informed consent
• Patients must not have symptoms or signs of benign or malignant breast disease (eg, nipple discharge, breast lump) warranting a diagnostic rather than a screening mammogram, and/or other imaging studies (eg, sonogram); patients with breast pain are eligible as long as other criteria are met
• Patients must not have had a screening mammogram within the last 11 months prior to date of randomization
• Patients must not have previous personal history of breast cancer including ductal carcinoma in situ
• Patients must not have breast enhancements (e.g., implants or injections)
• ANNUAL SCREENING REGIMEN ELIGIBILITY CHECK
• To be eligible for inclusion in the annual screening regimen one of the following three conditions must be met in addition to the eligibility criteria above:
• Patients are pre-menopausal; OR
• Post-menopausal aged 45-69 with any of the following three risks factors:
• Dense breasts (BIRADS density categories c-heterogeneously dense or d-extremely dense), or
• Family history of breast cancer (first degree relative with breast cancer), or, positive genetic testing for any deleterious genes that indicate an increased risk for breast cancer, or
• Currently on hormone therapy; OR
• Post-menopausal ages 70-74 with either of the following two risk factors:
• Dense breasts (BIRADS density categories c-heterogeneously dense or d-extremely dense), or
• Currently on hormone therapy
• Postmenopausal women are defined as those with their last menstrual period more than 12 months prior to study entry; for the purpose of defining menopausal status for women who have had surgical cessation of their periods, women who no longer have menses due to hysterectomy and oophorectomy will be considered postmenopausal; women who no longer have menses due to hysterectomy without oophorectomy will be considered premenopausal until age 52 and postmenopausal thereafter
• All other postmenopausal women are eligible for inclusion in the biennial screening regimen
• For those women who cannot be assigned to annual or biennial screening at the time of study entry and randomization because they are postmenopausal, have no family history or known deleterious breast cancer mutation, are not on hormone therapy AND have not had a prior mammogram, breast density will be determined by the radiologist?s recording of it at the time of interpretation of the first study screening examination, either DM or TM; for those who are randomized to TM, radiologists will assign BI-RADS density through review of the DM or synthetic DM portion of the TM examination; such women cannot be part of the planned stratification by screening frequency and are expected to represent far less than 1% of the Tomosynthesis Mammographic Imaging Screening Trial (TMIST) population
• Breast density will be determined by prior mammography reports, when available; all other risk factors used to determine patient eligibility for annual or biennial screening will be determined by subject self-report
A Study of Selpercatinib (LOXO-292) in Participants With Advanced Solid Tumors, RET Fusion-Positive Solid Tumors, and Medullary Thyroid Cancer (LIBRETTO-001) (LIBRETTO-001)
This is an open-label, first-in-human study designed to evaluate the safety, tolerability, pharmacokinetics (PK) and preliminary anti-tumor activity of selpercatinib (also known as LOXO-292) administered orally to participants with advanced solid tumors, including rearranged during transfection (RET)-fusion-positive solid tumors, medullary thyroid cancer (MTC) and other tumors with RET activation.
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• Participants with a locally advanced or metastatic solid tumor that:
• Has progressed on or is intolerant to standard therapy, or
• For which no standard therapy exists, or in the opinion of the Investigator, are not candidates for or would be unlikely to tolerate or derive significant clinical benefit from standard therapy, or
• Decline standard therapy
• Prior multikinase inhibitors (MKIs) with anti-RET activity are allowed
• A RET gene alteration is not required initially. Once adequate PK exposure is achieved, evidence of RET gene alteration in tumor and/or blood is required as identified through molecular assays, as performed for clinical evaluation
• Measurable or non-measurable disease as determined by RECIST 1.1 or RANO as appropriate to tumor type
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) score of 0, 1, or 2 or Lansky Performance Score (LPS) greater than or equal to (≥) 40 percent (%) (age less than [<] 16 years) with no sudden deterioration 2 weeks prior to the first dose of study treatment
• Adequate hematologic, hepatic and renal function
• Life expectancy of at least 3 months For Phase 2: As for phase 1 with the following modifications:
• For Cohort 1: Participants must have received prior standard therapy appropriate for their tumor type and stage of disease, or in the opinion of the Investigator, would be unlikely to tolerate or derive clinical benefit from appropriate standard of care therapy
• Cohorts 1 and 2:
• Enrollment will be restricted to participants with evidence of a RET gene alteration in tumor
• At least one measurable lesion as defined by RECIST 1.1 or RANO, as appropriate to tumor type and not previously irradiated
• Cohorts 3 and 4: Enrollment closed
• Cohort 5:
• Cohorts 1-4 without measurable disease
• MCT not meeting the requirements for Cohorts 3 or 4
• MTC syndrome spectrum cancers (e.g., MTC, pheochromocytoma), cancers with neuroendocrine features/differentiation, or poorly differentiated thyroid cancers with other RET alteration/activation may be allowed with prior Sponsor approval
• cfDNA positive for a RET gene alteration not known to be present in a tumor sample
• Cohort 6: Participants who otherwise are eligible for Cohorts 1, 2 or 5 who discontinued another RET inhibitor may be eligible with prior Sponsor approval
• Cohort 7: Participants with a histologically confirmed stage IB-IIIA NSCLC and a RET fusion; determined to be medically operable and tumor deemed resectable by a thoracic surgical oncologist, without prior systemic treatment for NSCLC Key Exclusion Criteria (Phase 1 and Phase 2):
• Phase 2 Cohorts 1 and 2: an additional known oncogenic driver
• Cohorts 3 and 4: Enrollment closed
• Cohorts 1, 2 and 5: prior treatment with a selective RET inhibitor Notes: Participants otherwise eligible for Cohorts 1, 2, and 5 who discontinued another selective RET inhibitor may be eligible for Phase 2 Cohort 6 with prior Sponsor approval
• Investigational agent or anticancer therapy (including chemotherapy, biologic therapy, immunotherapy, anticancer Chinese medicine or other anticancer herbal remedy) within 5 half-lives or 2 weeks (whichever is shorter) prior to planned start of LOXO-292 (selpercatinib). In addition, no concurrent investigational anti-cancer therapy is permitted Note: Potential exception for this exclusion criterion will require a valid scientific justification and approval from the Sponsor
• Major surgery (excluding placement of vascular access) within 2 weeks prior to planned start of LOXO-292 (selpercatinib)
• Radiotherapy with a limited field of radiation for palliation within 1 week of planned start of LOXO-292 (selpercatinib), with the exception of participants receiving radiation to more than 30% of the bone marrow or with a wide field of radiation, which must be completed at least 4 weeks prior to the first dose of study treatment
• Any unresolved toxicities from prior therapy greater than Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) Grade 1 at the time of starting study treatment with the exception of alopecia and Grade 2, prior platinum-therapy related neuropathy
• Symptomatic primary CNS tumor, metastases, leptomeningeal carcinomatosis, or untreated spinal cord compression. Participants are eligible if neurological symptoms and CNS imaging are stable and steroid dose is stable for 14 days prior to the first dose of LOXO-292 (selpercatinib) and no CNS surgery or radiation has been performed for 28 days, 14 days if stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS)
• Clinically significant active cardiovascular disease or history of myocardial infarction within 6 months prior to planned start of LOXO-292 (selpercatinib) or prolongation of the QT interval corrected (QTcF) greater than (>) 470 milliseconds (msec)
• Participants with implanted pacemakers may enter the study without meeting QTc criteria due to nonevaluable measurement if it is possible to monitor for QT changes.
• Participants with bundle branch block may be considered for study entry if QTc is appropriate by a formula other than Fridericia's and if it is possible to monitor for QT changes.
• Required treatment with certain strong cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4) inhibitors or inducers and certain prohibited concomitant medications
• Phase 2 Cohort 7 (neoadjuvant treatment): Participant must not have received prior systemic therapy for NSCLC.
Targeted Therapy Directed by Genetic Testing in Treating Pediatric Patients With Relapsed or Refractory Advanced Solid Tumors, Non-Hodgkin Lymphomas, or Histiocytic Disorders (The Pediatric MATCH Screening Trial)
This Pediatric MATCH screening and multi-sub-study phase II trial studies how well treatment that is directed by genetic testing works in pediatric patients with solid tumors, non-Hodgkin lymphomas, or histiocytic disorders that have progressed following at least one line of standard systemic therapy and/or for which no standard treatment exists that has been shown to prolong survival. Genetic tests look at the unique genetic material (genes) of patients' tumor cells. Patients with genetic changes or abnormalities (mutations) may benefit more from treatment which targets their tumor's particular genetic mutation, and may help doctors plan better treatment for patients with solid tumors or non-Hodgkin lymphomas.
