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Neoadjuvant Lenvatinib and Pembrolizumab for IVC Tumor Thrombus
This study will be evaluating safety and efficacy of the combination of lenvatinib and pembolizumab neoaadjuvant therapy prior to surgical resection of locally advanced renal cell carcinoma with IVC tumor thrombus.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Vitaly Margulis
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE2
NCT05319015
STU-2021-1240
Inclusion Criteria:
• Male/female participants who are at least 18 years of age on the day of signing informed consent
• Have histologically confirmed cT3-4,N0-1,M0-1 (clinical stage III-IV) diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma (any subtype) with level II-IV inferior vena cava tumor thrombus as per the Mayo classification of macroscopic venous invasion in renal cell carcinoma:
• Level 1 tumor thrombus is either at the entry of renal vein or within the IVC \< 2 cm from the confluence of renal vein and IVC
• Level II tumor thrombus extends within the IVC \> 2 cm above the confluence of renal vein and IVC, but still remains below the hepatic veins.
• Level III tumor Thrombus involves the intrahepatic IVC.
• Level IV tumor thrombus extends above diaphragm or into the right atrium.
• The primary tumor and thrombus may be assessed to be resectable or unresectable at the time of enrollment.
• Male participants: A male participant must agree to use a contraception as detailed in Appendix 3 of this protocol during the 120 day neoadjuvant treatment period and for at least 90 days after the last dose of study treatment and refrain from donating sperm during this period. Female participants: A female participant is eligible to participate if she is not pregnant, not breastfeeding, and at least one of the following conditions applies:
• Not a woman of childbearing potential (WOCBP) OR
• A WOCBP who agrees to follow the contraceptive guidance during the treatment period and for at least 30 days after the last dose of study treatment.
• The participant (or legally acceptable representative if applicable) provides written informed consent for the trial.
• Have measurable disease based on RECIST 1.1. Lesions situated in a previously irradiated area are considered measurable if progression has been demonstrated in such lesions.
• Have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 to 1. Evaluation of ECOG is to be performed within 14 days prior to the first dose of study intervention.
• Criteria for known Hepatitis B and C positive subjects Hepatitis B and C screening tests are not required unless: * Known history of HBV or HCV infection * As mandated by local health authority Hepatitis B positive subjects: Participants who are HBsAg positive are eligible if they have received HBV antiviral therapy for at least 4 weeks and have undetectable HBV viral load prior to randomization. Participants should remain on anti-viral therapy throughout study intervention and follow local guidelines for HBV anti-viral therapy post completion of study intervention. Hepatitis C positive subjects: Participants with history of HCV infection are eligible if HCV viral load is undetectable at screening.
• Participants must have completed curative anti-viral therapy at least 4 weeks prior to randomization
• HIV-positive participants may be enrolled.
• HIV-infected participants must have well-controlled HIV on ART, defined as:
• Participants on ART must have a CD4+ T-cell count ≥350 cells/mm3 at the time of screening 2. Participants on ART must have achieved and maintained virologic suppression defined as confirmed HIV RNA level below 50 or the LLOQ (below the limit of detection) using the locally available assay at the time of screening and for at least 12 weeks before screening 3. It is advised that participants must not have had any AIDS-defining opportunistic infections within the past 12 months.
• Participants on ART must have been on a stable regimen, without changes in drugs or dose modification, for at least 4 weeks before study entry (Day 1) and agree to continue ART throughout the study 5. The combination ART regimen must not contain any antiretroviral medications that interact with CYP3A4 inhibitors/inducers/substrates (https://www.fda.gov/drugs/drug-interactions-labeling/drug-development-and-drug-interactions-table-substrates-inhibitors-and-inducers)
• Have adequate organ function as defined in the following table (Table 4). Specimens must be collected within 14 days prior to the start of study intervention.
Exclusion Criteria:
• A WOCBP who has a positive urine pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to allocation (see Appendix 3). If the urine test is positive or cannot be confirmed as negative, a serum pregnancy test will be required.
• Has received prior therapy with an anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1, or anti PD L2 agent or with an agent directed to another stimulatory or co-inhibitory T-cell receptor (eg, CTLA-4, OX 40, CD137).
• Has received prior systemic anti-cancer therapy including investigational agents prior to allocation.
• Has received prior radiotherapy within 2 weeks of start of study intervention. Participants must have recovered from all radiation-related toxicities, not require corticosteroids, and not have had radiation pneumonitis. A 1-week washout is permitted for palliative radiation (≤2 weeks of radiotherapy) to non-CNS disease.
• Has received a live vaccine within 30 days prior to the first dose of study drug. Examples of live vaccines include, but are not limited to, the following: measles, mumps, rubella, varicella/zoster (chicken pox), yellow fever, rabies, Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG), and typhoid vaccine. Seasonal influenza vaccines for injection are generally killed virus vaccines and are allowed; however, intranasal influenza vaccines (eg, FluMist®) are live attenuated vaccines and are not allowed. COVID-19 vaccines are permitted provided they are not live attenuated vaccines.
• Is currently participating in or has participated in a study of an investigational agent or has used an investigational device within 4 weeks prior to the first dose of study intervention with the exception of participating in the exploratory imaging trial utilizing 89Zr-DFO-Atezolizumab ImmunoPET/CT (STU-2019-0714).
• Has a diagnosis of immunodeficiency or is receiving chronic systemic steroid therapy (in dosing exceeding 10 mg daily of prednisone equivalent) or any other form of immunosuppressive therapy within 7 days prior to the first dose of study drug.
• Has a known additional malignancy that is progressing or has required active treatment within the past year. Participants with basal cell carcinoma of the skin, squamous cell carcinoma of the skin or carcinoma in situ (eg, breast carcinoma, cervical cancer, bladder in situ) that have undergone potentially curative therapy are not excluded.
• Has known active CNS metastases and/or carcinomatous meningitis. Participants with previously treated brain metastases may participate provided they are radiologically stable, i.e. without evidence of progression for at least 4 weeks by repeat imaging (note that the repeat imaging should be performed during study screening), clinically stable and without requirement of steroid treatment for at least 14 days prior to first dose of study intervention.
• Has more than three different sites of metastatic renal cell carcinoma.
• Has severe hypersensitivity (≥Grade 3) to pembrolizumab and lenvatinib and/or any of its excipients.
• Has active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in the past 2 years (i.e. with use of disease modifying agents, corticosteroids or immunosuppressive drugs). Replacement therapy (eg., thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency, etc.) is not considered a form of systemic treatment and is allowed.
• Has a history of (non-infectious) pneumonitis that required steroids or has current pneumonitis.
• Has an active infection requiring systemic therapy.
