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407 Study Matches
A Study of STM-416 Administered to Patients Undergoing TURBT for Recurrent Bladder Cancer
This is a first-in-human (FIH), Phase 1/2a, multi center, open-label, single treatment, dose escalation and expansion study designed to determine the safety and tolerability of STM-416 in patients with bladder cancer.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Yair Lotan
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE1
NCT05710848
STU-2022-1032
Inclusion Criteria:
• Are aged 18 years or older;
• Have a history of pathologically confirmed high-grade Ta or T1 NMIBC without CIS who have completed SOC previously, with recurrent papillary disease seen on cystoscopy, and who are undergoing TURBT without perioperative intravesical chemotherapy;
• Are considered high risk for recurrence;
• Have Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status of 0, 1, or 2;
• Have adequate organ and marrow function as defined below: * Hemoglobin 9.0 g/dL; * Absolute neutrophil count 1.5 × 109/L (1500 per mm3); * Platelet count 75 × 109/L (75,000 per mm3); * Serum bilirubin 1.5 × institutional upper limit of normal (ULN); * AST (serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase)/ALT (serum glutamic-pyruvic transaminase) 2.5 × institutional ULN; and * Creatinine CL 60 mL/min by the Cockcroft-Gault formula or by 24-hour urine collection for determination of creatinine CL: Males: Creatinine CL (mL/min) = Weight (kg) × (140 - Age)/72 × serum creatinine (mg/dL); or Females: Creatinine CL (mL/min) = Weight (kg) × (140 - Age) × 0.85/72 × serum creatinine (mg/dL).
Exclusion Criteria:
• Have a history of CIS or MIBC;
• Are receiving any other investigational agents;
• Have a history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to resiquimod (R848), or excipients used in STM-416 including poloxamer 407 and sodium hyaluronate;
• Have an uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements. Urinary tract infections are not exclusionary unless they are NCI-CTCAE Grade 3 or higher;
• Are a woman of childbearing potential regardless of contraceptive use; Note: Women of childbearing potential are only to be excluded in Phase 1 and Phase 2a to avoid bias due to the low prevalence of NMIBC in this population. However, they will be included in subsequent Phase 2/3 studies.
DRUG: STM-416
Non-muscle-invasive Bladder Cancer, Urinary Bladder
Open-label, Dose escalation, STM-416, Resiquimod, Toll-like receptor 7/8, Non-Muscle Invasive Bladder Cancer, TURBT, Immunotherapy, BCG
UT Southwestern
A Trial to Study if REGN5837 in Combination With Odronextamab is Safe for Adult Participants With Aggressive B-cell Non-Hodgkin Lymphomas (ATHENA-1)
The study is researching an experimental drug called REGN5837 in combination with another experimental drug, odronextamab (called "study drugs"). The aim of the study is to see how safe and tolerable the study drugs are, and to define the recommended dose for phase 2. The study is looking at several other research questions, including: * What side effects may happen from taking the study drugs * How much study drug is in the blood at different times * Whether the body makes antibodies against the study drugs (that could make the drugs less effective or could lead to side effects) * To find out how well the study drugs work against relapsed or refractory aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomas (B-NHLs)
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Farrukh Awan
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE1
NCT05685173
STU-2023-0841
Key
• Have documented CD20+ aggressive B-NHL, with disease that has progressed after at least 2 lines of systemic therapy containing an anti-CD20 antibody and an alkylating agent, as described in the protocol.
• Measurable disease on cross sectional imaging as defined in the protocol
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0 or 1
• Adequate bone marrow, renal and hepatic function as defined in the protocol
• Availability of tumor tissue for submission to central laboratory is required for study enrollment. Archival tumor tissue for histological assessment prior to enrollment is allowed
• During dose expansion phase of the study, participant should be willing to undergo mandatory tumor biopsies, if in the opinion of the investigator, the participant has an accessible lesion that can be biopsied without significant risk to the participant. Key
• Prior treatments with allogeneic stem cell transplantation or solid organ transplantation, treatment with anti-CD20 x anti- CD3 bispecific antibody, such as odronextamab
• Diagnosis of mantle cell lymphoma (MCL)
• Primary central nervous system (CNS) lymphoma or known involvement by non-primary CNS lymphoma, as described in the protocol
• Treatment with any systemic anti-lymphoma therapy within 5 half-lives or within 14 days prior to first administration of study drug, whichever is shorter, as described in the protocol
• Standard radiotherapy within 14 days of first administration of study drug, as described in the protocol
• Continuous systemic corticosteroid treatment with more than 10 mg per day of prednisone or corticosteroid equivalent within 72 hours of start of odronextamab
• Co-morbid conditions, as described in the protocol
• Infections, as described in the protocol
• Allergy/hypersensitivity: Known hypersensitivity to both allopurinol and rasburicase NOTE: Other protocol defined inclusion / exclusion criteria apply
Inclusion Criteria:
• Have documented CD20+ aggressive B-NHL, with disease that has progressed after at least 2 lines of systemic therapy containing an anti-CD20 antibody and an alkylating agent, as described in the protocol.
• Measurable disease on cross sectional imaging as defined in the protocol
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0 or 1
• Adequate bone marrow, renal and hepatic function as defined in the protocol
• Availability of tumor tissue for submission to central laboratory is required for study enrollment. Archival tumor tissue for histological assessment prior to enrollment is allowed
• During dose expansion phase of the study, participant should be willing to undergo mandatory tumor biopsies, if in the opinion of the investigator, the participant has an accessible lesion that can be biopsied without significant risk to the participant. Key
Exclusion Criteria:
• Prior treatments with allogeneic stem cell transplantation or solid organ transplantation, treatment with anti-CD20 x anti- CD3 bispecific antibody, such as odronextamab
• Diagnosis of mantle cell lymphoma (MCL)
• Primary central nervous system (CNS) lymphoma or known involvement by non-primary CNS lymphoma, as described in the protocol
• Treatment with any systemic anti-lymphoma therapy within 5 half-lives or within 14 days prior to first administration of study drug, whichever is shorter, as described in the protocol
• Standard radiotherapy within 14 days of first administration of study drug, as described in the protocol
• Continuous systemic corticosteroid treatment with more than 10 mg per day of prednisone or corticosteroid equivalent within 72 hours of start of odronextamab
• Co-morbid conditions, as described in the protocol
• Infections, as described in the protocol
• Allergy/hypersensitivity: Known hypersensitivity to both allopurinol and rasburicase NOTE: Other protocol defined inclusion / exclusion criteria apply
DRUG: Odronextamab, DRUG: REGN5837
B-cell Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma (B-NHL), Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma
Aggressive B-Cell Non-Hodgkin Lymphomas, Relapsed or Refractory
UT Southwestern
Study to Evaluate ARINA-1 in the Prevention of Bronchiolitis Obliterans Progression in Participants With Bilateral Lung Transplant
The goal of this Phase 3 clinical trial is to compare ARINA-1 (a nebulized immunomodulatory agent) plus Standard of Care vs Standard of Care alone. The main question it aims to answer are: * Evaluate the effectiveness of ARINA-1 in preventing bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome (BOS) progression in participants with a bilateral lung transplant * To evaluate the effectiveness of ARINA-1 on improving quality of life decline and preventing or delaying the use of augmented immunosuppression in participants with pre-BOS relative to SOC. Participants will have clinic visits at screening, randomization (day 1) and weeks 4, 12, 18, and 24. After week 24, participants will have clinic visits at weeks 32, 40, and 48. Participants will also have a telehealth visit on day 2 and phone calls to assess adverse events (AEs), serious adverse events (SAEs), and review patient education will occur during weeks 5, 8, 36, and 44.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Ramatoulaye.Diallo@UTSouthwestern.edu
Vaidehi Kaza
ALL
18 Years to 75 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05654922
STU-2023-0149
Inclusion Criteria:
• Bilateral lung transplant \>12 months from the time of Visit 1 / Randomization
• Age 18-75 years old at the time of consent
• Routinely followed at enrolling site
• Willing and able to comply with visit schedule and at-home requirements
• 10-24% decrease in FEV1 from the post-transplant baseline within the last 12 months.
• Capable of giving informed consent
• On a stable maintenance regimen of azithromycin for \>4 weeks prior to the Screening Visit
• On a stable 2-agent or 3-agent immunosuppression regimen that includes a steroid, a calcineurin inhibitor (CNI), and, optionally, a cell cycle inhibitor (e.g., mycophenolate, azathioprine) \>4 weeks prior to Screening
• If a woman of childbearing potential (WOCBP), must agree to use a reliable method of birth control for the entire duration of the study.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Positive urine pregnancy test at screening and baseline visit
• Diagnosis of active congestive heart failure or symptomatic coronary artery disease \> grade 3 based on the New York Heart Association Functional Classification (NYHA) criteria
• Restrictive allograft syndrome (RAS) defined by radiographic interstitial or alveolar opacities on chest X-ray or CT scan that are consistent with RAS
• Have advanced BOS, defined by \>24% decrease in FEV1 in post-transplant baseline
• A diagnosis of probable antibody-mediated rejection (AMR) \<12 months prior to the baseline visit
• Donor-specific antibodies (DSA) identified \<6 months prior to the baseline visit. \*The presence of DSA \>6 months from the baseline visit is acceptable for enrollment into the study.
• Unresolved diffuse alveolar damage
• Receiving mechanical ventilation
• Chronic kidney disease stage IV or higher, including on dialysis
• Initiating a new maintenance therapy or changing immunosuppression maintenance therapy (e.g., changing tacrolimus to cyclosporine) \<30 days prior to the baseline visit.
• Have initiated or changed mTOR maintenance therapy \<3 months prior to Clinic Visit 1 (mTOR use for \>3 months is allowed)
• Initiating or changing antibiotic (including azithromycin), antiviral, or antifungal therapy \<14 days prior to the baseline visit.
• Use of alemtuzumab \<6 months prior to the baseline visit
• Use of anti-thymocyte therapies (e.g., anti-thymocyte globulin) or photopheresis \<90 days prior to the Screening Visit. Prior use of Trikafta (elexacaftor, ivacaftor, and tezacaftor is allowed as long as the participant has been on stable dose for \>90 days prior to the Screening Visit.
• Initiating a multivitamin or other supplement (inhaled, oral, or IV) containing vitamin C, glutathione, or N-acetylcysteine \<90 days prior to the baseline visit
• Significant unstable comorbidities, in the opinion of the site investigator
• Allery or previous adverse reaction to azithromycin
• A diagnosis of dynamic collapse / tracheobrochomalacia \<90 days of the baseline visit.
• Subjects currently participating in, or who have participated in an interventional (drug or device) clinical study \<30 days of the baseline visit.
• Have been diagnosed with ARAD within 6 weeks of the Screening Visit.
• Have used belatacept \<6 months prior to Clinic Visit 1
• Have had an initial treatment of bronchial stents or cryotherapy within 12 months of the Screening Visit, or had bronchial stents removed within the last 3 months of the Screening Visit.
DRUG: ARINA-1, OTHER: Standard of care only
Pre-Bronchiolitis Obliterans Syndrome
UT Southwestern
Impact of Sentinel Lymph Node Mapping on Patient Reported Lower Extremity Limb Dysfunction in Stage I Endometrial Cancer
This phase III trial compares the effect of sentinel lymph node mapping to standard lymph node dissection in reducing the risk of swelling in the legs (lymphedema) in patients undergoing a hysterectomy for stage I endometrial cancer. Standard lymph node dissection removes lymph nodes around the uterus during a hysterectomy to look for spread of cancer from the uterus to nearby lymph nodes. Sentinel lymph node mapping uses a special dye and camera to look for cancer that may have spread to nearby lymph nodes. Comparing the results of the procedures may help doctors predict the risk of long-term swelling in the legs.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Jayanthi Lea
FEMALE
18 Years and over
PHASE3
NCT05646316
STU-2023-0908
Inclusion Criteria:
* Histologically proven diagnosis of endometrial cancer based on endometrial sampling with a plan to undergo laparoscopic or robotic hysterectomy and lymphatic assessment as part of primary management. Biopsy must be performed within 90 days prior to registration
* Clinical stage I endometrial cancer based on the following diagnostic workup:
* History/physical examination within 30 days prior to registration is reassuring for the absence of metastatic disease
* Age \>= 18 years
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status of 0, 1 or 2
* Patients with a prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment does not have the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen are eligible for this trial
* The patient or a legally authorized representative must provide study-specific informed consent prior to study entry and, for patients treated in the United States (U.S.), authorization permitting release of personal health information
* Patients must speak English or Spanish
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patients whom the surgeon believes is not a candidate for pelvic lymphadenectomy due to medical comorbidities or other technical challenges (i.e. morbid obesity or prior surgery)
* History of chemotherapy or immunotherapy for the treatment of endometrial cancer. Progestin-containing therapies such as megestrol, medroxyprogesterone, or levonorgestrel-containing intrauterine device (IUD) are acceptable
* History of radiation to the pelvis, groin or lower extremities, or surgery to the pelvic lymph nodes or inguinal lymph nodes
* Patients who are going to undergo another elective surgery during the same operative event as their hysterectomy (i.e., sacrocolpopexy, cholecystectomy)
* Patients with severe, active co-morbidity defined as follows:
* History of patient or provider identified lower extremity lymphedema
* History of patient or provider identified chronic lower extremity swelling
* History of lower extremity or pelvic deep venous thromboembolism within 90 days of registration
* History of lower extremity cellulitis within 90 days of registration
* For the bioimpedance sub study only: patients with implantable metal devices (i.e. defibrillator, metal joint replacements, etc.) will not be eligible to participate in the bioimpedance sub study but will be eligible to participate in the overall study PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, PROCEDURE: Diagnostic Imaging Testing, PROCEDURE: Excisional Biopsy, DRUG: Indocyanine Green Solution, PROCEDURE: Minimally Invasive Surgery, PROCEDURE: Pelvic Lymphadenectomy, OTHER: Questionnaire Administration, PROCEDURE: Sentinel Lymph Node Mapping
Stage I Uterine Corpus Carcinoma or Carcinosarcoma AJCC v8, Corpus Uteri
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
A Research Study to Look at How Ziltivekimab Works Compared to Placebo in People With Heart Failure and Inflammation (HERMES)
This study will be done to see if ziltivekimab can be used to treat people living with heart failure and inflammation. Participants will either get ziltivekimab or placebo. Participants will get study medicine for once-monthly injections either in a pre-filled syringe to inject the study medicine into a skinfold or a pen-injector to inject the study medicine into flat skin. The study is expected to last for up to 4 years. Participants will have up to 20 clinic visits. Participants will have to use a study app on their phone to record and share information about all their injections of study medicine and to fill in questionnaires.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Daniel.Ayodele@UTSouthwestern.edu
Alvin Chandra
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE3
NCT05636176
STU-2023-0359
Inclusion Criteria:
* Serum high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hs-CRP) greater than equal to 2 milligrams per liter (mg/L) at screening (visit 1) Disease specific - cardiovascular
* At least one of the following:
• N-terminal-pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) greater than equal to 300 picograms per milliliter (pg/mL) at screening (Visit 1) for patients without ongoing atrial fibrillation/flutter. If ongoing atrial fibrillation/flutter at screening (visit 1), NTproBNP must be greater than equal to 600 pg/mL. Note that the screening electrocardiogram (ECG) must be obtained the same day as sampling for NT-proBNP.
• Hospitalisation or urgent/unplanned visit with a primary diagnosis of decompensated heart failure which required intravenous loop diuretic treatment, within the last 9 months prior to screening (visit 1) in combination with NT-proBNP greater than equal to 200 pg/mL at screening (Visit 1) for patients without ongoing atrial fibrillation/flutter. If ongoing atrial fibrillation/flutter at screening (visit 1), NT-proBNP must be greater than equal to 600 pg/mL. * Diagnosis of heart failure (New York Heart Association \[classification\] \[NYHA\] Class II-IV). * Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) greater than 40 percentage (%) documented by echocardiography within 12 months prior to or at screening (visit 1). The LVEF must be documented in medical records and the most recent measurement must be used to determine eligibility with no interim event signalling potential deterioration in ejection fraction (e.g., myocardial infarction \[MI\] or heart failure \[HF\] hospitalisation). * Structural heart disease and/or functional heart disease documented by echocardiography within 12 months prior to or at screening (visit 1) showing at least one of the following: * Left atrial (LA) volume index greater than 34 milliliter per meter square (mL/m\^2). * LA diameter greater than equal to 3.8 centimeter (cm). * LA length greater than equal to 5.0 cm. * LA area greater than equal to 20 cm square. * LA volume greater than equal to 55 milliters (mL). * Intraventricular septal thickness greater than equal to 1.1 cm. * Posterior wall thickness greater than equal to 1.1 cm. * Left ventricular (LV) mass index greater than equal to 115 grams per meter square (g⁄m\^2 ) in men or greater than equal to 95 g⁄m\^2 in women. * E/e' (mean septal and lateral) greater than equal to 10. * e' (mean septal and lateral) less than 9 centimeter per second (cm/s). * No heart failure hospitalisations or urgent heart failure visits between screening (visit 1) and randomisation (visit 2).