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• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients must be >= 12 months and =< 21 years of age at the time of study enrollment
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients with recurrent or refractory solid tumors, including non-Hodgkin lymphomas, histiocytoses (e.g. langerhans cell histiocytosis [LCH], juvenile xanthogranuloma [JXG], histiocytic sarcoma), and central nervous system (CNS) tumors are eligible; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse except in patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors, optic pathway gliomas, or patients with pineal tumors and elevations of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or serum tumor markers including alpha-fetoprotein or beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG); in cases where patient enrolls prior to histologic confirmation of recurrent disease, patient is ineligible and should be withdrawn from study if histology fails to confirm recurrence; please note: Patients with Hodgkin lymphoma and plexiform neurofibroma are not eligible
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Tumor Testing Requirement: Tumor sample availability requirement for stage 1 of Pediatric MATCH (patients enrolled from start of study in July 2017 through 12/31/21); Patients must have an formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tumor sample available for MATCH study testing from a biopsy or surgery that was performed at any point after initial tumor recurrence/progression, or be planned to have a procedure to obtain such a sample that is considered to be of potential benefit by the treating clinicians; a tumor sample from a clinically performed diagnostic (pre-treatment) biopsy will be acceptable for enrollment onto Pediatric MATCH only for children with high-grade gliomas of the brainstem (diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas) or thalamus
• Please note: Samples that have been decalcified using standardly utilized acid-based decalcification methods are not generally suitable for MATCH study testing; the nucleic acids will have been degraded in the decalcification process
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Tumor molecular profiling report availability requirement for Stage 2 of Pediatric MATCH (patients enrolled starting 2022): In stage 2 of the study, no tumor samples will be submitted for centralized clinical tumor profiling; instead, a tumor molecular profiling report from a College of American Pathologists (CAP)/ Clinical Laboratory Improvements Amendments (CLIA)-approved testing laboratory must be submitted for review by the Molecular Review Committee (MRC)
• This molecular profiling must have been performed on a tumor sample that was obtained at any point after initial tumor recurrence/progression and must be accompanied by a pathology report for the same tumor specimen; a molecular profiling report for a diagnostic (pre-treatment) tumor sample will be acceptable for enrollment onto Pediatric MATCH only for children with high-grade gliomas of the brainstem (diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas) or thalamus. In the event that molecular profiling reports are available from multiple timepoints, the most recent report should be prioritized for study submission
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age); note: neurologic deficits in patients with central nervous system (CNS) tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients must have radiographically measurable disease; measurable disease based on imaging obtained less than or equal to 56 days prior to enrollment; patients with neuroblastoma who do not have measurable disease but have metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) positive (+) evaluable disease are eligible; measurable disease in patients with CNS involvement is defined as any lesion that is at minimum 10 mm in one dimension on standard magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT)
• Note: The following do not qualify as measurable disease:
• Malignant fluid collections (e.g., ascites, pleural effusions)
• Bone marrow infiltration except that detected by MIBG scan for neuroblastoma
• Lesions only detected by nuclear medicine studies (e.g., bone, gallium or positron emission tomography [PET] scans) except as noted for neuroblastoma
• Elevated tumor markers in plasma or CSF
• Previously radiated lesions that have not demonstrated clear progression post radiation
• Leptomeningeal lesions that do not meet the measurement requirements for Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: NOTE: patient does not need to meet all subprotocol criteria at time of enrollment onto the APEC1621SC screening protocol, but will need to meet all criteria prior to enrollment on any assigned treatment subprotocol. Patients must be enrolled onto a subprotocol within 2 weeks (14 days) of treatment assignment
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age); Note: neurologic deficits in patients with CNS tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: At the time of treatment with subprotocol specified therapy, the patients must have radiographically measurable disease; patients with neuroblastoma who do not have measurable disease but have MIBG+ evaluable are eligible; measurable disease in patients with CNS involvement is defined as any lesion that is at minimum 10 mm in one dimension on standard MRI or CT
• Note: The following do not qualify as measurable disease:
• Malignant fluid collections (e.g., ascites, pleural effusions)
• Bone marrow infiltration except that detected by MIBG scan for neuroblastoma
• Lesions only detected by nuclear medicine studies (e.g., bone, gallium or positron emission tomography [PET] scans) except as noted for neuroblastoma
• Elevated tumor markers in plasma or CSF
• Previously radiated lesions that have not demonstrated clear progression post radiation
• Leptomeningeal lesions that do not meet the measurement requirements for RECIST 1.1
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: At the time of enrollment onto a subprotocol, the following general criteria for initiation of therapy will be required:
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anticancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anticancer directed therapy prior to enrollment to the subprotocol; if after the required timeframe, the numerical eligibility criteria are met, e.g. blood count criteria, the patient is considered to have recovered adequately
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anticancer agents known to be myelosuppressive: for agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment >= 21 days after the last dose of cytotoxic or myelosuppressive chemotherapy (42 days if prior nitrosourea)
• Anticancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g. not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil counts [ANC]): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent; for agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment
• Antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1
• Corticosteroids: If used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Hematopoietic growth factors: >= 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g. Neulasta) or 7 days for short-acting growth factor; for agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur; the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator
• Interleukins, interferons and cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors): >= 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon or cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors)
• Stem cell infusions (with or without total-body irradiation [TBI]):
• Allogeneic (non-autologous) bone marrow or stem cell transplant, or any stem cell infusion including donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI) or boost infusion: >= 84 days after infusion and no evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD)
• Autologous stem cell infusion including boost infusion: >= 42 days
• Cellular therapy: >= 42 days after the completion of any type of cellular therapy (e.g. modified T cells, natural killer (NK) cells, dendritic cells, etc.)
• X-ray therapy (XRT)/External Beam Irradiation including Protons: >= 14 days after local XRT; >= 150 days after TBI, craniospinal XRT or if radiation to >= 50% of the pelvis; >= 42 days if other substantial bone marrow (BM) radiation; note: radiation may not be delivered to "measurable disease" tumor site(s) being used to follow response to subprotocol treatment
• Radiopharmaceutical therapy (e.g., radiolabeled antibody, 131I-MIBG): >= 42 days after systemically administered radiopharmaceutical therapy
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement:
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/mm^3
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (transfusion independent, defined as not receiving platelet transfusions for at least 7 days prior to enrollment)
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients with known bone marrow metastatic disease will be eligible for study provided they meet the blood counts (may receive transfusions provided they are not known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusions); these patients will not be evaluable for hematologic toxicity
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 ml/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• Age: 1 to < 2 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 0.6; female 0.6
• Age: 2 to < 6 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 0.8; female 0.8
• Age: 6 to < 10 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1; female 1
• Age: 10 to < 13 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.2; female 1.2
• Age: 13 to < 16 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.5; female 1.4
• Age: >= 16 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.7; female 1.4
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated) =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine transferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L)
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients must be able to swallow intact capsules/tablets, unless otherwise specified in the subprotocol to which they are assigned
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Agent specific limitations on prior therapy will be included with specific treatment subprotocols
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Pregnant or breast-feeding women will not be entered on this study due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies, or because there is currently no available information regarding human fetal or teratogenic toxicities; pregnancy tests must be obtained in females who are post-menarchal; males or females of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Concomitant medications
• Corticosteroids: at the time of consent and enrollment to regimen specific subprotocols, patients receiving corticosteroids who have not been on a stable or decreasing dose of corticosteroid for at least 7 days prior to enrollment to the subprotocol will not be eligible; if used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Investigational drugs: patients must meet criteria for prior therapy at the time of consent and enrollment to a subprotocol; other investigational agents may not be administered to patients while they are receiving study drug as part of a subprotocol
• Anticancer agents: patients must meet criteria for prior therapy at the time of consent and enrollment to a subprotocol; other investigational agents may not be administered to patients while they are receiving study drug as part of a subprotocol
• Anti-GVHD agents post-transplant: patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to prevent graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients who have had a prior solid organ transplant are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Additional agent specific criteria will be included with specific treatment subprotocols
Testing the Addition of 131I-MIBG or Lorlatinib to Intensive Therapy in People With High-Risk Neuroblastoma (NBL)
This phase III trial studies iobenguane I-131 or lorlatinib and standard therapy in treating younger patients with newly-diagnosed high-risk neuroblastoma or ganglioneuroblastoma. Radioactive drugs, such as iobenguane I-131, may carry radiation directly to tumor cells and not harm normal cells. Lorlatinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Giving iobenguane I-131 or lorlatinib and standard therapy may work better compared to lorlatinib and standard therapy alone in treating younger patients with neuroblastoma or ganglioneuroblastoma.