• Has a history or current evidence of any condition, therapy, or laboratory abnormality that might confound the results of the study, interfere with the participant's participation for the full duration of the study, or is not in the best interest of the participant to participate, in the opinion of the treating investigator.
• Has known psychiatric or substance abuse disorders that would interfere with cooperation with the requirements of the trial.
• Is pregnant or breastfeeding or expecting to conceive or father children within the projected duration of the study, starting with the screening visit through 120 days after the last dose of trial treatment.
• Has had an allogenic tissue/solid organ transplant.
• Has prolongation of QTcF interval to \>480 ms.
• Has a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) below the institutional (or local laboratory) normal range, as determined by multigated acquisition (MUGA) or echocardiogram (ECHO).
• Patients with an ejection fraction (LVEF) of 50 or greater are eligible to enroll on the study
• Patients with an ejection fraction (LVEF) of 40 to 49 are eligible to enroll on the study if they they DO NOT have signs of New York Heart Association Class III or IV congestive heart failure: i. NYHA Class III signs of congestive heart failure include marked limitation of physical activity - ordinary activity or movements cause significant fatigue, heart palpitations, or shortness of breath ii. NYHA Class IV signs of congestive heart failure include being unable to carry out physical activity without discomfort, having symptoms of heart failure at rest, if physical activity or movement is undertaken, discomfort increase c. Patients with an ejection fraction (LVEF) of 39 or less are not eligible to enroll on the study.
• Has clinically significant cardiovascular disease within 12 months from first dose of study intervention, including New York Heart Association Class III or IV congestive heart failure, unstable angina, myocardial infarction, cerebral vascular accident, or cardiac arrhythmia associated with hemodynamic instability. Note: Medically controlled arrhythmia would be permitted.
• If urinalysis reveals proteinuria of 2+ or 500mg/dL greater based on the scale below, the patient will need to undergo a 24 hour urine collection, if the patient has 2000mg/24 hour or great of protein in the 24 hour the urine collection they are NOT ELIGIBLE for the study. If urinalysis protein is negative, trace, 1+, or urinalysis protein is reported in the range 0-499mg/dL protein, the patient IS ELIGIBLE to enroll on the study and does not need to complete a 24 hour urine collection:
• 1+ = 200 - 500 mg/24 hours
• 2+ = 500 - 1500 mg/24 hours
• 3+ = over 2500 mg/24 hours
• 4+ = over 3000 mg/24 hours.
• Uncontrolled blood pressure defined as consistently elevated blood pressure with a Systolic BP\>140 mmHg or diastolic BP \>90 mmHg in spite of an optimized regimen of antihypertensive medication are not able to enroll on the study. However, patients with borderline, isolated, or occasional elevation of blood pressure readings are eligible to enroll on the trial. If the treating physician believes the blood pressure elevation is transient the patient may enroll and blood pressure will be monitored during the study. Patients with persistent hypertension may be initiated on antihypertensive medication by the treating physician if deemed necessary and may enroll on the study. The treating physician may also adjust antihypertensive medication in the attempt to achieve a normal blood pressure while the patient is in screening and on study. It is at the discretion of the enrolling physician to continue adjusting the hypertension medication while the patient is enrolled and treated on the study to maintain adequate blood pressure readings.
• HIV-infected participants with a history of Kaposi's sarcoma and/or Multicentric Castleman's Disease.
• Patients with active Hepatitis B infection (defined as HBsAg positive and/or detectable HBV DNA).
• Patients with active Hepatitis C infection (defined as anti-HCV Ab positive and detectable HCV RNA).
• Hepatitis B and C screening tests are not required unless there is a known history of HBV and HCV infection or as mandated by local health authority.
DRUG: Neoadjuvant Lenvatinib, DRUG: Neoadjuvant Pembrolizumab, PROCEDURE: Radical nephrectomy, IVC thrombectomy, retroperitoneal lymph node dissection, DRUG: Adjuvant Pembrolizumab
Renal Cell Carcinoma, Kidney, Cardiovascular
Renal Cell Carcinoma, IVC tumor thrombus, Neoadjuvant therapy, Immunotherapy, Nephrectomy
UT Southwestern
Tiragolumab and Atezolizumab for the Treatment of Relapsed or Refractory SMARCB1 or SMARCA4 Deficient Tumors
This phase I/II trial studies how well tiragolumab and atezolizumab works when given to children and adults with SMARCB1 or SMARCA4 deficient tumors that have either come back (relapsed) or do not respond to therapy (refractory). SMARCB1 or SMARCA4 deficiency means that tumor cells are missing the SMARCB1 and SMARCA4 genes, seen with some aggressive cancers that are typically hard to treat. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as tiragolumab and atezolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Laura Klesse
ALL
12 Months and over
PHASE1
NCT05286801
STU-2022-0879
Inclusion Criteria:
* Patients must be \>= 12 months of age at the time of study enrollment. For part A, patients must be \< 18 years old at enrollment. For part B, there is no upper age limit
* The Part B (phase 2) cohorts will initially open concurrently with the part A but will only enroll patients at least 18 years of age. Patients \< 18 years of age will be included in the part B cohorts only after the tiragolumab monotherapy dose has been assessed to be safe in the part A portion
* Patients must have SMARCB1 (INI1) or SMARCA4 deficient tumors verified through institutional immunohistochemistry (IHC) or molecular confirmation of a pathologic SMARCB1 (INI1) or SMARCA4 loss or mutation in the tumor from a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified lab with the following disease histologies:
* Renal medullary carcinoma
* Malignant rhabdoid tumor (extra-CNS)
* Atypical teratoid rhabdoid tumor (CNS)
* Poorly differentiated chordoma
* Epithelioid sarcoma
* Other SMARCB1 or SMARCA4 deficient tumors
* Note: Molecular studies will only be used if IHC is equivocal or cannot be performed. Documentation of the institutional IHC or molecular testing must be uploaded via the RAVE system
* Part A: Patients must have either measurable or evaluable disease Part B: Patients must have measurable disease per RECIST v1.1 for non-CNS tumors or CNS response criteria for CNS tumors
* Note: See protocol for specific exclusion for patients with CNS primary or metastatic disease
* Patients must have relapsed, refractory disease or newly diagnosed disease for which there is no known curative therapy or therapy proven to prolong survival with an acceptable quality of life
* Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1 or 2 (Karnofsky/Lansky score of \>= 50). Use Karnofsky for patients \> 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =\< 16 years of age. Note: Neurologic deficits in patients with CNS tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment. Patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
* Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anti-cancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anti-cancer directed therapy prior to enrollment. If after the required timeframe, the numerical eligibility criteria are met, e.g., blood count criteria, the patient is considered to have recovered adequately
* Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anti-cancer agents known to be myelosuppressive: See Developmental Therapeutics (DVL) homepage on the Children's Oncology Group (COG) Members site for commercial and investigational agent classifications. For agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned Research Coordinator prior to enrollment
* \>= 21 days after the last dose of myelosuppressive chemotherapy (42 days if prior nitrosourea). Please refer to the table of myelosuppressive/Anticancer Agents on the COG website: https://www.cogmembers.org/uploadedFiles/Site/Disc/DVL/Documents/TableOfMyelosuppressiveAnti-CancerAgents.pdf
* Anti-cancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g., not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil count \[ANC\] counts): \>= 7 days after the last dose of agent. See the DVL homepage on the COG Members site for commercial and investigational agent classifications. For agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned Research Coordinator prior to enrollment
* Antibodies: \>= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =\< 1
* Hematopoietic growth factors: \>= 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g., pegfilgrastim) or 7 days for short acting growth factor. For agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur
* Interleukins, interferons and cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors): \>= 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon or cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors)
* Stem cell infusions (with or without total-body irradiation \[TBI\]):
* Autologous stem cell infusion including boost infusion: \>= 30 days
* Cellular therapy: \>= 30 days after the completion of any type of cellular therapy (e.g., modified T cells, natural killer \[NK\] cells, dendritic cells, etc.)