Exclusion Criteria:
Medical conditions - cardiovascular
* Myocardial infarction, stroke, unstable angina pectoris, transient ischaemic attack, or heart failure hospitalisation, within 30 days prior to screening (visit 1).
* Systolic blood pressure greater than equal to 180 millimeters of mercury (mmHg) at screening (visit 1). If the systolic blood pressure is 160-179 mmHg, the patient should be receiving greater than equal to 3 antihypertensive drugs. (Note: Potential participants may be retested for this criterion within the visit window and without rescreening, at the discretion of the investigator).
* Heart rate above 110 or below 40 beats per minute as evaluated on the electrocardiogram (ECG) performed at screening (visit 1) (Note: Potential participants may be retested for this criterion within the visit window and without rescreening, at the discretion of the investigator).
* Planned coronary, carotid or peripheral artery revascularisation known during the screening period (visit 1). (Note: Planned coronary angiogram is not exclusionary).
* Planned cardiac device or atrial flutter/atrial fibrillation ablation procedure known during the screening period (visit 1).
* Major cardiac surgical, non-cardiac surgical, or major endoscopic procedure (thoracoscopic or laparoscopic) within the past 60 days prior to randomisation (visit 2) or any major surgical procedure planned at the time of randomisation (visit 2).
* Heart failure due to infiltrative cardiomyopathy (e.g., sarcoid, amyloid), arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy, Takutsubo cardiomyopathy, genetic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy or obstructive cardiomyopathy, active myocarditis, constrictive pericarditis, cardiac tamponade, uncorrected more than moderate primary valve disease.
* Primary pulmonary hypertension, chronic pulmonary embolism, severe pulmonary disease including COPD.
* Any other condition judged by the investigator that could account for heart failure symptoms and signs (e.g., anaemia, hypothyroidism).
Medical conditions - infections/immunosuppression
• Clinical evidence of, or suspicion of, active infection at the discretion of the investigator.
DRUG: Ziltivekimab, DRUG: Placebo
Heart Failure
UT Southwestern
A Multi-Institution Study of TGFβ Imprinted, Ex Vivo Expanded Universal Donor NK Cell Infusions as Adoptive Immunotherapy in Combination With Gemcitabine and Docetaxel in Patients With Relapsed or Refractory Pediatric Bone and Soft Tissue (TINKS)
The purpose of this study is to determine if the addition of infusions of a type of immune cell called a "natural killer", or NK cell to the sarcoma chemotherapy regimen GEM/DOX (gemcitabine and docetaxel) can improve outcomes in people with childhood sarcomas that have relapsed or not responded to prior therapies. The goals of this study are: * To determine the safety and efficacy of the addition of adoptive transfer of universal donor, TGFβ imprinted (TGFβi), expanded NK cells to the pediatric sarcoma salvage chemotherapeutic regimen gemcitabine/docetaxel (GEM/DOX) for treatment of relapsed and refractory pediatric sarcomas To determine the 6-month progression free survival achieved with this treatment in patients within cohorts of relapsed or refractory osteosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma and non-rhabdomyosarcoma soft tissue sarcoma. * To identify toxicities related to treatment with GEM/DOX + TGFβi expanded NK cells Participants will receive study drugs that include chemotherapy and NK cells in cycles; each cycle is 21 days long and you can receive up to 8 cycles. * Gemcitabine (GEM): via IV on Days 1 and 8 * Docetaxel (DOX): via IV on Day 8 * Prophylactic dexamethasone: Day 7-9 to prevent fluid retention and hypersensitivity reaction * Peg-filgrastim (PEG-GCSF) or biosimilar: Day 9 to help your white blood cell recover and allow more chemotherapy to be given * TGFβi NK cells: via IV on Day 12
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Avanthi Shah
ALL
2 Years to 40 Years old
PHASE1
NCT05634369
STU-2023-0706
Inclusion Criteria:
• Patients must be between the ages ≥ 2 years and ≤ 40 years of age and have had a relapsed or refractory osteosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma or non-rhabdomyosarcoma soft tissue sarcoma.
• Patients must have measurable disease using RECIST 1.1 criteria
• Patients must have had at least one and no more than four total lines of cytotoxic systemic treatment for relapse sarcoma. Local control with surgical resection or radiation therapy of the primary tumor and any metastatic sites as clinically indicated as standard of care per the treating physician must be considered prior to enrollment.
• Prior Therapy: Therapy may not have been received more recently than the timeframes defined below: * Myelosuppressive chemotherapy: Patients must not have received myelosuppressive therapy within 14 days of protocol therapy * Radiation: At least 2 weeks must have elapsed from the start of protocol therapy since local palliative XRT (small port); 4 weeks must have elapsed for all other radiation therapy * Hematopoietic Cell Transplant (HCT): Patients must have at least 6 weeks elapsed after autologous and allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplant * Biologic (anti-neoplastic agent): At least 7 days or 5 half-lives of the drug, whichever is longer, must have elapsed from the start of protocol therapy since the completion of therapy with a biologic agent. * Monoclonal antibodies: At least 3 weeks must have elapsed from the start of protocol therapy since prior therapy that included a monoclonal antibody. * Prior use of Gemcitabine and/or Docetaxel: Patients who have received these agents for prior treatment may be included if previous treatments were given ≥ 6 months prior to enrollment on this study, and there were no allergic reactions, pulmonary edema or fibrosis, Grade 3 or higher neuropathy or other non-hematologic Grade 4 adverse events related to gemcitabine and/or docetaxel therapies. 4) Performance status: Karnofsky ≥ 60 for patients ≥16 years of age. Lansky score of ≥ 60 for patients \< 16 years of age (see Appendix A) 5) Organ Function Requirements: Patients must have normal organ and marrow function within 7 days of starting protocol therapy as defined below: * Absolute Neutrophil Count ≥1000/mcL * Platelet count ≥100,000/mcL transfusion independent defined as no platelet transfusions within the last 72 hours * Total bilirubin \< 1.5x upper limit of normal for age * AST(SGOT)/ALT(SGPT) ≤ 2.5 x institutional upper limit of normal * Serum creatinine \< 1.5 x upper limit of normal based on age/gender (Table 3) OR creatinine clearance ≥70 mL/min/1.73 m2 for patients with creatinine levels above institutional normal * Shortening fraction ≥ 27% by ECHO OR ejection fraction of ≥ 50% by ECHO or gated radionuclide study * Echocardiogram done within 12 months of study entry will be acceptable. If patient has required anthracycline chemotherapy since last ECHO and enrollment on this study, echocardiogram should be repeated. * No evidence for dyspnea at rest, no chronic oxygen requirement, and room air pulse oximetry \>94% if there is a clinical indication for pulse oximetry 6) Neuropathy: Patients must have ≤ Grade 2 neuropathy at enrollment 7) Patients with seizure disorders may be enrolled if seizures are well controlled on anti-convulsant, with the exception of diazepam given its potential deleterious effects on NK cell activity. 8) Contraception: The effects of expanded NK cells on the developing human fetus are unknown. For this reason and because the chemotherapeutic preparative agents as well as other therapeutic agents used in this trial are known to be teratogenic, women of child-bearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry and for the duration of study participation. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she or her partner is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. Men treated or enrolled on this protocol must also agree to use adequate contraception prior to the study, for the duration of study participation, and 4 months after completion of preparatory regimen administration. 9) All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must have the ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent/assent document.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Patients who are receiving any other investigational agents.
• Patients must not be receiving any additional medicines being given for the specific purpose of treating cancer
• Patients with a history of allergic reactions attributed to docetaxel, gemcitabine, or peg-filgrastim or biosimilar
• Patients who have received any prior cellular therapies, such as CAR-T cells or other expanded or manufactured cellular products.
• Patients with bone marrow only disease are not eligible for this study.
• Patients with any of the following "Intermediate" (rarely metastasizing) or "malignant" Grade 2 or Grade 3 tumors of any size, as defined in the WHO Classification of Soft Tissue Tumors are not eligible for this study: * So-called fibrohistiocytic tumors - plexiform fibrohistiocytic tumor, giant cell tumor of soft tissues * Fibroblastic/myofibroblastic tumors - solitary fibrous tumor, malignant solitary fibrous tumor, inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor, low grade myofibroblastic sarcoma, myxoinflammatory fibroblastic sarcoma, atypical myxoinflammatory fibroblastic tumor, myxofibrosarcoma, low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma, sclerosing epithelioid fibrosarcoma * Tumors of uncertain differentiation - epithelioid sarcoma, alveolar soft part sarcoma, clear cell sarcoma of soft tissue, angiomatoid fibrous histiocytoma, ossifying fibromyxoid tumour, myoepithelioma, myoepithelial carcinoma, extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma, neoplasms with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation (PEComa), initial sarcoma, atypical fibroxanthoma, mixed tumor NOS, phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor, malignant ossifying fibromyxoid tumor, malignant mixed tumor, malignant phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor * Chondro-osseous tumors - extraskeletal osteosarcoma * Pericytic (perivascular) tumors - malignant glomus tumor * Nerve sheath tumors - malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, malignant granular cell tumor, epithelioid malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, malignant Triton tumor * Undifferentiated sarcomas (with a specific pathologic category in the WHO classification) - undifferentiated round cell sarcoma, undifferentiated epithelioid sarcoma, undifferentiated spindle cell sarcoma
• Patients who, in the judgment of the treating physician, has tumors near critical structures for which transient swelling would cause substantial symptoms, such as tumor within the bowel mucosa
• Patients with CNS metastatic disease will not be eligible for this study.
• Concomitant Medications: * Due to their effect on NK cell function, systemic corticosteroids outside of the supportive dexamethasone given from day 7 through 9 should be used ONLY for life-threatening conditions (i.e., life-threatening allergic reactions and anaphylaxis such as bronchospasm, stridor) unresponsive to other measures. The use of dexamethasone as an anti-emetic is not permitted. Corticosteroid therapy can be used as a premedication for transfusion in patients known to have a history of transfusion reactions or for treatment of an unexpected transfusion reaction (hydrocortisone 2 mg/kg or less or an equivalent dose of an alternative corticosteroids). The use of steroids during protocol therapy other than the study- required prophylactic dexamethasone doses requires clear justification and documentation of use for a life-threatening condition. * The following are also prohibited while on study treatment * Strong CYP3A4 inducers. Because the lists of these agents are constantly changing, it is important to regularly consult a frequently-updated list such as http://medicine.iupui.edu/clinpharm/ddis/; medical reference texts such as the Physicians' Desk Reference may also provide this information. * Diazepam * Chemotherapeutic agents other than the study drugs
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to: * ongoing or active infection * psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• Pregnancy or Breast-Feeding: Pregnant or breast-feeding woman will not be entered on this study due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies with Gemcitabine and Docetaxel
• HIV Infection: HIV-positive patients on combination antiretroviral therapy are ineligible because of the potential for pharmacokinetic interactions with the study medications. In addition, these patients are at increased risk of lethal infections when treated with marrow-suppressive therapy. Appropriate studies will be undertaken in patients receiving combination antiretroviral therapy when indicated
• Patients who in the opinion of the investigator may not be able to comply with the safety monitoring requirements of the study are not eligible.
BIOLOGICAL: GEM/DOX + TGFBi expanded NK cells
Pediatric Sarcoma, Refractory, Pediatric Sarcoma, Relapsed, Bones and Joints, Sarcoma, Soft Tissue
Children’s Health
FXR Effect on Severe Alcohol-Associated Hepatitis (FRESH) Study (FRESH)
The purpose of this trial is to assess dose related safety, efficacy, and pharmacokinetics (PK) of INT-787 in participants with severe alcohol-associated hepatitis (sAH).
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Leticia.Rodriguez@UTSouthwestern.edu
Thomas Cotter
ALL
18 Years to 65 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05639543
STU-2023-0651
Inclusion Criteria:
• Males or females aged 18 to 65 years (inclusive)
• Clinical diagnosis of sAH based on all the following:
• History of ongoing excess alcohol (\>60 g/day \[male\] or \>40 g/day \[female\]) use for ≥6 months, with \<60 days of abstinence prior to the onset of jaundice
• Serum total bilirubin \>3.0 mg/dL
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) ≥50 U/L
• AST/Aspartate aminotransferase (ALT) ratio ≥1.5
• Onset of jaundice within prior 8 weeks
• Cohort 1 through Cohort 4: Maddrey's Discriminant Factor (mDF) ≥32 and ≤70
• Cohort 5 and Cohort 6: mDF ≥32
• Cohort 1 through Cohort 4: MELD score ≥18 to ≤25 (inclusive) and Cohort 5 and Cohort 6: MELD score ≥21 to ≤30
• Female participants must be postmenopausal, surgically sterile, or, if premenopausal (and not surgically sterile), be prepared to use ≥1 highly effective method of contraception from the initiation of Screening and for 90 days after the last dose of investigational product as follows: * Surgical sterilization (bilateral tubal occlusion, etc.) * Placement of an intrauterine device (IUD) or intrauterine system (e.g., intrauterine hormone-releasing system \[IUS\]) * Combined (estrogen and progesterone containing) hormonal contraceptive associated with inhibition of ovulation: * Oral * Intravaginal * Transdermal * Progesterone-only hormonal contraception associated with inhibition of ovulation: * Oral * Injectable * Implantable * Sexual abstinence: When in line with the preferred and usual lifestyle of the participant, is defined as avoiding all types of activity that could result in conception (pregnancy) from the initiation of Screening and until at least 90 days after the last dose of investigational product
• Male participants who are sexually active with female partners of childbearing potential must agree to use a condom with spermicide and to use 1 other approved method of highly effective contraception from the initiation of Screening and until at least 90 days after the dose of investigational product as listed in Inclusion Criteria #3.
• Male participants must refrain from sperm donation from the initiation of Screening and until at least 90 days after the last dose of investigational product
• Must provide written informed consent and agree to comply with the study protocol. In participants with hepatic encephalopathy which may impair decision-making, consent will be obtained per hospital procedures (e.g., by Legally Authorized Representative).
• Participants must agree to participate in an alcohol use disorder program during the study period, as recommended by the local institution's addiction medicine specialists, including post-hospitalization
Exclusion Criteria:
• Participants taking products containing obeticholic acid in the 30 days prior to randomization
• Participants taking \>2 doses of systemic corticosteroids within 30 days prior to randomization.
• Participants who have been inpatient at a referral hospital for \>7 days prior to transfer.
• Pregnancy, planned pregnancy, potential for pregnancy (e.g., unwillingness to use effective birth control during the study), or current or planned breast feeding.
• Abstinence from alcohol consumption for \>2 months before Day 1.
• AST or ALT \>400 U/L.
• Cohort 1 through Cohort 4: mDF \<32 or \>70.
• Cohort 5 and Cohort 6: mDF \<32
• Cohort 1 through Cohort 4: MELD score \<18 or \>25.
• Cohort 5 and Cohort 6: MELD \<21 or \>30
• Other causes of liver disease including chronic hepatitis B (hepatitis B surface antigen \[HBsAg\] positive), chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV) RNA positive, drug-induced liver injury (DILI), biliary obstruction, and autoimmune liver disease.
• Current or previous history of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
• History of liver transplantation or currently listed for liver transplant
• Untreated infection (e.g., has not initiated appropriate medical treatment for infection)
• Known positivity for human immunodeficiency virus infection
• Uncontrolled gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding or controlled GI bleeding that was associated with shock or required transfusion of more than 3 units of blood within 7 days of Screening.