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• Patients must be enrolled on ANBL00B1 (NCT00904241) or APEC14B1 (NCT02402244) prior to enrollment on ANBL1531 (NCT03126916)
• Patient must be >= 365 days and =< 30 years of age at diagnosis
• Patients must have a diagnosis of neuroblastoma or ganglioneuroblastoma (nodular) verified by tumor pathology analysis or demonstration of clumps of tumor cells in bone marrow with elevated urinary catecholamine metabolites; the following disease groups are eligible:
• Patients with International Neuroblastoma Risk Group (INRG) stage M disease are eligible if found to have either of the following features:
• MYCN amplification (> 4-fold increase in MYCN signals as compared to reference signals), regardless of additional biologic features; OR
• Age > 547 days regardless of biologic features
• Patients with INRG stage MS disease with MYCN amplification
• Patients with INRG stage L2 disease with MYCN amplification
• Patients > 547 days of age initially diagnosed with INRG stage L1, L2 or MS disease who progressed to stage M without prior chemotherapy may enroll within 4 weeks of progression to stage M
• Patients >= 365 days of age initially diagnosed with MYCN amplified INRG stage L1 disease who progress to stage M without systemic therapy may enroll within 4 weeks of progression to stage M
• Patients initially recognized to have high-risk disease must have had no prior systemic therapy (other than topotecan/cyclophosphamide initiated on an emergent basis and within allowed timing); patients observed or treated with a single cycle of chemotherapy per a low or intermediate risk neuroblastoma regimen (e.g., as per ANBL0531, ANBL1232 or similar) for what initially appeared to be non-high risk disease but subsequently found to meet the criteria will also be eligible; patients who receive localized emergency radiation to sites of life-threatening or function-threatening disease prior to or immediately after establishment of the definitive diagnosis will be eligible
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/sex as follows:
• 1 to < 2 years: male = 0.6; female = 0.6
• 2 to < 6 years: male = 0.8; female = 0.8
• 6 to < 10 years: male = 1; female = 1
• 10 to < 13 years: male = 1.2; female = 1.2
• 13 to < 16 years: male = 1.5; female = 1.4
• >= 16 years: male = 1.7; female = 1.4
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age, and
• Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) < 10 x ULN; for the purposes of this study, ULN for SGPT (ALT) is 45
• Shortening fraction of >= 27% by echocardiogram, or ejection fraction of > 50% by echocardiogram or radionuclide angiogram
• No known contraindication to peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) collection; examples of contraindications might be a weight or size less than the collecting institution finds feasible, or a physical condition that would limit the ability of the child to undergo apheresis catheter placement (if necessary) and/or the apheresis procedure
• Patients with INRG stage L2 tumors without amplification of MYCN regardless of tumor histology (may meet criteria for high risk classification but are not eligible for this trial)
• Patients with bone marrow failure syndromes
• Patients for whom targeted radiopharmaceutical therapy would be contraindicated due to underlying medical disorders
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation
A Study of Repotrectinib (TPX-0005) in Patients With Advanced Solid Tumors Harboring ALK, ROS1, or NTRK1-3 Rearrangements (TRIDENT-1)
Phase 1 dose escalation will determine the first cycle dose-limiting toxicities (DLTs), the maximum tolerated dose (MTD), the biologically effective dose and recommended Phase 2 dose (RP2D) of repotrectinib given to adult subjects with advanced solid malignancies harboring an ALK, ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 gene rearrangement. Midazolam DDI substudy will examine effect of of repotrectinib on CYP3A induction. Phase 2 will determine the confirmed Overall Response Rate (ORR) as assessed by Blinded Independent Central Review (BICR) of repotrectinib in each subject population expansion cohort of advanced solid tumors that harbor a ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 gene rearrangement. The secondary objective will include the duration of response (DOR), time to response (TTR), progression-free survival (PFS), overall survival (OS) and clinical benefit rate (CBR) of repotrectinib in each expansion cohort of advanced solid tumors that harbor a ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 gene rearrangement.
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• Histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of locally advanced, or metastatic solid tumor (including primary CNS tumors) (Stage IV, American Joint Committee on Cancer v.7) that harbors an ALK, ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 gene rearrangement by protocol specified tests.
• ECOG PS 0-1.
• Age ≥18 (or age ≥ 20 of age as required by local regulation).
• Capability to swallow capsules intact (without chewing, crushing, or opening).
• At least 1 measurable target lesion according to RECIST version 1.1. CNS-only measurable disease as defined by RECIST version 1.1 is allowed.
• Prior cytotoxic chemotherapy is allowed.
• Prior immunotherapy is allowed.
• Resolution of all acute toxic effects (excluding alopecia) of any prior anti-cancer therapy to National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (NCI CTCAE) Version 4.03 Grade less than or equal to 1.
• Patients with asymptomatic CNS metastases (treated or untreated) and/or asymptomatic leptomeningeal carcinomatosis are eligible to enroll if they satisfy the protocol specified criteria.
• Baseline laboratory values fulfilling the following requirements:Absolute neutrophils count (ANC) ≥1500/mm3 (1.5 × 109/L); Platelets (PLTs) ≥100,000/mm3 (100 × 109/L); Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL transfusions are allowed; Serum creatinine or creatinine clearance Within normal limits or > 40 mL/min; Total serum bilirubin < 1.5 × ULN; Liver transaminases (ASTs/ALTs) < 2.5 × ULN; < 5 × ULN if liver metastases are present Alkaline phosphatase (ALP); < 2.5 × ULN; < 5 × ULN if liver and/or bone metastasis are present; Serum calcium, magnesium, and potassium Normal or CTCAE grade ≤ 1 with or without supplementation
• Life expectancy ≥ 3 months. PHASE 2 Key Inclusion Criteria
• Histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of locally advanced, or metastatic solid tumor (including primary CNS tumors) that harbors a ROS1, or NTRK1-3 gene fusion.
• Subject must have a documented ROS1 or NTRK1-3 gene fusion determined by tissue-based local testing using either:
• a next-generation sequencing (NGS) or quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR) test will be accepted to determine molecular eligibility. • Adequate tumor tissue needs to be sent to the Sponsor designated central diagnostic laboratory for retrospective confirmation by a central diagnostic laboratory test selected by the Sponsor. OR
• a fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) test AND prospective confirmation of fusion status by a central diagnostic laboratory test selected by the Sponsor PRIOR to enrollment will be accepted to determine molecular eligibility.
• Adequate tumor tissue must be sent to the Sponsor designated central diagnostic laboratory for prospective confirmation by a central diagnostic laboratory test selected by the Sponsor PRIOR to enrollment.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status 0-1.
• Age ≥12 (or age ≥ 20 as required by local regulation).
• Willing and able to provide written institutional review board (IRB)/institutional ethics committee-approved Informed Consent or an Assent signed by a parent or legal guardian for subjects age 12 to 17.
• At least 1 measurable target lesion according to RECIST (v1.1) prospectively confirmed by Blinded Independent Central Radiology Review (BICR), selected by Sponsor, PRIOR to enrollment. Subjects with CNS-only measurable disease ≥10 mm as defined by RECIST (v1.1) are eligible.
• Subjects with advanced solid tumors harboring ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 rearrangement will be assigned into 6 distinct expansion (EXP) cohorts provided all inclusion and exclusion criteria are met. i. EXP-1: ROS1 TKI-naïve ROS1+ NSCLC ii. EXP-2: 1 Prior ROS1 TKI and 1 Platinum based chemo ROS1+ NSCLC iii. EXP-3: 2 Prior ROS1 TKIs ROS1+ NSCLC (No Chemo or IO) iv. EXP-4: 1 Prior ROS1 TKI ROS1+ NSCLC (No Chemo or IO) v. EXP-5: TRK TKI-naïve NTRK+ solid tumors vi. EXP-6: TRK TKI-pretreated NTRK+ solid tumors
• Subjects with asymptomatic CNS metastases (treated or untreated) and/or asymptomatic leptomeningeal carcinomatosis are eligible to enroll if they satisfy the protocol specified criteria.
• Baseline laboratory values fulfilling the following requirements:Absolute neutrophils count (ANC) ≥1500/mm3 (1.5 × 109/L); Platelets (PLTs) ≥100,000/mm3 (100 × 109/L); Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL transfusions are allowed; Serum creatinine or creatinine clearance > 40 mL/min; Total serum bilirubin < 1.5 × ULN; Liver transaminases (ASTs/ALTs) < 2.5 × ULN; < 5 × ULN if liver metastases are present Alkaline phosphatase (ALP); < 2.5 × ULN; < 5 × ULN if liver and/or bone metastasis are present; Serum calcium, magnesium, and potassium Normal or CTCAE grade ≤ 1 with or without supplementation
• Life expectancy ≥ 3 months. Key Exclusion Criteria PHASE 1 and PHASE 2
• Concurrent participation in another therapeutic clinical trial.
• Symptomatic brain metastases or leptomeningeal involvement.
• History of previous cancer, except for squamous cell or basal-cell carcinoma of the skin, or any in situ carcinoma that has been completely resected, requiring therapy within the previous 2 years.