* External radiation therapy (XRT)/external beam irradiation including protons: \>= 14 days after local XRT; \>= 90 days after TBI, craniospinal XRT or if radiation to \>= 50% of the pelvis; \>= 42 days if other substantial bone marrow (BM) radiation
* Radiopharmaceutical therapy (e.g., radiolabeled antibody, iodine I 131 metaiodobenzylguanidine \[131I MIBG\]): \>= 42 days after systemically administered radiopharmaceutical therapy
* Patients must not have had prior TIGIT targeting therapy
* Patients must not have received prior therapy with an anti- PD-1, anti-PD-L1, anti-PD-L2, or anti-CTLA4 agent or with an agent directed to another stimulatory or co-inhibitory T cell receptor (i.e. OX-40, CD137)
* Patients must not have received live/attenuated vaccine within 30 days of first dose of treatment
* Patients must not be receiving concomitant systemic steroid medications and \>= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of systemic corticosteroid with the following exceptions:
* The use of physiologic doses of corticosteroids (5 mg/m\^2/day up to 10 mg/day of prednisone equivalent) is acceptable
* The use of topical, inhaled, or ophthalmic corticosteroids are acceptable
* The use of acute, low-dose systemic immunosuppressant medication or a one-time pulse dose of systemic immunosuppressant medication (e.g., 48 hours of corticosteroids for a contrast allergy) are acceptable
* Treatment with systemic immunosuppressive medication (including, but not limited to, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, thalidomide, and anti-tumor necrosis factor-alpha \[TNF-alpha\] agents) must have concluded \>= 14 days prior to study enrollment
* For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement
* Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \>= 1000/uL (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement
* Platelet count \>= 100,000/uL (transfusion independent, defined as not receiving platelet transfusions for at least 7 days prior to enrollment) (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Patients with known bone marrow metastatic disease will be eligible for study provided they meet the blood counts above (may receive transfusions provided they are not known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusions). These patients will not be evaluable for hematologic toxicity
* A creatinine based on age/sex as follows (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment):
* Age; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL)
* 1 to \< 2 years; Male: 0.6; Female: 0.6
* 2 to \< 6 years; Male: 0.8; Female: 0.8
* 6 to \< 10 years; Male: 1; Female: 1
* 10 to \< 13 years; Male: 1.2; Female: 1.2
* 13 to \< 16 years; Male: 1.5; Female: 1.4
* \>= 16 years; Male: 1.7; Female: 1.4 OR- a 24 hour urine creatinine clearance \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment) OR- a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2. GFR must be performed using direct measurement with a nuclear blood sampling method OR direct small molecule clearance method (iothalamate or other molecule per institutional standard) (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Note: Estimated GFR (eGFR) from serum creatinine, cystatin C or other estimates are not acceptable for determining eligibility
* Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated or total) =\< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Patients with known Gilbert disease: Total bilirubin =\< 3 x ULN
* Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase \[ALT\]) =\< 135 U/L (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment). For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L
* Albumin \>= 2 g/dL (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Patients with seizure disorder may be enrolled if on anticonvulsants and well controlled as evidenced by no increase in seizure frequency in the prior 7 days
* Nervous system disorders (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events \[CTCAE\] v5) resulting from prior therapy must be =\< grade 2, with the exception of decreased tendon reflex (DTR). Any grade of DTR is eligible
* International normalized ratio (INR) =\< 1.5 (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Serum amylase =\< 1.5 x ULN (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Serum lipase =\< 1.5 x ULN (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
* Grade 1 or lower calcium level
* Note: can have history of hypercalcemia as long as controlled and asymptomatic
Exclusion Criteria:
* Pregnant or breast-feeding women will not be entered on this study due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies, OR because there is yet no available information regarding human fetal or teratogenic toxicities. Pregnancy tests must be obtained in female patients of childbearing potential. Female patients of childbearing potential are defined as those who are past the onset of menarche and are not surgically sterile (i.e., bilateral salpingectomy, bilateral oophorectomy, complete hysterectomy) or post-menopausal. Males or females of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use two effective methods of birth control, including a medically accepted barrier or contraceptive method (e.g., male or female condom) for the duration of therapy and at least 90 days after final dose of tiragolumab and 150 days after final dose of atezolizumab, whichever is later. Abstinence is an acceptable method of birth control.
* It is not known if atezolizumab or tiragolumab are present in breast milk; however, IgG immunoglobulins are found in milk. Due to the potential for serious adverse reactions in the breastfed infant, breastfeeding is not recommended during therapy and for at least 150 days after the last dose of atezolizumab and 90 days after the last dose of tiragolumab, whichever is later
* Concomitant medications:
* Corticosteroids:
* Patients must not be receiving concomitant systemic steroid medications and \>= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of systemic corticosteroid with the following exceptions:
* The use of physiologic doses of corticosteroids (5 mg/m\^2/day up to 10 mg/day of prednisone equivalent) is acceptable
* The use of topical, inhaled, or ophthalmic corticosteroids are acceptable
* The use of acute, low-dose systemic immunosuppressant medication or a one-time pulse dose of systemic immunosuppressant medication (e.g. 48 hours of corticosteroids for a contrast allergy) are acceptable
* Investigational drugs: Patients who are currently receiving another investigational drug are not eligible
* Anti-cancer Agents: Patients who are currently receiving other anti-cancer agents are not eligible
* Systemic immunosuppressive medications (including, but not limited to, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, and thalidomide) during study treatment because these agents could potentially alter the efficacy and safety of study treatments would not be eligible
* Patients must not have a known hypersensitivity to any component of tiragolumab or atezolizumab injection
* History of severe allergic anaphylactic reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteins
* Known hypersensitivity to Chinese hamster ovary cell products or to any component of the atezolizumab or tiragolumab formulation
* Patients who have undergone allogeneic bone marrow or allogeneic cell transplant are not eligible
* Patients with CNS metastases from non-CNS primary tumors are not eligible unless CNS metastases have been previously treated and sequential imaging shows no evidence for active disease in the CNS.