• Kidney injury defined as a serum creatinine \>133 μmol/L (\>1.5 mg/dL) or the requirement for renal replacement therapy whether prior to or after study screening.
• Portal vein thrombosis
• Acute pancreatitis or acute gallbladder disease (e.g., cholecystitis)
• Severe, on-going associated disease (e.g., cardiac failure, acute myocardial infarction, severe cardiac arrhythmias, severe pulmonary disease, neurologic disease)
• Malignancy within the 2 years prior to Screening, with the exception of specific cancers that have been cured by surgical resection (e.g., basal cell skin cancer). Participants under evaluation for possible malignancy are not eligible.
• Positive urine drug screen (amphetamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, cocaine, and opiates) except tetrahydrocannabinol or in the setting of documented prescription medications (e.g., opiates, benzodiazepines, amphetamines, barbiturates), which also include medications prescribed as part of in-patient management. Participants being treated for alcohol withdrawal may be exempt for this reason, verify with Medical Monitor.
• Participated in a clinical research study and received any active investigational product being evaluated for the treatment of sAH within 3 months before Day 1
• Participation in a study of another investigational medicine or device within 30 days before Screening
• Any other condition or clinical laboratory result that, in the opinion of the Investigator, might confound the results, or would impede compliance or hinder completion of the study
• Participants treated in the Dose Escalation Phase (Cohort 1 through Cohort 4) are not eligible for enrollment into an Extension Cohort (Cohort 5 and Cohort 6), and participants treated in Cohort 5 are not eligible for enrollment into Cohort 6.
DRUG: INT-787, DRUG: Placebo
Alcohol Associated Hepatitis, Liver
Severe Alcohol associated Hepatitis (sAH), Alcoholic Hepatitis (AH), Hepatitis, Alcoholic
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
A Study to Assess Effectiveness and Safety of Deucravacitinib Compared With Placebo in Participants With Active Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) (POETYK SLE-1)
The purpose of this study is to evaluate the effectiveness and safety of deucravacitinib compared with placebo in an active moderate to severe Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) population.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Margaret.Wright@UTSouthwestern.edu
David Karp
ALL
18 Years to 75 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05617677
STU-2022-0987
Inclusion Criteria
* Diagnosed with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) at least 24 weeks before the screening visit.
* Meet the European Alliance of Associations for Rheumatology (EULAR)/American College of Rheumatology (ACR) 2019 classification criteria for SLE.
* One of the following: positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) ≥ 1:80 at screening OR positive anti dsDNA OR positive anti Smith (anti Sm) as determined by the central laboratory at screening.
* Total Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Disease Activity Index-2K (SLEDAI-2K) score ≥ 6 points and clinical SLEDAI 2K score ≥ 4 points with joint involvement, and/or cutaneous vasculitis, and/or rash.
* Lupus headache, alopecia, organic brain syndrome, and mucosal ulcers must be recorded on SLEDAI 2K, if indicated, but do not count toward the points required for screening at entry.
* At least one SLE background therapy (immunosuppressant and/or antimalarial) is required for ≥ 12 weeks before the screening visit, must be at a stable dose for ≥ 8 weeks before the screening visit, and must remain stable until randomization and throughout study participation.
* Oral corticosteroid (OCS; prednisone or equivalent) background therapy is permitted but not required. For participants taking OCS, the dose must be stable for ≥ 2 weeks before the screening visit, cannot exceed 30 mg/day at screening, and must remain stable until the Week 4 visit. Participants can be on an OCS as well as an antimalarial and/or an immunosuppressant.
Exclusion Criteria
* Diagnosis of drug-induced SLE rather than idiopathic SLE.
* Other autoimmune diseases (eg, multiple sclerosis, psoriasis, inflammatory bowel disease, etc.) are excluded. Participants with type I autoimmune diabetes mellitus, thyroid autoimmune disease, Celiac disease, or secondary Sjögren's syndrome are not excluded.
* SLE overlap syndromes including, but not limited to, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, and mixed connective tissue disease are excluded.
* Active or unstable lupus neuropsychiatric manifestations, including, but not limited to, any condition defined by BILAG A criteria.
* Active, severe Class III, and IV, lupus nephritis that requires or may require treatment with cytotoxic agents or high-dose CS.
* History of congenital or acquired immunodeficiency.
* Known active infection, or any major episode of infection requiring hospitalization or treatment with parenteral (intramuscular or IV) antimicrobial agents (eg, antibiotics antiviral, antifungal, or antiparasitic agents) within 30 days of randomization, or treatment with oral antimicrobial agents within 2 weeks of randomization.
* Currently on any therapy for chronic infection (eg, pneumocystis, herpes zoster, cytomegalovirus, invasive bacterial or fungal infections, or atypical mycobacteria).
* Taking more than 1 immunosuppressant at screening.
* Other protocol-defined Inclusion/Exclusion criteria apply.
DRUG: Deucravacitinib, OTHER: Placebo
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Autoimmune Diseases, Immune System Diseases, Connective Tissue Diseases, Immune-mediated Diseases, Active Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, Lupus, SLE, Deucravacitinib, Tyk2, POETYK, POETYK SLE
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
FORAGER-1: A Study of LOXO-435 (LY3866288) in Participants With Cancer With a Change in a Gene Called FGFR3 (FORAGER-1)
The main purpose of this study is to learn more about the safety, side effects, and effectiveness of LOXO-435 by itself or when it is combined with other standard medicines that treat cancer. LOXO-435 may be used to treat cancer of the cells that line the urinary system and other solid tumor cancers that have a change in a particular gene (known as the FGFR3 gene). Participation could last up to 30 months (2.5 years) and possibly longer if the disease does not get worse.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Tian Zhang
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE1
NCT05614739
STU-2023-0080
Inclusion Criteria:
* Have solid tumor cancer with an FGFR3 pathway alteration on molecular testing in tumor or blood sample that is deemed as actionable
* Cohort A1: Presence of an alteration in FGFR3 or its ligands
* Cohort A2, B2, B3, and B5: Histological diagnosis of urothelial cancer (UC) that is locally advanced or metastatic with a qualifying FGFR3 genetic alteration
* Cohorts B1 and B4: Histological diagnosis of urothelial cancer that is locally advanced or metastatic
* Cohort C1: Must have histological diagnosis of a non-urothelial solid tumor malignancy that is locally advanced or metastatic with a qualifying FGFR3 genetic alteration
* Measurability of disease:
* Cohort A1 and B3: Measurable or non-measurable disease as defined by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors v 1.1 (RECIST v1.1)
* Cohorts A2, B1, B2, B4, B5, and C1: Measurable disease required as defined by RECIST v1.1
* Have adequate tumor tissue sample available. Participants with inadequate tissue sample availability may still be considered for enrollment upon review
* Have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1 for Cohorts A1, A2, B3, and B5
* Less than or equal to 2 for Cohorts B1, B2, B4, and C1
* Prior Systemic Therapy Criteria:
* Cohort A1/C1: Participant has received all standard therapies for which the participant was deemed to be an appropriate candidate by the treating Investigator; OR the participant is refusing the remaining most appropriate standard of care treatment; OR there is no standard therapy available for the disease. There is no restriction on number of prior therapies.
* Cohort A2, B2, B3 participants must have received at least one prior regimen, and cohorts B1 and B4 participants at least 2 prior regimens, in the locally advanced or metastatic setting
* There is no restriction on number of prior therapies
* Cohort B5: Participants have not received prior systemic therapy for locally advanced or metastatic UC
* FGFR inhibitor specific requirements:
* Cohort A1/A2/B3: Prior FGFR inhibitor treatment is permitted but not required
* Cohort B1/B4: Participants must have been previously treated with erdafitinib
* Cohort B2, B5, and C1: Participants must be FGFR inhibitor naïve
Exclusion Criteria:
* Participants with primary central nervous system (CNS) malignancy
* Untreated or uncontrolled CNS metastases
* Current evidence of corneal keratopathy or retinal disorder. Individuals with asymptomatic ophthalmic conditions may be eligible
* Any serious unresolved toxicities from prior therapy
* Significant cardiovascular disease
* Prolongation of the QT interval corrected for heart rate using Fridericia's formula (QTcF)
* Active uncontrolled systemic infection or other clinically significant medical conditions
* Participants who are pregnant, lactating, or plan to breastfeed during the study or within 6 months of the last dose of study treatment. Participants who have stopped breastfeeding may be enrolled DRUG: LOXO-435, DRUG: Pembrolizumab, DRUG: enfortumab vedotin
Urinary Bladder Neoplasms, Neoplasm Metastasis, Ureteral Neoplasms, Anus, Bones and Joints, Breast - Female, Breast - Male, Cervix, Colon, Corpus Uteri, Esophagus, Eye and Orbit, Kaposis sarcoma, Kidney, Larynx, Lip, Oral Cavity and Pharynx, Liver, Lung/Thoracic, Melanoma, skin, Other Digestive Organ, Other Endocrine System, Other Female Genital, Other Male Genital, Other Respiratory and Intrathoracic Organs, Other Skin, Other Urinary, Ovary, Pancreas, Prostate, Rectum, Small Intestine, Soft Tissue, Stomach, Thyroid, Unknown Sites, Urinary Bladder
Bladder Cancer, Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Urinary Bladder Cancer, Urinary Tract Cancer, Renal Pelvis Cancer, Ureter Cancer
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Frespaciguat (MK-5475) INSIGNIA-PH-COPD: A Study of the Efficacy and Safety of Frespaciguat (an Inhaled sGC Stimulator) in Adults With PH-COPD
Researchers are looking for ways to treat pulmonary hypertension (PH) caused by chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The goal of the study is to learn if people who take frespaciguat can walk farther in 6 minutes at Week 24 compared to people who take placebo.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Carlos.StojaMiholich@UTSouthwestern.edu
Kelly Chin
ALL
40 Years to 85 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05612035
STU-2023-0403
The key inclusion and exclusion criteria include but are not limited to the following:
Inclusion Criteria:
* Has Group 3.1 pulmonary hypertension chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (PH-COPD) as defined by the Clinical Classification of Pulmonary Hypertension.
* Has a right heart catheterization (RHC) at screening or historical RHC within 12 months before screening that meets hemodynamic criteria.
* Has a physician diagnosis of obstructive lung disease on pulmonary function testing (PFT) performed at screening.
* Has a WHO Functional Class assessment of Class II to IV.
* If on supplemental oxygen, the regimen must be stable.
* Has stable and optimized chronic, baseline COPD-specific therapy.
* If on PDE5 inhibitor, has stable concomitant use (initiated at least 3 months prior to randomization and no change in drug or dosage for at least 3 months prior to randomization) and changes to PDE5 inhibitor dosing is not anticipated during the 24 week Base Period.
* If on antihypertensives and/or a diuretic regimen has stable concomitant use.
* If on anticoagulants has stable concomitant use.
* Is of any sex/gender from 40 to 85 years of age inclusive.
* Female is not pregnant or breastfeeding, and is not of childbearing potential or uses acceptable contraceptive method or abstains from sexual intercourse, or has a negative highly sensitive pregnancy test within 24 hours before the first dose of study intervention, or whose history and sexual activity has been reviewed by the investigator.
Exclusion criteria:
* Has Group 1 pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), Groups 2, 4 or 5 pulmonary hypertension (PH).
* Has non-COPD related Group 3 PH.
* Has evidence of untreated more than mild obstructive sleep apnea.
* Has significant left heart disease.
* Expects to receive a lung and/or heart transplant from screening through the end of the 24 week Base Period.
* Has evidence of a resting oxygen saturation (SpO2) \< 88%.
* Has experienced a moderate or severe COPD exacerbation within 2 months before randomization.
* Has experienced right heart failure within 2 months before randomization.
* Has uncontrolled tachyarrhythmia.
* Has acute coronary syndrome, undergone coronary artery bypass graft, or percutaneous coronary intervention within 2 months before randomization.
* Has evidence of significant chronic renal insufficiency.
* Has evidence of chronic liver disease, portal hypertension, cirrhosis, or hepatic abnormalities.
* Initiated a pulmonary rehabilitation program within 2 months before randomization.
* Has impairments that limit the ability to perform 6MWT.
* Has history of cancer.
* Is a user of illicit drugs or has a recent history of drug/alcohol abuse or dependence.
* Has used PAH-specific therapies within 2 months of randomization. DRUG: Frespaciguat, DRUG: Placebo
Pulmonary Hypertension, Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
UT Southwestern
Selinexor in Maintenance Therapy After Systemic Therapy for Participants With p53 Wild-Type, Advanced or Recurrent Endometrial Carcinoma (XPORT-EC-042)
The purpose of this study is to evaluate the efficacy and safety of selinexor as a maintenance treatment in patients with p53 wt endometrial carcinoma (EC), who have achieved a partial response (PR) or complete response (CR) (per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors version 1.1 \[RECIST v 1.1\]) after completing at least 12 weeks of platinum-based therapy. A total of 220 participants will be enrolled in the study and randomized in a 1:1 ratio to maintenance therapy with either selinexor or placebo.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
David Miller
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE3
NCT05611931
STU-2023-0654
Inclusion Criteria:
* At least 18 years of age at the time of signing informed consent.
* Histologically confirmed EC including: endometrioid, serous, undifferentiated, and carcinosarcoma.
* TP53 wt assessed by next generation sequencing (NGS), evaluated by a central vendor.
* Completed a single line, at least 12 weeks of platinum-based therapy (not including adjuvant or neoadjuvant therapy for Stage I-III disease) and achieved confirmed partial or complete response (PR or CR) by imaging, according to RECIST version 1.1. The participants should have received treatment for:
Primary Stage IV disease, defined as:
* had a primary or later debulking surgery during first-line platinum-based therapy with R0 resection (R0 resection indicates a macroscopic complete resection of all visible tumor) and achieved CR after at least 12 weeks platinum-based therapy, OR
* had a primary or later debulking surgery during first-line platinum-based therapy with R1 resection (R1 resection indicates incomplete removal of all macroscopic disease) and achieved PR or CR after at least 12 weeks platinum-based chemotherapy, OR
* had no surgery and achieved PR or CR after at least 12 weeks platinum-based chemotherapy
OR
At first relapse (i.e., relapse after primary therapy including surgery and/or chemotherapy and/or immunotherapy for Stage I-IV disease), defined as:
* had Stage I - III disease at diagnosis and received, at initial diagnosis, adjuvant chemotherapy and relapsed later. Participants should have PR or CR after at least 12 weeks of platinum-based chemotherapy compared with the start of this chemotherapy at the time of relapse,
* had Stage I-III disease at diagnosis and did not receive adjuvant chemotherapy at initial diagnosis and relapsed later. Participants should have PR or CR after at least 12 weeks of platinum-based chemotherapy compared with the start of this chemotherapy at the time of relapse, OR
* had Stage IV disease at diagnosis and received initially chemotherapy with or without surgery and relapsed later. At the time of relapse, participants should have PR or CR after at least 12 weeks of platinum-based chemotherapy compared with the start of this chemotherapy at the time of relapse.
* Previous treatment with anti-programmed cell death protein 1(PD-1) or anti-programmed death-ligand 1(PD-L1) monoclonal antibody and concomitant biologic agents (e.g., bevacizumab, trastuzumab) is allowed.
* Must be able to initiate study drug 3 to 8 weeks after completion of their final dose of chemotherapy.
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0-1.