• Major surgery within 4 weeks of start of repotrectinib treatment. Radiation therapy (except palliative to relieve bone pain) within 2 weeks of study entry. Palliative radiation (≤10 fractions) must have been completed at least 48 hours prior to study entry
• Clinically significant cardiovascular disease (either active or within 6 months prior to enrollment): myocardial infarction, unstable angina, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft, symptomatic congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association Classification Class ≥ II), cerebrovascular accident or transient ischemic attack, symptomatic bradycardia, requirement for anti-arrhythmic medication. Ongoing cardiac dysrhythmias of NCI CTCAE grade ≥2
• Any of the following cardiac criteria: Mean resting corrected QT interval (ECG interval measured from the onset of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave) for heart rate (QTcF) > 470 msec obtained from 3 ECGs, using the screening clinic ECG machine-derived QTc value Any clinically important abnormalities in rhythm, conduction or morphology of resting ECG (e.g., complete left bundle branch block, third degree heart block, second degree heart block, PR interval > 250 msec) Any factors that increase the risk of QTc prolongation or risk of arrhythmic events such as heart failure, hypokalemia, congenital long QT syndrome, family history of long QT syndrome, or any concomitant medication known to prolong the QT interval.
• Known active infections (bacterial, fungal, viral including HIV positivity).
• Gastrointestinal disease (e.g., Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, or short gut syndrome) or other malabsorption syndromes that would impact drug absorption.
• Peripheral neuropathy of CTCAE ≥grade 2.
• History of extensive, disseminated, bilateral, or presence of CTCAE grade 3 or 4 interstitial fibrosis or interstitial lung disease including a history of pneumonitis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, interstitial pneumonia, interstitial lung disease, obliterative bronchiolitis, and pulmonary fibrosis. Subjects with history of prior radiation pneumonitis are not excluded.
Active Surveillance, Bleomycin, Etoposide, Carboplatin or Cisplatin in Treating Pediatric and Adult Patients With Germ Cell Tumors
This phase III trial studies how well active surveillance help doctors to monitor subjects with low risk germ cell tumors for recurrence after their tumor is removed. When the germ cell tumors has spread outside of the organ in which it developed, it is considered metastatic. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as bleomycin, carboplatin, etoposide, and cisplatin, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. The trial studies whether carboplatin or cisplatin is the preferred chemotherapy to use in treating metastatic standard risk germ cell tumors.
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• There is no age limit for the low risk stratum (stage I ovarian immature teratoma and stage I non-seminoma or seminoma malignant GCT [all sites])
• Standard risk 1: Patient must be < 11 years of age at enrollment
• Standard risk 2: Patients must be >= 11 and < 25 years of age at enrollment
• Patients enrolling on one of the low risk arms must be newly diagnosed with a stage I germ cell tumor; for the standard risk arms, patients must be newly diagnosed with metastatic germ cell tumor (stage II or higher); histologic confirmation of a primary extracranial germ cell tumor in any of the categories outlined below is required of all patients at enrollment except for those who were initially diagnosed with stage I non-seminoma malignant GCT and later recur during observation post surgery off study; for these patients, if elevated tumor markers rise to > 5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) on at least 2 measurements taken at least 1 week apart, a diagnostic biopsy is not required for enrollment
• Low risk stage I immature teratoma (IT); site: ovarian; stage: Children's Oncology Group (COG) stage I, Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stage IA and IB; grade: 2 or 3; histology: pure immature teratoma (may contain microscopic foci of yolk sac tumor), mixed immature and mature teratoma, (no pathological evidence of MGCT); tumor markers: alpha-FP =< 1,000 ng/mL, beta-HCG institutional normal; all ages
• Low risk stage I non-seminoma MGCT; site: ovarian, testicular, or extragonadal; stage: COG stage I, FIGO stage IA and IB, American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) testicular stage IA, IB and IS; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma (pure or mixed); all ages
• Low risk stage I seminoma-MGCT; site: testicular; stage: COG stage I; AJCC testicular stage IA IB, and IS; histology: must contain at least one of the following: may contain immature/mature teratoma; may NOT contain yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; all ages
• Standard risk 1 (SR1); site: ovarian, testicular, or extragonadal; stage: COG stage II-IV, FIGO stage IC, FIGO stage II-IV (International Germ Cell Consensus Classification [IGCCC] criteria DO NOT apply); histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) < 11
• Standard risk 2 (SR2)
• Site: ovarian; stage: COG stage II and III, FIGO stage IC, II and III; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Site: testicular; stage: COG stage II-IV, AJCC stage II, III, IGCCC good risk; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; tumor markers: must be IGCCC good risk; post op: alpha-FP < 1,000 ng/mL, beta-HCG < 5,000 IU/mL and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) <
• 0 x normal; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Site: extragonadal; stage: COG stage II; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Notes:
• IGCCC criteria only apply to SR2 patients with a testicular primary tumor
• Use post-op tumor marker levels to determine IGCCC risk group
• Stage 1 seminoma patients are not eligible for the standard risk arms of the study
• For the low risk stage I non-seminoma MGCT and the standard risk arms, components of yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma can be mixed with other forms of GCT, such as seminoma or mature or immature teratoma; if yolk sac tumor is the only malignant component present, then it must be deemed by the pathologist to be greater than a "microscopic component" of yolk sac tumor
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, 2 or 3; use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age
• Organ function requirements apply ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy (SR1 and SR2 patients)
• Adequate renal function defined as:
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) OR
• A serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows (within 7 days prior to enrollment): (mg/dL)
• 1 month to < 6 months male: 0.4 female: 0.4
• 6 months to < 1 year male: 0.5 female: 0.5
• 1 to < 2 years male: 0.6 female: 0.6
• 2 to < 6 years male: 0.8 female: 0.8
• 6 to < 10 years male: 1 female: 1
• 10 to < 13 years male: 1.2 female: 1.2
• 13 to < 16 years: male: 1.5 female: 1.4
• >= 16 years male: 1.7 female: 1.4
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) or serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) < 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mm^3 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) AND
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients enrolling on the standard risk arms must be medically fit to receive protocol treatment and with no contraindications to protocol treatment
• Eligibility criteria to participate in the pilot study of the AYA-Hears instrument (patient reported outcomes [PROs] of ototoxicity) Note: participants in group 1 will not receive AGCT1531 protocol-directed therapy; all other AYA-HEARS patients must be enrolled on the AGCT1531 SR2 arm in order to participate
• >= 11 and < 25 years old at enrollment
• Able to fluently speak and read English
• Has received prior cisplatin- or carboplatin-based chemotherapy regimen for malignancy including diagnoses other than germ cell tumor
• Followed for cancer or survivorship care at one of the following institutions:
• Baylor College of Medicine/Dan L Duncan Comprehensive Cancer Center
• Dana Farber/Harvard Cancer Center
• Hospital for Sick Children
• Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario
• Oregon Health and Science University
• Seattle Children's Hospital
• Yale University
• Patients with any diagnoses not listed including:
• Stage I testicular cancer patients who have undergone primary RPLND (retroperitoneal lymph node dissection)
• Pure dysgerminoma
• Pure mature teratoma
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage I, grade I
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage I, grade 2,3 with alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) >= 1000 ng/mL
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage II - IV or FIGO stage IC to IV
• "Poor risk" GCT (age >= 11 years old and COG stage IV ovarian, COG stage III or IV EG, or IGCCC intermediate or poor risk testicular), or
• Primary central nervous system (CNS) germ cell tumor
• Germ cell tumor with somatic malignant transformation
• Spermatocytic seminoma
• Patients must have had no prior systemic therapy for the current cancer diagnosis
• Patients must have had no prior radiation therapy with the exception of CNS irradiation of brain metastases; (this exception only applies to SR1 patients; any patients over age 11 with distant metastases to brain [stage IV disease] would be considered poor risk and therefore not eligible for this trial)
• Patients with significant, pre-existing co-morbid respiratory disease that contraindicate the use of bleomycin are ineligible for the standard risk arms of the trial
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
Imatinib Mesylate and Combination Chemotherapy in Treating Patients With Newly Diagnosed Philadelphia Chromosome Positive Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
This randomized phase III trial studies how well imatinib mesylate works in combination with two different chemotherapy regimens in treating patients with newly diagnosed Philadelphia chromosome positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Imatinib mesylate has been shown to improve outcomes in children and adolescents with Philadelphia chromosome positive (Ph+) ALL when given with strong chemotherapy, but the combination has many side effects. This trial is testing whether a different chemotherapy regimen may work as well as the stronger one but have fewer side effects when given with imatinib. The trial is also testing how well the combination of chemotherapy and imatinib works in another group of patients with a type of ALL that is similar to Ph+ ALL. This type of ALL is called "ABL-class fusion positive ALL", and because it is similar to Ph+ ALL, is thought it will respond well to the combination of agents used to treat Ph+ ALL.