* Patients with primary CNS tumors (including ATRT) with involvement of the brainstem are not eligible. Note: Patients with ATRT with M0-M4 disease without involvement of the brain stem are allowed to participate
* Patients must not have active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in the past 12 months, or a documented history of clinically severe autoimmune disease, or a syndrome that requires systemic steroids or immunosuppressive agents. Subjects with vitiligo or resolved childhood asthma/atopy are not excluded. Replacement therapy (e.g. thyroxine, insulin, physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency, etc.) is not considered a form of systemic treatment and these patients are eligible
* Patients who have active immune deficiency are not eligible
* Patients who have known active tuberculosis are not eligible
* Hepatitis B or C infection:
* Patients \< 18 years old at enrollment, who have known hepatitis B or C
* Patients \>= 18 years old at enrollment with:
* Positive hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), OR
* Positive total hepatitis B core antibody (HBcAb) who have a quantitative hepatitis B virus (HBV) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) \>= 500 IU/mL, OR
* Positive hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody with a positive HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) test
* Note: For adults (\>= 18 years old at enrollment), hepatitis B serology testing is required to determine eligibility. The HBV DNA test is required only for patients who have a negative HBsAg test, a negative HBsAb test, and a positive total HBcAb test. For adults (\>= 18 years old at enrollment), hepatitis C serology testing is required to determine eligibility. The HCV RNA test is required only for patients who have a positive HCV antibody test
* Patients who have a known, recent Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection or known history of chronic, active infection are not eligible
* Patients who have history of or active human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are not eligible except patients who are stable on anti-retroviral therapy, have a CD4 count \>= 200/uL, and have an undetectable viral load
* Patients who have significant cardiovascular disease (such as New York Heart Association class III or IV congestive heart failure, myocardial infarction, or cerebrovascular accident) within 3 months prior to study enrollment, unstable arrhythmia, or unstable angina are not eligible
* Patients who have a major surgical procedure, other than for diagnosis, within 4 weeks prior to study enrollment, or the anticipation of the need for a major surgical procedure during the study are not eligible
* Patients who have a history of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, organizing pneumonia, drug-induced pneumonitis, idiopathic pneumonitis, or known active pneumonitis are not eligible. History of radiation pneumonitis in the radiation field is permitted
* Patients who have uncontrolled pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, or ascites requiring recurrent drainage procedures (once monthly or more frequently) are not eligible. Patients with indwelling catheters (e.g., PleurX) are allowed
* Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
* Patients who have received a prior solid organ transplantation are not eligible
* Patients who in the opinion of the investigator may not be able to comply with the safety monitoring requirements of the study are not eligible BIOLOGICAL: Atezolizumab, PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, PROCEDURE: Computed Tomography, PROCEDURE: Echocardiography Test, OTHER: Fludeoxyglucose F-18, PROCEDURE: Magnetic Resonance Imaging, PROCEDURE: Positron Emission Tomography, BIOLOGICAL: Tiragolumab, PROCEDURE: X-Ray Imaging
Atypical Teratoid/Rhabdoid Tumor, Epithelioid Sarcoma, Kidney Medullary Carcinoma, Malignant Solid Neoplasm, Poorly Differentiated Chordoma, Recurrent Atypical Teratoid/Rhabdoid Tumor, Recurrent Chordoma, Recurrent Epithelioid Sarcoma, Recurrent Kidney Medullary Carcinoma, Recurrent Malignant Solid Neoplasm, Recurrent Rhabdoid Tumor, Refractory Atypical Teratoid/Rhabdoid Tumor, Refractory Chordoma, Refractory Epithelioid Sarcoma, Refractory Kidney Medullary Carcinoma, Refractory Malignant Solid Neoplasm, Refractory Rhabdoid Tumor, Rhabdoid Tumor, Bones and Joints, Soft Tissue
Children’s Health
Venetoclax and Azacitidine for Treatment of Therapy Related or Secondary Myelodysplastic Syndrome
This phase II trial studies the effect of venetoclax and azacitidine in treating patients with therapy related or secondary myelodysplastic syndrome. Venetoclax may stop the growth of cancer cells by blocking Bcl-2, a protein needed for cancer cell survival. Chemotherapy drugs, such as azacitidine, work in different ways to stop the growth of cancer cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Giving venetoclax in combination with azacitidine may work better in treating patients with therapy related or secondary myelodysplastic syndrome.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Yazan Madanat
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE2
NCT05379166
STU-2022-0513
Inclusion Criteria:
* Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document
* Age \>= 18 years at time of informed consent. Both men and women and members of all races and ethnic groups will be included
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of =\< 2
* Previously untreated therapy related myelodysplastic syndrome (t-MDS) with Revised International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R) risk categories Intermediate, High or Very High (i.e., minimum IPSS-R score of 3.5) and presence of \< 20% bone marrow blasts per bone marrow biopsy/aspirate
* Patients with t-MDS which is defined as patients who have had prior anti-cancer therapy including chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy
* Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) \< 3.0 x upper limit of normal (ULN) x upper limit of normal (ULN; local laboratory)
* Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) \< 3.0 x ULN x ULN
* Total bilirubin =\< 2 x ULN (except for patients with known Gilbert's syndrome)
* Creatinine clearance \>= 30 mL/min OR serum creatinine \< 1.5 x the ULN
* White blood cell (WBC) count =\< 10,000/uL
* Note: Treatment with hydroxyurea is permitted to lower the WBC to reach this inclusion criterion. The WBC should be determined \>= 24 hours after the last dose of hydroxyurea. The last dose of hydroxyurea should not be administered =\< 3 days prior to the first dose of azacitidine
* Females of childbearing potential (FOCBP) must agree to adequate contraception (1 form of contraception or abstinence) from the screening visit until 30 days following the last dose of venetoclax. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she or her partner is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately
* FOCBP are those who have not been surgically sterilized or have not been free from menses for \> 1 year without an alternative medical cause
* Male patients of childbearing potential having intercourse with females of childbearing potential must agree to abstain from heterosexual intercourse or have their partner use 2 forms of contraception from the screening visit until 90 days after the last dose of study treatment. They must also refrain from sperm donation from the screening visit until 90 days following the last dose of study treatment
Exclusion Criteria:
* Participant has received prior therapy with a venetoclax or other BH3 mimetic. Note: Prior supportive care in form of transfusions or growth factors, etc., is not considered prior therapy. Supportive care should be discontinued \>= 14 days prior to the first dose of study drug. Subjects may continue oral corticosteroids for management of conditions other than MDS (e.g., asthma, rheumatoid arthritis) at a stable daily dose equivalent to =\< 10 mg prednisone during screening and study participation
* Subject has a diagnosis other than previously untreated de novo MDS with IPSS-R risk categories Intermediate, High or Very High, including:
* MDS with IPSS-R risk categories Very Low or Low (overall IPSS score \< 3)
* MDS evolving from a pre-existing myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN)
* MDS/MPN including chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML), atypical chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML) and unclassifiable MDS/MPN
* Patients who are suitable for and willing to receive intensive chemotherapy or eligible to proceed to allogeneic stem cell transplantation without additional therapy
* Known history of testing positive for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infections, Hepatitis B, or Hepatitis C. For countries where HIV status is mandatory: testing positive for HIV during screening using a local test.