* Participants must have adequate bone marrow function and organ function within 2 weeks before starting study drug as defined by the following laboratory criteria:
* Hepatic function: total bilirubin up to less than (\<) 3\*upper limit of normal (ULN); alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) less than or equal to (\<=) 2.5\*ULN in participants without liver metastasis. For participants with known liver involvement of their tumor: AST and ALT (\<=) 5\*ULN
* Hematopoietic function within 1 week: Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) greater than or equal to (\>=) 1.5\*10\^9/liter (L); platelet count \>= 100\*10\^9/L; hemoglobin \>= 9.0 gram per deciliter (g/dL) per local laboratory results
* Renal function: estimated creatinine clearance (CrCl) of \>= 20 milliliter per minute (mL/min), calculated using the standard local formula, as applicable
• In the opinion of the Investigator, the participant must: * Have a life expectancy of at least 12 weeks, and * Be fit to receive investigational therapy * Premenopausal females of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test (serum β-human chorionic gonadotropin test) prior to the first dose of study drug. Female participants of childbearing potential must agree to use highly effective methods of contraception throughout the study and for 90 days following the last dose of study drug. * Written informed consent signed in accordance with federal, local, and institutional guidelines prior to the first screening procedure.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Participants meeting any of the following exclusion criteria are not eligible to enroll in this study:
* Has any uterine sarcomas (carcinosarcomas - not excluded), clear cell or small cell carcinoma with neuroendocrine differentiation
* Received a blood or platelet transfusion during the 2 weeks prior to Cycle 1 Day 1 (C1D1). Participants' hemoglobin must be assessed within 2 weeks of screening and at least 1 week post transfusion
* Concurrent systemic steroid therapy higher than physiologic dose (\> 10 milligram per day \[mg/day\] of prednisone or equivalent). Systemic steroid therapy as pre-medication for taxane is allowed
* Insufficient time since or not recovered from procedures or anti-cancer therapy, defined as:
* Not recovered from major surgery \<= 28 days prior to Day 1 dosing. Minor procedures, such as biopsies, dental work, or placement of a port or intravenous (IV) line for infusion are permitted
* Having ongoing clinically significant anti-cancer therapy-related toxicities CTCAE Grade \> 1, with the exception of alopecia. In specific cases, participants whose toxicity has stabilized or with Grade 2 non-hematologic toxicities can be allowed following documented approval by the Sponsor's Medical Monitor
* Palliative radiotherapy within 14 days of the intended C1D1. Palliative radiotherapy may be permitted for symptomatic control of pain from bone metastases, provided that the radiotherapy does not involve target lesions, and the reason for the radiotherapy does not reflect evidence of disease progression.
* Any gastrointestinal dysfunctions that could interfere with the absorption of selinexor (e.g., bowel obstruction, inability to swallow tablets, malabsorption syndrome, unresolved nausea, vomiting, diarrhea CTCAE v 5.0 \> grade 1).
* Participants unable to tolerate two forms of antiemetics for at least 2 cycles will not be eligible for the trial.
* Active, ongoing or uncontrolled active infection requiring parenteral antibiotics, antivirals, or antifungals within 1 week of screening.
* Serious psychiatric or medical condition that could interfere with participation in the study or in the opinion of the Investigator would make study involvement unreasonably hazardous.
* Previous treatment with an XPO1 inhibitor.
* Stable disease or PD on the post-chemotherapy scan or clinical evidence of progression prior to randomization.
* Participants who received any systemic anticancer therapy including investigational agents \<= 3 weeks (or \<= 5 half-lives of the drug \[whichever is shorter\]) prior to C1D1.
* Major injuries or surgery within 14 days prior to C1D1 and/or planned major surgery during the on-treatment study period.
* Other malignant disease with disease-free \<= 3 years except: curatively treated carcinoma in situ of the cervix, basal cell carcinoma of the skin, or ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) of the breast.
* History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to selinexor, or other agents used in the study.
* Active brain metastases (e.g., stable for \< 8 weeks, no adequate previous treatment with radiotherapy and/or surgery, symptomatic, requiring treatment with anti-convulsant therapy. Corticoid therapy is allowed if administered as stable dose for at least 1 month before randomization).
* Females who are pregnant or lactating.
* Any other life-threatening illness, active medical condition, organ system dysfunction, or serious active psychiatric issue which, in the Investigator\'s opinion, could compromise the participant's safety or the participant's ability to remain compliant with study procedures. DRUG: Selinexor, DRUG: Matching Placebo for selinexor
Endometrial Cancer, Corpus Uteri
Selinexor, KPT-330, Advanced or Recurrent Endometrial Carcinoma, XPORT-EC, ENGOT-EN20, GOG-3083, XPORT-EC-042, p53 wild-type, Tumor protein 53 wild-type
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Strategies and Treatments for Respiratory Infections & Viral Emergencies (STRIVE): Shionogi Protease Inhibitor (Ensitrelvir)
Treatments are needed to improve outcomes among patients hospitalized for COVID-19, including direct-acting antiviral (DAA) agents to mitigate the pathology driven by ongoing viral replication. This trial will evaluate S-217622 (ensitrelvir), an anti-SARS-CoV2 3C-like protease inhibitor (PI) developed by Shionogi \&; Co. Ltd. The study design is a randomized, placebo-controlled, multi-center international clinical trial that will evaluate the clinical efficacy of ensitrelvir when given in addition to standard of care (SOC) for inpatients with COVID-19. The SOC will be determined by local established guidelines and may include additional DAA (e.g., remdesivir) and immunomodulatory treatment strategies. Certain SOC treatments will be pre-specified prior to randomization.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Olakunbi.Latona@UTSouthwestern.edu
Mamta Jain
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE3
NCT05605093
STU-2022-1124
Inclusion Criteria:
* Age ≥18 years.
* Informed consent for trial participation.
* Hospital admission (or boarding in an emergency department or other area awaiting hospital admission) with signs and/or symptoms of a respiratory infection.
* Confirmation of SARS-CoV2 infection by nucleic acid test (NAT) or equivalent non- NAT test \[list of approved tests is in the PIM\] collected within the prior 14 days.
* Onset of symptoms attributable to SARS-CoV2 infection occurred within 14 days before randomization.
* Hospitalized for the management of COVID-19, with signs and/or symptoms suggestive of lower respiratory tract infection.
Exclusion Criteria:
* The patient is expected to be discharged from the hospital within the next 24 hours.
* Medical condition other than the acute respiratory infection (and its manifestations) that is likely to result in death within 7 days of randomization.
* Use of a strong CYP3A inducer within 14 days prior to enrollment
* Moribund condition, defined as prior cardiac arrest during this hospitalization and life expectancy less than 48 hours of randomization.
* Patient undergoing comfort care measures only such that treatment focuses on end-of- life symptom management over prolongation of life.
* Expected inability or unwillingness to participate in study procedures.
* In the opinion of the investigator, participation in a trial is not in the best interest of the patient.
* Allergy to investigational agent or vehicle
* Use of a concomitant medication that is contraindicated due to a drug-drug interaction with S-217622
* Moderate to severe hepatic impairment (i.e., Child-Pugh class B or C) or acute liver failure.
* Known estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGRF) \<30 mL/min/1.73m 2
* Continuous renal replacement therapy or chronic dialysis
* Current pregnancy
* Current breastfeeding and unwillingness to defer breastfeeding for 30 days after the last dose of investigational agent.
* Women of child-bearing potential who are unwilling to abstain from sexual intercourse with men or practice appropriate contraception through 30 days from the last dose of the investigational agent.
* Men who are unwilling to abstain from sexual intercourse with women of child- bearing potential or to use barrier contraception through 30 days from the last dose of the investigational agent.
* Inability to take investigational agent in tablet form by mouth. DRUG: Shionogi Protease Inhibitor (S-217622), DRUG: placebo
COVID-19, Other
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
A Trial Comparing Unrelated Donor BMT With IST for Pediatric and Young Adult Patients With Severe Aplastic Anemia (TransIT, BMT CTN 2202) (TransIT)
Severe Aplastic Anemia (SAA) is a rare condition in which the body stops producing enough new blood cells. SAA can be cured with immune suppressive therapy or a bone marrow transplant. Regular treatment for patients with aplastic anemia who have a matched sibling (brother or sister), or family donor is a bone marrow transplant. Patients without a matched family donor normally are treated with immune suppressive therapy (IST). Match unrelated donor (URD) bone marrow transplant (BMT) is used as a secondary treatment in patients who did not get better with IST, had their disease come back, or a new worse disease replaced it (like leukemia). This trial will compare time from randomization to failure of treatment or death from any cause of IST versus URD BMT when used as initial therapy to treat SAA. The trial will also assess whether health-related quality of life and early markers of fertility differ between those randomized to URD BMT or IST, as well as assess the presence of marrow failure-related genes and presence of gene mutations associated with MDS or leukemia and the change in gene signatures after treatment in both study arms. This study treatment does not include any investigational drugs. The medicines and procedures in this study are standard for treatment of SAA.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Laurie.Rodgers-Augustyniak@childrens.com
Tiffany Simms-Waldrip
ALL
0 Years to 25 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05600426
STU-2022-0964
Inclusion Criteria:
To be eligible to participate in the randomized trial, an individual must meet all the following criteria:
• Provision of signed and dated informed consent form for the randomized trial by patient and/or legal guardian.
• Age ≤25 years old at time of randomized trial consent.
• Confirmed diagnosis of idiopathic SAA, defined as:
• Bone marrow cellularity \<25%, or \<30% hematopoietic cells.
• Two of three of the following (in peripheral blood): neutrophils \<0.5 x 10\^9/L, platelets \<20 x 10\^9/L, absolute reticulocyte count \<60 x 10\^9/L or hemoglobin \<8 g/dL.
• No suitable fully matched related donor available (minimum 6/6 match for HLA-A and B at intermediate or high resolution and DRB1 at high resolution using DNA based typing).
• At least 2 unrelated donors noted on NMDP search who are well matched (9/10 or 10/10 for HLA-A, B, C, DRB1, and DQB1 using high resolution).
• In the treating physician's opinion, no obvious contraindications precluding them from BMT or IST.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Presence of Inherited bone marrow failure syndromes (IBMFS). The diagnosis of Fanconi anemia must be excluded by diepoxybutane (DEB) or equivalent testing on peripheral blood or marrow. Telomere length testing should be sent on all patients to exclude Dyskeratosis Congenita (DC), but if results are delayed or unavailable and there are no clinical manifestations of DC, patients may enroll. If patients have clinical characteristics suspicious for Shwachman-Diamond syndrome, this disorder should be excluded by pancreatic isoamylase testing or gene mutation analysis (note: pancreatic isoamylase testing is not useful in children \<3). Other testing per center may be performed to exclude IBMFS.
• Clonal cytogenetic abnormalities or Fluorescence In-Situ Hybridization (FISH) pattern consistent with pre- myelodysplastic syndrome (pre-MDS) or MDS on marrow examination.
• Known severe allergy to ATG.
• Prior allogeneic or autologous stem cell transplant.
• Prior solid organ transplant.
• Infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
• Active Hepatitis B or C. This only needs to be excluded in patients where there is clinical suspicion of hepatitis (e.g., elevated LFTs).
• Female patients who are pregnant or breast-feeding.
• Prior malignancies except resected basal cell carcinoma or treated cervical carcinoma in situ.
• Disease modifying treatment prior to study enrollment, including but not limited to use of androgens, eltrombopag, romiplostim, or immune suppression. Note: Supportive care measures such as G-CSF, blood transfusion support and antibiotics are allowable
DRUG: cyclosporine, PROCEDURE: Matched Unrelated Donor Hematopoetic Stem Cell Transplant, DRUG: horse anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG), DRUG: rabbit anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG), DRUG: Methotrexate, DRUG: Fludarabine, DRUG: Cyclophosphamide, RADIATION: low-dose total body irradiation (TBI), PROCEDURE: Immunosuppressive Therapy (IST)
Severe Aplastic Anemia
Children’s Health
Studying the Effect of Levocarnitine in Protecting the Liver From Chemotherapy for Leukemia or Lymphoma
This phase III trial compares the effect of adding levocarnitine to standard chemotherapy versus (vs.) standard chemotherapy alone in protecting the liver in patients with leukemia or lymphoma. Asparaginase is part of the standard of care chemotherapy for the treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), lymphoblastic lymphoma (LL), and mixed phenotype acute leukemia (MPAL). However, in adolescent and young adults (AYA) ages 15-39 years, liver toxicity from asparaginase is common and often prevents delivery of planned chemotherapy, thereby potentially compromising outcomes. Some groups of people may also be at higher risk for liver damage due to the presence of fat in the liver even before starting chemotherapy. Patients who are of Japanese descent, Native Hawaiian, Hispanic or Latinx may be at greater risk for liver damage from chemotherapy for this reason. Carnitine is a naturally occurring nutrient that is part of a typical diet and is also made by the body. Carnitine is necessary for metabolism and its deficiency or absence is associated with liver and other organ damage. Levocarnitine is a drug used to provide extra carnitine. Laboratory and real-world usage of the dietary supplement levocarnitine suggests its potential to prevent or reduce liver toxicity from asparaginase. The overall goal of this study is to determine whether adding levocarnitine to standard of care chemotherapy will reduce the chance of developing severe liver damage from asparaginase chemotherapy in ALL, LL and/or MPAL patients.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Kathleen Ludwig
ALL
15 Years to 40 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05602194
STU-2023-1026
Inclusion Criteria:
* \>= 15 and \< 40 years at time of diagnosis
* Newly diagnosed B-ALL, T-ALL, lymphoblastic lymphoma (LLy), or mixed-phenotype acute leukemia/lymphoma (MPAL)
* Note: Philadelphia chromosome (PH)+ and PH-like acute leukemia are eligible (use of tyrosine kinase inhibitors \[TKI\] or CRLF2- targeted concomitant medication must be documented, if used)
* Conjugated bilirubin =\< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age, regardless of baseline bilirubin (within 7 days prior to enrollment), and
* Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (ALT) =\< 225 U/L (=\< 5x ULN) (within 7 days prior to enrollment), and
* Note: For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L and serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (AST) to 50 U/L regardless of baseline
* SGOT (AST) =\< 250 U/L (=\< 5x ULN) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Note: For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L and SGOT (AST) to 50 U/L regardless of baseline
* For patients receiving ursodiol prior to enrollment, laboratory values must meet above criteria off ursodiol for 7 days
* PEDIATRIC PATIENTS (AGE 15-17 years):
* A 24-hour urine creatinine clearance \>= 30 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) OR
* A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) \>= 30 mL/min/1.73 m\^2. GFR must be performed using one of the following methods (within 7 days prior to enrollment):
* 1. Estimated GFR (eGFR) \>= 30 mL/min/1.73 m\^2.
* An online calculator is available through the National Kidney Foundation at https://www.kidney.org/professionals/kdoqi/gfr_calculatorped
* 2. Measured GFR \>= 30 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 (any age). If measured GFR is used, it must be performed using direct measurement with a nuclear blood sampling method or small molecule clearance method (iothalamate or other molecule per institutional standard).