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• For patients enrolled on APEC14B1 prior to enrollment on AALL1631, the required diagnostic bone marrow sample has been fulfilled
• For patients who have not previously enrolled on APEC14B1 prior to enrollment on AALL1631, a baseline diagnostic sample (or peripheral blood sample with blasts if marrow sample unavailable) must be available to develop an MRD probe
• In addition, laboratory reports detailing evidence of BCR-ABL1 fusion or ABL-class fusion must be submitted for rapid central review within 72 hours of study enrollment
• >= 1 year (365 days) and =< 21 years at ALL diagnosis
• Ph+ (BCR-ABL1 fusion): newly diagnosed de novo ALL (B-ALL or T-ALL) or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia (MPAL meeting 2016 World Health Organization [WHO] definition) with definitive evidence of BCR-ABL1 fusion by karyotype, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and/or molecular methodologies
• ABL-class fusion: newly diagnosed B-ALL with definitive evidence of ABL-class fusions. ABL-class fusions are defined as those involving the following genes: ABL1, ABL2, CSF1R, PDGFRB, PDGFRA. Methods of detection include fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH, e.g. using break-apart or colocalization signals probes), multiplex or singleplex reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), whole transcriptome or panel-based ribonucleic acid (RNA)-sequencing (e.g. TruSight RNA Pan-Cancer Panel; Illumina, San Diego, CA, USA or similar)
• Ph+ patients must have previously started Induction therapy, which includes vincristine, a corticosteroid, pegaspargase, with or without anthracycline, and/or other standard cytotoxic chemotherapy
• Ph+ patients have not received more than 14 days of multiagent Induction therapy beginning with the first dose of vinCRIStine
• Ph+ patients may have started imatinib prior to study entry but have not received more than 14 days of imatinib
• ABL-class fusion patients must have previously completed the 4 or 5 weeks of multiagent Induction chemotherapy (Induction IA phase)
• ABL-class fusion patients may have started imatinib during Induction IA, at the same time of or after the first vinCRIStine dose
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2
• Direct bilirubin =< 2.0 mg/dL
• Shortening fraction of >= 27% by echocardiogram
• Ejection fraction of >= 50% by radionuclide angiogram or echocardiogram
• Corrected QT interval, QTc < 480 msec
• Note: Repeat echocardiogram and electrocardiogram are not required if they were performed at or after initial ALL diagnosis, before study enrollment
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or serum creatinine within normal limits based on age/gender, as follows:
• 1 to < 2 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.6 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 2 to < 6 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 6 to < 10 years: maximum serum creatinine 1 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 10 to < 13 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 13 to < 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• >= 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.7 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• Known history of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
• ALL developing after a previous cancer treated with cytotoxic chemotherapy
• Active, uncontrolled infection, or active systemic illness that requires ongoing vasopressor support or mechanical ventilation
• Down syndrome
• Pregnancy and breast feeding
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of treatment according to protocol
• Patients with congenital long QT syndrome, history of ventricular arrhythmias or heart block
• Prior treatment with dasatinib, or any TKI other than imatinib
Combination Chemotherapy, Bevacizumab, and/or Atezolizumab in Treating Patients With Deficient DNA Mismatch Repair Metastatic Colorectal Cancer, the COMMIT Study
This phase III trial studies how well combination chemotherapy, bevacizumab, and/or atezolizumab work in treating patients with deficient deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) mismatch repair colorectal cancer that has spread from where it first started (primary site) to other places in the body (metastatic). Chemotherapy drugs, such as fluorouracil, oxaliplatin, and leucovorin calcium, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Bevacizumab may stop or slow colorectal cancer by blocking the growth of new blood vessels necessary for tumor growth. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as atezolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Giving combination chemotherapy, bevacizumab, and atezolizumab may work better in treating patients with colorectal cancer.
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• The patient must have signed and dated an Institutional Review Board (IRB)-approved consent form that conforms to federal and institutional guidelines
• Age >= 18 years
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0, 1 or 2
• Diagnosis of metastatic adenocarcinoma of colon or rectum without previous chemotherapy or any other systemic therapy for metastatic colorectal cancer except for one cycle of FOLFOX or capecitabine and oxaliplatin (CAPOX), either with or without bevacizumab prior to enrollment. Upon enrollment, the preceding single cycle of FOLFOX or FOLFOX + bevacizumab, if the patient received one, will not count towards patients' assessments per protocol. Cycle 1 day 1 (C1D1) of atezolizumab or C1D1 of mFOLFOX6/bevacizumab + atezolizumab will correspond to the first day the patient received therapy on trial
• Tumor determined to be mismatch-repair deficient (dMMR) by Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified immunohistochemical (IHC) assay with a panel of all four IHC markers, including MLH1, MSH2, PMS2, and MSH6; alternatively, MSI-H diagnosed by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-based assessment of microsatellite alterations (either Bethesda markers or Pentaplex panel) or by next-generation sequencing (NGS) are eligible
• Documentation by PET/CT scan, CT scan, or MRI that the patient has measurable metastatic disease per RECIST 1.1
• No immediate need for surgical intervention for the primary tumor or palliative diversion/bypass
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) must be >= 1500/mm^3 (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Platelet count must be >= 100,000/mm^3 (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Hemoglobin must be >= 8 g/dL (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Total bilirubin must be =< 4 x ULN (upper limit of normal) (obtained within 28 days prior randomization); and
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) must be =< 3 x ULN for the lab with the following exception: for patients with documented liver metastases, AST and ALT must be =< 5 x ULN (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Calculated creatinine clearance >= 30 mL/min (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• A urine sample tested for proteinuria by either the dipstick method, urinalysis (UA), or a urine protein creatinine (UPC) ratio:
• The dipstick method must indicate 0-1+ protein; if dipstick reading is >= 2+, a 24-hour urine must be done and it must demonstrate < 1.0 g of protein per 24 hours or a UPC ratio < 1.0
• A urine protein creatinine (UPC) ratio must be < 1.0; if the UPC ratio is >= 1.0 a 24-hour urine must be done and it must demonstrate < 1.0 g of protein per 24 hours
• Urinalysis must indicate < 30 mg/dl. If urinalysis >= 30 mg/dl, a 24-hour urine must be done and it must demonstrate < 1.0 g of protein per 24 hours or a UPC ratio < 1.0
• International normalized ratio of prothrombin time (INR) and prothrombin time (PT) must be =< 1.5 x ULN for the lab within 28 days before randomization; patients who are therapeutically treated with an agent such as warfarin may participate if they are on a stable dose and no underlying abnormality in coagulation parameters exists per medical history, regardless of PT/INR results
• Pregnancy test done within 28 days prior randomization must be negative (for women of childbearing potential only); pregnancy testing should be performed according to institutional standards; administration of atezolizumab or mFOLFOX6/bevacizumab/atezolizumab may have an adverse effect on pregnancy and poses a risk to the human fetus, including embryo-lethality; should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she or her partner is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately
• Women of child-bearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception methods that result in a failure rate of < 1% per year during the treatment period (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and for 5 months (150 days) after the last dose of atezolizumab, 6 months after the last dose of bevacizumab, and 6 months after the last dose of mFOLFOX6; a woman is considered to be of childbearing potential if she is not postmenopausal, has not reached a postmenopausal state (>= 12 continuous months of amenorrhea with no identified cause other than menopause), and has not undergone surgical sterilization (removal of ovaries and/or uterus); examples of contraceptive methods with a failure rate of < 1% per year include: bilateral tubal ligation; male partner sterilization; intrauterine devices; the reliability of sexual abstinence should be evaluated in relation to the duration of the clinical study and the preferred and usual lifestyle of the patient; periodic abstinence (e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, or postovulation methods) and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception; men must refrain from donating sperm during this same period
• Known hypersensitivity to Chinese hamster ovary cell products or other recombinant human antibodies, fluoropyrimidines, folic acid derivatives or oxaliplatin
• Uncontrolled high blood pressure defined as systolic blood pressure (BP) > 150 mmHg or diastolic BP > 100 mmHg with or without anti-hypertensive medication; patients with initial BP elevations are eligible if initiation or adjustment of BP medication lowers pressure to meet entry criteria
• Documented New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV congestive heart failure
• Serious or non-healing wound, skin ulcer, or bone fracture
• History of inherited bleeding diathesis, gastrointestinal (GI) perforation, significant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm requiring surgical repair or recent arterial thrombosis or symptomatic peripheral ischemia, transient ischemic attack [TIA], cerebrovascular accident [CVA] or arterial thrombotic event), abdominal fistula, intra-abdominal abscess, or active GI bleeding (with cause not addressed) within 6 months prior to randomization, or other medical condition in the opinion of the treating oncologist that makes the risk of cardiovascular or bleeding complications with bevacizumab use unacceptably high