* Clinically significant ventricular arrhythmia (e.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, or Torsades de pointes)
* Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, serious cardiac arrhythmia, myocardial infarction within 6 months prior to enrollment, New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV heart failure
* Patients with uncontrolled infection will not be enrolled until infection is treated and under control
* Hypersensitivity to any study agent when administered alone. Any concurrent condition that, in the Investigator's opinion, would jeopardize the safety of the patient or compliance with the protocol
* Any psychiatric illness that prevents patient from informed consent process
* Pregnant of breastfeeding at the time of enrollment
* Subject has received allogeneic HSCT or solid organ transplantation
* Subject has a concurrent active malignancy requiring treatment or with an expected life expectancy less than 1 year with the exception of below. Any subject with a concurrent active malignancy will be reviewed by the PI for eligibility prior to enrollment
* Adequately treated in situ carcinoma of the cervix uteri
* Adequately treated basal cell carcinoma or localized squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
* Asymptomatic prostate cancer without known metastatic disease and with no requirement for therapy
* Subject exhibits evidence of other clinically significant uncontrolled condition(s) including, but not limited to:
* Ongoing systemic infection (viral, bacterial, or fungal)
* Acute pneumonia
* Febrile neutropenia
* Subject has received strong or moderate CYP3A inducers within 7 days prior to the first dose of study drug
* Subject has received strong or moderate CYP3A inhibitors within 7 days prior to the first dose of study drug
* Subject has consumed one or more of the following within 3 days prior to the first dose of study drug:
* Grapefruit or grapefruit products
* Seville oranges (including marmalade containing Seville oranges)
* Star fruit (carambola)
* Subject has a malabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes an enteral route of administration
* Subject has history of a cardiovascular, endocrinologic, hepatic, immunologic metabolic, neurologic, psychiatric, pulmonary, renal disease, or any other condition that in the opinion of the investigator would adversely affect his/her participation in this study or interpretation of study results
* Subject has received a live attenuated vaccine within 4 weeks prior to the first dose of study drug DRUG: Azacitidine, OTHER: Quality-of-Life Assessment, OTHER: Questionnaire Administration, DRUG: Venetoclax
Secondary Myelodysplastic Syndrome, Therapy-Related Myelodysplastic Syndrome, Myeloid and Monocytic Leukemia
UT Southwestern
Ocrelizumab Discontinuation in Relapsing Multiple Sclerosis (AMS05)
This study is a prospective, multi-center, randomized, double blinded, placebo-controlled study of OCR treatment-discontinuation in patients with early RMS. All eligible participants will be initiated on OCR using the standard approved administration schedule of two 300 mg infusions separated by 14 days (i.e., Days 0 and 14) for a total of 600 mg, followed by 600 mg infusions at Month 6,12, 18, and 24. At Month 24, participants will be randomized (2:1) to one of two Arms with randomized treatment beginning at Month 30: Arm 1: placebo infusions every 6 months; or Arm 2: OCR infusions every 6 months. The treatment period will be for a total of 48 months.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Manuel.Huichapa@UTSouthwestern.edu
Benjamin Greenberg
ALL
18 Years to 55 Years old
PHASE4
NCT05285891
STU-2022-1218
Inclusion Criteria:
• Have at least one clinical episode that satisfies McDonald 2017 criteria for early Multiple sclerosis (MS) for up to 2 years post-event with a dissemination in time that can be met clinically, by Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), or based on oligoclonal band (OCB) positivity
• Have a length of disease duration, from first symptom, of ≤ 2 years
• For women of childbearing potential: Agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use effective methods of contraception during the treatment period and for at least 6 months after the last dose of study drug:
• A woman is considered to be of childbearing potential if she is postmenarcheal, has not reached a postmenopausal state (≥12 continuous months of amenorrhea with no identified cause other than menopause), and has not undergone surgical sterilization (removal of ovaries and/or uterus)
• Examples of contraceptive methods include bilateral tubal ligation, male sterilization, established hormonal contraceptives that inhibit ovulation, hormone- releasing intrauterine devices, and copper intrauterine devices
• The reliability of sexual abstinence should be evaluated in relation to the duration of the clinical trial and the preferred and usual lifestyle of the participant. Periodic abstinence (e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, or post ovulation methods) and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception
• Barrier methods must always be supplemented with the use of a spermicide
Exclusion Criteria:
• Inability or unwillingness of a participant to give written informed consent or comply with study protocol
• History of Primary Progressive Multiple Sclerosis (PPMS), Progressive Relapsing Multiple Sclerosis (PRMS), or Secondary Progressive Multiple Sclerosis (SPMS)
• Any metallic material or electronic device in the body, or condition that precludes the participant from undergoing Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
• Known presence or history of other neurological disorders, including but not limited to the following:
• Ischemic cerebrovascular disorders, including but not limited to transient ischemic attack, subarachnoid hemorrhage, cerebral thrombosis, cerebral embolism, or cerebral hemorrhage
• Central Nervous System (CNS) or spinal cord tumor, metabolic or infectious cause of myelopathy, genetically inherited progressive CNS disorder, CNS sarcoidosis, or systemic autoimmune disorders potentially causing progressive neurologic disease or affecting ability to perform the study assessments
• Pregnancy or lactation a. Female participants of childbearing potential must have a negative urine pregnancy test at screening
• Any concomitant disease that may require chronic systemic treatment with corticosteroids or immunosuppressants during the course of the study
• Lack of peripheral venous access
• History of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions to humanized or murine monoclonal antibodies
• Significant, inadequately controlled (e.g. diagnostic evaluations indicated or change in medications warranted) disease, such as cardiovascular (including cardiac arrhythmia), pulmonary (including obstructive pulmonary disease), renal, hepatic, endocrine, and gastrointestinal or any other significant disease that in the opinion of the investigator may preclude participant from participating in the study
