Testing Docetaxel-Cetuximab or the Addition of an Immunotherapy Drug, Atezolizumab, to the Usual Chemotherapy and Radiation Therapy in High-Risk Head and Neck Cancer
This phase II/III trial studies how well radiation therapy works when given together with cisplatin, docetaxel, cetuximab, and/or atezolizumab after surgery in treating patients with high-risk stage III-IV head and neck cancer the begins in the thin, flat cells (squamous cell). Specialized radiation therapy that delivers a high dose of radiation directly to the tumor may kill more tumor cells and cause less damage to normal tissue. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as cisplatin and docetaxel, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells or by stopping them from dividing. Cetuximab is a monoclonal antibody that may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as atezolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. The purpose of this study is to compare the usual treatment (radiation therapy with cisplatin chemotherapy) to using radiation therapy with docetaxel and cetuximab chemotherapy, and using the usual treatment plus an immunotherapy drug, atezolizumab.
• PHASE II INCLUSION CRITERIA (COMPLETE AS OF 20-MAR-2020)
• Pathologically (histologically or cytologically) proven diagnosis of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) involving the oral cavity (excluding lips), oropharynx (p16 negative), larynx, or hypopharynx
• Patients must have undergone gross total surgical resection of high-risk oral cavity, oropharynx (p16 negative), larynx, or hypopharynx within 63 days prior to registration; Note: patients may have biopsy under general anesthesia in an operating room followed by definitive ablative cancer surgery representing gross total resection; the gross total resection has to be done within 63 days prior to registration; if, however, patients have ablative resection but shortly recur or are determined to have persisting disease requiring re-resection to achieve gross total resection, then the patient is not eligible
• Patients must have at least 1 of the following high-risk pathologic features: extracapsular nodal extension or invasive cancer at the primary tumor resection margin (tumor on ink)
• Pathologic stage III or IV HNSCC, including no distant metastases, based upon the following minimum diagnostic workup:
• General history and physical examination by a radiation oncologist and/or medical oncologist within 84 days prior to registration;
• Examination by an ear nose throat (ENT) or head & neck surgeon prior to surgery; a laryngopharyngoscopy (mirror and/or fiber optic and/or direct procedure), if appropriate, is recommended but not required; intra-operative examination is acceptable documentation
• Pre-operative (op) Imaging of the head and neck: A neck computed tomography (CT) (with contrast) or CT/positron emission tomography (PET) (with contrast) and/or an magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the neck (T1 with gadolinium and T2) within 84 days prior to surgery; Note: this imaging data (diagnostic pre-operative scan showing gross disease) is to be submitted in Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM) format via TRIAD; the report is to be uploaded into Rave
• Chest CT scan (with or without contrast) or CT/PET that includes the chest (with or without contrast) either within 84 days prior to surgery or within 120 days prior to registration; Note: if the CT/PET with or without contrast is done within 84 days prior to surgery, it fulfills the chest imaging requirement
• Zubrod performance status of 0-1 within 14 days prior to registration
• Age >= 18
• Absolute granulocyte count (AGC) >= 1,500 cells/mm^3 (obtained within 14 days prior to registration on study)
• Platelets >= 100,000 cells/mm^3 (obtained within 14 days prior to registration on study)
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dl (Note: the use of transfusion or other intervention to achieve hemoglobin [Hgb] >= 8.0 g/dl is acceptable)
• Total bilirubin < 2 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) within 14 days prior to registration
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or alanine aminotransferase (ALT) < 3 x institutional ULN within 14 days prior to registration
• Serum creatinine institutional ULN within 14 days prior to registration or; creatinine clearance (CC) >= 50 ml/min within 14 days prior to registration determined by 24-hour collection or estimated by Cockcroft-Gault formula
• Negative urine or serum pregnancy test within 14 days prior to registration for women of childbearing potential
• The following assessments are required within 14 days prior to registration: sodium (Na), potassium (K), chloride (Cl), glucose, calcium (Ca), magnesium (Mg), and albumin; Note: patients with an initial magnesium < 0.5 mmol/L (1.2 mg/dl) may receive corrective magnesium supplementation but should continue to receive either prophylactic weekly infusion of magnesium and/or oral magnesium supplementation (e.g., magnesium oxide) at the investigator's discretion
• Patients with feeding tubes are eligible for the study
• Women of childbearing potential and male participants who are sexually active must agree to use a medically effective means of birth control
• Patient must provide study specific informed consent prior to study entry, including consent for mandatory tissue submission for epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) analysis and for oropharyngeal cancer patients, human papilloma virus (HPV) analysis
• PHASE III: Pathologically (histologically or cytologically) proven diagnosis of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) involving the oral cavity (excluding lips), oropharynx (p16 negative), larynx, or hypopharynx
• PHASE III: Patients with oropharyngeal cancer must have p16-negative based on central review prior to Step 2 registration; all patients with oropharyngeal primary must consent for mandatory tissue submission for central p16 confirmation
• PHASE III: Patients must have undergone gross total surgical resection of high-risk oral cavity, oropharynx (p16 negative), larynx, or hypopharynx within 63 days prior to registration; note: patients may have biopsy under general anesthesia in an operating room followed by definitive ablative cancer surgery representing gross total resection; the gross total resection has to be done within 63 days prior to registration; if, however, patients have ablative resection but shortly recur or are determined to have persisting disease requiring re-resection to achieve gross total resection, then the patient is not eligible
• PHASE III: Patients must have at least 1 of the following high-risk pathologic features: extracapsular nodal extension or invasive cancer at the primary tumor resection margin (tumor on ink or tumor in a final separately submitted margin)
• PHASE III: Pathologic stage III or IV HNSCC (American Joint Committee on Cancer [AJCC] 7th edition), including no distant metastases, based upon the following minimum diagnostic workup:
• General history and physical examination by a radiation oncologist or medical oncologist within 84 days prior to registration;
• Examination by an ENT or head & neck surgeon prior to surgery; a laryngopharyngoscopy (mirror or fiberoptic or direct procedure), if appropriate, is recommended but not required. Intra-operative examination is acceptable documentation.
• Pre-op Imaging of the head and neck: A neck CT (with contrast and of diagnostic quality) or PET/CT (with contrast and of diagnostic quality) and/or an MRI of the neck of diagnostic quality (T1 with gadolinium and T2) within 84 days prior to surgery; Note: this imaging data (diagnostic pre-operative scan showing gross disease) is to be submitted in DICOM format via TRIAD. The report is to be uploaded into Rave.
• Chest CT scan (with or without contrast) or PET/CT that includes the chest (with or without contrast) either within 84 days prior to surgery or within 120 days prior to registration; Note: If the PET/CT with or without contrast is done within 84 days prior to surgery, it fulfills the chest imaging requirement
• PHASE III: Zubrod performance status of 0-1 within 14 days prior to registration
• PHASE III: Leukocytes >= 2,500 cells/mm^3 (obtained within 14 days prior to registration on study)
• PHASE III: Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500 cells/mm^3 (obtained within 14 days prior to registration on study)
• PHASE III: Platelets >= 100,000 cells/mm^3 (obtained within 14 days prior to registration on study)
• PHASE III: Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL (Note: The use of transfusion or other intervention to achieve Hgb >= 8.0 g/dL is acceptable) (obtained within 14 days prior to registration on study)
• PHASE III: Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (however, patients with known Gilbert disease who have serum bilirubin level =< 3 x institutional ULN may be enrolled) (within 14 days prior to registration)
• PHASE III: AST or ALT =< 3 x institutional ULN (within 14 days prior to registration)
• PHASE III: Alkaline phosphatase =< 2.5 x institutional ULN (within 14 days prior to registration)
• PHASE III: Creatinine clearance (CrCl) >= 50 mL/min within 14 days prior to registration determined by 24-hour collection or estimated by Cockcroft-Gault formula
• PHASE III: Patients with feeding tubes are eligible for the study
• PHASE III: Negative urine or serum pregnancy test within 14 days prior to registration for women of childbearing potential
• PHASE III: All patients must provide study specific informed consent prior to study entry
• PHASE III: Patients positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are allowed on study, but HIV-positive patients must have:
• A stable regimen of highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART);
• No requirement for concurrent antibiotics or antifungal agents for the prevention of opportunistic infections;
• A CD4 count above 250 cells/mcL and an undetectable HIV viral load on standard polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-based tests
• PHASE II EXCLUSION CRITERIA (COMPLETE AS OF 20-MAR-2020)
• Prior invasive malignancy (except non-melanomatous skin cancer) unless disease free for a minimum of 1095 days (3 years); noninvasive cancers (for example, carcinoma in situ of the breast, oral cavity, or cervix are all permissible) are permitted even if diagnosed and treated < 3 years ago
• Patients with simultaneous primaries or bilateral tumors are excluded, with the exception of patients with bilateral tonsil cancers or patients with T1-2, N0, M0 resected differentiated thyroid carcinoma, who are eligible
• Prior systemic chemotherapy or anti-epidermal growth factor (EGF) therapy for the study cancer; note that prior chemotherapy for a different cancer is allowable
• Prior radiotherapy to the region of the study cancer that would result in overlap of radiation therapy fields
• Severe, active co-morbidity, defined as follows:
• Unstable angina and/or congestive heart failure requiring hospitalization within 6 months prior to registration
• Transmural myocardial infarction within 6 months prior to registration
• Acute bacterial or fungal infection requiring intravenous antibiotics at the time of registration
• Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation or other respiratory illness requiring hospitalization or precluding study therapy at the time of registration
• Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis or other severe interstitial lung disease that requires oxygen therapy or is thought to require oxygen therapy within 1 year prior to registration
• Hepatic insufficiency resulting in clinical jaundice and/or coagulation defects; note, however, that laboratory tests for coagulation parameters are not required for entry into this protocol
• Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) based upon current Centers for Disease and Control and Prevention (CDC) definition; note: human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing is not required for entry into this protocol; the need to exclude patients with AIDS from this protocol is necessary because the treatments involved in this protocol may be significantly immunosuppressive; protocol-specific requirements may also exclude immuno-compromised patients.
• Grade 3-4 electrolyte abnormalities (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE], version [v.] 4):
• Serum calcium (ionized or adjusted for albumin) < 7 mg/dl (1.75 mmol/L) or > 12.5 mg/dl (> 3.1 mmol/L) despite intervention to normalize levels
• Glucose < 40 mg/dl (< 2.2 mmol/L) or > 250 mg/dl (> 14 mmol/L)
• Magnesium < 0.9 mg/dl (< 0.4 mmol/L) or > 3 mg/dl (> 1.23 mmol/L) despite intervention to normalize levels
• Potassium < 3.0 mmol/L or > 6 mmol/L despite intervention to normalize levels
• Sodium < 130 mmol/L or > 155 mmol/L despite intervention to normalize levels
• Pregnancy or women of childbearing potential and men who are sexually active and not willing/able to use medically acceptable forms of contraception; this exclusion is necessary because the treatment involved in this study may be significantly teratogenic
• Prior allergic reaction to cetuximab
• PHASE III: Prior invasive malignancy (except non-melanomatous skin cancer) unless disease free for a minimum of 1095 days (3 years) with the following exceptions: T1-2, N0, M0 resected differentiated thyroid carcinoma; Note that noninvasive cancers (For example, carcinoma in situ of the breast, oral cavity, or cervix) are permitted even if diagnosed and treated < 3 years ago
• PHASE III: Patients with simultaneous primaries or bilateral tumors are excluded, with the exception of patients with bilateral tonsil cancers or patients with T1-2, N0, M0 resected differentiated thyroid carcinoma, who are eligible
• PHASE III: Prior systemic therapy, including cytotoxic chemotherapy, biologic/targeted therapy (such as anti-EGF therapy), or immune therapy for the study cancer; note that prior chemotherapy for a different cancer is allowable, however, a prior anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1, or anti-PD-L2 agent is not permitted
• PHASE III: Prior radiotherapy to the region of the study cancer that would result in overlap of radiation therapy fields
• PHASE III: Severe, active co-morbidity, defined as follows:
• Patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification; to be eligible for this trial, patients should be class 2B or better within 6 months prior to registration
• Transmural myocardial infarction within 6 months prior to registration;
• Severe infections within 4 weeks prior to registration including, but not limited to, hospitalization for complications of infection, bacteremia, or severe pneumonia;
• Acute bacterial or fungal infection requiring intravenous antibiotics at the time of registration; Note: Patients receiving prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., for prevention of a urinary tract infection or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation) are eligible.
• Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation or other respiratory illness requiring hospitalization or precluding study therapy at the time of registration;
• History of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonitis (including drug induced), organizing pneumonia (i.e., bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, etc.), or evidence of active pneumonitis on screening chest computed tomography (CT) scan. History of radiation pneumonitis in a prior radiation field (fibrosis) is permitted, provided that field does not overlap with the planned radiation field for the study cancer;
• Patients with active tuberculosis (TB) are excluded;
• Known clinically significant liver disease, including active viral, alcoholic, or other hepatitis; cirrhosis; fatty liver; and inherited liver disease;
• Patients with past or resolved hepatitis B infection (defined as having a negative hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg] test and a positive anti-HBc [antibody to hepatitis B core antigen] antibody test) are eligible.
• Patients positive for hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody are eligible only if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is negative for HCV RNA.
• History of allogeneic bone marrow transplantation or solid organ transplantation.
• A diagnosis of immunodeficiency:
• Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) based upon current CDC definition; note: HIV testing is not required for entry into this protocol; the need to exclude patients with AIDS from this protocol is necessary because the treatments involved in this protocol may be significantly immunosuppressive.
• Is receiving treatment with systemic immunosuppressive medications (including, but not limited to, prednisone, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, thalidomide, and anti-tumor necrosis factor [anti-TNF] agents) within 2 weeks prior to registration.
• Note: Patients who have received acute, low dose, systemic immunosuppressant medications (e.g., a one-time dose of dexamethasone for nausea) may be enrolled.
• Note: The use of inhaled corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids (e.g., fludrocortisone) for patients with orthostatic hypotension or adrenocortical insufficiency is allowed.
• History or risk of autoimmune disease, including, but not limited to, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, vascular thrombosis associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, Wegener's granulomatosis, Sjogren's syndrome, Guillain-Barré syndrome, multiple sclerosis, vasculitis, or glomerulonephritis.
• Patients with a history of autoimmune hypothyroidism who are asymptomatic and/or are on a stable dose of thyroid replacement hormone are eligible.
• Patients with controlled Type 1 diabetes mellitus on a stable insulin regimen are eligible.
• Patients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus, or vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions:
• Patients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestations
• Rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA)
• Disease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, flucinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, aclometasone dipropionate 0.05%)
• No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)
• PHASE III: Grade 3-4 electrolyte abnormalities (CTCAE, v. 4) within 14 days prior to registration:
• Serum calcium (ionized or adjusted for albumin) < 7 mg/dL (1.75 mmol/L) or > 12.5 mg/dL (> 3.1 mmol/L) despite intervention to normalize levels;
• Glucose < 40 mg/dL (< 2.2 mmol/L) or > 250 mg/dL (> 14 mmol/L);
• Magnesium < 0.9 mg/dL (< 0.4 mmol/L) or > 3 mg/dL (> 1.23 mmol/L) despite intervention to normalize levels;
• Potassium < 3.0 mmol/L or > 6 mmol/L despite intervention to normalize levels;
• Sodium < 130 mmol/L or > 155 mmol/L despite intervention to normalize levels.
• PHASE III: Pregnancy or women of childbearing potential and men who are sexually active and not willing/able to use medically acceptable forms of contraception for up to 5 months from last study treatment; this exclusion is necessary because the treatment involved in this study may be significantly teratogenic. Women who are breastfeeding and unwilling to discontinue are also excluded
• PHASE III: History of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteins
• PHASE III: Patients taking bisphosphonate therapy for symptomatic hypercalcemia. Use of bisphosphonate therapy for other non-oncologic reasons (e.g., osteoporosis) is allowed
• PHASE III: Patients requiring treatment with a RANKL inhibitor (e.g. denosumab) for non-oncologic reasons who cannot discontinue it before registration
• PHASE III: Patients with known distant metastatic disease are excluded
• PHASE III: Known hypersensitivity to Chinese hamster ovary cell products or other recombinant human antibodies
• PHASE III: Major surgical procedure within 28 days prior to registration or anticipation of need for a major surgical procedure during the course of the study
• PHASE III: Administration of a live, attenuated vaccine within 4 weeks prior to registration or anticipation that such a live, attenuated vaccine will be required during the study and for patients receiving atezolizumab, up to 5 months after the last dose of atezolizumab.
• Influenza vaccination should be given during influenza season only (approximately October to March). Patients must not r
Radiation Therapy With Concomitant and Adjuvant Temozolomide Versus Radiation Therapy With Adjuvant PCV Chemotherapy in Patients With Anaplastic Glioma or Low Grade Glioma
Radiation therapy uses high-energy x-rays to kill tumor cells. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as temozolomide, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells or by stopping them from dividing. It is not yet known whether giving radiation with concomitant and adjuvant temozolomide versus radiation with adjuvant PCV is more effective in treating anaplastic glioma or low grade glioma.
• United States (US) and Canadian sites: * This review is mandatory prior to registration to confirm eligibility; patients must be willing to submit tissue samples for mandatory central pathology review submission; it should be initiated as soon after surgery as possible
• Tissue must have been determined to have local 1p/9q co-deletion and IDH mutation prior to submission for central path review
• Tumor tissue must show co-deletion of chromosomes 1p and 19q; for eligibility, the 1p/19q analysis results will be accepted from the local site, as determined by either a locally available or reference laboratory (for US, must be Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act [CLIA] certified); acceptable methods for determination of 1p/19q loss include fluorescent in-situ hybridization (FISH), by genomic sequencing or methylomic analyses; US and Canadian sites must send a copy of the official report to the pathology coordinator and quality assurance specialist (QAS)
• Tumor must also show evidence of IDH mutation by immunohistochemistry or genomic analyses; this should be performed at the local site (US: performed in a CLIA certified laboratory); the site must send a copy of the official report to the pathology coordinator and QAS Registration
• Newly diagnosed and =< 3 months from surgical diagnosis; patients are also eligible if they have had a prior surgical procedure > 3 months earlier for low grade glioma, as long as the patient has not received prior radiation or prior chemotherapy
• Histological evidence of World Health Organization (WHO) grade III anaplastic glioma or WHO grade II low grade glioma with locally diagnosed combined 1p/19q loss and the presence of an either IDH1 or IDH2, both as established by a local or referenced laboratory qualified for the study * Note: mixed gliomas are eligible, regardless of the degree of astrocytic or oligodendrocytic predominance, as long as the tumor is also co-deleted for 1p and 19q
• Patients with codeleted low grade gliomas must also be considered "high risk" by exhibiting one or more of the following characteristics:
• Age >= 40 and any surgical therapy
• Age < 40 with prior and subtotal resection or biopsy (i.e., anything less than gross total resection)
• Documented growth following prior surgery (NOTE: patients with prior surgery cannot have received prior radiation, chemotherapy or targeted therapy)
• Intractable seizures
• Surgery (partial or gross total resection or biopsy) must be performed >= 2 weeks prior to registration; patient must have recovered adequately from the effects of surgery
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500/mm^3 obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Platelet (PLTs) count >= 100,000/mm^3 obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Hemoglobin (Hgb) > 9.0 g/dL obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) =< 3 x ULN obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Creatinine =< 1.5 x ULN obtained =< 21 days prior to registration
• Negative serum or urine pregnancy test done =< 7 days prior to registration, for women of childbearing potential only
• Willingness and ability to personally complete neurocognitive testing (without assistance) and willingness to complete the QOL testing, (either personally or with assistance)
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS) of 0, 1 or 2
• Written informed consent
• Willingness to return to enrolling institution for follow-up during the active monitoring phase (that is, the active treatment and observation portion) of the study); patients who have been formally transferred to another active and approved site participating in this study would not need to return to the enrolling institution for this purpose
• Willingness to allow the provision of tissue samples for correlative research, as long as adequate tissues are available; patients will not be excluded from participation in the study, if they are willing to allow provision of tissues for the correlative research, but there are insufficient quantities of tissue for the correlative analyses (e.g., a patient otherwise eligible and willing who had biopsy only) Willingness to allow the provision of blood samples for correlative research; patients are not excluded from participation in the study, if they are willing to provide the mandatory biospecimens for translational/correlative research, but for logistical reasons the specimens(s) were not obtainable or if the volume collected was insufficient Registration
• The following categories are ineligible:
• Pregnant women
• Nursing women
• Men or women of childbearing potential who are unwilling to employ adequate contraception or contraceptive method during this study and 6 months following the completion of chemotherapy treatments
• History of prior radiation therapy or chemotherapy for glioma; note: patients who have a history of prior low grade glioma (with or without a distant history of prior surgery for that glioma), but who have never received prior chemotherapy or radiation therapy for the glioma are eligible for the study
• Co-morbid systemic illnesses or other severe concurrent disease which, in the judgment of the investigator, would make the patient inappropriate for entry into this study or interfere significantly with the proper assessment of safety and toxicity of the prescribed regimens
• Concomitant serious immunocompromised status (other than that related to concomitant steroids) that would compromise the safety of the patient on the study
• Patients known to be human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive and currently receiving retroviral therapy are not eligible; note: patients known to be HIV positive, but without clinical evidence of an immunocompromised state, are eligible for the study
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• Receiving any other investigational agent that would be considered as a treatment for the primary neoplasm
• Other active malignancy within 5 years of registration; exceptions: non-melanotic skin cancer or carcinoma-in-situ of the cervix; note: if there is a history of prior malignancy, the patient is not eligible if they are receiving other specific treatment (with the exclusion of hormonal therapy or Her-2 inhibitors) for their cancer or if they have received prior total body irradiation which included the brain
• History of myocardial infarction =< 6 months, or congestive heart failure requiring use of ongoing maintenance therapy for life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias
• Recent history of hepatitis infection or if the treating physician determined that the patient would be at significant risk of reactivation of hepatitis
Stereotactic Radiosurgery (SRS) Dose-Escalation Study for Brain Metastasis (SRS)
SRS dose escalation for brain metastases in radiation-naïve patients will establish true tolerable doses, which may exceed the current standard doses. This may lead to an improvement in local control, patient survival, and/or quality-of life.
• Biopsy-proven non-hematopoietic malignancy, except for small cell lung cancer, germ cell cancer, or unknown primary tumor.
• Radiographic evidence by MRI (or by CT scan with CT contrast if ineligible or intolerant of MRI) of brain metastasis. (If patient is unable to tolerate MRI contrast, an MRI without contrast is acceptable if lesions are visible)
• All brain metastases must be outside the brain stem (midbrain, pons and medulla).
• Patient must have 10 or less brain metastases.
• The maximum diameter of any lesion must be less than or equal to 3.0 cm.
• Previous treatment with surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, immunotherapy or any targeted agents are allowed provided that:
• Radiation was not to the brain.
• Surgery to the brain was > 7 days prior to SRS and there remains at least one additional brain metastasis that can be targeted with SRS
• Age ≥ 18 years.
• ECOG Performance Score of 2 or better/Karnofsky Performance Status score of 50-60 or better.
• All men, as well as women of child-bearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry and for the duration of study participation. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, marital status, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months). Medically acceptable birth control (contraceptives) includes:
• Approved hormonal contraceptives (such as birth control pills, patch, or ring: Depo-Provera, Implanon), or
• Barrier methods (such as a condom or diaphragm) used with a spermicide (a substance that kills sperm)
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent. Exclusion Criteria
• Patients had craniotomy and surgery to the brain within 7 days from the date of SRS.
• Patients with leptomeningeal metastasis. NOTE: For the purposes of exclusion, LMD is a clinical diagnosis, defined as positive CSF cytology and/or equivocal radiologic or clinical evidence of leptomeningeal involvement. Patients with leptomeningeal symptoms in the setting of leptomeningeal enhancement by imaging (MRI) would be considered to have LMD even in the absence of positive CSF cytology, unless a parenchymal lesion can adequately explain the neurologic symptoms and/or signs. In contrast, an asymptomatic or minimally symptomatic patient with mild or nonspecific leptomeningeal enhancement (MRI) would not be considered to have LMD. In that patient, CSF sampling is not required to formally exclude LMD, but can be performed at the investigator's discretion based on level of clinical suspicion.
• Patients with a contraindication to both MRI (with or without contrast) and CT scan (with contrast)
• Patients with life expectancy < 3 months.
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that, in the opinion of the investigator, would limit compliance with study requirements.
• Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing at the time of SRS treatment due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.