* ADULT PATIENTS (AGE 18 YEARS OR OLDER): Creatinine clearance \>= 30 mL/min, as estimated by the Cockcroft and Gault formula or a 24-hour urine collection (within 7 days prior to enrollment). Estimated creatinine clearance is based on actual body weight
* An online calculator is available through the National Kidney Foundation at https://www.kidney.org/professionals/kdoqi/gfr_calculatorcoc
* Berlin-Frankfurt-Munich (BFM), Children's Oncology Group (COG), or C10403-based Induction regimen and must be inclusive of \>= 1 dose of pegaspargase or calaspargase pegol, and
* First dose of asparaginase must be planned within the first week of induction therapy, and
* Dose of pegaspargase or calaspargase pegol must be \>= 1,000 IU/ m\^2 (dose-capping permitted per primary regimen)
* Note: Co-enrollment on a therapeutic consortia trial is not required
* All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
* All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
Exclusion Criteria:
* Down syndrome
* Known inherited or autoimmune liver disease impacting conjugated bilirubin (e.g., Alagille syndrome, primary sclerosing cholangitis, other)
* Known biopsy (or imaging) proven severe liver fibrosis (Batts-Ludwig \>= stage 3)
* Unable to tolerate oral formulation of study drug at enrollment
* Patients who received chemotherapy or treatment for a prior malignancy are not eligible
* The following are permitted: steroid prophase, hydroxyurea, or other cytoreduction prior to initiation of Induction chemotherapy (must be documented) and chemotherapy for current diagnosis (i.e. initiation of Induction therapy within enrollment window). Chemotherapy prior to enrollment for treatment of a non-malignancy (e.g., steroid or methotrexate for autoimmune disease) is also permitted and must be documented
* Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects in humans are unknown for study drug. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
* Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
* Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, DRUG: Calaspargase Pegol, DIETARY_SUPPLEMENT: Levocarnitine, DRUG: Pegaspargase, OTHER: Quality-of-Life Assessment
B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia With t(9,22)(q34.1,q11.2), BCR-ABL1, B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, BCR-ABL1-Like, Lymphoblastic Lymphoma, Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia, T Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Lymphoid Leukemia, Lymphoma
Children’s Health
Risk Indicators of Sarcoidosis Evolution-Unified Protocol (RISE-UP)
The purpose of this study is to develop prediction models that can prognosticate patients with sarcoidosis using clinical data and blood markers that can be obtained during a clinic visit.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Fabiola.Gianella@UTSouthwestern.edu
Connie Hsia
All
19 Years and over
NCT05567133
STU-2022-0683
Inclusion Criteria:
• Adults with a diagnosis of sarcoidosis over the age of 18
• Case definition: we will follow the 1999 statement on sarcoidosis published by the American Thoracic Society for diagnosis which includes tissue biopsy confirmation and exclusion of alternative diagnoses including beryllium sensitization/chronic beryllium disease, mycobacterial, viral, and/or fungal infection
Exclusion Criteria:
• Inability to tolerate study procedures as determined by the investigator
• Pregnant or breastfeeding
• Concurrent medical diagnoses that would influence the expression of biomarkers will be considered an exclusion criterion. This includes diseases such as common variable immunodeficiency, HIV infection, or autoimmune diseases
• Concurrent interstitial lung diseases such as hypersensitivity pneumonitis or idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
• Hematocrit (Packed Cell Volume) < 25%
Sarcoidosis, Pulmonary
sarcoid, lung, immune
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
A Phase 2a, Single-dose, Open-label Study to Evaluate Diagnostic Performance and Safety of Pegsitacianine, an Intraoperative Fluorescence Imaging Agent for the Detection of Cancer, in Patients With Unknown Primary Head and Neck Cancer (ILLUMINATE STUDY)
This is a non-randomized, open-label, single-center, safety and imaging feasibility study of Pegsitacianine, an intraoperative fluorescence imaging agent.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Baran Sumer
ALL
18 Years to 99 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05576974
STU-2022-0460
Inclusion Criteria:
• Adults ≥18 years of age
• Biopsy-confirmed diagnosis, for primary or recurrent disease (or high clinical suspicion in the opinion of the Investigator)
• Part 1: Stage 1 to 4 HNSCC
• Part 2: UPC squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck with metastatic disease to at least a single cervical node, AND no biopsy proven evidence of the primary cancer's location.
• Acceptable hematologic status (as standard surgery protocol requires, as determined by the Investigator), kidney function and liver function. Elevations of creatinine, alanine aminotransferase, aspartate aminotransferase, alkaline phosphatase, or total bilirubin \>1.5× the upper limit of normal \[ULN\] must be determined to be not clinically significant by the Investigator and approved by the Medical Monitor.
• Documented negative serum pregnancy test for women of childbearing potential (i.e., premenopausal women with intact reproductive organs and women \<2 years after menopause)
• Male patients and female patients of child-bearing potential (i.e., premenopausal women with intact reproductive organs and women \<2 years after menopause) must agree to and comply with using medically acceptable contraception including surgical sterilization (e.g., hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy, bilateral tubal ligation), intrauterine device, oral contraceptive, contraceptive patch, long acting injectable contraceptive, partner's vasectomy, double-barrier method (condom or diaphragm plus spermicide or condom plus diaphragm), or abstinence during the trial and for 6 months thereafter
• Agree to abstain from alcohol consumption from 72 hours before Pegsitacianine administration through completion of Study Day 10 (±48 hours) visit in Part 1 and Part 2.
• Adequate potential for follow up
Exclusion Criteria:
• Tumors at sites of which the surgeon would assess that in vivo intraoperative imaging would not be feasible.
• Life expectancy \<12 weeks
• Karnofsky Performance Status \<70%
• Hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh score \>5) or significant liver disease including active hepatitis or cirrhosis
• Lab values or any sign, symptom, or medical condition that in the opinion of the PI would prevent surgical resection
• Medical or psychiatric conditions that compromise the patient's ability to give informed consent.
• Pregnant or lactating women
• Receiving or planned to receive, during the duration of the study, concomitant medication with a high chance of hepatotoxicity, as judged by the PI based on standard protocols within the study center
• Alcohol consumption within 72 hours before Pegsitacianine administration
• Received an investigational agent within the shorter of 5 half-lives or 30 days before Pegsitacianine dosing
• Inability to adhere to the schedule of assessments or any circumstance that would interfere with the validity of assessments performed in the study
• The PI considers that the patient should not participate in the study
DRUG: Pegsitacianine
Head and Neck Cancer, Unknown Primary Cancer, Head and Neck Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Head and Neck
UT Southwestern
Study of Inebilizumab in Pediatric Subjects With Neuromyelitis Optica Spectrum Disorder
A Phase 2, open-label, multicenter study to evaluate the pharmacokinetics (PK), pharmacodynamics (PD), and safety of inebilizumab in eligible pediatric participants 2 to < 18 years of age with recently active neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder (NMOSD) who are seropositive for autoantibodies against aquaporin-4 (AQP4-immunoglobulin [Ig]G).
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, patricia.plumb@utsouthwestern.edu
Cynthia Wang
All
2 Years to 17 Years old
Phase 2
NCT05549258
STU-2022-0915
Inclusion Criteria:
• Male or female subjects age 2 to < 18 years at the time of screening.
• Positive serum anti-AQP4-IgG result at screening and diagnosed with NMOSD according to the criteria of Wingerchuk et al, 2015.
• Documented history of one or more NMOSD acute relapses within the last year, or 2 or more NMOSD acute relapses within 2 years prior to screening.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Any condition that, in the opinion of the Investigator, would interfere with the evaluation or administration of the Investigational Product or interpretation of subject safety or study results
• Concurrent/previous enrollment in another clinical study involving an investigational treatment within 4 weeks or 5 published half-lives of the investigational treatment, whichever is the longer, prior to Day 1
• Evidence of significant hepatic, renal, or metabolic dysfunction or significant hematological abnormality (one repeat test may be conducted to confirm results within the same screening period):
• B-cell counts < one-half of the lower limit of normal (LLN) for age according to the central laboratory
• Receipt of the following at any time prior to Day 1:
• Alemtuzumab
• Total lymphoid irradiation
• Bone marrow transplant
• T-cell vaccination therapy
• Receipt of rituximab or any experimental B-cell depleting agent within 6 months prior to screening unless B-cell counts have returned to ≥ one-half the LLN
• Receipt of intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) within one month prior to Day 1
• Receipt of any of the following within 2 months prior to Day 1:
• Cyclosporine
• Methotrexate
• Mitoxantrone
• Cyclophosphamide
• Tocilizumab
• Satralizumab
• Eculizumab
• Receipt of natalizumab (Tysabri®) within 6 months prior to Day 1
• Severe drug allergic history or anaphylaxis to 2 or more food products or medicine (including known sensitivity to acetaminophen/paracetamol, diphenhydramine or equivalent antihistamine, and methylprednisolone or equivalent glucocorticoid)
• Diagnosed with a concurrent autoimmune disease that is uncontrolled (unless approved by the medical monitor)
• Recent receipt of live/attenuated vaccine or blood transfusion
Drug: Inebilizumab
Neuromyelitis Optica Spectrum Disorder
Children’s Health
Standardizing Treatments for Pulmonary Exacerbations - Aminoglycoside Study (STOP360AG)
The purpose of this study is to look at pulmonary exacerbations in people with cystic fibrosis (CF) that need to be treated with antibiotics given through a tube inserted into a vein (intravenous or IV). A pulmonary exacerbation is a worsening of respiratory symptoms in people with CF that needs medical intervention. Both doctors and CF patients are trying to understand the best way to treat pulmonary exacerbations. This study is trying to answer the following questions about treating a pulmonary exacerbation: - Do participants have the same improvement in lung function and symptoms if they are treated with one type of antibiotic (called beta-lactams or β-lactams) versus taking two different types of antibiotics (tobramycin and β-lactams)? - Is taking one type of antibiotic just as good as taking two types?
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Crystal.Neugin@UTSouthwestern.edu
Raksha Jain
All
6 Years and over
Phase 4
NCT05548283
STU-2022-0891
Inclusion Criteria:
• All genders ≥ 6 years of age at Visit 1
• Documentation of a CF diagnosis
• Clinician intent to treat index CF PEx with a planned 14-day course of IV antimicrobials
• At least one documented Pa positive culture within two years prior to Visit 1
Exclusion Criteria:
• Participant is not pregnant
• No known renal impairment or history of solid organ transplantation
• No IV antimicrobial treatment, ICU admission, pneumothorax, or hemoptysis within 6 weeks prior to Visit 1
• No use of investigational therapies, new CF transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulators, or treatment for Nontuberculous mycobacteria (NTM) within 4 weeks prior to Visit 1
• No history of hypersensitivity, vestibular, or auditory toxicity with aminoglycosides
• No more than one day of IV aminoglycosides administered for the current PEx treatment prior to Visit 1
Drug: Beta-lactam antibiotic, Drug: Aminoglycoside
Cystic Fibrosis, Cystic Fibrosis Pulmonary Exacerbation, Lung/Thoracic
Cystic Fibrosis, CF, Cystic Fibrosis Pulmonary Exacerbation, aminoglycoside, beta-lactam, β-lactam, STOP, STOP360
UT Southwestern
Study of SGR-1505 in Mature B-Cell Neoplasms
The purpose of this study is to evaluate safety and tolerability and to determine the maximum tolerated dose (MTD) and/or recommended dose (RD) of SGR-1505.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Praveen Ramakrishnan Geethakumari
All
18 Years and over
Phase 1
NCT05544019
STU-2023-0636
Inclusion Criteria:
• Subject must have a history of histologically or cytologically confirmed mature B-cell malignancy.
• Subject must have measurable or detectable disease according to the applicable disease-specific classification system.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0, 1, or 2.
• Life expectancy ≥ 12 weeks.
Exclusion Criteria:
• For a subject with indolent NHL and CLL/SLL, the subject is in need of immediate cytoreductive therapy (unless the patient has no remaining treatment choice with potential benefit) and has an indication for treatment.
• Subject has previous invasive malignancy in the last 2 years.
• Subject has a known allergy to SGR-1505 or excipients of SGR-1505.
• Subject has symptomatic or active CNS involvement of disease.
• Any other diseases, metabolic dysfunction, physical examination finding, or clinical laboratory finding that would place the participant at increased risk to the use of an investigational drug.
Drug: SGR-1505
Mature B-Cell Neoplasm, Non Hodgkin Lymphoma, DLBCL, Waldenström Macroglobulinemia, MALT Lymphoma, Follicular Lymphoma, Pediatric-Type Follicular Lymphoma, IRF4 Gene Rearrangement, EBV-Positive DLBCL, Nos, Burkitt Lymphoma, Plasmablastic Lymphoma, High-grade B-cell Lymphoma, Primary Cutaneous Follicle Center Lymphoma, Primary Effusion Lymphoma, Mantle Cell Lymphoma, DLBCL Germinal Center B-Cell Type, Primary Mediastinal Large B Cell Lymphoma, T-Cell/Histiocyte Rich Lymphoma, ALK-Positive Large B-Cell Lymphoma, Primary Cutaneous Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma, Splenic Marginal Zone Lymphoma, Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia, Nodal Marginal Zone Lymphoma, HHV8-Positive DLBCL, Nos, Lymphoplasmacytic Lymphoma, Duodenal-Type Follicular Lymphoma, Lymphoid Leukemia, Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma
MALT1, NF-kB
UT Southwestern
Evaluate REC-4881 in Patients With FAP (TUPELO)
This is a multicenter, two-part trial in participants with Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP).
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, YAMEI.CHENG@UTSouthwestern.edu
Luke Engelking
ALL
55 Years to old
PHASE1
NCT05552755
STU-2024-0553
Inclusion Criteria:
• Male or female and ≥ 55 years of age
• Have provided written informed consent to participate in the study
• Diagnosis of phenotypic classical FAP with disease involvement of the duodenum or the residual colon/rectum/pouch as the primary disease site.
• Genetic diagnosis of FAP with APC gene mutation (Part 2 only).
• Has undergone colectomy or subtotal colectomy
• Spigelman Classification Stage II or higher.
• Investigator/Participant agrees to leave polyps ≤10 mm unresected during endoscopies performed at Screening and while on study
• Have no significant cardiovascular abnormalities at Screening:
• Left ventricular ejection fraction \>50% as determined on screening echocardiogram
• A QT interval corrected for heart rate using the Fridericia formula (QTcF) \< 450 msec in men and \<470 msec in women.
• Have no significant hematopoietic abnormalities at Screening:
• White blood cell count (WBC) ≥ 3,000/mm3 (non-black populations); 2,700/mm3 (black populations)
• Platelet count ≥ 120,000/mm3
• Hemoglobin ≥ 10.0 g/dL
• No history of clinical coagulopathy.
• Have no significant hepatic abnormalities at Screening:
• Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 X upper limit of normal (ULN) (individuals with Gilbert syndrome may be enrolled)
• AST, ALT, ALP ≤ 2.0 X ULN.
• Have no significant renal abnormalities at Screening: serum creatinine ≤ 1.5 times X ULN.
• Female participants who are women of childbearing potential (WOCBP) must have a negative serum pregnancy test at screening and a negative urine pregnancy test within 24 hours before the first dose of study drug. If the urine test is positive or cannot be confirmed negative, a serum pregnancy test will be required and must be negative for the participant to be eligible.
• All participants must be willing to follow the contraceptive guidance in the protocol and must not be lactating or planning to attempt to become pregnant during the study or for a further period of 4 months after the last dose of study drug or impregnate someone during this study or for a further period of 14 weeks after the last dose of study drug (Appendix 1).
• Absence of gross blood in stool at Screening; red blood on toilet paper only is acceptable.
• Participant must be willing to discontinue use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDs) 6 weeks prior to Study Day 1 and remain off NSAIDs throughout the treatment period of the study (use of aspirin ≤ 700 mg week is allowed.)
Exclusion Criteria:
• Has any clinically significant laboratory abnormality, medical or psychiatric illness which, in the opinion of the Investigator, could interfere with the conduct or interpretation of the study or put the participant at risk.
• Has had prior pelvic irradiation.
• Has gastrointestinal disease or recent gastrointestinal procedure that could interfere with oral absorption of REC-4881, including difficulty swallowing capsules.
• Has received treatment with other investigational agents within the 4 weeks prior to Study Day 1 or a period during which the investigational agent has not been cleared from the body (i.e., at least a period of 5 half-lives, if known), whichever is longer.
• Treatment with other FAP-directed drug therapy within 8 weeks of screening endoscopy (Part 2 only) or had a Whipple procedure.
• Is currently under treatment for desmoid tumors.
• Use of omega-3 fatty acids or oral corticosteroids prior to Study Day 1
• Use of strong CYP3A inhibitors or inducers prior to Study Day 1
• History of an ongoing or newly diagnosed eye abnormality.
• Retinal pathologies such as diabetic retinopathy, veno-occlusion, or macular edema
• Corneal pathologies such as herpes keratitis, corneal dystrophy, corneal erosions, corneal degeneration, active or recurrent keratitis, or uveitis (intermittent, posterior, and/or panuveitis)
• Other clinically significant ophthalmologic abnormalities (e.g., retinal detachment) or has findings at Screening. \[Participants with corrected myopia may be enrolled.\]
• Has cancer at screening endoscopy in GI tract (including stomach, duodenum, and colon/rectum/pouch) (Part 2 only).
• Has a large polyp (\>1 cm) not amenable to complete removal
• Has active pancreatitis secondary to pancreatic duct obstruction
• Has active gall bladder disease
• Is pregnant, lactating or is planning to attempt to become pregnant during this study or within 4 months after the last dose of study drug (women) or is planning to attempt to impregnate someone or donate sperm during the study or within 14 weeks after the last dose of study drug (men).
• Has had major surgery prior to Study Day 1
• Has an active infection requiring systemic therapy.
• Has known hypersensitivity to the study drug or its excipients.
• Has a history of alcohol or substance abuse within 1 year prior to screening for study participation, or is currently using alcohol, drugs of abuse, or any prescribed or over-the-counter medication in a manner which, in the opinion of the Investigator, indicates abuse .
• Received treatment with another MEK inhibitor 8 weeks prior to Screening and throughout the treatment period of the study.