• Other malignancies are excluded unless the patient has completed therapy for the malignancy >= 12 months prior to randomization and is considered disease-free; patients with the following cancers are eligible if diagnosed and treated within the past 12 months: in situ carcinomas or basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
• Known DPD (dihydro pyrimidine dehydrogenase) deficiency
• Symptomatic peripheral sensory neuropathy >= grade 2 (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] version [v] 5.0)
• Prior treatment with oxaliplatin chemotherapy within 6 months prior to randomization
• History of grade 2 hemoptysis (defined as 2.5 mL of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to screening
• Prior treatment with anti-PD-1, or anti-PD-L1 therapeutic antibody or pathway-targeting agents; patients who have received prior treatment with anti-CTLA-4 may be enrolled provided the following requirements are met:
• Minimum of 12 weeks from the first dose of anti-CTLA-4 and > 6 weeks from the last dose to randomization
• No history of severe immune-related adverse effects (CTCAE grade 3 and 4) from anti-CTLA-4
• Treatment with systemic immunosuppressive medications (including, but not limited to, prednisone, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, thalidomide, and anti-tumor necrosis factor [anti-TNF] agents) within 14 days prior to randomization; however,
• Patients who have received acute, low dose, systemic immunosuppressant medications (e.g., a one-time dose of dexamethasone for nausea; or chronic daily treatment with corticosteroids with a dose of =< 10 mg/day methylprednisolone equivalent) may be enrolled
• The use of inhaled corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids (e.g., fludrocortisone) for patients with orthostatic hypotension or adrenocortical insufficiency is allowed
• Known clinically significant liver disease, including active viral, alcoholic, or other hepatitis; cirrhosis; fatty liver; and inherited liver disease; however,
• Patients with past or resolved hepatitis B infection (defined as having a negative hepatitis B surface antigen [HbsAg] test and a positive anti-HBc [antibody to hepatitis B core antigen] antibody test) are eligible if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for hepatits B virus (HBV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is negative per local guidelines
• Patients positive for hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody are eligible only if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is negative for HCV RNA per local guidelines
• History or risk of autoimmune disease, including, but not limited to, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, vascular thrombosis associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, Wegener's granulomatosis, Sjogren's syndrome, Bell's palsy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune thyroid disease, vasculitis, or glomerulonephritis; however,
• Patients with a history of autoimmune hypothyroidism on a stable dose of thyroid replacement hormone may be eligible
• Patients with controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus on a stable insulin regimen may be eligible
• Patients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus or vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions:
• Patients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestations
• Rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA)
• Disease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, fluocinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%)
• No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)
• History of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, organizing pneumonia (i.e., bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, etc.), or active or recently active (within 90 days of randomization) pneumonitis (including drug induced) that required systemic immunosuppressive therapy (i.e. corticosteroids, etc.). History of radiation pneumonitis in the radiation field (fibrosis) is permitted
• History of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteins
• Patients with known active tuberculosis (TB) are excluded
• Severe infections within 28 days prior to randomization, including but not limited to, hospitalization for complications of infection, bacteremia, or severe pneumonia
• Signs or symptoms of infection within 14 days prior to randomization
• Received oral or intravenous (IV) antibiotics within 14 days prior to randomization; patients receiving prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., for prevention of a urinary tract infection or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) are eligible
• Major surgical procedure, open biopsy, or significant traumatic injury within 28 days prior to randomization or anticipation of need for a major surgical procedure during the course of the study
• The administration of a live, attenuated vaccine within 28 days prior to randomization
• Pregnant women are excluded from this study because atezolizumab is an agent with the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects; because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with atezolizumab, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with atezolizumab; these potential risks may also apply to other agents used in this study; (Note: pregnancy testing should be performed within 28 days prior to randomization according to institutional standards for women of childbearing potential)
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
• Patients with prior allogeneic bone marrow transplantation or prior solid organ transplantation
Inotuzumab Ozogamicin in Treating Younger Patients With B-Lymphoblastic Lymphoma or Relapsed or Refractory CD22 Positive B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
This phase II trial studies how well inotuzumab ozogamicin works in treating younger patients with B-lymphoblastic lymphoma or CD22 positive B acute lymphoblastic leukemia that has come back (relapsed) or does not respond to treatment (refractory). Inotuzumab ozogamicin is a monoclonal antibody, called inotuzumab, linked to a toxic agent called ozogamicin. Inotuzumab attaches to CD22 positive cancer cells in a targeted way and delivers ozogamicin to kill them.
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• Patients must be >= 1 year and < 22 years of age at the time of enrollment
• Patients must have B-ALL, or previously diagnosed B lymphoblastic lymphoma (B-LL), with >= 5% (M2 or M3) bone marrow blasts with or without extramedullary disease
• NOTE: Relapsed patients previously diagnosed with B-lymphoblastic lymphoma (B-LL) are eligible if they have an M2 or M3 marrow at the time of enrollment on this study
• Patients with ALL or B-LL who have M2 morphology must have local confirmatory testing showing >= 5% blasts by flow cytometry, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) testing or other molecular method
• Leukemic blasts must demonstrate surface expression of CD22 at the time of relapse by local/institutional flow cytometry of a bone marrow aspirate sample; (assessment of CD22 using a bright fluorophore such as phycoerythrin [PE] is strongly recommended)
• In the case of an inadequate aspirate sample (dry tap) or if bone marrow aspirate is unable to be performed due to patient clinical status, flow cytometry of peripheral blood specimen may be substituted if the patient has at least 1,000/uL circulating blasts; alternatively, CD22 expression may be documented by immunohistochemistry of a bone marrow biopsy specimen
• Patients with one of the following:
• Second or greater relapse;
• Primary refractory disease with at least 2 prior induction attempts;
• First relapse refractory to at least one prior re-induction attempt
• Any relapse after HSCT (Cohort 1 ONLY) Patients with Down syndrome are eligible ONLY for Cohort 1 with:
• Any of above disease status, OR
• First relapse with no prior re-induction attempt NOTE: Patients with Down syndrome or prior HSCT are NOT eligible for Cohort 2 combination therapy
• Patients with Philadelphia chromosome (Ph)+ ALL must have had two prior therapy attempts including two different tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs)
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anti-cancer therapy, defined as resolution of all such toxicities to =< grade 2 or lower per the inclusion/exclusion criteria prior to entering this study. Apply to Cohort 2:
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anti-cancer agents known to be myelosuppressive. For agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned Research Coordinator prior to enrollment.
• A waiting period prior to enrollment is not required for patients receiving standard cytotoxic maintenance chemotherapy (i.e., corticosteroid, vincristine, 6MP, and/or methotrexate).
• A waiting period is not required for patients receiving a single dose of intrathecal methotrexate, hydrocortisone, and/or cytarabine within 7 days prior to enrollment
• >= 14 days must have elapsed after the completion of other cytotoxic therapy, with the exception of hydroxyurea, for patients not receiving standard maintenance therapy. For patients who previously received calaspargase pegol, >= 21 days must have elapsed after the last dose. Additionally, patients must have fully recovered from all acute toxic effects of prior therapy.
• Note: Cytoreduction with hydroxyurea must be discontinued >= 24 hours prior to the start of protocol therapy.
• Anti-cancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g., not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil count [ANC] counts): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent. For agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment.
• Anti-cancer agents that are antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1. There is an exception for blinatumomab infusions, for which patients must have been off for at least 3 days and all drug related toxicity must have resolved to grade 2 or lower as outlined in the inclusion/exclusion criteria.
• Corticosteroids: If used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid. A waiting period prior to enrollment is not required for patients receiving corticosteroid for leukemia therapy/cytoreduction.
• Radiotherapy: >= 2 weeks must have elapsed since local palliative radiation therapy (XRT) (small port); >= 3 months must have elapsed if prior cranial or craniospinal XRT was received, if >= 50% of the pelvis was irradiated, or if total body irradiation (TBI) was received; >= 6 weeks must have elapsed if other substantial bone marrow irradiation was given.
• Stem cell transplant or rescue without TBI: For Cohort 1, at least 90 days must have elapsed since stem cell transplant and at least 30 days from donor lymphocyte infusion. Patient must have had no more than one previous HSCT and currently have no evidence of active graft vs. host disease (GVHD). For Cohort 2, no prior HSCT is allowed.
• Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T cell therapy: At least 30 days must have elapsed from the last CAR-T cell infusion
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2; use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or
• A serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• 1 to < 2 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.6 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 2 to < 6 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 6 to < 10 years: maximum serum creatinine 1 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 10 to < 13 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 13 to < 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• >= 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.7 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• Direct bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age, and
• Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) =< 5 x ULN for age; for the purpose of this study, the ULN for ALT will be 45 U/L
• Patients with any prior history of SOS irrespective of severity
• Patients with isolated central nervous system (CNS), testicular, or any other extramedullary site of relapse
• Patients who have been previously treated with inotuzumab ozogamicin
• Patients who have previously received HSCT (Cohort 2 only)
• Patients with Down syndrome (Cohort 2 only)
• History of allergic reaction attributed to compounds of similar or biologic composition to inotuzumab ozogamicin or other agents in the study
• Note: Patients with history of allergy to pegaspargase/calaspargase pegol are eligible for enrollment on Cohort 2 (dose levels 1 and -1) if Erwinia formulation of asparaginase can be obtained
• If Cohort 2 is enrolling at dose level -2, then patients who cannot receive asparaginase due to prior allergy, toxicity, or lack of access may enroll
• NOTE: patients on AALL1621 are not eligible to co-enroll on AALL1931
• Patients with active optic nerve and/or retinal involvement are not eligible; patients who are presenting with visual disturbances should have an ophthalmologic exam and, if indicated, a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to assess optic nerve or retinal involvement
• Patients who are currently receiving another investigational drug
• Patients who are currently receiving or plan to receive other anti-cancer agents (except hydroxyurea, which may be continued until 24 hours prior to start of protocol therapy, and intrathecal chemotherapy)
• Anti-GVHD or agents to prevent organ rejection post-transplant; patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus, or other agents to prevent either graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant or organ rejection post-transplant are not eligible for this trial; at least 3 half-lives must have elapsed after the last dose of GVHD or anti-rejection medications
• Patients who are currently receiving or plan to receive corticosteroids except as described below
• Systemic corticosteroids may be administered for cytoreduction up to 24 hours prior to the start of protocol therapy, (Cohort 1 only) for all patients, corticosteroids may be administered as a premedication for inotuzumab ozogamicin and as treatment for allergic reactions or for physiologic replacement/stress dosing of hydrocortisone for documented adrenal insufficiency; corticosteroids are not allowed for other indications
• Patients with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B or C infections; testing to prove negative status is not required for enrollment unless it is deemed necessary for usual medical care of the patient
• Patients who have an active uncontrolled infection defined as:
• Positive bacterial blood culture within 48 hours of study enrollment;
• Fever above 38.2 degree Celsius (C) within 48 hours of study enrollment with clinical signs of infection; fever that is determined to be due to tumor burden is allowed if patients have documented negative blood cultures for at least 48 hours prior to enrollment and no concurrent signs or symptoms of active infection or hemodynamic instability
• A positive fungal culture within 30 days of study enrollment or active therapy for presumed invasive fungal infection
• Patients may be receiving IV or oral antibiotics to complete a course of therapy for a prior documented infection as long as cultures have been negative for at least 48 hours and signs or symptoms of active infection have resolved; for patients with clostridium (C.) difficile diarrhea, at least 72 hours of antibacterial therapy must have elapsed and stools must have normalized to baseline
• Active viral or protozoal infection requiring IV treatment
• Patients known to have one of the following concomitant genetic syndromes: Bloom syndrome, ataxia-telangiectasia, Fanconi anemia, Kostmann syndrome, Schwachman (Schwachman-Diamond-Blackfan) syndrome or any other known bone marrow failure syndrome
• There have been no human studies of inotuzumab ozogamicin in pregnant women and no reports of exposure in utero; based on nonclinical safety studies, inotuzumab ozogamicin has the potential to impair human male and female fertility and to adversely affect human embryo fetal development; women of childbearing potential should be advised to avoid becoming pregnant while receiving inotuzumab ozogamicin; there is no information regarding the presence of inotuzumab ozogamicin in human milk, the effects on the breast-fed infant, or the effects on milk production; because of the potential for adverse reactions in breast-fed infants, women should not breast-feed during treatment with inotuzumab ozogamicin and for at least 2 months after the final dose
• Female patients of childbearing potential are not eligible unless a negative pregnancy test result has been obtained within 7 days prior to enrollment
• Female patients who are sexually active and of reproductive potential are not eligible unless they agree to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation and for 8 months after the last dose of inotuzumab ozogamicin
• Men with female partners of childbearing potential should use effective contraception during treatment with inotuzumab ozogamicin and for at least 5 months after the last dose of inotuzumab ozogamicin
• Lactating females are not eligible unless they agree not to breastfeed their infants
Dallas 2K: A Natural History Study of Depression (D2K)
The Dallas 2K is a 10-year natural history, longitudinal, prospective study of a cohort of 2,000 participants that will help uncover the socio-demographic, lifestyle, clinical, psychological and neurobiological factors that contribute to anti-depressant treatment response: remission, recurrence, relapse and individual outcomes in depressive disorders. Hence, the expected duration of this study is 20 years in length. Since this is an observational study, investigators will explore a comprehensive panel of carefully selected participant specific parameters: socio-demographic (age, ethnicity, economic); lifestyle (physical activity, substance use); clinical (medical history, anxious depression, early life trauma), biological (biomarkers in blood, saliva, urine), behavioral (cognitive, emotional), neurophysiological (EEG), and neuroimaging (structural, functional brain circuitry) with the goal to develop the most robust predictive models of treatment response and of depression outcomes. There is no medication or non-medication treatment or intervention provided by this study. Subjects will have elevated symptomatology of nonpsychotic chronic or recurrent depressive disorder and will be currently receiving or will be prescribed standard of care medication or non-medication based treatments by their providers/clinicians. The study cohort will reflect the wide range of patients seen in typical primary or psychiatric care settings, and may include unipolar or bipolar disorders and dysthymia (a more chronic form of depression). The cohort will be broadly representative of and generalizable to the US general population as a whole.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, sangita.sethuram@utsouthwestern.edu
• Male and female adult or youth aged 10 and older of any race or ethnicity.
• Ability to speak, read, and understand English. However, the parent(s) or legal guardians of minors may either speak English or Spanish as the consenting process can be conducted bilingually.
• A lifetime or a current diagnosis of a mood disorder based upon a semi-structured diagnostic interview.
• Adults age 18 and older must be able to provide written informed consent; for youth younger than age 18, a parent or legal guardian must provide written informed consent, and the child or teen must provide written informed assent. Eligibility for Healthy Controls For comparison purposes, potential health control participants who do NOT have a psychiatric diagnosis will be enrolled as part of the healthy control arm of this study.
• Male and female adult or youth aged 10 and older of any race or ethnicity.
• Ability to speak, read, and understand English. However, the parent(s) or legal guardians of minors may either speak English or Spanish as the consenting process can be conducted bilingually.
• Adults age 18 and older must be able to provide written informed consent; for youth younger than age 18, a parent or legal guardian must provide written informed consent, and the child or teen must provide written informed assent. Criteria for Exclusion of Participants A potential participant will NOT be eligible for participation in this study if any of the following criteria are met:
• History of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorders or chronic psychotic disorders based upon a semi-structured diagnostic interview.
• Diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or hepatitis B or C (human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing is not required for this study).
• Unable to provide a stable home address and contact information.
• Has any condition for which, in the opinion of the investigator or designee, study participation would not be in their best interest (including but not limited to cognitive impairment, unstable general medical condition, intoxication, active psychosis) or that could prevent, limit, or confound the protocol-specified assessments.
• Requires immediate hospitalization for psychiatric disorder or suicidal risk as assessed by a licensed study clinician. Eligibility for Healthy Controls A potential Healthy Control participant will NOT be eligible for participation in this study if any of the following criteria are met:
• A lifetime or a current history of a mood disorder based upon a semi-structured diagnostic interview.
• Meets any exclusion criteria as part of the main D2K study interview.
A Longitudinal Observational Study of Patients With Nonalcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH) and Related Conditions Across the Entire Spectrum of Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)
TARGET-NASH is a longitudinal observational cohort study of patients being managed for NASH and related conditions across the entire spectrum NAFLD in usual clinical practice. TARGET-NASH is a research registry of patients with NAFL or NASH within academic and community real-world practices maintained in order to assess the safety and effectiveness of current and future therapies.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, maurice.turk@childrens.com
• Adults and children (age 2 or older) being managed or treated for nonalcoholic fatty liver disease. Diagnosis is based on the clinical judgement of the care provider.
• Inability to provide informed assent/consent.