Milrinone in Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
Infants with congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) usually have pulmonary hypoplasia and persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN) leading to hypoxemic respiratory failure (HRF). Pulmonary hypertension associated with CDH is frequently resistant to conventional pulmonary vasodilator therapy including inhaled nitric oxide (iNO). Increased pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) can lead to right ventricular overload and dysfunction. In patients with CDH, left ventricular dysfunction, either caused by right ventricular overload or a relative underdevelopment of the left ventricle, is associated with poor prognosis. Milrinone is an intravenous inotrope and lusitrope (enhances cardiac systolic contraction and diastolic relaxation respectively) with pulmonary vasodilator properties and has been shown anecdotally to improve oxygenation in PPHN. Milrinone is commonly used during the management of CDH although no randomized trials have been performed to test its efficacy. Thirty percent of infants with CDH in the Children's Hospital Neonatal Database (CHND) and 22% of late-preterm and term infants with CDH in the Pediatrix database received milrinone. In the recently published VICI trial, 84% of patients with CDH received a vasoactive medication. In the current pilot trial, neonates with an antenatal or postnatal diagnosis of CDH will be randomized to receive milrinone or placebo to establish safety of this medication in CDH and test its efficacy in improving oxygenation.
• ≥ 36 0/7 weeks PMA by best obstetric estimate AND birth weight of ≥ 2000g
• postnatal age ≤7 days (168 hours of age)
• invasive mechanical ventilation (defined as ventilation with an endotracheal tube) and
• one arterial blood gas with an OI ≥ 10 (after tracheal tube obstruction and other easily resolvable mechanical causes for increased OI are ruled out) on the most recent arterial blood gas within 12 hours prior to the time of randomization.
• if an arterial blood gas is not available at the time of randomization, a preductal OSI of ≥ 5 can be used as an inclusion criterion instead of OI ≥ 10; (the OSI should be based on the most recent preductal pulse oximetry recording and must be within 12 hours of randomization)
• postnatal blood gas with PCO2 ≤ 80 mmHg (arterial, capillary or venous blood gas) on the most recent blood gas sample obtained within 12 hours prior to randomization Note: Criteria (iv) to (vi) must be met at the most recent analysis within 12 hours prior to randomization.
• known hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• Note 1: infants of diabetic mothers with asymmetric septal hypertrophy can be included as long as there is no evidence of obstruction to left ventricular outflow tract on echocardiogram,
• Note 2: infants with other acyanotic congenital heart disease (CHD) and CDH may be included in the study and will be a predetermined subgroup for analysis)
• cyanotic CHD - transposition of great arteries (TGA), total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR), partial anomalous pulmonary venous return (PAPVR), truncus arteriosus (TA), tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), single ventricle physiology - hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS), tricuspid atresia, critical pulmonic stenosis or atresia etc.,
• enrolled in conflicting clinical trials (such as a randomized controlled blinded trial of another pulmonary vasodilator therapy); Note: mothers enrolled in fetal tracheal occlusion studies such as FETO may be enrolled if permitted by investigators of the fetal tracheal occlusion study; [FETO refers to fetoscopic endoluminal tracheal occlusion and involves occlusion of fetal trachea with a balloon device at mid-gestation and subsequent removal in later gestation]
• infants with bilateral CDH o Note 3: infants with anterior and central defects are included in the study
• associated abnormalities of the trachea or esophagus (trachea-esophageal fistula, esophageal atresia, laryngeal web, tracheal agenesis)
• renal dysfunction (with serum creatinine > 2 mg/dL not due to maternal factors) or severe oligohydramnios associated with renal dysfunction at randomization; renal dysfunction may be secondary to renal anomalies or medical conditions such as acute tubular necrosis
• severe systemic hypotension (mean blood pressure < 35 mm Hg for at least 2 h with a vasoactive inotrope score of > 30)
• decision is made to provide comfort/ palliative care and not full treatment
• Intracranial bleed (including the following findings on the cranial ultrasound)
• Cerebral parenchymal hemorrhage
• Blood/echodensity in the ventricle with distension of the ventricle
• Periventricular hemorrhagic infarction
• Posterior fossa hemorrhage
• Cerebellar hemorrhage
• persistent thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 80,000/mm3) despite blood product administration on the most recent blood draw prior to randomization
• coagulopathy (PT INR > 1.7) despite blood product administration on the most recent blood draw (if checked - there is no reason to check PT for the purpose of this study)
• aneuploidy associated with short life span (such as trisomy 13 or 18) will not be included in the study (infants with trisomy 21 can be included in the study)
• elevated arterial, venous or capillary PCO2 > 80 mmHg in spite of maximal ventilator support (including high frequency ventilation) on the most recent blood gas obtained within 12 hours prior to randomization
• use of milrinone infusion prior to randomization (the use of other inhaled pulmonary vasodilators such as iNO, inhaled epoprosternol, inhaled PGE1 and oral such as endothelin receptor antagonists is permitted - Note: it is unlikely to be on oral pulmonary vasodilators early in the course of CDH)
• ongoing therapy with parenteral (intravenous or subcutaneous) pulmonary vasodilators such as IV/SQ prostacyclin analogs (Epoprostenol - Flolan or Treprostinil - Remodulin or PGE1 - Alprostadil) or IV phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors (sildenafil - Revatio) at the time of randomization. In addition, initiation of therapy with these two classes of parenteral medications during the first 24 hours of study drug initiation is not permitted and will be considered a protocol deviation. The risk of systemic hypotension is high during the first 24 hours of study-drug (milrinone) infusion and hence parenteral administration of other pulmonary vasodilators is avoided to minimize risk of hypotension.
• Subjects already on ECMO or patients who are being actively considered for ECMO by the neonatal or surgical team
• attending (neonatal, critical care or surgical) refusal for participation in the trial (including concern about presence of hemodynamic instability)
Vincristine Sulfate Liposome Injection (Marqibo®) in Combination With UK ALL R3 Induction Chemotherapy for Children, Adolescents, and Young Adults With Relapsed ALL
This is a pilot study utilizing Marqibo® (vincristine sulfate liposome injection) combined with dexamethasone, mitoxantrone and asparaginase (UK ALL R3) for relapsed acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
• Cohort A: Patients must have a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia with ≥ 5% blasts in the bone marrow (M2 or M3), with or without extramedullary disease) or a diagnosis of lymphoblastic lymphoma.
• Cohorts B & C: Patients must have a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), lymphoblastic lymphoma, or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia with any level of detectable disease (minimal residual disease level acceptable) with or without extramedullary disease Performance Level -Karnofsky > 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky > 50% for patients ≤ 16 years of age. Prior Therapy
• Patients must have recovered from the acute toxic effects (≤ Grade 2 or baseline) of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy prior to entering this study, unless otherwise specified. Subjects with disease related cytopenias will be eligible.
• Patients must have relapsed or refractory disease after attaining at least a first remission. They may be in first to third relapse..
• Patients with Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) positive disease must have received at least two prior tyrosine kinase inhibitors.
• Patients who have experienced their relapse after a Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) are eligible, provided they have no evidence of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) and are at least 100 days post-transplant at the time of enrollment.
• Prior anthracycline lifetime cumulative exposure: Patients must have less than 320 mg/m2 (or 400 mg/m2 if prior cardioprotection) lifetime exposure of anthracycline chemotherapy.
• Cohort A: Patients must have less than 320 mg/m2 (or 400 mg/m2 if prior cardioprotection) lifetime exposure of anthracycline chemotherapy (See Appendix 2 for anthracycline calculation worksheet).
• Cohorts B & C: There is no limit on prior anthracycline exposure.
• Hematopoietic growth factors: It must have been at least seven days since the completion of therapy with granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (GCSF) or other growth factors at the time of enrollment. It must have been at least 14 days since the completion of therapy with pegfilgrastim (Neulasta®).
• Biologic anti-neoplastic agents: At least seven days after the last dose of a biologic agent. For agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond seven days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur. The duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair or vice chair.
• Monoclonal antibodies: At least three half-lives (or 30 days—whichever is longer) of the antibody must have elapsed after the last dose of monoclonal antibody. (e.g., Rituximab = 66 days, Epratuzumab = 69 days)
• Immunotherapy: At least 30 days after the completion of any type of immunotherapy, e.g. tumor vaccines, chimeric antigen receptor T-cells.
• Recent prior chemotherapy: At least 10 days after standard vincristine and the completion of any type of chemotherapy induction regimen. At least 3 weeks after radiation therapy. At least 30 days after the completion of any investigational neoplastic agent is also required. An investigational agent is defined as any drug that is not approved and licensed for sale by the FDA for institutions in the United States, by Health Canada for institutions in Canada and by The Therapeutic Goods Administration for institutions in Australia. Exceptions:
• There is no time restriction in regard to prior intrathecal chemotherapy provided there is complete recovery from any acute toxic effects of such; it is allowable to enroll a patient that has received IT Cytarabine (ARA-C), IT Methotrexate (MTX) or triple IT therapy within 14 days of enrollment as part of their evaluation to diagnose disease relapse. The IT therapy given within 14 days of initiation of protocol specified chemotherapy, may substitute for the day 1 IT in cohorts A and B
• Subjects with rapidly progressive disease may receive hydroxyurea until they begin study therapy;
• Patients who relapse while on maintenance-type ALL therapy or are receiving maintenance therapy for disease stabilization will not require a wash-out period before entry into this study. However, there must be at least 10 days after any dose of standard vincristine. Renal and Hepatic Function
• Renal function: Patient's serum creatinine must be ≤ 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) according to age. If the serum creatinine is greater than 1.5 times normal, the patient must have a calculated creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ≥ 70milliliter/min/1.73m2. Alternatively, a 24-hour creatinine clearance may also be used.
• Hepatic function: alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) must be < 5 x institutional upper limit of norm ULN. Total bilirubin must be ≤ 1.5 x ULN (except in the case of subjects with documented Gilbert's disease ≤ 5 × ULN). Cardiac Function -Patients must have a shortening fraction ≥ 27% or an ejection fraction ≥ 55% by echocardiogram, cardiac MRI or multigated acquisition scan (MUGA). Reproductive Function
• Female patients must not be pregnant and those of childbearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test confirmed within one week prior to enrollment.
• Female patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on this study.
• Male and female patients of childbearing potential must agree to use an effective method of contraception during the study. Exclusion Criteria Patients will be excluded if they have isolated testicular disease. Patients will be excluded if they have previously received Marqibo®. Patients will be excluded if they have a known allergy to any of the drugs used in the study, with the exception that patients with an allergy to PEG-asparaginase who can receive Erwinia asparaginase are eligible. Patients unable to receive any formulation of asparaginase may only enroll on cohort C Patients will be excluded if they have active, uncontrolled systemic fungal, bacterial, viral or other infection despite appropriate antibiotics or other treatment. Patients who require azole antifungal agents will be excluded. Azoles must be discontinued at least one week prior to the start of Marqibo®. Patients will be excluded if there is a plan to administer non-protocol chemotherapy, radiation therapy, another investigational agent or immunotherapy during the study period. Patients with pre-existing, persistent grade 2 or greater sensory or motor neuropathy from any cause will be excluded. Patients will be excluded if they have, significant concurrent disease, illness, psychiatric disorder or social issue that would compromise patient safety or adherence with the protocol treatment or procedures or interfere with consent, study participation, follow up, or interpretation of study results.Patients with Down syndrome will not be eligible for enrollment on Cohort A Patients with a known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) will will be excluded due to the increased risk of complications such as severe infection and unknown interaction of Marqibo® with antiretroviral drugs. Active hepatitis B or C infection as defined by seropositive for hepatitis B (hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)) or hepatitis C and elevated liver transaminases (defined as above the ULN per the institution normal ranges).
Artisan Aphakia Lens for the Correction of Aphakia in Children
The purpose of this study is to determine the safety and effectiveness of the Artisan Aphakia Lens in the treatment of aphakia in children.