• Any of the following known active infections:
• HIV not optimally controlled or treated. Participants with HIV who are on sustained stable antiretrovirals (for \>4 weeks) and have CD4+ counts ≥ 350 cells/μL may be enrolled. No HIV testing is required unless clinically indicated or mandated by local health authority.
• Chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection with surface antigen positive: participants with a prior history of treated HBV infection who are hepatitis B surface antigen-negative may be enrolled. No testing is required for hepatitis B unless clinically indicated or mandated by local health authority
• Chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection: untreated or on active treatment. Participants with a prior history of treated HCV infection who are HCV RNA-undetectable may be enrolled. No testing is required for hepatitis C unless clinically indicated or mandated by local health authority.
• Has a severe or uncontrolled medical condition (e.g., dermatologic disease, etc.) that, in the opinion of the Investigator, would pose a significant clinical risk for the participant.
• Use of strong BCRP or MRP2 inhibitors within 14 days of Study Day 1 and throughout the treatment period of the study.
• Clinically significant cardiovascular disease ≤ 6 months before first dose
• Myocardial infarction or unstable angina
• Clinically significant cardiac arrhythmias
• Uncontrolled hypertension: systolic blood pressure (SBP) \> 180 mmHg, diastolic blood pressure (DBP) \> 100 mmHg
• Pulmonary embolism, symptomatic cerebrovascular events or any other serious cardiac condition (e.g., pericardial effusion or restrictive cardiomyopathy)
• QTcF prolongation \>450 msec in males and \>470 msec in females at screening or history of long QTc syndrome
• Congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association class III-IV)
• Myocarditis / clinically significant pericarditis.
DRUG: REC-4881, DRUG: Placebo
Familial Adenomatous Polyposis
FAP, familial adenomatous polyposis, APC mutation, adenomatous polyposis coli, desmoid disease
UT Southwestern
Percutaneous Intervention Versus Observational Trial of Arterial Ductus in Low Weight Infants (PIVOTAL)
Patent Ductus Arteriosus is a developmental condition commonly observed among preterm infants. It is a condition where the opening between the two major blood vessels leading from the heart fail to close after birth. In the womb, the opening (ductus arteriosus) is the normal part of the circulatory system of the baby, but is expected to close at full term birth. If the opening is tiny, the condition can be self-limiting. If not, medications/surgery are options for treatment. There are two ways to treat patent ductus arteriosus - one is through closure of the opening with an FDA approved device called PICCOLO, the other is through supportive management (medications). No randomized controlled trials have been done previously to see if one of better than the other. Through our PIVOTAL study, the investigators aim to determine is one is indeed better than the other - if it is found that the percutaneous closure with PICCOLO is better, then it would immediately lead to a new standard of care. If not, then the investigators avoid an invasive costly procedure going forward.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Emilie.Vannguyen@UTSouthwestern.edu
Sushmita Yallapragada
ALL
7 Days to 32 Days old
NA
NCT05547165
STU-2022-1102
Inclusion Criteria:
• EPIs born between 22-weeks+0 days (220/7 wks) and 27-weeks+6 days (276/7 wks) gestation, inclusive
• Admitted to a study NICU
• Birth weight ≥700-grams
• Mechanically ventilated at time of consent and randomization
• HSPDA ("PDA Score" ≥6) noted on echocardiogram (ECHO)
• Randomization is able to be performed within 5 days of the qualifying ECHO and when infant is 7-32 days postnatal
Exclusion Criteria:
Clinical Exclusion Criteria
• Life-threatening congenital defects (including congenital heart disease such as aortic coarctation or pulmonary artery stenosis). PDA and small atrial/ventricular septal defects are permitted;
• Congenital lung abnormalities, (e.g. restrictive lung disease);
• Pharyngeal or airway anomalies (tracheal stenosis, choanal atresia);
• Treatment for acute abdominal process (e.g., necrotizing enterocolitis);
• Infants with planned surgery;
• Active infection requiring treatment;
• Chromosomal defects (e.g., Trisomy 18);
• Neuromuscular disorders;
• Infants whose parents have chosen to allow natural death (do not resuscitate order) or for whom limitation of intensive care treatment is being considered (e.g. severe intraventricular hemorrhage)
• Physician deems that the infant would not be a Percutaneous PDA Closure candidate due to clinical instability; however, if the infant's clinical status improves before 30-days postnatal and all inclusion criteria are still met, then the infant may be enrolled. ECHO-based Exclusion Criteria
• Pulmonary hypertension (defined by ductal right to left shunting for \>33% of the cardiac cycle) in which early PDA closure may increase right ventricular afterload and compromise pulmonary and systemic blood flow;
• Evidence of cardiac thrombus that might interfere with device placement;
• PDA diameter larger than 4 mm at the narrowest portion (consistent with FDA-approved instructions for Piccolo™ device use).
• PDA length smaller than 3 mm (consistent with FDA-approved instructions for Piccolo™ device use).
• PDA that does not meet inclusion requirements ("PDA Score" \<6).\* \* If a potential participant is found to have a PDA meeting eligibility requirements on a subsequent ECHO during the required period of 7 - 30 postnatal days of age, they may then be declared eligible to participate and enrolled, provided all other inclusion criteria are met and exclusion criteria are not met. Other Exclusion Criteria
• Parents or legal guardian do not speak English or Spanish
DEVICE: Percutaneous Patent Ductus Arteriosus Closure (PPC), COMBINATION_PRODUCT: Responsive Management Intervention, DIAGNOSTIC_TEST: Echocardiogram, cardiac
Ductus Arteriosus, Patent
PDA
Children’s Health
A Phase 2 Study of ACR-368 in Endometrial Adenocarcinoma
This is an open label Phase 2 study to evaluate the efficacy and safety of ACR-368 as monotherapy or with ultra-low dose gemcitabine (ULDG) sensitization in participants with endometrial cancer.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
David Miller
FEMALE
18 Years and over
PHASE2
NCT05548296
STU-2023-0562
Inclusion Criteria:
General
• Participant must be able to give signed, written informed consent.
• Participant must have histologically documented, high-grade endometrial cancer.
• Treatment History Requirements:
• Subject must have received prior platinum-based chemotherapy
• Subject must have received prior anti-PD-(L)1 therapy
• Participant must have histologically confirmed metastatic cancer that has progressed during or after at least 1 prior therapeutic regimen.
• Participant must have at least 1 measurable lesion per RECIST v1.1 criteria (by local Investigator) in a baseline tumor imaging that has been obtained within 28 days of the treatment start. Participant must have radiographic evidence of disease progression based on RECIST v1.1 criteria following the most recent line of treatment.
• Arm 1 and 2 only: Participant must be willing to provide tissue from a newly obtained tumor biopsy from an accessible tumor lesion not previously irradiated after written informed consent. Newly obtained is defined as a specimen taken after written informed consent is obtained, during the 28-day Screening period.
• Participant must be willing to provide an archival tumor tissue block or at least 20 unstained slides, if available.
• Participant must have stabilized or recovered (Grade 1 or baseline) from all prior therapy related toxicities, except as follows:
• Alopecia is accepted.
• Endocrine events from prior immunotherapy stabilized at ≤ Grade 2 due to need for replacement therapy are accepted (including hypothyroidism, diabetes mellitus, or adrenal insufficiency).
• Neuropathy events from prior cytotoxic therapies stabilized at ≤ Grade 2 are accepted.
• Participant must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group Performance Status 0 or 1.
• Participant must have an estimated life expectancy of longer than 3 months.
• Participant must have adequate organ function at Screening, defined as:
• Absolute neutrophil count \> 1500 cells/µL without growth factor support within 1 week prior to obtaining the hematology values at Screening.
• Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL.
• Platelets ≥ 150,000 cells/µL without transfusion within 1 week prior to obtaining the hematology values at Screening.
• Calculated creatinine clearance (CrCl) ≥ 50 mL/min as calculated by the Cockcroft-Gault formula.
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤ 3 × upper limit of normal (ULN); ≤ 5 × ULN if liver metastases are present.
• Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 × ULN not associated with Gilbert's syndrome. If associated with Gilbert's syndrome ≤ 3 x ULN is acceptable.
• Serum albumin ≥ 3 g/dL.
• Participant must have adequate coagulation profile as defined below if not on anticoagulation. If subject is receiving anticoagulation therapy, then subject must be on a stable dose of anticoagulation for ≥ 1 month:
• Prothrombin time within 1.5 x ULN.
• Activated partial thromboplastin time within 1.5 x ULN.
Exclusion Criteria:
General
• Participant with known symptomatic brain metastases requiring \> 10 mg/day of prednisolone (or its equivalent). Participants with previously diagnosed brain metastases are eligible if they have completed their treatment, have recovered from the acute effects of radiation therapy or surgery prior to the start of ACR-368 treatment, fulfill the steroid requirement for these metastases, and are neurologically stable based on central nervous system imaging ≥ 4 weeks after treatment.
• Participant has mesenchymal tumors of the uterus.
• Participant has a history of clinically meaningful ascites, defined as history of paracentesis or thoracentesis with therapeutic intent, within 4 weeks of Screening. Subjects with planned therapeutic paracentesis or thoracentesis between Screening and Cycle 1 Day 1 dosing are excluded.
• Participant had systemic therapy or radiation therapy within 3 weeks prior to the first dose of study drug.
• Participants has known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B, or hepatitis C infection that is considered uncontrolled based on the criteria included in Appendix 2.
• Participant has a history of clinically meaningful coagulopathy, bleeding diathesis.
• Participant has cardiovascular disease, defined as:
• Uncontrolled hypertension defined as blood pressure \> 160/90 mmHg at Screening confirmed by repeat (medication permitted).
• History of torsades de pointes, significant Screening electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities, including ventricular rhythm disturbances, unstable cardiac arrhythmia requiring medication, pathologic symptomatic bradycardia, left bundle branch block, second degree atrioventricular (AV) block type II, third degree AV block, Grade ≥ 2 bradycardia, uncorrected hypokalemia not amenable to correction, congenital long QT syndrome, prolonged QT interval due to medications, corrected QT based on Fridericia's formula (QTcF) \> 450 msec (for men) or \> 470 msec (for women).
• Symptomatic heart failure (per New York Heart Association guidelines; (Caraballo, 2019), unstable angina, myocardial infarction, severe cardiovascular disease (ejection fraction \< 20%, transient ischemic attack, or cerebrovascular accident within 6 months of Day 1).
• Participant has a history of major surgery within 4 weeks of Screening.
• Participant has experienced bowel obstruction related to the current cancer within the last 6 months or signs or symptoms of intestinal obstruction, which include nausea, vomiting, or objective radiologic finding of bowel obstruction in the last 4 weeks before the start of the treatment.
• Participant has taken a prior cell cycle CHK1 inhibitor, including ACR-368
DRUG: ACR-368, DRUG: Gemcitabine, DIAGNOSTIC_TEST: OncoSignature
Endometrial Adenocarcinoma, Corpus Uteri, Ovary
Endometrial Cancer, Endometrial Neoplasm, Ultralow dose gemcitabine, ACR-368
UT Southwestern
Study of JANX007 in Subjects With Metastatic Castration-Resistant Prostate Cancer (ENGAGER-PSMA-01)
This study is a first-in-human, Phase 1, open-label, multicenter study to assess the safety, tolerability, pharmacokinetic (PK), pharmacodynamic (PD), and the preliminary efficacy of JANX007 in adults with metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer (mCRPC).
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Tian Zhang
MALE
18 Years to 100 Years old
PHASE1
NCT05519449
STU-2024-0923
Inclusion Criteria:
* Male ≥18 years of age at the time of signing informed consent
* Histologically or cytologically confirmed adenocarcinoma of the prostate
* For Dose Escalation and Backfill: Having mCRPC that progressed after at least one novel anti-androgen therapy and at least one taxane containing regimen. Participants who have actively refused a taxane containing regimen or are medically unsuitable to receive taxane are eligible
* Adequate organ function
* For Monotherapy Expansion Part a: Have received ≤ 2 anti-androgen therapies in either the HSPC or CRPC setting and no more than 1 prior taxane regimen in the HSPC or CRPC setting. Participants who have actively refused a taxane regimen or are medically unsuitable to receive taxane are eligible.
* For Monotherapy Expansion Part b: Have received ≤ 2 anti-androgen therapies in either the HSPC or CRPC settings
* For Monotherapy Expansion Part d: Have received ≤ 1 anti-androgen therapy and a poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibitor for mCRPC and have progressed following treatment with the PARP inhibitor
* For Combination Expansion: Have received ≤ 1 anti-androgen therapy other than darolutamide in the HSPC setting and ≤ 1 taxane in the mCRPC setting. Participants who have actively refused a taxane regimen or are medically unsuitable to receive taxane are eligible.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Prior solid organ transplant
* Prior treatment with PSMA-targeted CAR-T cell therapy or PSMA-CD3, PSMA-CD28 or other CD3 T-cell engaging bispecific antibodies or radioligand therapy
* Clinically significant cardiovascular disease
* For Monotherapy Expansion Part a: Prior receipt of any treatment other than an ARPI or taxane in the mCRPC setting
* For Monotherapy Expansion Part b: Prior receipt of any treatment other than an anti-androgen therapy or prior receipt of a taxane containing regimen or more than 1 prior line of therapy for mCRPC
* For Monotherapy Part d: More than 1 prior line of therapy for mCRPC or prior receipt of any treatment other than an anti-androgen therapy and PARP inhibitor for mCRPC or prior receipt of a taxane in the mCRPC setting
* For Combination expansion: More than 1 prior line of therapy for mCRPC or prior receipt of any treatment other than a taxane for mCRPC or prior receipt of Darolutamide or prior receipt of a taxane for HSPC
* Active clinically significant infection (bacterial, viral, fungal, mycobacteria or other)
* Any medical condition or clinical laboratory abnormality likely to interfere with assessment of safety or efficacy of study treatment BIOLOGICAL: JANX007, DRUG: Darolutamide
Prostate Cancer, Metastatic Castration-resistant Prostate Cancer, Castration Resistant Prostatic Cancer, Prostate
Prostate Cancer, Castration-resistant prostate cancer
UT Southwestern
Melpida: Recombinant Adeno-associated Virus (serotype 9) Encoding a Codon Optimized Human AP4M1 Transgene (hAP4M1opt)
MELPIDA is proposed for the treatment of subjects with SPG50 and targets neuronal cells to deliver a fully functional human AP4M1 cDNA copy via intrathecal injection to counter the associated neuronal loss. Outcomes will evaluate the safety and tolerability of a single dose of MELPIDA, which will be measured by the treatment-associated adverse events (AEs) and serious adverse events (SAEs). Secondarily, the trial will explore efficacy in terms of disease burden assessments.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Sydney.Cooper@UTSouthwestern.edu
Susan Iannaccone
ALL
4 Months to 10 Years old
PHASE1
NCT05518188
STU-2022-0886
Inclusion Criteria:
• Age 4 months-10 years old
• Confirmed diagnosis of SPG50 disease by:
• Genomic DNA mutation analysis demonstrating homozygous or compound heterozygous, confirmed pathogenic variants in the AP4M1 gene
• Clinical history or examination features consistent with SPG50 and that include neurologic dysfunction
• Parent/legal guardian willing to provide written informed consent for their child prior to participation in the study
• Subject able to comply with all protocol requirements and procedures
• Ability to stand for more than 5 seconds OR
• Ability to take 5 steps independently or with a walker OR
• Modified Ashworth Scale score 2 or below (Ankles).
Exclusion Criteria:
• Inability to participate in study procedures (as determined by the site investigator)
• Presence of a concomitant medical condition that precludes lumbar puncture (LP) or use of anesthetics
• History of bleeding disorder or any other medical condition or circumstance in which lumbar puncture is contraindicated according to local institutional policy
• Inability to be safely sedated in the opinion of the clinical anesthesiologist
• Active infection, at the time of dosing, based on clinical observations
• Concomitant illness or requirement for chronic drug treatment that in the opinion of the PI creates unnecessary risks for gene transfer
• Inability of the patient to undergo MRI according to local institutional policy
• Inability of the patient to undergo any other procedure required in this study
• The presence of significant non-SPG50 related CNS impairment or behavioral disturbances that would confound the scientific rigor or interpretation of results of the study
• Have received an investigational drug within 30 days prior to screening or plan to receive an investigational drug (other than gene therapy) during the study.