Reduced Craniospinal Radiation Therapy and Chemotherapy in Treating Younger Patients With Newly Diagnosed WNT-Driven Medulloblastoma
This phase II trial studies how well reduced doses of radiation therapy to the brain and spine (craniospinal) and chemotherapy work in treating patients with newly diagnosed type of brain tumor called WNT)/Wingless (WNT)-driven medulloblastoma. Recent studies using chemotherapy and radiation therapy have been shown to be effective in treating patients with WNT-driven medulloblastoma. However, there is a concern about the late side effects of treatment, such as learning difficulties, lower amounts of hormones, or other problems in performing daily activities. Radiotherapy uses high-energy radiation from x-rays to kill cancer cells and shrink tumors. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as cisplatin, vincristine sulfate, cyclophosphamide and lomustine, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Giving reduced craniospinal radiation therapy and chemotherapy may kill tumor cells and may also reduce the late side effects of treatment.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• Patients must be greater than or equal to 3 years and less than 22 years of age at the time of enrollment
• Patients must be newly diagnosed and have:
• Eligibility confirmed by rapid central pathology and molecular screening review on APEC14B1 and via the Molecular Characterization Initiative:
• Classical histologic type (non LC/A) WNT medulloblastoma
• Positive nuclear beta-catenin by immunohistochemistry (IHC)
• Positive for CTNNB1 mutation
• Negative for MYC and MYCN by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)
• Patient must have negative lumbar cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cytology
• Note: CSF cytology for staging should be performed no sooner than 14 days post operatively to avoid false positive CSF; ideally, CSF should be obtained between day 14 and day 21 to allow for final staging status before enrollment onto the study; patients with positive CSF cytology obtained 0 to 14 days after surgery should have cytology repeated to determine eligibility and final CSF status; patients with negative CSF cytology from lumbar puncture obtained 0 to 14 days after surgery do not need cytology repeated; patients with negative CSF cytology from lumbar puncture obtained prior to surgery do not need cytology repeated post-operatively
• Patients must have eligibility confirmed by Rapid Central Imaging Review on APEC14B1; patients must have =< 1.5 cm^2 maximal cross-sectional area of residual tumor; whole brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with and without gadolinium and spine MRI with gadolinium must be performed
• Patients must be enrolled, and protocol therapy must be projected to begin, no later than 36 days after definitive diagnostic surgery (day 0)
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/uL
• Platelet count >= 100,000/uL (transfusion independent)
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL (may receive red blood cell [RBC] transfusions)
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• 3 to < 6 years of age: maximum (max) serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (males and females)
• 6 to < 10 years of age: max serum creatinine 1 mg/dL (males and females)
• 10 to < 13 years of age: max serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL (males and females)
• 13 to < 16 years of age: max serum creatinine 1.5 md/dL (males) and 1.4 md/dL (females)
• >= 16 years of age: max serum creatinine 1.7 mg/dL (males) and 1.4 mg/dL (females)
• The threshold creatinine values were derived from the Schwartz formula for estimating GFR utilizing child length and stature data published by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
• Total or direct bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age, and
• Serum glutamate pyruvate (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (3x ULN); for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L
• Central nervous system function defined as:
• Patients with seizure disorder may be enrolled if on anticonvulsants and well controlled
• Patients must not be in status epilepticus, a coma or on assisted ventilation at the time of study enrollment
• Patients must have receptive and expressive language skills in English, French, or Spanish to complete the QoL and neurocognitive assessments; if a patient meets these criteria but the parent/guardian speaks a language other than English, French, or Spanish, the patient may still be enrolled and tested, and the parent-report measures should be omitted
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent; assent, when appropriate, will be obtained according to institutional guidelines
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
• Patients with metastatic disease by either MRI evaluation (brain and spine) or lumbar CSF cytology are not eligible; patients who are unable to undergo a lumbar puncture for assessment of CSF cytology are ineligible
• Patients must not have received any prior radiation therapy or chemotherapy (tumor-directed therapy) other than surgical intervention and/or corticosteroids
• Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
• Female patients who are pregnant are ineligible due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies
• Lactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infants
• Female patients of childbearing potential are not eligible unless a negative pregnancy test result has been obtained
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential are not eligible unless they have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation
• Patients with a history of moderate to profound intellectual disability (i.e., intelligence quotient [Q)]=< 55) are not eligible for enrollment; PLEASE NOTE: Children with a prior history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) or a specific learning disability (e.g., dyslexia) are eligible for this study. Children with posterior fossa syndrome (also known as cerebellar mutism) are eligible for this study
Clinical Medication Development for Bipolar Disorder and Alcohol Use Disorders
Preclinical and clinical data as well as mechanistic justification have been presented suggesting citicoline and pregnenolone are each promising treatments for alcohol use in BPD. Both appear to have favorable side effect profiles and no known drug-drug interactions. Thus, they have the potential to be safely used in a dual diagnosis population already taking other medications. A 12-week, randomized, double-blind, parallel-group, placebo-controlled adaptive design study of citicoline and pregnenolone is proposed in 199 persons with alcohol use disorder and bipolar I or II disorder or schizoaffective disorder (bipolar type). The primary aim will be to assess change in alcohol use. Biomarkers of alcohol use, alcohol craving, mood and cognition will also be assessed. Relationships between neurosteroid and choline levels and the outcome measures will be explored.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Alejandro.CabreraAguirre@UTSouthwestern.edu
• Outpatient men and women age 18-70 years old with bipolar I or II disorder or schizoaffective disorder (bipolar type)
• English or Spanish speaking
• Current diagnosis of alcohol use disorder with at least moderate severity (DSM-5 terminology)
• Alcohol use of at least an average of 28 drinks a week if male or an average of 21 drinks per week if female and an average of 3 drinking days a week in the 28 days prior to intake
• Current mood stabilizer therapy (defined as lithium, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine or an atypical antipsychotic) with stable dose for ≥ 28 days prior to randomization or valproate/divalproex at a stable dose for ≥ 90 days (longer period due to data suggesting valproate may decrease alcohol use in BPD)
• Diagnosis of substance use disorder other than alcohol, caffeine or nicotine is allowed if 1) alcohol is the self-identified substance of choice and 2) severity of other substance use disorder is ≤ moderate
• Mood disorders other than bipolar I or II disorders or schizoaffective disorder bipolar type (e.g. bipolar NOS, cyclothymic disorders, schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder depressive type, or unipolar depression based on the SCID); other disorders (e.g. anxiety, will be allowed)
• Baseline HRSD17 or YMRS scores ≥ 35 to exclude those with very severe mood symptoms at baseline
• Evidence of clinically significant alcohol withdrawal symptoms defined as a CIWA-Ar score of ≥ 10
• Current (last 28 days) treatment with naltrexone, acamprosate, disulfiram, or topiramate as these may also decrease alcohol use
• Oral contraceptives and hormone replacement therapy. This exclusion is due to a possible interaction with pregnenolone.
• Women with hormone sensitive conditions such as breast cancer, uterine cancer, ovarian cancer, endometriosis, uterine fibroids. These persons are excluded because pregnenolone is converted to estrogens.
• Vulnerable populations (e.g. pregnant, nursing, cognitively impaired, incarcerated)
• High risk for suicide defined as > 1 attempt in past 12 months that required medical attention, any attempt in the past 3 months or current suicidal ideation with plan and intent such that outpatient care is precluded
• Intensive outpatient treatment (defined as ≥3 visits each week) for substance abuse (AA, NA meetings, or less intensive counseling at baseline will be allowed)
• Severe/unstable condition (e.g. cirrhosis, poorly controlled hypertension) or laboratory/physical exam findings consistent with serious illness (e.g. abnormal electrolytes) or AST or ALT >3 times normal
Genetic Testing in Screening Patients With Stage IB-IIIA Non-small Cell Lung Cancer That Has Been or Will Be Removed by Surgery (The ALCHEMIST Screening Trial)
This ALCHEMIST trial studies genetic testing in screening patients with stage IB-IIIA non-small cell lung cancer that has been or will be removed by surgery. Studying the genes in a patient's tumor cells may help doctors select the best treatment for patients that have certain genetic changes.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
• PATIENT PRE-REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:
• For pre-surgical patients
• Suspected diagnosis of resectable non-small cell lung cancer; cancers with a histology of "adenosquamous" are considered a type of adenocarcinoma and thus a "nonsquamous" histology; patients with squamous cell carcinoma are eligible
• Suspected clinical stage of IIIA, II (IIA or IIB) or large IB (defined as size >= 4 cm); Note: IB tumors < 4 cm are NOT eligible; stage IB cancer based on pleural invasion is not eligible unless the tumor size is >= 4 cm; the 7th edition of American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) staging will be utilized
• For post-surgical patients
• Completely resected non-small cell lung cancer with negative margins (R0); patients with squamous cell carcinoma are eligible only if they have not received adjuvant therapy
• Pathologic stage IIIA, II (IIA or IIB) or large IB (defined as size >= 4 cm); Note: IB tumors < 4 cm are NOT eligible; stage IB cancer based on pleural invasion is not eligible unless the tumor size is >= 4 cm; the 7th edition of AJCC staging will be utilized
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-1
• No patients who have received neoadjuvant therapy (chemo- or radio-therapy) for this lung cancer
• No locally advanced or metastatic cancer requiring systemic therapy within 5 years prior to registration; no secondary primary lung cancer diagnosed concurrently or within 2 year prior to registration
• No prior treatment with agents targeting EGFR mutation, ALK rearrangement, and PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4
• No patients known to be pregnant or lactating
• Patients who have had local genotyping are eligible, regardless of the local result
• No patients with recurrence of lung cancer after prior resection
• Note: Post-surgical patients should proceed to registration immediately following preregistration
• PATIENT REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:
• Tissue available for the required analyses (either clinical tissue block or slides and scrolls)
• Completely resected NSCLC with negative margins (R0); cancers with a histology of "adenosquamous" are considered a type of adenocarcinoma and thus a "nonsquamous" histology
• Pathologic stage IIIA, IIA or IIB, or large IB (defined as size >= 4 cm); Note: IB tumors < 4 cm are NOT eligible; stage IB cancer based on pleural invasion is not eligible unless the tumor size is >= 4 cm; the 7th edition of AJCC staging will be utilized
• Patients with squamous cell carcinoma are eligible only if they have not received adjuvant therapy
• In order to allow for time for central genotyping and eligibility for the ALCHEMIST treatment trial, patients must register within the following eligibility windows:
• Squamous patients:
• No adjuvant therapy permitted, register patient within 77 days following surgery
• Non-squamous patients:
• If no adjuvant therapy, register patient within 75 days following surgery
• If adjuvant chemotherapy or radiotherapy only, register patient within 225 days following surgery
• If adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation, register patient within 285 days following surgery