• 2 to 21 years of age
• Have a visually significant cataract or need IOL replacement surgery
• Compromised capsular bag prohibiting implantation of standard posterior IOL
• Subject or parent/guardian must be able to comply with visit schedule and study requirements
• Subject's legal representative must be able to sign the Informed Consent
• Under 2 years of age
• Unable to meet Postoperative evaluation requirements
• No useful vision or vision potential in fellow eye
• Mentally retarded patients
• History of corneal disease
• Abnormality of the iris or ocular structure
• ACD less than 3.2 mm
• Uncontrolled glaucoma
• IOP > 25 mmHg
• Chronic or recurrent uveitis
• Preexisting macular pathology that may complicate the ability to assess the benefit of this lens
• Retinal detachment or family history
• Retinal disease that may limit visual potential
• Optic nerve disease that may limit visual potential
• Diabetes mellitus
• Pregnant, lactating or plan to become pregnant
Crizotinib in Treating Patients With Stage IB-IIIA Non-small Cell Lung Cancer That Has Been Removed by Surgery and ALK Fusion Mutations (An ALCHEMIST Treatment Trial)
This randomized phase III trial studies how well crizotinib works in treating patients with stage IB-IIIA non-small cell lung cancer that has been removed by surgery and has a mutation in a protein called anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK). Mutations, or changes, in ALK can make it very active and important for tumor cell growth and progression. Crizotinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking the ALK protein from working. Crizotinib may be an effective treatment for patients with non-small cell lung cancer and an ALK fusion mutation.
• Patients must have undergone complete surgical resection of their stage IB (>= 4 cm), II, or non-squamous IIIA NSCLC per American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 7th edition and have had negative margins; N3 disease is not allowed
• Baseline chest computed tomography (CT) with or without contrast must be performed within 6 months (180 days) prior to randomization to ensure no evidence of disease; if clinically indicated additional imaging studies must be performed to rule out metastatic disease
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0 or 1
• Patients must be registered to the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) trial prior to randomization
• Positive for translocation or inversion events involving the ALK gene locus (e.g. resulting in echinoderm microtubule associated protein like 4 [EML4]-ALK fusion) as determined by the Vysis Break Point fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) assay and defined by an increase in the distance between 5? and 3? ALK probes or the loss of the 5? probe; this must have been performed:
• By a local Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory: report must indicate the results as well as the CLIA number of the laboratory which performed the assay; tissue must be available for submission for central, retrospective confirmation of the ALK fusion status via ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) OR
• Patient registered to and the ALK fusion status performed centrally on the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216)
• Women must not be pregnant or breast-feeding
• All females of childbearing potential must have a blood or urine pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to randomization to rule out pregnancy; a female of childbearing potential is any woman, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria: 1) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or 2) has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months)
• Women of childbearing potential and sexually active males must be strongly advised to practice abstinence or use an accepted and effective method of contraception
• Patients must NOT have uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, serious ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• No known interstitial fibrosis or interstitial lung disease
• No prior treatment with crizotinib or another ALK inhibitor
• No ongoing cardiac dysrhythmias of grade >= 2 National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version 4.0, uncontrolled atrial fibrillation (any grade), or corrected QT (QTc) interval > 470 msec
• No use of medications, herbals, or foods that are known potent cytochrome P450, subfamily 3A, polypeptide 4 (CYP3A4) inhibitors or inducers, included but not limited to those outlined
• Patients must be adequately recovered from surgery at the time of randomization
• The minimum time requirement between date of surgery and randomization must be at least 4 weeks (28 days)
• The maximum time requirement between surgery and randomization must be:
• 3 months (90 days) if no adjuvant chemotherapy was administered
• 8 months (240 days) if adjuvant chemotherapy was administered
• 10 months (300 days) if adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation therapy were administered
• Patients must have completed any prior adjuvant chemotherapy or radiation therapy 2 or more weeks (6 or more weeks for mitomycin and nitrosoureas) prior to randomization and be adequately recovered at the time of randomization
• NOTE: Patients taking low dose methotrexate for non-malignant conditions and other cytotoxic agents for non-malignant conditions are allowed to continue treatment while on study
• NOTE: Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy or radiation therapy for the resected lung cancer is not permitted
• Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Total serum bilirubin =< 1.5 x ULN
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1500/mm^3
• Platelets >= 30,000/mm^3
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL
• Serum creatinine =< 2 x ULN
• Prior to randomization patients with any non-hematologic toxicity from surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation must have recovered to grade =< 1 with the exception of alopecia and the criteria outlined
• Patients must not have any history of locally advanced or metastatic cancer requiring systemic therapy within 5 years from randomization, with the exception of in-situ carcinomas and non-melanoma skin cancer; patients must have no previous primary lung cancer diagnosed concurrently or within the past 2 years
• Patients may not be receiving any other investigational agents while on study
Morphea in Adults and Children (MAC) Cohort Study: A Morphea Registry and DNA Repository (MAC)
The Morphea in Adults and Children (MAC) cohort is the first registry for both children and adults with morphea (also known as localized scleroderma) in the country. The purpose of the registry is to learn more about morphea, specifically: - How morphea behaves over time - How frequently specific problems occur along with morphea (for example, arthritis) - Whether morphea has an autoimmune background
• Patient must have a clinical diagnosis of morphea confirmed by the primary investigator and by histopathological examination.
• Ages 0-90 years old
• Children must weigh more than 20 lbs. in order to satisfy Children's Medical Center policy for the maximum amount of blood drawn in a 24 hour period.
• Patient or legal guardian must be able to speak and read at a 6th grade reading level.
• Both male and female patients will be eligible
• All races and ethnic backgrounds will be included
• Relationships to proband: All patients with morphea will be included. A patient's family history will be reviewed and if there is a family history of morphea or systemic sclerosis then we will give the study patient the investigator's contact information and ask the family member to call the study team to answer any questions and enroll them in the study if they choose to do so.
• Ability to give informed consent: Patients must be able to give informed consent or they will give assent with parent or guardian consent as a minor to be a part of the morphea registry.
• Patients who have been coded as morphea (701.0), but do not have morphea/localized scleroderma (examples: steroid atrophy, acquired keratoderma, keloids, nephrogenic fibrosing dermopathy, systemic sclerosis, lichen sclerosis)
Cutaneous Lupus Registry
Approximately 1.4 million individuals in the United States have systemic lupus erythematosus, and about 85% of these individuals develop skin lesions at some point of their disease. Cutaneous lupus erythematosus represents the skin manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus, and can appear in people with or without systemic lupus. It is a mentally, physically, and emotionally debilitating disease that affects both the quality of life and social well-being of those affected. The cause of cutaneous lupus is not completely understood, but likely includes multiple factors from our genes and the environment. Multiple genetic studies with small numbers of cutaneous lupus patients have been performed to determine which genes are associated with cutaneous lupus. This study aims to accumulate even larger numbers of patients to confidently identify genes and the proteins they encode that could contribute greatly to the formation of cutaneous lupus. The discovery of these genes and proteins would help not only uncover how cutaneous lupus forms, but also improve our abilities to diagnose this disease and predict its course, and stimulate new drug development.
• Diagnosed with cutaneous lupus erythematosus and/or systemic lupus erythematosus by clinical, laboratory, and histopathological findings
• Ability to speak and read English or Spanish at a 6th grade reading level (a translator will be available with additional consent forms in Spanish)
• Ability to give written informed consent
• Less than 18 years of age, since the characteristics of the disease in these subjects could be very different
• Due to a medication, in which its discontinuation results in the resolution of cutaneous lupus, since the characteristics of the disease in these subjects could be very different
• Medical conditions who do not warrant a skin biopsy
• Unable to give written, informed consent or undergo a skin biopsy and/or venipuncture for any other reason
Feasibility Study Using Imaging Biomarkers in Lung Cancer
The purpose of this research study is to develop a method of using magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to evaluate solitary pulmonary nodules (mass in the lung smaller than 3 centimeters). A pulmonary nodule is a mass or growth on the lung. An MRI is a scanning device that uses magnets to make images (pictures) of the body. This study is being done to determine what series of reactions (metabolic pathways) pulmonary nodules use as they burn sugar as fuel for growth. The manner in which the tumor burns (metabolizes) sugar for fuel is being investigated by using a natural, slightly modified, sugar solution (13C-glucose) and studying a small sample of the tumor once it is removed at the time of surgery.
• Subjects of all races and ethnic origins over 18 years of age will be recruited.
• Patients must have suspicious or known to be malignant solitary pulmonary nodule,5cm or less in size.
• Patients with a contraindication to MRI examinations will be excluded from this study. Contraindications to MRI examinations include:
• Medically unstable
• Heart failure
• Unstable angina
• Child bearing
• Not a surgical candidate
• Any contraindication per MRI Screening Form (Appendix A attached). This is the same form used in clinical practice at UT Southwestern.
• Titanium implants, pacemakers
• Poorly controlled diabetes
• Body weight greater than 300 pounds
• Since each patient is receiving a gadolinium based contrast agent intravenously:
• eGFR < 45 mL/min/1.73m2
• Sickle cell disease
• Hemolytic anemia
Adjuvant Curcumin to Assess Recurrence Free Survival in Patients Who Have Had a Radical Prostatectomy
This is a prospective study to determine if the adjuvant use of Curcumin improves recurrence-free survival.
• Status post radical prostatectomy for histologically confirmed adenocarcinoma of the prostate
• pathologically confirmed T1-T3 disease
• no sign of lymph node or metastatic disease
• pT1-pT3pNxMx patients in whom standard NCCN or AUA guidelines would suggest are at low risk for pelvic lymph node or metastatic disease and who would not require confirmatory imaging for metastatic disease. This includes patients with Gleason 6 or 7(T2 disease) and PSA less than 20.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group(ECOG) status 0-2
• adequate renal and liver function as well as bone marrow reserve (measured serum creatinine <2mg/dl, bilirubin ≤ 1.5 mg/dl, ANC ≥ 1.5 x 10 (3) uL, platelets ≥ 50 x K/uLL, and hemoglobin ≥ 10 g/dL)
• 30-80 y/o at time of diagnosis with a life expectancy of >= 3 yrs
• focally positive surgical margins are permitted
• no plan to receive adjuvant hormone or radiation therapy
• PSA at the time of enrollment must be undetectable
• life expectancy of 3 years
• must not have exceeded 3 months from time of surgery to enrollment into study
• T3b or T4 or node positive disease
• macroscopic residual disease after surgery
• hormone therapy before surgery
• history of gallbladder problems or gallstones, or biliary obstruction, unless patient had cholecystectomy
• radiation therapy as primary treatment after surgery
• INR value greater than 1.5
• AST/ALT are equal or greater than 2 times the upper limit of normal
• antiplatelet or anticoagulant agents- patients taking 81mg of Aspirin will be allowed with close observation
• history of gastric or duodenal ulcers or untreated hyperacidity syndromes
• patients who are currently taking curcumin and are unwilling to stop or plan to take curcumin during the study
JoLT-Ca Sublobar Resection (SR) Versus Stereotactic Ablative Radiotherapy (SAbR) for Lung Cancer (STABLE-MATES)
To Determine if SAbR improves survival over SR in High Risk Operable Stage I NSCLC
• Age > 18 years.
• ECOG performance status (PS) 0, 1, or 2.
• Radiographic findings consistent with non-small cell lung cancer, including lesions with ground glass opacities with a solid component of 50% or greater. Those with ground glass opacities and <50% solid component will be excluded.
• The primary tumor in the lung must be biopsy confirmed non-small cell lung cancer within 180 days prior to randomization.
• Tumor ≤ 4 cm maximum diameter, including clinical stage IA and selected IB by PET/CT scan of the chest and upper abdomen performed within 180 days prior to randomization. Repeat imaging within 90 days prior to randomization is recommended for re-staging but is not required based on institutional norms.
• All clinically suspicious mediastinal N1, N2, or N3 lymph nodes (> 1 cm short-axis dimension on CT scan and/or positive on PET scan) confirmed negative for involvement with NSCLC by one of the following methods: mediastinoscopy, anterior mediastinotomy, EUS/EBUS guided needle aspiration, CT-guided, video-assisted thoracoscopic or open lymph node biopsy within 180 days of randomization.
• Tumor verified by a thoracic surgeon to be in a location that will permit sublobar resection.
• Tumor located peripherally within the lung. NOTE: Peripheral is defined as not touching any surface within 2 cm of the proximal bronchial tree in all directions. See below. Patients with non-peripheral (central) tumors are NOT eligible.
• No evidence of distant metastases.
• Availability of pulmonary function tests (PFTs - spirometry, DLCO, +/- arterial blood gases) within 180 days prior to registration. Patients with tracheotomy, etc, who are physically unable to perform PFTs (and therefore cannot be tested for the Major criteria in 3.1.11 below) are potentially still eligible if a study credentialed thoracic surgeon documents that the patient's health characteristics would otherwise have been acceptable for eligibility as a high risk but nonetheless operable patient (in particular be eligible for sublobar resection).