• Enrollment and participation in another interventional clinical trial
• Contraindication to MELPIDA or any of its ingredients
• Contraindication to any of the immune suppression medications used in this study
• Clinically significant abnormal laboratory values (GGT, ALT, and AST, or total bilirubin \> 3 × ULN, creatinine ≥ 1.5 mg/dL, hemoglobin \[Hgb\] \< 6 or \> 20 g/dL; white blood cell \[WBC\] \> 20,000 per cmm) prior to gene replacement therapy.
BIOLOGICAL: MELPIDA
Spasticity, Muscle, Microcephaly, Intellectual Deficiency, Growth Retardation, SPG50, Spastic Paraplegia
Children’s Health
Molecular and Clinical Risk-Directed Therapy for Infants and Young Children With Newly Diagnosed Medulloblastoma
This is a multi-center, multinational phase 2 trial that aims to explore the use of molecular and clinical risk-directed therapy in treatment of children 0-4.99 years of age with newly diagnosed medulloblastoma.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Daniel Bowers
ALL
to 59 Months old
PHASE2
NCT05535166
STU-2023-0119
Inclusion Criteria - Screening Phase (All Patients)
* Participants with presumptive/suspected newly diagnosed medulloblastoma.
* Participant meets one of the following criteria at the time of screening:
* Age \< 36 months OR Age ≥ 36 months and \< 60 months with presumptive/suspected non-metastatic disease
* Participant must have adequate tumor tissue from primary tumor for central review of pathology and molecular classification by methylation and IHC
* Participant must be able to begin treatment as outlined in the protocol within 36 days of definitive surgery (day of surgery is Day 0). In case a second surgery is clinically indicated to remove the residual tumor prior to starting treatment, the second surgery will be considered as the definitive surgery (Day 0).
* Parent or legal guardian can understand and is willing to sign a written informed consent document according to institutional guidelines.
Exclusion Criteria - Screening Phase
* Participants with other clinically significant medical disorders (i.e., serious infections or significant cardiac, pulmonary, hepatic, psychiatric, or other organ dysfunction) that could compromise their ability to tolerate protocol therapy or would interfere with the study procedure.
Inclusion Criteria - Study Enrollment (All Patients)
* Participant must be \< 60 months of age at time of enrollment.
* Note: Each treatment stratum has additional specific age requirements
* Participant must have confirmation of newly diagnosed medulloblastoma per Central Review:
* Central review includes histopathology, IHC and St. Jude Clinical Genomic Methylation Profiling conducted on MLPNet. If tissue or the extracted DNA does not meet quality control criteria for methylation analysis or if methylation classifier is unable assign molecular group/subgroup within the assigned classifier (MLPNet) parameters, then IHC will be used to define molecular group of these cases. IHC cannot be used to determine molecular subgroup. Therefore, IHC defined SHH patients will be enrolled on Stratum S-1 under "SHH-NOS", and all NWNS and indeterminate molecular group will be enrolled on stratum N.
* Note: Diagnosis of medulloblastoma, as well as group and subgroup assignment, will be done by central pathology review at St. Jude only. No outside testing is allowed for trial enrollment.
* Participant must have disease staged by MRI of the brain and spine and by cytologic examination of CSF\* and be placed into the following categories:
* M0: no evidence of metastatic disease.
* must include a negative CSF cytology result
* M1: Tumor cells found in the CSF but no other evidence of metastasis
* M2: Intracranial tumor beyond the primary tumor site
* M3: Metastatic disease in the spine
* M4: Extraneural metastatic disease
* \*All participants are to undergo CSF cytologic examination regardless of presence or absence of gross metastatic disease unless procedure is medically contraindicated. CSF is to be obtained by lumbar puncture (LP) performed at least 10 days after surgery. If LP is medically contraindicated, ventricular CSF from a shunt or Ommaya reservoir may be used for staging but this is not the preferred option due to lower sensitivity. If LP is medically contraindicated and the patient doesn't have a shunt or reservoir for CSF sampling, the treating physician should reach out to PI or Co-PI regarding decision on enrollment to SJiMB21. The decision to enroll without CSF cytology will be made on case-by-case basis.
* Note: Participants who have M2 disease and positive CSF will be assigned to M3.
* Note: Participants will be assigned to the highest stage number for which they meet eligibility.
* Note: Treatment stratums may have additional stage requirements.
* Patient must have received no previous radiotherapy, chemotherapy, or other brain tumor-directed therapy other than corticosteroid therapy and surgery.
* Participant must have a Lansky performance score of \> 30 (except for patients with posterior fossa syndrome.
* Participant must have adequate organ function prior to study entry, as defined by:
* Absolute neutrophil counts (ANC) \>750/mm\^3
* Platelet count ≥ 50,000/mm\^3 without support of a platelet transfusion within 7 days
* Hemoglobin ≥8.0 g/dL (with or without support of a blood transfusion).
* Normal liver function as defined by Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) concentration ≤ 3 x 45 U/L and total bilirubin ≤ 3 x 1.0.
* Adequate renal function as defined by a serum creatinine concentration:
* Age - 0 to \<1year; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dl) - Male 0.5; Female 0.5
* Age - 1 to \< 2years; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dl) - Male 0.6; Female 0.6
* Age - 1 to \< 2yearsr; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dl) - Male 0.8; Female 0.8
* Participant's parent or legal guardian has the ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document according to institutional guidelines.
Inclusion Criteria - Stratum S-2
* Participant must have confirmed diagnosis of the following medulloblastoma molecular group and subgroup per Central Review.
* Medulloblastoma SHH-2
* Participant must meet one of the following criteria at time of enrollment:
* Age \<36 months OR Age ≥ 36 months and \< 60 months with non-metastatic disease (M0) Inclusion Criteria - Stratum S-1
* Participant must have confirmed diagnosis of one of the following medulloblastoma molecular subgroups per Central Review.
* Medulloblastoma SHH-1
* Medulloblastoma SHH-3
* Medulloblastoma SHH-4
* Medulloblastoma SHH-NOS
* Includes medulloblastoma cases that could not be assigned to a molecular subgroup using the DNA methylation classifier, but which are in the SHH group and/or cases defined as SHH by IHC.
* Participant must be \< 36 months of age at time of enrollment
* Note: Patients who are \< 36 months of age, regardless of metastatic status (M0/M+), are eligible for enrollment on stratum S-1.
Inclusion Criteria - Stratum N
* Participant must have confirmed diagnosis of one of the following medulloblastoma molecular subgroups per Central Review.
* Medulloblastoma G3
* Medulloblastoma G4
* Medulloblastoma - Not classified into SHH (i.e., NWNS or indeterminate)
* Includes medulloblastoma cases that could not be assigned to a molecular group using the DNA methylation classifier but which are in the NWNS class and/or defined as NWNS by IHC.
* Participant must be \<36 months of age at time of enrollment
* All NWNS patients (M+ and M0) are eligible for enrollment in stratum N
Exclusion Criteria - All Patients
* CNS embryonal tumor other than medulloblastoma, for example, patients with diagnosis of Atypical Teratoid/Rhabdoid Tumor (ATRT), PNET, Pineoblastoma, Ependymoma, and ETMR are excluded.
* Participant with prior treatment for medulloblastoma, including:
* Radiotherapy
* Chemotherapy
* Cancer directed immunotherapy
* Targeted agents
* NOTE: Corticosteroid therapy is acceptable; prior treatment with chemotherapy, immunotherapy or targeted agents for non-cancer directed indications are acceptable as long as these have been stopped at least 14 days prior to start of therapy or 2 half-lives from last dose. (i.e., methotrexate for juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, JAK inhibitor therapy for eczema, etc.)
* Participant who is actively receiving any other investigational agents.
* Participant with other clinically significant medical disorders (i.e., serious infections or significant cardiac, pulmonary, hepatic, psychiatric, or other organ dysfunction) that could compromise their ability to tolerate protocol therapy or would interfere with the study procedures or results.
PROCEDURE: Surgical resection, PROCEDURE: Ommaya/VPS, DRUG: Methotrexate, DRUG: Cisplatin, DRUG: Vincristine, DRUG: Cyclophosphamide, DRUG: Carboplatin, DRUG: Topotecan, DRUG: Etoposide, DRUG: Pegfilgrastim, DRUG: Filgrastim, RADIATION: Irradiation, OTHER: Educational and Media Intervention, OTHER: SOC, Educational and Media Intervention
Medulloblastoma, Brain and Nervous System
SJiMB21, Brain Cancer, Brain Tumors in Children, Medulloblastoma Sonic Hedgehog subgroup 1, Medulloblastoma Sonic Hedgehog subgroup 2, Medulloblastoma Sonic Hedgehog subgroup 3, Medulloblastoma Sonic Hedgehog subgroup 4, Medulloblastoma Sonic Hedgehog-not otherwise specified, Medulloblastoma G3, Medulloblastoma G4, Medulloblastoma indeterminate, MLPNet, Neural Net Classification Pipeline, Non-WNT non-SHH medulloblastoma, Posterior fossa syndrome, St. Jude Brain Tumor Studies, Treatment for Brain Tumors in Infants and Young Children, Untreated Childhood Medulloblastoma
Children’s Health
Reduced-dose Botox for Urgency Incontinence Among Elder Females (RELIEF)
The purpose of this study is to study the treatment of urgency urinary incontinence (UUI), specifically among women 70 years and older, by comparing reduced versus standard dose of onabotulinumtoxinA (BTX; trade name BOTOX(c)) injection in the bladder.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, JOSE.SANTOYO@UTSouthwestern.edu
Ramy Goueli
FEMALE
70 Years and over
PHASE1
NCT05512039
STU-2022-0938
Inclusion Criteria:
• Adult female at least 70 years old at date of enrollment
• Urgency urinary incontinence (urge incontinence \> stress incontinence per screening criteria)
• On average 2 or more urgency or insensible incontinence episodes per day per patient report
• Refractory urinary urgency incontinence, defined as
• Persistent symptoms despite trial of one or more conservative treatments (e.g. behavioral therapy, physical therapy, home Kegel exercises); participants not required to have attempted first line therapies if deemed not feasible or appropriate by provider with input of participant/caregiver.
• Persistent symptoms despite the use of anticholinergic and/or beta-3 agonist medication; or inability to tolerate medication due to side effects, or has a contraindication to taking medication, or is unable to afford the cost of the medication.
• Currently not on an anticholinergic or beta-3 agonist medication or is willing to stop medication for 3 weeks prior to completing baseline bladder tally, with plan to remain off medication through duration of the study. Currently not actively using sacral neuromodulation therapy (either has not tried, or unit has been off for 4 weeks prior to baseline bladder tally and will remain turned off for the duration of the study). It is permissible for participants to continue self-led conservative therapies during participation in the study, including Kegel exercises, avoidance of bladder irritants, and urge suppression.
• Willing and able to complete all study-related items, with assistance of caregiver(s) if needed.
• Demonstrates awareness of possible need for catheterization in event of post-injection urinary retention \& acknowledges risks of catheterization. Participant does not need to demonstrate ability to perform self-catheterization.
• Grossly neurologically normal on exam and no gross systemic neurologic conditions believed to affect urinary function. Patients with a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease or diabetes may be eligible provided they have a grossly normal neurologic exam and otherwise fulfill the inclusion/exclusion criteria.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Lack of capacity to provide consent. Will be assessed if needed per judgment of the site PI and study staff, with use of optional questionnaire.
• Baseline persistently elevated post-void residual \[PVR\] (\>150mL on 2 occasions in the 6 weeks prior to enrollment). If the PVR was obtained via bladder scanner with measurements differing by more than 100mL, or if there is concern about the accuracy of the scanner, it will be confirmed via catheterization which will be considered the gold standard.
• Need for BTX injection to take place in the Operating Room or under sedation. (Of note, for repeat injection under the protocol, patients may have OR injection if indicated due to pain with initial BTX injection.)
• Previous treatment with intravesical BTX in the last 12 months or use of sacral neuromodulation therapy within the past 4 weeks (unit may remain implanted, but should remain off for duration of the study).
• Untreated symptomatic urinary tract infection (UTI). Eligible once UTI treatment complete and symptoms resolved.
• Known bladder abnormality, including current or prior bladder malignancy, carcinoma in situ or untreatable cystitis (e.g. eosinophilic cystitis); prior major bladder surgery that would alter the detrusor muscle, such as augmentation cystoplasty; or hematuria that has not been evaluated.
• Neurogenic detrusor overactivity or neurologic disease that may impact bladder function, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, peripheral neuropathy, spinal cord injury. Conditions such as Parkinson's disease and diabetes are acceptable provided normal bladder emptying and grossly normal neurologic function.
• Concurrent BTX use for other indication, participants cannot exceed 300 units BTX in a 3 month period. Participants who may have conflict between study BTX administration and administration for other purposes may be excluded from participation if there is concern that study drug administration will be compromised. Concurrent use of BTX for another indication that would not exceed 300 units in a 3 month period, or that can have time of administration of the other BTX adjusted to avoid excessive dose, is acceptable; for instance, for migraines.
• Greater than stage 2 pelvic floor prolapse, uncorrected or persistent despite pessary use (leading edge of prolapse not greater than 1cm beyond the hymen). Ongoing pessary use is permissible. Patients may have had a prior repair for pelvic organ prolapse. (see chart review of recent exam or perform brief exam while collecting post-void residual)
• Planned prolapse or stress incontinence surgery; would defer enrollment to \>3 months post-operative.
• Allergy or intolerance to lidocaine or BTX.
• Participation in another research study that could conflict with the RELIEF study, in estimation of the site PI.
DRUG: Botox 50 Unit Injection, DRUG: Botox 100 Unit Injection
Overactive Bladder, Urinary Incontinence in Old Age, Urgency Urinary Incontinence, Urinary Bladder
Urinary Incontinence, Urgency Urinary Incontinence, Overactive Bladder
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Treatment of Obstructive Sleep Apnea With Personalized Surgery in Children With Down Syndrome (TOPS-DS) (TOPS-DS)
The overall objective of this randomized clinical trial is to test the effectiveness of a personalized approach to the surgical treatment of OSA in children with Down syndrome (DS).The estimated prevalence of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) in children with DS ranges from 45-83%, compared to 1-6% in the general pediatric population. Untreated OSA in children has been associated with daytime sleepiness, cognitive or behavioral problems, and cardiovascular complications, all which are common in children with DS. Adenotonsillectomy (AT) is the first line treatment for OSA in children, however, most large studies of AT outcomes have excluded children with DS. Available evidence demonstrates that AT is far less effective in children with DS than in the general pediatric population, with 48 to 95% of children with DS having persistent OSA after AT. Medical treatments such as positive airway pressure (PAP) therapy are frequently inadequate or poorly tolerated in this population, so many children with DS and OSA remain untreated. Drug-induced sleep endoscopy (DISE) enables direct observation of the sites and patterns of obstruction during sedated sleep using a flexible endoscope passed through the nose into the pharynx. DISE was developed to guide surgical decisions in adult OSA, and in recent years has also been used to design personalized surgical interventions in children. Using this DISE Rating Scale, the investigators have demonstrated that children with DS are more prone to tongue base and supraglottic obstruction than non-DS children, suggesting the need for more personalized surgical treatments that are tailored to the common sources of obstruction in this population. Several small case series demonstrate that DISE-directed surgery can be effective in treating OSA in children with DS. However, because there have been few prospective studies and no randomized trials comparing different treatment options in this population, there remains uncertainty about whether such a personalized approach leads to superior outcomes compared to the first line AT. It is the investigators' hypothesis that personalized DISE-directed surgery that uses existing procedures to address specific fixed and dynamic anatomic features causing obstruction in each child with DS will be superior to the current first line approach of AT. This novel approach may improve OSA outcomes and reduce the burden of unnecessary AT or secondary surgery for persistent OSA after an ineffective AT.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Francesca.Chambers@UTSouthwestern.edu
Ron Mitchell
ALL
2 Years to 17 Years old
NA
NCT05508971
STU-2022-0838
Requirements to participate in study:
Child has a diagnosis of Down syndrome (Trisomy 21). Child has a diagnosis of moderate to severe OSA diagnosed by PSG (oAHI ≥ 5). Child age is 2.00 to 17.99 years of age. Caregiver can provide signed and dated consent and is 18 years of age or older at the time of consent.