• Functional status of NY Heart Association (NYHA) Class III or higher for heart failure at the screening visit
• Known active bacterial, viral, fungal, mycobacterial infection or other infection (including tuberculosis \[TB\] or atypical mycobacterial disease but excluding limited superficial fungal or viral infections of the skin or nails) or any severe episode of infection requiring hospitalization or treatment with Intravenous (IV) antibiotics within 4 weeks prior to baseline visit or oral antibiotics within 2 weeks prior to baseline visit
• Active or chronic infection with Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), syphilis or TB (see laboratory tests below)
• Evidence of past or current hepatitis B or hepatitis C infection, including treated hepatitis B or hepatitis C. Hepatitis B surface antibody following hepatitis B immunization is not considered to be evidence of past infection
• Known active malignancy or active monitoring for recurrence of malignancy, including solid tumors and hematological malignancies, except basal cell, in situ squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, and in situ carcinoma of the cervix or the uterus that have been excised with clear margins
• Substance use disorder, including the recurrent use of alcohol and/or drugs within the past year associated with clinically significant impairment associated with failure to meet major responsibilities at work, school, or home
• Receipt of live or live-attenuated vaccines within 4 weeks prior to baseline
• Contraindications to or severe intolerance of oral or IV corticosteroids, including Intravenous (IV) methylprednisolone administered according to the country label, including:
• Psychosis not controlled by a treatment
• Hypersensitivity to any of the constituents or excipients of the preceding steroids
• Current or prior treatment with the following MS DMTs: fingolimod and other S1P receptor modulators, cladribine, natalizumab, anti-CD20 molecules, alemtuzumab, and chemotherapeutic agents
• Treatment with fumarates within 30 days prior to baseline
• Current or prior treatment with any experimental therapies (e.g., bone marrow transplant), investigational agent, or treatment with any experimental procedure for MS (e.g., treatment for chronic cerebrospinal venous insufficiency)
• Systemic corticosteroid therapy within 4 weeks prior to screening
• Laboratory test results as follows: a. Positive infection screening tests for: i. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HbsAg) or hepatitis B core antibody (HbcAb) ii. Hepatitis C (HCV) antibody, if positive screen for HCV RNA Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) iii. Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) iv. HIV v. At or within twelve months of screening: * Positive QuantiFERON(R)-TB Gold test or positive purified protein derivative tuberculin skin test (PPD) (\>5mm induration, regardless of Bacille Calmette Guerin \[BCG\] vaccine administration) unless completion of treatment has been documented for active TB * An indeterminate QuantiFERON(R)-TB Gold test unless followed by a subsequent negative PPD or negative QuantiFERON(R)-TB Gold test as well as a consultation with and clearance by local infectious disease (ID) department b. Levels of serum immunoglobulin G (IgG) \< 3.3g/L c. Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) \< 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 using Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration (CKD-EPI) equation d. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or alanine aminotransferase (ALT)\>= 2.0 x the upper limit of normal (ULN) e. Platelet count \< 100,000 plt/mcL (\< 100 x 10\^9/L) f. Hemoglobin \< 10 g/dL g. Absolute neutrophil count \< 1.5 × 10⁹/L h. Absolute lymphocyte count \< 1.2 x 10⁹/L
• Past or current medical problems or findings from physical examination or laboratory testing that are not listed above, which, in the opinion of the investigator, may pose additional risks from participation in the study, may interfere with the participant's ability to comply with study requirements or that may impact the quality or interpretation of the data obtained from the study
DRUG: Ocrelizumab, DRUG: Placebo for Ocrelizumab
Multiple Sclerosis
Ocrelizumab, Multiple sclerosis, Relapse
UT Southwestern
Chemotherapy for the Treatment of Patients With Newly Diagnosed Very Low-Risk and Low Risk Fusion Negative Rhabdomyosarcoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma is a type of cancer that occurs in the soft tissues in the body. This phase III trial aims to maintain excellent outcomes in patients with very low risk rhabdomyosarcoma (VLR-RMS) while decreasing the burden of therapy using treatment with 24 weeks of vincristine and dactinomycin (VA) and examines the use of centralized molecular risk stratification in the treatment of rhabdomyosarcoma. Another aim of the study it to find out how well patients with low risk rhabdomyosarcoma (LR-RMS) respond to standard chemotherapy when patients with VLR-RMS and patients who have rhabdomyosarcoma with DNA mutations get separate treatment. Finally, this study examines the effect of therapy intensification in patients who have RMS cancer with DNA mutations to see if their outcomes can be improved.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Matthew Campbell
ALL
up to 21 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05304585
STU-2022-0692
Inclusion Criteria:
* All patients must be enrolled on APEC14B1 (NCT02402244) and consented to the Molecular Characterization Initiative (Part A) prior to enrollment and treatment on ARST2032 (this trial).
* Patients must be =\< 21 years at the time of enrollment.
* Patients must have newly diagnosed embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma (ERMS), spindle cell/sclerosing RMS, or FOXO1 fusion negative alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma (ARMS) (institutional FOXO1 fusion results are acceptable). RMS types included under ERMS include those classified in the 1995 International Classification of Rhabdomyosarcoma (ICR) as ERMS (classic, spindle cell, and botryoid variants), which are reclassified in the 2020 World Health Organization (WHO) classification as ERMS (classic, dense and botryoid variants) and spindle cell/sclerosing RMS (encompassing the historical spindle cell ERMS variant and the newly recognized sclerosing RMS variant). Enrollment in APEC14B1 is required for all patients.
* All patients will be evaluated for stage and clinical group. Note that clinical group designation assigned at the time of enrollment on study remains unchanged regardless of any second-look operation that may be performed.
* Patients will be eligible for the very low-risk stratum (Regimen VA) if they have Stage 1, CG I disease.
* Patients will be eligible for the low-risk stratum (Regimen VAC/VA) if they have Stage 1, CG II disease, Stage 2, CG I or II disease, or Stage 1, CG III (orbit only) disease.