• Patient at high-risk for surgery by meeting a minimum of one major criteria or two minor criteria
• Major Criteria
• FEV1 ≤ 50% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• DLCO ≤ 50% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• Minor Criteria
• Age ≥75
• FEV1 51-60% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• DLCO 51-60% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• Pulmonary hypertension (defined as a pulmonary artery systolic pressure greater than 40mm Hg) as estimated by echocardiography or right heart catheterization
• Study credentialed thoracic surgeon believes the patient is potentially operable but that a lobectomy or pneumonectomy would be poorly tolerated by the patient for tangible or intangible reasons. The belief must be declared and documented in the medical record prior to randomization.
• Poor left ventricular function (defined as an ejection fraction of 40% or less)
• Resting or Exercise Arterial pO2 ≤ 55 mm Hg or SpO2 ≤ 88%
• pCO2 > 45 mm Hg
• Modified Medical Research Council (MMRC) Dyspnea Scale ≥ 3.
• No prior intra-thoracic radiation therapy for previously identified intra-thoracic primary tumor (e.g. previous lung cancer) on the ipsilateral side. NOTE: Previous radiotherapy as part of treatment for head and neck, breast, or other non-thoracic cancer is permitted so long as possible radiation fields would not overlap. Previous chemotherapy or surgical resection specifically for the lung cancer being treated on this protocol is NOT permitted.
• No prior lung resection on the ipsilateral side.
• Non-pregnant and non-lactating. Women of child-bearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test prior to registration. Peri-menopausal women must be amenorrheic > 12 months prior to registration to be considered not of childbearing potential.
• No prior invasive malignancy, unless disease-free for ≥ 3 years prior to registration (exceptions: non-melanoma skin cancer, in-situ cancers).
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
• evidence of distant metastases
• prior intra-thoracic radiation therapy. NOTE: Previous radiotherapy as part of treatment for head and neck, breast, or other non-thoracic cancer is permitted so long as possible radiation fields would not overlap. Previous chemotherapy or surgical resection specifically for the lung cancer being treated on this protocol is NOT permitted. No prior lung resection on the ipsilateral side.
• pregnant and lactating women
• prior invasive malignancy, unless disease-free for ≥ 3 years prior to registration (exceptions: non-melanoma skin cancer, in-situ cancers).
DExterous Hand Control Through Fascicular Targeting (DEFT) - (Human Subjects)
Our goal is to temporarily implant the following groups for 540 +/- 30 days: 1. Forearm FAST electrodes 1. Five human partial hand amputees (amputated at the level of the hand) with 2 FAST electrodes in the ulnar nerve and 2-5 FAST electrodes in the median nerve. 2. Five human hand and forearm amputees (amputated at the level of the forearm) with 2 FAST electrodes in the ulnar nerve and 2-5 FAST electrodes in the median nerve . 2. Arm FAST electrodes 1. Five human partial hand amputees (amputated at the level of the hand) with 2 FAST electrodes in the ulnar nerve and 2-5 FAST electrodes in the median nerve. 2. Five human hand and forearm amputees (amputated at the level of the forearm) with 2 FAST electrodes in the ulnar nerve and 2-5 FAST electrodes in the median nerve. 3. Five human hand, forearm and arm amputees (amputated at the level of the arm) with 2 FAST electrodes in the ulnar nerve and 2-5 FAST electrodes in the median nerve.
• Male or female, age 18 and older, of any race or ethnicity
• Able and willing to sign Consent
• Able and willing to participate in all study activities including implantation, testing and explantation of the study device.
• Able to communicate effectively in English without an interpreter After preliminary screening subjects will be assessed for the following inclusion criteria: Overall and phantom pain are well-controlled and not incapacitating Criteria for Exclusion of Subjects:
• If MR neurogram and EMG/NCS study show nerve or muscle dysfunction/injury at a higher level than anticipated based on the appearance of the physical amputation stump, the subject may be excluded from the study due to adverse neuromuscular anatomy which would preclude use of the proposed experimental electrode implants. The radiographs will be used to confirm suitability of the amputation stump configuration. If the bony anatomy of the amputation stump is found to be unsuitable, the patient may be excluded from the study.
• Subjects who have a history of cardiac arrhythmia will be excluded from the study.
Neo-adjuvant SABR for IVC Tumor Thrombus in Newly Diagnosed RCC
To evaluate the safety and feasibility of pre-operative SABR of RCC IVC tumor thrombus. To evaluate the effect of pre-operative SABR in RCC IVC tumor thrombus on relapse free survival at one year.
• Radiographic evidence of renal cancer with IVC tumor thrombus
• Tumor thrombus must be ≥ level II (As per Mayo classification, it would be ≥ level I [Refer to NEVES, R. and ZINCKE, H. (1987), Surgical Treatment of Renal Cancer with Vena Cava Extension. British Journal of Urology, 59: 390-395. doi:10.1111/j.1464-410X.1987.tb04832.x])
• Patient eligible for SABR to the IVC tumor thrombus as decided by the treating radiation oncologist
• Patient eligible for IVC tumor thrombectomy as decided by the treating urologist
• Any number of metastatic disease is allowed in the Pilot phase of the trial • For Phase II, metastatic patients will be allowed only if all sites of metastasis has been treated either surgically or radio-surgically (If limited sites of metastasis are present, all of which can be resected during the nephrectomy, then the patient can be eligible)
• Age ≥ 18 years.
• Performance status ECOG 0-2
• Any serum Albumin is allowed, but ≥ 3.4 g/dL is strongly encouraged • Serum albumin <3.4 is a significant predictor of peri-operative mortality(12)
• Any serum AST is allowed but serum AST ≤ 34 IU/L is strongly encouraged • Significant predictor of mortality in univariate but not multivariate analysis(12)
• Women of childbearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal such as birth control pills, patch or ring; Depo-Provera, Implanon or barrier method, such as condom or diaphragm used with a spermicide of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study treatment, and for 90 days following completion of radiation therapy. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately.
• 1 A female of childbearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, marital status, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months).
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
• Subjects must be able to undergo either MRI or CT.
• Subjects who have had radiotherapy to a target within 3 cm of the IVC tumor thrombus.
• Subjects may have received any other investigational agents or chemotherapy as long as they are eligible for SABR and surgery
• Subjects with brain metastases should be excluded from this clinical trial unless all the metastasis are treated surgically or radio-surgically
• Subjects with a history of pulmonary embolism is excluded
• Subjects with a history of pulmonary hypertension is excluded
• Subjects must not be pregnant due to the potential for congenital abnormalities.
• Contraindication for contrast-enhanced MRI as defined by the standard operating procedures of the Department of Radiology at UT Southwestern. Briefly, these include medically unstable; cardiac pacemaker; intracranial clips, metal implants; metal in the eyes; pregnant or nursing; claustrophobia; and impairment of the renal function with estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) < 30 mL/min/1.73m2. Patients with one or more of these contraindications but eligible to undergo contrast-enhanced CT can participate in this study and will not receive an MRI
Pathophysiology of Uric Acid Nephrolithiasis (IUAN)
This study has two aims: Aim 1: To determine the presence of accumulation of fat within cells and the functional consequences of this in the kidney by correlating kidney fat content with urine test results. Aim 2: The investigators will evaluate the effect of thiazolidinedione (pioglitazone) on excess fatty acid accumulation in kidney tissue and its correlation with uric acid stone formation in subjects with uric acid stones. Pioglitazone is already U.S. Food & Drug Administration (FDA)-approved for the treatment of type 2 diabetes, but is not approved by the FDA for treating or preventing or diagnosing stone risk.
• Subjects with uric acid kidney stone disease
• Age > 21 years
• Body weight> 350 lb
• Chronic alcohol use
• Chronic liver disease
• Chronic renal disease
• Contraindication to pioglitazone use:
• history of congestive heart failure NYHA class III or IV
• significant pedal edema
• liver failure
• not willing to practice an effective contraception for the duration of the study
• Thiazolidinedione use in the preceding 18 months
Intacs for Keratoconus
The US food and Drug Administration (FDA) originally approved INTACS prescription inserts in April 1999 for the correction of low levels of nearsightedness (-1.00 to -3.00 diopters). Additional clinical data have shown that INTACS are safe for the treatment of keratoconus, in July 2004, FDA approved INTACS inserts for the treatment of keratoconus as a Humanitarian Use Device (FDA approval letter attached). The statute and the implementing regulation of FDA (21 CFR 814.124 (aj) require IRB review and approval before a HUD is used.INTACS prescription inserts are composed of two clear segments, each having an arc length of 150°, they are manufactured form a biomedical material called polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) and are available in three thicknesses. Two INTACS inserts ranging from 0.250mm to 0.350mm may be implanted depending on the orientation of the cone and the amount of myopia and astigmatism to be reduced.
Pathway to Prevention Study
RATIONALE The accrual of data from the laboratory and from epidemiologic and prevention trials has improved the understanding of the etiology and pathogenesis of type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM). Genetic and immunologic factors play a key role in the development of T1DM, and characterization of the early metabolic abnormalities in T1DM is steadily increasing. However, information regarding the natural history of T1DM remains incomplete. The TrialNet Natural History Study of the Development of T1DM (Pathway to Prevention Study) has been designed to clarify this picture, and in so doing, will contribute to the development and implementation of studies aimed at prevention of and early treatment in T1DM. Purpose: TrialNet is an international network dedicated to the study, prevention, and early treatment of type 1 diabetes. TrialNet sites are located throughout the United States, Canada, Finland, United Kingdom, Italy, Germany, Sweden, Australia, and New Zealand. TrialNet is dedicated to testing new approaches to the prevention of and early intervention for type 1 diabetes. The goal of the TrialNet Natural History Study of the Development of Type 1 Diabetes is to enhance our understanding of the demographic, immunologic, and metabolic characteristics of individuals at risk for developing type 1 diabetes. The Natural History Study will screen relatives of people with type 1 diabetes to identify those at risk for developing the disease. Relatives of people with type 1 diabetes have about a 5% percent chance of being positive for the antibodies associated with diabetes. TrialNet will identify adults and children at risk for developing diabetes by testing for the presence of these antibodies in the blood. A positive antibody test is an early indication that damage to insulin-secreting cells may have begun. If this test is positive, additional testing will be offered to determine the likelihood that a person may develop diabetes. Individuals with antibodies will be offered the opportunity for further testing to determine their risk of developing diabetes over the next 5 years and to receive close monitoring for the development of diabetes.
• Individuals 1 to 45 years old who have an immediate family member with type 1 diabetes (such as a child, parent, or sibling)
• Individuals 1-20 years old who have an extended family member with type 1 diabetes (such as a cousin, niece, nephew, aunt, uncle, grandparent, or half-sibling)
• Have diabetes already
• Have a previous history of being treated with insulin or oral diabetes medications.
• Currently be using systemic immunosuppressive agents (topical and inhaled agents are acceptable)
• Have any known serious diseases
CAR-T Long Term Follow Up (LTFU) Study (PAVO)
Per Health Authorities guidelines for gene therapy medicinal products that utilize integrating vectors (e.g. lentiviral vectors), long term safety and efficacy follow up of treated patients is required. The purpose of this study is to monitor all patients exposed to CAR-T therapied for 15 years following their last CAR-T (e.g. CTL019) infusion to assess the risk of delayed adverse events (AEs), monitor for replication competent lentivirus (RCL) and assess long-term efficacy, including vector persistence.
• All patients who have received a CAR-T therapy and completed or discontinued early from a Novartis sponsored treatment protocol that utilized CAR-T cells or from any CAR-T trial sponsored by the University of Pennsylvania with which Novartis has a contractual agreement to co-develop the CAR technology.
• Patients who have provided informed consent for the long term follow up study prior to their study participation .
• There are no specific exclusion criteria for this study.
Framing Eighteen Coils in Cerebral Aneurysms Trial (FEAT)
This trial is being conducted in order to compare angiographic outcomes in patients receiving 0.014-0.0155" platinum framing and filling coils (larger diameter coils) versus those treated solely with coils less than 0.014" (with a standard diameter). Hypothesis: Angiographic occlusion at follow-up imaging will be more frequent in patients receiving 0.014-0.0155" platinum coils during embolization compared to those receiving smaller-diameter coils.
• Patient presenting with ruptured or unruptured cerebral aneurysm appropriate for endovascular treatment as determined by the neurovascular treating team (neurointerventionist and/or neurosurgeon).