Caregiver can speak, read, and write in English or Spanish. Caregiver is primary caretaker of the child. Child is not expecting their own child. Child is eligible for surgical treatment
Cannot participate in study if:
Child has history of previous tonsillectomy, tonsillotomy, or partial tonsillectomy.
Child has any contraindication to surgery (e.g. bleeding disorders). Child has significant cardiopulmonary comorbidity besides OSA requiring supplemental oxygen, subglottic or tracheal stenosis, tracheostomy dependence.
Caregiver is unwilling or unable to comply with study procedures. Child is or plans to have their own child.
PROCEDURE: DISE-Directed Surgery, PROCEDURE: Adenotonsillectomy
Obstructive Sleep Apnea, Down Syndrome
Children’s Health
A Study to Evaluate the Safety and Efficacy of CT1812 in Early Alzheimer's Disease
This is a multicenter randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled Phase 2 study designed to evaluate the efficacy, safety, and tolerability of two doses of CT1812 compared to placebo in participants diagnosed with early Alzheimer's disease.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Matthew.Jones@UTSouthwestern.edu
Brendan Kelley
ALL
50 Years to 85 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05531656
STU-2024-0467
Inclusion Criteria:
• Ages 50-85 years.
• Diagnosis of either MCI due to AD or mild AD dementia.
• MMSE 20-30 (inclusive).
• Amyloid PET scan of the brain or CSF biomarkers consistent with AD.
• Neuroimaging (MRI) obtained during screening consistent with the clinical diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease, as based on central read.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Screening MRI of the brain indicative of significant abnormality.
• Clinically significant abnormalities in screening laboratory tests.
• Clinical or laboratory findings consistent with:
• Other primary degenerative dementia, (dementia with Lewy bodies, fronto-temporal dementia, Huntington's disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease, Down syndrome, etc.).
• Other neurodegenerative condition (Parkinson's disease, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, etc.).
• Other infectious, metabolic or systemic diseases affecting the central nervous system (syphilis, present hypothyroidism, present vitamin B12, other laboratory values etc.)
• A participant known to be actively infected with hepatitis B or hepatitis C at screening. History of acute/chronic hepatitis B or C and/or carriers of hepatitis B (seropositive for hepatitis B surface antigen \[HbsAg\] or anti-hepatitis C \[HCV\] antibody). Participants who have evidence of resolved hepatitis infection (e.g., HCV RNA negative) may be considered following discussion with the Medical Monitor.
• A current DSM-V diagnosis of active major depression or GDS \> 6, schizophrenia, or bipolar disorder.
DRUG: CT1812, DRUG: Placebo
Early Alzheimer's Disease, Brain and Nervous System
Alzheimer's Disease
UT Southwestern
A Study to Give Treatment Inside the Eye to Treat Retinoblastoma
This phase II trial tests the safety and side effects of adding melphalan (by injecting it into the eye) to standard chemotherapy in early treatment of patients with retinoblastoma (RB). RB is a type of cancer that forms in the tissues of the retina (the light-sensitive layers of nerve tissue at the back of the eye). It may be hereditary or nonhereditary (sporadic). RB is considered harder to treat (higher risk) when there are vitreous seeds present. Vitreous seeds are RB tumors in the jelly-like fluid of the eye (called the vitreous humor). The term, risk, refers to the chance of the cancer not responding to treatment or coming back after treatment. Melphalan is in a class of medications called alkylating agents. It may kill cancer cells by damaging their deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and stopping them from dividing. Other chemotherapy drugs given during this trial include carboplatin, vincristine, and etoposide. Carboplatin is in a class of medications known as platinum-containing compounds. It works in a way similar to the anticancer drug cisplatin, but may be better tolerated than cisplatin. Carboplatin works by killing, stopping or slowing the growth of cancer cells. Vincristine is in a class of medications called vinca alkaloids. It works by stopping cancer cells from growing and dividing and may kill them. Etoposide is in a class of medications known as podophyllotoxin derivatives. It blocks a certain enzyme needed for cell division and DNA repair and may kill cancer cells. Adding melphalan to standard chemotherapy early in treatment may improve the ability to treat vitreous seeds and may be better than standard chemotherapy alone in treating retinoblastoma.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Daniel Bowers
ALL
up to 18 Years old
PHASE2
NCT05504291
STU-2023-0581
Inclusion Criteria:
* Patient must be \< 18 years of age at enrollment
* Patient must have newly diagnosed intraocular (localized) retinoblastoma and meet one of the following criteria:
* Unilateral Group D retinoblastoma with vitreous seeding; OR
* Bilateral retinoblastoma with worst eye Group D, with vitreous seeding present and the contralateral eye is Group A-C; OR
* Bilateral Group D retinoblastoma with at least one eye with vitreous seeding; OR
* Bilateral retinoblastoma with one Group D eye with vitreous seeding and one Group E eye where the Group E eye has been enucleated prior to any therapy. Note exclusion for high-risk features
* Bilateral retinoblastoma with one Group D eye with vitreous seeding and one Group E eye where the Group E eye has not been enucleated prior to any therapy at the discretion of the treating physician. Note exclusion for patients with evidence of metastatic or extra orbital spread
* Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1 or 2. Use Karnofsky for patients \> 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =\<16 years of age
* Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \>= 750/uL (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment unless otherwise indicated)
* Platelet count \>= 75,000/uL (transfusion independent) (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* A serum creatinine based on age/sex as follows (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment; must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment):
* 1 month to \< 6 months = 0.4 (male and female)
* 6 months to \< 1 year = 0.5 (male and female)
* 1 to \< 2 years = 0.6 (male and female)
* 2 to \< 6 years = 0.8 (male and female)
* 6 to \< 10 years = 1.0 (male and female)
* 10 to \< 13 years = 1.2 (male and female)
* 13 to \< 16 years = 1.5 (male) and 1.4 (female)
* \>= 16 years = 1.7 (male) and 1.4 (female) OR - a 24-hour urine Creatinine clearance \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 OR - a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2. GFR must be performed using direct measurement with a nuclear blood sampling method OR direct small molecule clearance method (iothalamate or other molecule per institutional standard)
* Note: Estimated GFR (eGFR) from serum creatinine, cystatin C or other estimates are not acceptable for determining eligibility
* For patients \< 1 month of age, serum creatinine levels must be \< 1.5 x the treating institution's creatinine upper limit of normal (ULN) for patients \< 1 month of age or the creatinine clearance or radioisotope GFR must be \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2
* The threshold creatinine values were derived from the Schwartz formula for estimating GFR utilizing child length and stature data published by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)
* Total bilirubin =\< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment; must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase \[ALT\]) =\< 135 U/L (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment; must be repeated prior to the start of protocol therapy if \> 7 days have elapsed from their most recent prior assessment)
* Note: For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patients with evidence of metastatic or extra-orbital spread
* Patients must not have an invasive infection at time of protocol entry
* Patients must not have had any prior anti-cancer therapy other than cryotherapy and/or laser therapy (green or infrared) to the study eye(s) and non-study eye, including systemic chemotherapy, intra-arterial chemotherapy, radioactive plaque, brachytherapy, or radiation therapy.
* Note: A study eye is defined as being Group D with vitreous seeding. Patients may have had enucleation of one eye as long as the remaining eye is Group D with vitreous seeds
* Patients with bilateral disease who undergo enucleation of a Group E eye prior to initiation of therapy and show evidence of high-risk histopathology features in the enucleated eye. High-risk histopathology includes choroid involvement \>= 3 mm, post lamina optic nerve involvement, full thickness scleral invasion or optic nerve invasion to the cut end
* Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
* Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
* Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation
* All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
* All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, DRUG: Carboplatin, DRUG: Etoposide, PROCEDURE: Examination Under Anesthesia, PROCEDURE: Magnetic Resonance Imaging, DRUG: Melphalan, PROCEDURE: Ultrasound Biomicroscopy, DRUG: Vincristine
Bilateral Retinoblastoma, Childhood Intraocular Retinoblastoma, Group D Retinoblastoma, Stage I Retinoblastoma, Unilateral Retinoblastoma, Eye and Orbit
Children’s Health
The GORE® VIAFORT Vascular Stent Iliofemoral Study
This study is a prospective, non-randomized, multicenter, single-arm, clinical study to evaluate the performance, safety and efficacy of the GORE® VIAFORT Vascular Stent for treatment of symptomatic iliofemoral venous obstruction.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, christian.marsh@UTSouthwestern.edu
Michael Siah
ALL
18 Years and over
NA
NCT05489588
STU-2023-1240
Preoperative
• uncorrected INR\>2 (not as a result of warfarin or DOAC therapy), OR
• platelet count \<50,000 or \>1,000,000 cells/mm3, OR
• white blood cell count \<3,000 or \>12,500 cells/mm3 * Patient has impaired renal function (eGFR \<30 mL/min/1.73m2) or is currently on dialysis. * Patient has uncorrected hemoglobin of \<9 g/dL. * Patient has known history of antiphospholipid syndrome (APS). * Patient has known homozygous or acquired coagulation defect (e.g., Protein C or Protein S deficiency) that cannot be treated with therapeutic anticoagulation. * Patient has a planned surgical intervention that has the potential to clinically interfere with the endpoints of this treatment (other than pre-stenting procedures such as thrombolysis or thrombectomy) within 30 days prior to or within 30 days after the planned study procedure. Examples include surgical interventions that may impact mobility, and surgical interventions that require cessation of therapeutic antiplatelet or anticoagulation within 30 days following the index procedure. * Patient has had or requires open deep venous surgery in the target limb. * Patient is currently participating in another investigational drug or device study that has not completed the primary endpoint or that clinically interferes with the endpoints of this treatment, in the opinion of the investigator/sub-investigator. Observational studies are permitted. * Patient has had a previous major (i.e., above the ankle) amputation of the target lower limb. * Patient has known sensitivity to device materials. * Patient has had prior stenting or grafts in the target vessels. * Patient has a known or suspected active systemic infection at the time of the index procedure. Patients with a chronic infection (e.g., HIV, hepatitis C) that can be managed, and with an active clinical plan in place may be eligible. * Patient has known history of intravenous drug abuse within one year of treatment. * Patient has significant peripheral arterial disease (chronic Rutherford Type 2 or greater, acute Rutherford Type IIa or greater). * Patient has a BMI \>45. Patients with a BMI of up to 45 may be enrolled provided that diagnostic quality ultrasound of the implant sites can be performed. * Patient is actively undergoing or plans to begin cancer treatment. * Patients with hypercoagulable states that are unwilling to take anticoagulant medications on a long-term basis. * Patient has contraindication to thrombolytics, anticoagulants, or iodinated contrast necessary for the index procedure and long-term medical therapy (contrast pre-medication is acceptable). Intraoperative
Inclusion Criteria:
* Patient is at least 18 years of age.
* Patient is willing and able to comply with all follow-up evaluations as well as any required medication or compression regimen.
* Patient is able to provide informed consent.
* One of the following: Clinical severity class of CEAP 'C' classification ≥3 or rVCSS pain score ≥2.
* Intention to treat the target areas with only the GORE® VIAFORT Vascular Stent.
* Estimated life expectancy ≥1 year.
* Patient is ambulatory (use of assistive walking device such as a cane or walker is acceptable).
* Patient has adequate inflow to the target lesion(s), per investigator/sub-investigator discretion, involving at least a patent femoral or deep femoral vein.
* Presence of non-malignant symptomatic unilateral iliofemoral venous obstruction.
Preoperative Exclusion Criteria:
* Patient has DVT in the target areas with symptom onset date greater than 14 days but less than or equal to 90 days prior to treatment.
* Patient is a pregnant or breastfeeding woman, or a woman planning to become pregnant through the 12-month visit.
* Patient has clinically significant (e.g., symptoms of chest pain, hemoptysis, dyspnea, hypoxia, etc.) pulmonary embolism (confirmed via Computed Tomography Angiography) at the time of enrollment.
* Patient has a known uncorrectable bleeding diathesis or active coagulopathy meeting the following definitions (all must be tested for):
• uncorrected INR\>2 (not as a result of warfarin or DOAC therapy), OR
• platelet count \<50,000 or \>1,000,000 cells/mm3, OR
• white blood cell count \<3,000 or \>12,500 cells/mm3 * Patient has impaired renal function (eGFR \<30 mL/min/1.73m2) or is currently on dialysis. * Patient has uncorrected hemoglobin of \<9 g/dL. * Patient has known history of antiphospholipid syndrome (APS). * Patient has known homozygous or acquired coagulation defect (e.g., Protein C or Protein S deficiency) that cannot be treated with therapeutic anticoagulation. * Patient has a planned surgical intervention that has the potential to clinically interfere with the endpoints of this treatment (other than pre-stenting procedures such as thrombolysis or thrombectomy) within 30 days prior to or within 30 days after the planned study procedure. Examples include surgical interventions that may impact mobility, and surgical interventions that require cessation of therapeutic antiplatelet or anticoagulation within 30 days following the index procedure. * Patient has had or requires open deep venous surgery in the target limb. * Patient is currently participating in another investigational drug or device study that has not completed the primary endpoint or that clinically interferes with the endpoints of this treatment, in the opinion of the investigator/sub-investigator. Observational studies are permitted. * Patient has had a previous major (i.e., above the ankle) amputation of the target lower limb. * Patient has known sensitivity to device materials. * Patient has had prior stenting or grafts in the target vessels. * Patient has a known or suspected active systemic infection at the time of the index procedure. Patients with a chronic infection (e.g., HIV, hepatitis C) that can be managed, and with an active clinical plan in place may be eligible. * Patient has known history of intravenous drug abuse within one year of treatment. * Patient has significant peripheral arterial disease (chronic Rutherford Type 2 or greater, acute Rutherford Type IIa or greater). * Patient has a BMI \>45. Patients with a BMI of up to 45 may be enrolled provided that diagnostic quality ultrasound of the implant sites can be performed. * Patient is actively undergoing or plans to begin cancer treatment. * Patients with hypercoagulable states that are unwilling to take anticoagulant medications on a long-term basis. * Patient has contraindication to thrombolytics, anticoagulants, or iodinated contrast necessary for the index procedure and long-term medical therapy (contrast pre-medication is acceptable). Intraoperative
Inclusion Criteria:
* Presence of non-malignant unilateral obstruction of the common femoral vein, external iliac vein, and/or common iliac vein defined as occlusion or at least 50% reduction in target vessel lumen as measured by procedural IVUS and venogram.
* Patient can accommodate an appropriately sized GORE® VIAFORT Vascular Stent as per reference vessel diameter (see IFU), as determined by intraoperative IVUS post pre-dilation.
* Patient must have appropriate access vessels to accommodate the delivery sheath for the selected device size.
* Patient has adequate landing zones free from significant disease requiring treatment within the native vessels beyond the proximal and distal margins of the lesion.
* Patient has adequate inflow to the target lesion(s), per investigator/sub-investigator discretion, involving at least a patent femoral or deep femoral vein.
* Lesion can be traversed with a guidewire.
* Disease involves only unilateral iliofemoral venous segments with intent to stent all affected iliofemoral segments. Patients with disease extending into the inferior vena cava or contra-lateral iliofemoral veins who are anticipated to require endovascular or surgical treatment within 12 months after investigational device implant will be excluded.
* Patient does not have significant (i.e., \>20% residual thrombosis) acute thrombus within the target stent area at the time of investigational device placement. Patients with acute thrombus within the target stent area must have thrombus successfully treated prior to investigational device placement. Successful thrombus treatment is defined as reestablishment of antegrade flow with ≤20% residual thrombosis as confirmed by IVUS and venogram, AND freedom from bleeding, vascular injury, or hemodynamically significant pulmonary embolism. After successful thrombus treatment, investigational device placement can occur within the same procedure. DEVICE: GORE® VIAFORT Vascular Stent
Venous Thromboses, Venous Disease, Venous Leg Ulcer, Venous Stasis, Venous Ulcer, Venous Stenosis, Venous Occlusion, Vein Thrombosis, Vein Occlusion, Vein Disease, Cardiovascular
VIAFORT, Vein Stent, Venous Thrombosis, Venous Stenosis, Gore, Venous Occlusion
UT Southwestern