• The neurointerventionist feels that the aneurysm can be safely treated with either using, or not using, a 0.015-0.0155" platinum coil.
• Patients are 18-80 years of age (inclusive).
• Patient must be Hunt and Hess grade 0 to 3.
• Patient has given fully informed consent to endovascular coiling procedure. If the patient cannot consent for themselves, appropriate written consent has been sought from their next of kin or appropriate power of attorney.
• Aneurysm 6-14 mm in maximum diameter.
• Patient is willing and able to return for clinical evaluation and follow-up imaging evaluation (angiography or MRA) at 3-6 months and 12-18 months after endovascular treatment.
• The patient has not been previously randomized into this trial or another related ongoing trial.
• The aneurysm has not been previously treated by coiling or clipping.
• Patient has more than one aneurysm requiring treatment in the current treatment session, and only one of those to be treated aneurysms fits the FEAT inclusion criteria (ie - if either (1) a patient has multiple aneurysms, but only one will be treated at enrollment; or (2) if two or more aneurysms are treated during the current treatment session and BOTH are able to be enrolled, then they remain eligible for the trial). Non-treated additional aneurysms may be treated at a later date with any coil type that the operator chooses).
• Target aneurysm has had previous coil treatment or has been surgically clipped.
• Hunt and Hess score is 4 or 5 after subarachnoid hemorrhage.
• Inability to obtain informed consent.
• Medical or surgical co-morbidity such that the patient's life expectancy is less than 2 years.
Safety Study of Cord Blood Units for Stem Cell Transplants
Background: - Cord blood is blood that is taken from the umbilical cord and placenta of healthy newborns after childbirth. The cord blood collected from a baby is called a cord blood unit. Cord blood units are stored frozen in public cord blood banks. About 10,000 cord blood transplants have been performed in children and adults for blood cancers and other diseases in the world. These transplants have helped save lives and improve treatments. However, not all available units of cord blood have been collected, stored, and licensed according to specific government requirements. These unlicensed units can still be used in transplant, but they can only be given as part of specific research studies. This study will evaluate the safety of giving these unlicensed units by recording any problems that may occur during and after giving the cord blood. Objectives: - To test the safety and effectiveness of unlicensed cord blood units in people who need stem cell transplants. Eligibility: - Individuals who are scheduled to have a stem cell transplant. Design: - Participants will be screened with a medical history and physical exam. - Participants will receive the cord blood unit as part of their stem cell transplant procedure. The transplant will be performed according to the current standard of care for the procedure. - After the transplant, participants will be monitored for up to 1 year. Any problems or side effects from the transplant will be treated as necessary. All outcomes will be reported to the National Cord Blood Program and to the Center for International Blood and Marrow Transplant.
• INCLUSION CRITERIA:
• Patients of any age or either gender with indications for receipt of investigational HPC-CORD BLOOD who are participating in an NIH-IRB approved clinical trial for unrelated hematopoietic stem cell transplantation.
• Signed informed consent (and assent when applicable). EXCLUSION CRITERIA:
• Patients who are receiving licensed CB products (only)
• Patients who are receiving unlicensed CB products from other CB banks (i.e. NMDP)
Neuroblastoma Maintenance Therapy Trial (NMTT)
Difluoromethylornithine (DFMO) will be used in an open label, single agent, multicenter, study for patients with neuroblastoma in remission. In this study subjects will receive 730 Days of oral difluoromethylornithine (DFMO) at a dose of 750 mg/m2 ± 250 mg/m2 BID (strata 1, 2, 3, and 4) OR 2500 mg/m2 BID (stratum 1B) on each day of study. This study will focus on the use of DFMO in high risk neuroblastoma patients that are in remission as a strategy to prevent recurrence.
• All patients must have a pathologically confirmed diagnosis of neuroblastoma, < 30.99 years of age and classified as high risk at the time of diagnosis. Exception: patients who are initially diagnosed as non-high-risk neuroblastoma, but later converted (and/or relapsed) to high risk neuroblastoma are also eligible.
• All patients must be in complete remission (CR):
• No evidence of residual disease on scan
• No evidence of disease metastatic to bone marrow.
• Specific Criteria by Stratum: Stratum 1/1B: All patients must have completed standard upfront therapy that replicates treatment which patients who were enrolled on ANBL0032 received, including: intensive induction chemotherapy and (if feasible) resection of primary tumor, followed by: consolidation with high-dose chemotherapy with stem cell transplant and radiotherapy, followed by: immunotherapy with Ch14.18/IL-2/GM-CSF (dinutuximab) and retinoic acid;. All subjects on Stratum 1/B must have also met the following criteria: • A pre-transplant disease status evaluation that met International Neuroblastoma Response Criteria (INRC) for CR (complete response), VGPR (very good partial response), or PR (partial response) for primary site, soft tissue metastases and bone metastases. Patients who meet those criteria must also meet the protocol-specified criteria for bone marrow response prior to transplant as outlined below: No more than 10% tumor involvement (based on total nucleated cellular content) seen on any specimen from a bilateral bone marrow aspirate/biopsy. Stratum 2: Neuroblastoma that is in first complete remission following standard upfront therapy different from that described for Stratum 1. Stratum 3: Neuroblastoma that failed to have a response of at least PR following induction chemotherapy and surgical resection of the primary tumor, but that has achieved CR following additional therapy. Stratum 4: Patients who have achieved a second or subsequent CR following relapse(s).
• Pre-enrollment tumor survey: Prior to enrollment on this study, a determination of mandatory disease staging must be performed:
• Tumor imaging studies including
• Bilateral bone marrow aspirates and biopsy
• This disease assessment is required for eligibility and preferably should be done within 2 weeks prior to enrollment, but must be done within a maximum of 4 weeks before enrollment.
• Timing from prior therapy: Stratum 1/1B: Enrollment no later than 60 days after completion of upfront therapy, (last dose of cis-retinoic acid) with a maximum of 6 cycles of cis-retinoic acid maintenance therapy. Stratum 2, 3 and 4: Enrollment no later than 60 days from last dose of the most recent therapy.
• Patients must have a Lansky or Karnofsky Performance Scale score of > 50% and patients must have a life expectancy of ≥ 2 months.
• All clinical and laboratory studies for organ functions to determine eligibility must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment unless otherwise indicated below.
• Patients must have adequate organ functions at the time of registration:
• Hematological: Total absolute phagocyte count ≥1000/μL
• Liver: Subjects must have adequate liver function
• Renal: Adequate renal function
• Females of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test. Patients of childbearing potential must agree to use an effective birth control method. Female patients who are lactating must agree to stop breast-feeding.
• Written informed consent in accordance with institutional and FDA (food and drug administration) guidelines must be obtained from all subjects (or patients' legal representative).
• BSA (Body Surface Area) of <0.25 m2.
• Investigational Drugs: Subjects who are currently receiving another investigational drug are excluded from participation.
• Anti-cancer Agents: Subjects who are currently receiving other anticancer agents are not eligible. Subjects must have fully recovered from hematological and bone marrow suppression effects of prior chemotherapy.
• Infection: Subjects who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible until the infection is judged to be well controlled in the opinion of the investigator.
• Subjects who, in the opinion of the investigator, may not be able to comply with the safety monitoring requirements of the study, or in whom compliance is likely to be suboptimal, should be excluded.
Individualized Treatment in Treating Patients With Stage II-IVB Nasopharyngeal Cancer Based on EBV DNA
There are two study questions we are asking in this randomized phase II/III trial based on a blood biomarker, Epstein Barr virus (EBV) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) for locoregionally advanced non-metastatic nasopharyngeal cancer. All patients will first undergo standard concurrent chemotherapy and radiation therapy. When this standard treatment is completed, if there is no detectable EBV DNA in their plasma, then patients are randomized to either standard adjuvant cisplatin and fluorouracil chemotherapy or observation. If there is still detectable levels of plasma EBV DNA, patients will be randomized to standard cisplatin and fluorouracil chemotherapy versus gemcitabine and paclitaxel. Radiation therapy uses high energy x rays to kill tumor cells. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as cisplatin, fluorouracil, gemcitabine hydrochloride, and paclitaxel work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. It is not yet known whether giving cisplatin and fluorouracil is more effective than gemcitabine hydrochloride and paclitaxel after radiation therapy in treating patients with nasopharyngeal cancer.
• Biopsy proven (from primary lesion and/or lymph nodes) diagnosis of cancer of the nasopharynx
• Sites are required to complete Step 1 registration before submitting specimens for EBV DNA analysis.
• Patients must have detectable pretreatment plasma EBV DNA, determined by the central lab prior to Step 2 registration (see Section 10.2 for details of specimen submission).
• For patients who have detectable plasma EBV DNA tested at one of the credentialed central labs (listed on the EBV DNA Testing Specimen Transmittal form) within 28 days prior to Step 1 registration: that test result can be used for eligibility without the need for re-testing. To use this test result for eligibility, the central lab must enter the test result through the pathology portal, and the site must follow the instructions in Section 5.4.
• Stage II-IVB disease (AJCC, 7th ed.) with no evidence of distant metastasis, based upon the following minimum diagnostic workup:
• History/physical examination by a Medical Oncologist or Clinical Oncologist or Radiation Oncologist or ENT, which must include an endoscopic evaluation, a complete list of current medications, and assessment of weight and weight loss in the past 6 months within 21 days prior to registration;
• Evaluation of tumor extent required within 28 days prior to registration:
• MRI of the nasopharynx and neck; or CT of the nasopharynx and neck with ≤ 3 mm contiguous slices with contrast and bone windows (to evaluate base of skull involvement). Note: If a treatment planning CT scan is used, it must be with ≤ 3 mm contiguous slices with contrast and be read by a radiologist. Please refer to section 6.3.2 for MRI requirement for target delineation.
• To rule out distant metastasis, patients must undergo the following imaging within 28 days prior to registration:
• a CT scan with contrast of the chest and abdomen (required), and the pelvis (optional), or a total body PET/CT scan (non-contrast PET/CT is acceptable);
• a bone scan only when there is suspicion of bone metastases (a PET/CT scan can substitute for the bone scan).
• Zubrod performance status 0-1 within 21 days prior to registration
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥ 1,500 cells/mm^3
• Platelets ≥ 100,000 cells/mm^3
• Hemoglobin ≥ 8.0 g/dl (Note: the use of transfusion or other intervention to achieve hemoglobin [Hgb] ≥ 8.0 g/dl is acceptable)
• Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤ 1.5 x institutional ULN
• Alkaline phosphatase ≤ 1.5 x institutional ULN
• Serum creatinine ≤ 1.5 mg/dl or calculated creatinine clearance (CC) ≥ 50 ml/min determined by 24-hour urine collection or estimated by Cockcroft-Gault formula
• Negative serum pregnancy test within 14 days prior to registration for women of childbearing potential
• Women of childbearing potential and male participants who are sexually active must agree to use a medically effective means of birth control throughout protocol treatment
• Patient must provide study specific informed consent prior to study entry, including the mandatory pre-treatment plasma EBV DNA assay
• Prior invasive malignancy (except node negative, non-melanomatous skin cancer) unless disease free for a minimum of 1095 days (3 years) (for example, carcinoma in situ of the breast, oral cavity, or cervix are all permissible)
• Prior systemic chemotherapy for the study cancer; note that prior chemotherapy for a different cancer is allowable; however, at least 6-weeks recovery is necessary if the last regimen included nitrosourea or mitomycin
• Prior radiotherapy to the region of the study cancer that would result in overlap of radiation therapy fields
• Patients with hearing loss assessed to be primarily sensorineural in nature, requiring a hearing aid, or intervention (i.e. interfering in a clinically significant way with activities of daily living); a conductive hearing loss that is tumor-related is allowed
• ≥ Grade 2 peripheral sensory neuropathy (CTCAE, v. 4.0)
• Severe, active co-morbidity, defined as follows:
• Major medical or psychiatric illness, which in the investigator's opinion would interfere with the completion of therapy and follow up or with full understanding of the risks and potential complications of the therapy
• Unstable angina and/or uncontrolled congestive heart failure within the past 6 months
• Myocardial infarction within the last 6 months
• Acute bacterial or fungal infection requiring intravenous antibiotics at the time of registration; note that patients switched from IV antibiotics and currently on oral antibiotics whose infection is assessed to be adequately treated or controlled are eligible
• Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease exacerbation or other respiratory illness requiring hospitalization or precluding study therapy within 30 days prior to registration
• Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) based upon current Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) definition; note, however, that Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) testing is not required for entry into this protocol. The need to exclude patients with AIDS from this protocol is necessary because the treatments involved in this protocol may be significantly immunosuppressive.
• Pregnancy or women of childbearing potential and men who are sexually active and not willing/able to use medically acceptable forms of contraception
• Prior allergic reaction to the study drug(s) involved in this protocol
• Patients with undetectable pre-treatment plasma EBV DNA
Nephrotic Syndrome Study Network (NEPTUNE)
Minimal change disease (MCD), focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS), and Membranous nephropathy (MN), generate an enormous individual and societal financial burden, accounting for approximately 12% of prevalent end stage renal disease (ESRD) cases (2005) at an annual cost in the US of more than $3 billion. However, the clinical classification of these diseases is widely believed to be inadequate by the scientific community. Given the poor understanding of MCD/FSGS and MN biology, it is not surprising that the available therapies are imperfect. The therapies lack a clear biological basis, and as many families have experienced, they are often not beneficial, and in fact may be significantly toxic. Given these observations, it is essential that research be conducted that address these serious obstacles to effectively caring for patients. In response to a request for applications by the National Institutes of Health, Office of Rare Diseases (NIH, ORD) for the creation of Rare Disease Clinical Research Consortia, a number of affiliated universities joined together with The NephCure Foundation the NIDDK, the ORDR, and the University of Michigan in collaboration towards the establishment of a Nephrotic Syndrome (NS) Rare Diseases Clinical Research Consortium. Through this consortium the investigators hope to understand the fundamental biology of these rare diseases and aim to bank long-term observational data and corresponding biological specimens for researchers to access and further enrich.
• Documented urinary protein excretion ≥1500 mg/24 hours or spot protein: creatinine ratio equivalent at the time of diagnosis or within 3 months of the screening/eligibility visit.
• Scheduled renal biopsy Cohort B (non-biopsy, cNEPTUNE)
• Age <19 years of age
• Initial presentation with <30 days immunosuppression therapy
• UA>2+ and edema OR
• UA>2+ and serum albumin <3 OR
• UPC > 2g/g and serum albumin <3 Exclusion Criteria (Cohort A&B):
• Prior solid organ transplant
• A clinical diagnosis of glomerulopathy without diagnostic renal biopsy
• Clinical, serological or histological evidence of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) as defined by the ARA criteria. Patients with membranous in combination with SLE will be excluded because this entity is well defined within the International Society of Nephrology/Renal Pathology Society categories of lupus nephritis, and frequently overlaps with other classification categories of SLE nephritis (68)
• Clinical or histological evidence of other renal diseases (Alport, Nail Patella, Diabetic Nephropathy, IgA-nephritis, monoclonal gammopathy (multiple myelomas), genito-urinary malformations with vesico-urethral reflux or renal dysplasia)
• Known systemic disease diagnosis at time of enrollment with a life expectancy less than 6 months
• Unwillingness or inability to give a comprehensive informed consent
• Unwillingness to comply with study procedures and visit schedule
• Institutionalized individuals (e.g., prisoners)
Genetic and Metabolic Disease in Children
This is a prospective, non-randomized, non-blinded observational study. The overarching goal is to discover new disease-associated genes in children, while establishing a specific focus on disorders where molecular characterization is most likely to lead to novel therapies. This study will merge detailed phenotypic characterization of patients presenting to the Pediatric Genetics and Metabolism Division in the Department of Pediatrics/Children's Medical Center at Dallas and collaborating clinics with Next-Generation sequencing techniques to identify disease-producing mutations. The primary objective of the study is to identify novel pathogenic mutations in children with rare Mendelian disorders. A secondary objective of the study is to establish normative ranges of a large number of metabolites from healthy newborns and older children.
• Subjects aged 1-2 days
• Subjects with gestational age 37-42 weeks
• Subjects with stable clinical status (admitted to normal newborn nursery) Inclusion criteria of Cohort 2 - Older children: • Subjects aged 0-18 years Inclusion criteria of Cohort 3 - Diseased children: Subjects (no age limit) with ANY phenotype as below:
• Confirmed metabolic or genetic diseases
• Suspected metabolic or genetic diseases
• Episodic metabolic decompensation (e.g. hypoglycemia, hyperammonemia, metabolic acidosis)
• Developmental regression
• Major congenital malformation
• Other unexplained symptoms of potential genetic origin Exclusion criteria of Cohort 1 - Newborn:
• Subjects with gestational age <37 weeks or >42 weeks
• Subjects with overt signs of metabolic dysfunction, distress or genetic diseases including hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia, sepsis/shock, hypoxemia, or major congenital malformation
• Subjects with mothers whose pregnancies were complicated by gestational diabetes, gestational hyperglycemia, gestational hypertension, preeclampsia, or any other major disorders. Exclusion criteria of Cohort 2 - Older children:
• Subjects with confirmed metabolic or genetic diseases
• Subjects with suspected metabolic or genetic diseases
• Subjects with episodic metabolic decompensation (e.g. hypoglycemia, hyperammonemia, metabolic acidosis)
• Subjects with developmental regression
• Subjects with major congenital malformation Exclusion criteria of Cohort 3 - Diseased children No.
Phase 1 Dose-escalating Study of MM-398 (Irinotecan Sucrosofate Liposome Injection) Plus Intravenous Cyclophosphamide in Recurrent or Refractory Pediatric Solid Tumors
This is a Phase 1 study of the combination of two drugs: MM-398 and Cyclophosphamide. The goal is to find the highest dose of MM-398 that can be given safely when it is used together with the chemotherapy drug Cyclophosphamide.
• Histologically or cytologically-confirmed Ewing sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, neuroblastoma, or osteosarcoma
• Disease progression after prior therapy in locally advanced or metastatic setting
• Measurable or evaluable disease based on the Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST v1.1) criteria
• Age 12 months to <21 years
• Adequate bone marrow reserves, hepatic function, and renal function
• Recovered from effects of any prior surgery or cancer therapy
• Patients 18 years or older will provide written consent. A parent or legal guardian of a patient <18 years of age will provide informed consent and patients 11 to 18 years of age will provide written assent or as per participating institutional policy.
• Clinically significant gastrointestinal disorders
• NYHA Class III or IV congestive heart failure, ventricular arrhythmias or uncontrolled blood pressure
• Active infection or unexplained fever
• Known hypersensitivity to any of the components of MM-398 or other liposomal products
• Recent Investigational therapy
• Pregnant or breast feeding; females of child-bearing potential must test negative for pregnancy at the time of enrollment
Study of Carfilzomib in Combination With Induction Chemotherapy in Children With Relapsed or Refractory Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
The purpose of Phase 1b of this study is to: - Asses the safety, tolerability and activity of carfilzomib, alone and in combination with induction chemotherapy, in children with relapsed or refractory acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). - Determine the maximum tolerated dose (MTD) and to recommend a phase 2 dose of carfilzomib in combination with induction chemotherapy. The purpose of Phase 2 of this study is to compare the rate of complete remission (CR) of carfilzomib in combination with vincristine, dexamethasone, PEG asparaginase, daunorubicin (VXLD) at the end of induction therapy to an appropriate external control.
• Age 21 years or younger at the time of initial ALL diagnosis and age > 1 year at the time of study treatment initiation.
• Subjects must have a diagnosis of relapsed or refractory ALL with ≥ 5% blasts in the bone marrow (M2 or M3 disease), with or without extramedullary disease. -To be eligible, subjects must have had 1 or more prior therapeutic attempts, defined as:
• Early first relapse (< 36 months from original diagnosis) after achieving a CR (B-ALL) or first relapse any time following the original diagnosis after achieving a CR (T-ALL)
• First refractory bone marrow relapse occurring any time after original diagnosis after achieving a CR (ie, ≥1 failed attempt to induce a second remission) OR
• Relapse after achieving a CR following the first or subsequent relapse (i.e., ≥ 2 relapses) OR
• Failing to achieve a CR from original diagnosis after at least 1 induction attempt
• Subjects must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all previous chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy treatment before enrollment.
• Subjects must have a serum creatinine level that is ≤ 1.5 × institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) according to age. If serum creatinine level is > 1.5 × ULN, the subject must have a calculated creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ≥ 70 mL/min/1.73 m2.
• Adequate liver function, defined as both of the following:
• Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 × institutional ULN except in the presence of Gilbert Syndrome
• Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤ 5 × institutional ULN
• Performance status: Karnofsky or Lansky scores ≥ 50 for subjects > 16 years old or ≤ 16 years old, respectively. Phase 2
• Subject's legally acceptable representative has provided informed consent when the subject is legally too young to provide informed consent and the subject has provided written assent based on local regulations and/or guidelines prior to any study-specific activities/procedures being initiated, except for standard of care local testing as permitted per protocol.
• Age greater than or equal to 1 month to less than 21 years. Subjects greater than or equal to 18 years must have had their original diagnosis at less than 18 years of age.
• Subjects must be diagnosed with relapsed or refractory relapsed ALL.
• Subjects must have a documented first remission, less than 5% blasts in the bone marrow (M1 bone marrow) and no evidence of extramedullary disease.
• T-cell ALL with bone marrow relapse (defined as greater than or equal to 5% leukemia blasts in bone marrow) or refractory relapse with or without extramedullary disease. OR B-cell ALL bone marrow relapse or refractory relapse (defined as greater than or equal to 5% leukemia blasts in bone marrow) after having received a targeted B-cell immune therapy (eg, blinatumomab, inotuzumab or a CAR-T therapy) with or without extramedullary disease..
• Adequate liver function: bilirubin less than or equal to 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN), alanine aminotransferase (ALT) less than or equal to 5 x ULN.
• Adequate renal function: serum creatinine less than or equal to 1.5 x ULN or glomerular filtration rate (GFR) greater than or equal to 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2; or for children less than 2 years of age, greater than or equal to 50 mL/min/1.73 m^2.
• Adequate cardiac function: shortening fraction greater than or equal to 30% or ejection fraction greater than or equal to 50%.
• Karnofsky (subjects greater than or equal to 16 years of age) or Lansky (subjects 12 months to less than 16 years of age) performance status greater than or equal to 50%.
• Subjects must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all previous chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy treatment before enrollment (for example: recovery from gastrointestinal toxicity may occur more rapidly than less reversible organ toxicities such as sinusoidal obstruction syndrome or non-infectious pneumonitis, for serious prior toxicities recommended discussion with Amgen medical monitor).
• Life expectancy of greater than 6 weeks per investigator's judgement at time of screening. Phase 1b Key
• Known allergy to any of the drugs used in the study (Subjects who have had a previous allergy to PEG-asparaginase and if able, may receive Erwinia asparaginase at the investigator's discretion)
• Known allergy to Captisol (a cyclodextrin derivative used to solubilize carfilzomib)
• Left ventricular fractional shortening < 30%
• History of ≥ Grade 2 pancreatitis
• Active graft-versus-host disease requiring systemic treatment
• Positive culture for or other clinical evidence of infection with bacteria or fungus within 14 days of the initiation of study treatment
• Down Syndrome
• Prior therapy restrictions:
• Subjects must have completed therapy with granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) or other myeloid growth factors at least 7 days before study treatment initiation, or at least 14 days before study treatment initiation, if pegylated myeloid growth factors were administered.
• Subjects must have completed any type of active immunotherapy (e.g., tumor vaccines) at least 42 days before study treatment initiation.
• Subjects must have received the last dose of a non-monoclonal antibody biologic agent at least 7 days before study treatment initiation.
• At least 3 antibody half-lives must have elapsed since the last dose of monoclonal antibody (e.g., 66 days for rituximab and 69 days for epratuzumab) before subjects may initiate study treatment.
• Subjects must not have received other antineoplastic agents with therapeutic intent, excluding hydroxyurea and antimetabolites administered as part of maintenance chemotherapy, within 7 days prior to study treatment initiation.
• Hepatitis B infection with positive hepatitis B DNA Phase 2
• Prior treatment with carfilzomib.
• Intolerance, hypersensitivity, or inability to receive any of the chemotherapy components of the VXLD regimen. An exception is allowed for allergy to asparaginase products if Erwinia asparaginase is unable to be administered,
• Autologous HSCT within 6 weeks prior to start of study treatment.
• Allogeneic HSCT within 3 months prior to start of study treatment.
• Active GVHD requiring systemic immune suppression.
• Less than 30 days from discontinuation of immune suppressive therapy administered for the treatment of acute or chronic GVHD.
• Isolated extramedullary relapse.
• Positive bacterial or fungal infection within 14 days of enrollment (except for documented line infection, line has been removed, and blood culture after line removal is negative for 5 days prior to first dose of induction therapy). Antibiotics may be administered for prophylaxis as per institutional standards up to and after enrollment.
• Subjects with less than 3 antibody half-lives since the last dose of monoclonal antibody (eg, 66 days for rituximab, 69 days for epratuzumab, inotuzumab for 36 days), prior to first dose of investigational product must be discussed with the Amgen medical monitor and may be allowed to enroll based on extent of disease or evidence of rapidly rising peripheral or bone marrow blast counts.
• Cell-based immunotherapy (eg, donor leucocyte infusion, CAR-T cells, tumor vaccines) within 42 days prior to first dose of investigational product. If the Amgen medical monitor agrees, an exception may be granted to the 42-day requirement for subjects with rapidly rising peripheral or bone marrow blast counts.
• Down's syndrome.
• Presence of another active cancer.
• History of grade greater than or equal to 2 pancreatitis within 6 months to screening.
• Unresolved toxicities from prior anticancer therapy, defined as not having resolved to CTCAE version 4.03 grade 1 or to levels dictated in the eligibility criteria apart from alopecia or toxicities from prior anticancer therapy that are considered irreversible and do not trigger another exclusion criterion (defined as having been present and stable for greater than 4 weeks).
• Antitumor therapy (chemotherapy, investigational agents, molecular-targeted therapy) within 7 days of day 1 of induction. Exception: hydroxyurea to control peripheral blood leukemic cell counts is allowed until start of investigational product.
• Active viral infection, including but not limited to cytomegalovirus (CMV), Hepatitis B infection with positive serum hepatitis surface antigen or hepatitis B DNA, HIV, Hepatitis C with detectable hepatitis C RNA. Subjects who have previously received a stem cell transplant must be screened for CMV infection, unless both subject and donor are known to be CMV negative.
• Currently receiving treatment in another investigational device or product study, or less than 14 days since ending treatment on another investigational device or product study.
• Uncontrolled arrhythmias or screening ECG with corrected QT interval (QTc) of greater than 470 msec.
• History or evidence of any other clinically significant disorder, condition or disease (with the exception of those outlined above) that, in the opinion of the investigator or Amgen physician, if consulted, would pose a risk to subject safety or interfere with the study evaluation, procedures or completion.
• Female subject is pregnant or breastfeeding or planning to become pregnant or breastfeed during treatment and for an additional 6 months after the last dose of any study treatment or for 12 months after last dose of cyclophosphamide if administered during optional consolidation cycle.
• Female subjects of childbearing potential unwilling to use 1 highly effective method of contraception during treatment and for an additional 6 months after the last dose of any study treatment or for 12 months after last dose of cyclophosphamide if administered during optional consolidation cycle.
• Female subjects of childbearing potential with a positive pregnancy test assessed at Screening by a serum or urine pregnancy test.
• Male subjects with a female partner of childbearing potential who are unwilling to practice sexual abstinence (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use a condom with spermicide during treatment and for an additional 6 months after the last dose of any study treatment, even if they have undergone a successful vasectomy.
• Male subjects with a pregnant partner who are unwilling to practice abstinence or use a condom with spermicide during treatment, for duration of pregnancy, and for an additional 6 months after the last dose of any study treatment.
• Male subjects unwilling to abstain from donating semen or sperm during treatment and for an additional 6 months after the last dose of any study treatment.
• Known allergy to captisol (a cyclodextrin derivative used to solubilize carfilzomib; for a complete listing of Captisol-enabled drugs, see the Ligand Pharmaceuticals, Inc. website).
TransMedics (OCS) Liver Trial: Preserving and Assessing Donor Livers for Transplantation (Liver PROTECT)
A prospective, phased-pivotal, international randomized trial to evaluate the effectiveness of the OCS™ Liver to preserve and assess donor livers intended for transplantation.
• Registered male or female primary Liver transplant candidate
• Age ≥18 years old
• Signed: 1) written informed consent document and 2) authorization to use and disclose protected health information
• Acute, fulminant liver failure
• Prior solid organ or bone marrow transplant
• Chronic use of hemodialysis or diagnosis of chronic renal failure, defined as chronic serum creatinine of >3 mg/dl for >2 weeks and/or requiring hemodialysis
• Multi-organ transplant
• Ventilator dependent
• Dependent on > 1 IV inotrope to maintain hemodynamics
A Phase 1 Dose Escalation and Cohort Expansion Study of TSR-042, an Anti-PD-1 Monoclonal Antibody, in Patients With Advanced Solid Tumors (GARNET)
This is a multicenter, open-label, first-in-human Phase 1 study evaluating the anti-programmed death receptor 1 (anti-PD-1) antibody TSR-042 in patients with advanced solid tumors who have limited available treatment options. The study will be conducted in 2 parts: dose escalation and cohort expansion. The cohort expansion may include up to 5 tumor types, including endometrial and Non-Small Cell Lung cancer.
• Patient is at least 18 years of age
• Patient with advanced or metastatic solid tumor and has disease progression after treatment with available therapies that are known to confer clinical benefit or who are intolerant to treatment that meets the following requirements for the part of the study they will participate in:
• Part 1: Patient with any advanced or metastatic solid tumor
• Part 2A: Patient with any advanced or metastatic solid tumor
• Part 2B: Patient with Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC) and Endometrial cancers
• Female patients, if of childbearing potential, must have a negative serum pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to the date of the first dose of study medication.
• Female patients of childbearing potential must agree to use 2 adequate methods of contraception with their partner starting with the screening visit through 150 days after the last dose of study therapy.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of ≤ 2 for Part 1 and ≤ 1 for Part 2. Adequate organ function.
• Patient has received prior therapy with an anti- programmed death receptor 1 (anti-PD-1), anti-PD-1- ligand-1 (anti-PD-L1), or anti-PD-1 ligand-2 (anti-PD- L2) agent.
• Known uncontrolled central nervous system (CNS) metastases and/or carcinomatous meningitis. Note: Patients with previously treated brain metastases may participate provided they are stable (without evidence of progression by imaging for at least 4 weeks prior to the first dose of study treatment and any neurologic symptoms have returned to baseline), have no evidence of new or enlarging brain metastases, and are clinically stable off steroids for at least 7 days prior to study treatment. Carcinomatous meningitis precludes a patient from study participation regardless of clinical stability.
• Known additional malignancy that progressed or required active treatment within the last 2 years. Exceptions include basal cell carcinoma of the skin, squamous cell cancer (SqCC) of the skin that has undergone potentially curative therapy, or in situ cervical cancer.
• Known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) (HIV 1/2 antibodies).
• Known active hepatitis B (eg, hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg] reactive) or hepatitis C (eg, hepatitis C virus ribonucleic acid (HCV RNA) (qualitative) is detected).
• Active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in the past 2 years (ie, with use of disease- modifying agents, corticosteroids, or immunosuppressive drugs). Replacement therapy (eg, thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency, etc.) is not considered a form of systemic treatment.
• History of interstitial lung disease.
Aripiprazole for Bipolar Disorder and Alcohol Use Disorder
The investigators will conduct a 12-week, randomized, double-blind, parallel-group, placebo-controlled study of aripiprazole in 132 persons with Alcohol Use Disorder (AUD) and bipolar I or II disorder, currently depressed or mixed phase. Primary Aim will be to assess change in alcohol use by the Timeline Followback (TLFB) method. Secondary Aim will include change in alcohol craving using the Penn Alcohol Craving Scale (PACS). Changes in psychiatric symptoms (mania/hypomania and depression) and predictors of response will be assessed. Participants with ≥ 1 drinking day at week 12 will be enrolled in a 4-week extension phase with an upward titration to 30 mg/day for those in the active treatment group. The placebo group will remain on placebo. Subjects will be discontinued from the study if any of the following conditions occurs: change in diagnosis to other than bipolar I or II disorder and AUD, development of active suicidal or homicidal ideation with plan and intent, worsening in mood symptoms, that in the opinion of the investigators requires discontinuation, pregnancy, development of severe or life-threatening medical condition, involuntary psychiatric hospitalization or incarceration, significant alcohol withdrawal (e.g. delirium tremens) based on clinical judgment (increases in Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol (CIWA-Ar) scores will initiate a careful clinical assessment of possible worsening of withdrawal symptoms), or cocaine or amphetamine-positive urine drug screen during the study.
• Outpatient men and women age 18-65 years old with bipolar I, II, Not Otherwise Specified (NOS) disorder, or Schizoaffective Bipolar Type
• If diagnosed with Bipolar I, Bipolar NOS w/history of mania or Schizoaffective Disorder Bipolar Type, current mood stabilizer therapy (lithium, valproic acid, lamotrigine, gabapentin) with stable dose for > 28 days prior to randomization.
• Baseline Barrett Impulsiveness Scale-11 Score of > 62 (above average impulsivity)
• Systolic BP > 100 and < 165 and Diastolic BP > 60 and < 105 with no evidence of orthostatic hypotension
• Current Diagnosis of Alcohol Use Disorder with at least moderate severity
• Alcohol use of an average of 15 drinks per 7 days in the past 28 days prior to intake for men, and an average of 8 drinks per 7 day period in the past 28 days prior to intake for women
• Current mood stabilizer therapy with stable dose for > 28 days
• Fluent in English or Spanish
• Baseline Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression (HRSD) or Young Mania Rating Scale (YMRS) scores > 35
• Mood disorders other than bipolar I, II, NOS or schizoaffective disorder bipolar type (e.g. cyclothymic disorders, schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder depressive type, or unipolar depression based on the SCID), other disorders, e.g. anxiety disorders, will be allowed.
• Current diagnosis of amphetamine or cocaine use disorder or a cocaine or amphetamine positive baseline urine sample.
• Evidence of clinically significant alcohol withdrawal symptoms
• Current treatment with an atypical antipsychotic
• Current treatment with naltrexone, acamprosate, disulfiram, or topiramate in the last 28 days
• Prior treatment with Aripiprazole within the last year or lifetime history of intolerable side effects to Aripiprazole
• Vulnerable populations (e.g. pregnant, nursing, cognitively impaired, incarcerated.)
• Evidence of clinically significant alcohol withdrawal symptoms defined as a CIWA-Ar score of ≥ 10.
• High risk for suicide
• Aspartate Amino Transferase (AST) or Alanine Amino Transferase (ALT) > 3 times upper limit of normal
• Current use of Cytochrome P450 3A4 inducing medication (e.g. carbamazepine, rifabutin, rifampin, ritonavir).
• Use of other substances (besides cocaine/amphetamine) is allowed if the use disorder is no greater than moderate severity and alcohol is the self-identified substance of choice.
• History of neuroleptic malignant syndrome or tardive dyskinesia. More specific inclusion and exclusion criteria will be discussed with participant at baseline assessment.
Multicenter Trial of Congenital Pulmonic Valve Dysfunction Studying the SAPIEN 3 THV With the Alterra Adaptive Prestent (ALTERRA)
To demonstrate the safety and functionality of the Edwards Alterra Adaptive Prestent in conjunction with the Edwards SAPIEN 3 Transcatheter Heart Valve (THV) System in patients with a dysfunctional right ventricular outflow tract/pulmonary valve (RVOT/PV) who are indicated for treatment of pulmonary regurgitation (PR).
• The patient/patient's legally authorized representative has been informed of the nature of the study, agrees to its provisions and has provided written informed consent.
• Pediatric or adult patent whose weight is ≥ 20 kg (44 lbs).
• The patient has a dysfunctional RVOT/PV.
• RVOT/PV proximal and distal landing zone diameter ≥ 27 mm and ≤ 38 mm and/or minimum of 35 mm from contractile tissue to lowest pulmonary artery takeoff immediately prior to Alterra Prestent insertion.
• Active infection requiring current antibiotic therapy (if temporary illness, patient may be a candidate 2 weeks after discontinuation of antibiotics).
• History of or active endocarditis (active treatment with antibiotics) within the past 180 days.
• Leukopenia (WBC < 2000 cells/μL), anemia (Hgb < 7 g/dL), thrombocytopenia (platelets < 50,000 cells/μL) or any known blood clotting disorder.
• Inappropriate anatomy for introduction and delivery of the Alterra Adaptive Prestent or the SAPIEN 3 THV.