* Paratesticular Tumors: Staging ipsilateral retroperitoneal lymph node sampling (SIRLNS) is required for all patients \>= 10 years of age with paratesticular tumors who do not have gross nodal involvement on imaging.
* Extremity Tumors: Regional lymph node sampling is required for histologic evaluation in patients with extremity tumors.
* Clinically or radiographically enlarged nodes must be sampled for histologic evaluation.
* Patients must have a Lansky (for patients =\< 16 years of age) or Karnofsky (for patients \> 16 years of age) performance status score of \>= 50. Patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing performance score.
* Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \>= 750/uL (within 7 days prior to enrollment).
* Platelet count \>= 75,000/uL (transfusion independent) (within 7 days prior to enrollment).
* Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) \>= 70 mL/min/1.73 m\^2 or a serum creatinine (within 7 days prior to enrollment) based on age/gender as follows:
* Age: 1 month to \< 6 months; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 0.4 (male) : 0.4 (female)
* Age: 6 months to \< 1 year; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 0.5 (male) : 0.5 (female)
* Age: 1 to \< 2 years; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 0.6 (male) : 0.6 (female)
* Age: 2 to \< 6 years; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 0.8 (male) : 0.8 (female)
* Age: 6 to \< 10 years; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 1 (male) : 1 (female)
* Age: 10 to \< 13 years; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 1.2 (male) : 1.2 (female)
* Age: 13 to \< 16 years; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 1.5 (male) : 1.4 (female)
* Age \>= 16 years; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): 1.7 (male) : 1.4 (female)
* Total bilirubin =\< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment), and
* If there is evidence of biliary obstruction by the tumor, then the total bilirubin must be \< 3 x ULN for age.
* Note: For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L.
* Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase \[ALT\]) =\< 135 U/L
* If there is evidence of biliary obstruction by the tumor, then the total bilirubin must be \< 3 x ULN for age
* Note: For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L
* All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent.
* All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patients who have received prior chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy for cancer prior to enrollment. Surgical resection alone of previous cancer(s) is permitted.
* Patients who have received chemotherapy or radiation for non-malignant conditions (e.g., autoimmune diseases) are eligible. Patients must discontinue chemotherapy for non-malignant conditions prior to starting protocol therapy.
* Vincristine is sensitive substrate of the CYP450 3A4 isozyme. Patients must not have received drugs that are moderate to strong CYP3A4 inhibitors and inducers within 7 days prior to study enrollment.
* Patients unable to undergo radiation therapy, if necessary, as specified in the protocol.
* Evidence of uncontrolled infection.
* Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential.
* Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants.
* Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation. PROCEDURE: Biopsy, PROCEDURE: Bone Scan, PROCEDURE: Computed Tomography, DRUG: Cyclophosphamide, BIOLOGICAL: Dactinomycin, PROCEDURE: Magnetic Resonance Elastography, PROCEDURE: Positron Emission Tomography, RADIATION: Radiation Therapy, DRUG: Vincristine
Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma, Fusion-Negative Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma, Spindle Cell/Sclerosing Rhabdomyosarcoma, Sarcoma
Children’s Health
A Study of Daratumumab, Bortezomib, Lenalidomide and Dexamethasone (DVRd) Followed by Ciltacabtagene Autoleucel Versus Daratumumab, Bortezomib, Lenalidomide and Dexamethasone (DVRd) Followed by Autologous Stem Cell Transplant (ASCT) in Participants With Newly Diagnosed Multiple Myeloma (CARTITUDE-6)
The purpose of this study is to compare the efficacy of Daratumumab, Bortezomib, Lenalidomide and Dexamethasone (DVRd) followed by Ciltacabtagene Autoleucel versus Daratumumab, Bortezomib, Lenalidomide and Dexamethasone (DVRd) followed by Autologous Stem Cell Transplant (ASCT) in newly diagnosed multiple myeloma patients.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Larry Anderson
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE3
NCT05257083
STU-2023-1215
Inclusion Criteria:
* Participants with documented NDMM according to IMWG diagnostic criteria, for whom high-dose therapy and ASCT are part of the intended initial treatment plan.
* Measurable disease, as assessed by central laboratory, at screening as defined by any of the following:
• Serum monoclonal paraprotein (M-protein) level ≥1.0 g/dL or urine M-protein level ≥200 mg/24 hours; or
• Light chain MM without measurable disease in serum or urine: serum Ig free-light chain (FLC) ≥10 mg/dL and abnormal serum Ig kappa lambda FLC ratio. * ECOG performance status of grade 0 or 1 * Clinical laboratory values within prespecified range.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Prior treatment with CAR-T therapy directed at any target.
* Any prior BCMA target therapy.
* Any prior therapy for MM or smoldering myeloma other than a short course of corticosteroids
* Received a strong cytochrome P450 (CYP)3A4 inducer within 5 half-lives prior to randomization
* Received or plans to receive any live, attenuated vaccine (except for COVID-19 vaccines) within 4 weeks prior to randomization.
* Known active, or prior history of central nervous system (CNS) involvement or clinical signs of meningeal involvement of MM
* Stroke or seizure within 6 months of signing Informed Consent Form (ICF) DRUG: Daratumumab, DRUG: Bortezomib, DRUG: Lenalidomide, DRUG: Dexamethasone, DRUG: Cilta-cel, DRUG: Cyclophosphamide, DRUG: Fludarabine
Multiple Myeloma
Cellular Therapy, CAR-T Therapy, BCMA CAR-T, Newly Diagnosed Multiple Myeloma
UT Southwestern
4D-710 in Adult Patients With Cystic Fibrosis (CF)
This is a Phase 1/2 multicenter, open-label, single dose trial of 4D-710 investigational gene therapy in adults with cystic fibrosis.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, LYNN.FERNANDEZ@UTSouthwestern.edu
Raksha Jain
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE1
NCT05248230
STU-2022-0409
Key Inclusion Criteria (Primary Study):
• 18 years and older
• Confirmed diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF) and CF lung disease including:
• Sweat chloride ≥ 60 mmol/L
• Mutation Status * Bi-allelic mutations in the CFTR gene, or * Single mutation in the CFTR gene and clinical manifestations of CF lung disease
• Ineligible for CFTR modulator therapy, or previously received modulator therapy but discontinued due to adverse effects.
• Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) ≥ 50% and ≤ 90% of predicted (per Global Lung Function Initiative) at Screening
• Resting oxygen saturation ≥ 92% on room air at Screening Key Inclusion Criteria (Sub-Study):
• 18 years and older
• Confirmed diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF) and CF lung disease including:
• Sweat chloride ≥ 60 mmol/L
• Mutation Status * Bi-allelic mutations in the CFTR gene, or * Single mutation in the CFTR gene and clinical manifestations of CF lung disease
• Currently on a stable dose of CFTR modulator therapy (elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor) for a minimum of 60 days prior to Screening and agree to maintain current regimen through the 12-month Observation Period
• FEV1 ≥ 40% and \< 70% predicted (per Global Lung Function Initiative) at Screening, AND/OR experienced at least 2 pulmonary exacerbations in the last year requiring intravenous antibiotics Key Exclusion Criteria (Primary and Sub Study):
• Any prior gene therapy for any indication (Exception: mRNA-based therapies are not exclusionary)
• Active Mycobacterium abscessus infection requiring ongoing treatment at Screening
• Active allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis requiring management with systemic corticosteroids or antifungal therapy
• Contraindication to systemic corticosteroid therapy
• Requires chronic use of systemic corticosteroids or immunosuppressants to treat another condition
• If no known diagnosis of cystic fibrosis related diabetes (CFRD), Type I, or Type II diabetes: Hemoglobin A1C ≥ 6.5% at Screening
• If known diagnosis of CFRD, Type I or Type II diabetes: Hemoglobin A1C \> 7.5% at Screening
• Recent history of symptomatic hyperglycemia or unstable blood glucose levels as per Investigator's assessment
• Other conditions that, in the Investigator's opinion, may interfere with management of corticosteroid-related hyperglycemia
• Body Mass Index (BMI) \< 16
• Laboratory abnormalities at screening: * ALT, AST or GGT ≥ 3 × the upper limit of normal (ULN) * Total bilirubin ≥ 2 × ULN * Hemoglobin \< 10 g/dL
• Requirement for continuous or night-time oxygen supplementation
• Known CF liver disease with evidence of multilobular cirrhosis
• History of thrombosis (excluding catheter-related thrombosis) or conditions associated with increased risk of thrombosis
• 18 years and older
• Confirmed diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF) and CF lung disease including:
• Sweat chloride ≥ 60 mmol/L
• Mutation Status * Bi-allelic mutations in the CFTR gene, or * Single mutation in the CFTR gene and clinical manifestations of CF lung disease
• Ineligible for CFTR modulator therapy, or previously received modulator therapy but discontinued due to adverse effects.
• Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) ≥ 50% and ≤ 90% of predicted (per Global Lung Function Initiative) at Screening
• Resting oxygen saturation ≥ 92% on room air at Screening Key Inclusion Criteria (Sub-Study):
• 18 years and older
• Confirmed diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF) and CF lung disease including:
• Sweat chloride ≥ 60 mmol/L
• Mutation Status * Bi-allelic mutations in the CFTR gene, or * Single mutation in the CFTR gene and clinical manifestations of CF lung disease
• Currently on a stable dose of CFTR modulator therapy (elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor) for a minimum of 60 days prior to Screening and agree to maintain current regimen through the 12-month Observation Period
• FEV1 ≥ 40% and \< 70% predicted (per Global Lung Function Initiative) at Screening, AND/OR experienced at least 2 pulmonary exacerbations in the last year requiring intravenous antibiotics Key Exclusion Criteria (Primary and Sub Study):
• Any prior gene therapy for any indication (Exception: mRNA-based therapies are not exclusionary)
• Active Mycobacterium abscessus infection requiring ongoing treatment at Screening
• Active allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis requiring management with systemic corticosteroids or antifungal therapy
• Contraindication to systemic corticosteroid therapy
• Requires chronic use of systemic corticosteroids or immunosuppressants to treat another condition
• If no known diagnosis of cystic fibrosis related diabetes (CFRD), Type I, or Type II diabetes: Hemoglobin A1C ≥ 6.5% at Screening
• If known diagnosis of CFRD, Type I or Type II diabetes: Hemoglobin A1C \> 7.5% at Screening
• Recent history of symptomatic hyperglycemia or unstable blood glucose levels as per Investigator's assessment
• Other conditions that, in the Investigator's opinion, may interfere with management of corticosteroid-related hyperglycemia
• Body Mass Index (BMI) \< 16
• Laboratory abnormalities at screening: * ALT, AST or GGT ≥ 3 × the upper limit of normal (ULN) * Total bilirubin ≥ 2 × ULN * Hemoglobin \< 10 g/dL
• Requirement for continuous or night-time oxygen supplementation
• Known CF liver disease with evidence of multilobular cirrhosis
• History of thrombosis (excluding catheter-related thrombosis) or conditions associated with increased risk of thrombosis
BIOLOGICAL: 4D-710
Cystic Fibrosis Lung, Lung/Thoracic
CF, Cystic Fibrosis, Gene Therapy
UT Southwestern
Safety and Feasibility of Robotic SP Nipple Sparing Mastectomy
This is a single arm, single-center, prospective clinical trial designed to track the peri, post-operative and oncologic outcomes when utilizing the da-Vinci single port (SP) robotic platform to perform robotic nipple sparing mastectomy (rNSM) and immediate breast reconstruction with tissue expanders/implants and acellular dermal matrix (ADM - Alloderm), for patients with breast cancer as well as those with a high risk for breast cancer. Safety and feasibility measures will be measured as primary outcome measures. Oncological and patient satisfaction outcome measures will be measured. Our hypothesis is that SPr-NSM is equal to open NSM in terms of safety, feasibility and oncological outcomes with improved patient satisfaction as measured by nipple sensation and patient reported outcomes.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Deborah Farr
FEMALE
18 Years to 80 Years old
NA
NCT05245812
STU-2022-0091
Inclusion Criteria:
* Candidates for open nipple sparing mastectomy, per standard of care with regards to anatomic factors and tumor location including: nipple sparing resection and resection OR prophylactic mastectomy for risk reduction OR treatment of ductal carcinoma in-situ or clinically node negative cT1-T3 breast cancer
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1
Exclusion Criteria:
* Inability to provide informed consent
* Pregnant or nursing women
* Patients with:
* Inflammatory breast cancer
* Skin involvement with tumor
* Pre-operative diagnosis of Nipple Areolar Complex (NAC) tumor involvement
* Grade 3 or higher nipple ptosis
* Contraindicated for general anesthesia or surgery
* Heavy current smoking history (defined as \> 20 cigarettes per day) DEVICE: da Vinci SP Surgical System
Breast Cancer, High Risk of Breast Cancer, Breast - Female
UT Southwestern
Enfortumab Vedotin and Pembrolizumab in People with Bladder Cancer
This study will test whether enfortumab vedotin combined with pembrolizumab is an effective treatment for people with bladder cancer (urothelial carcinoma) involving the lymph nodes who are going to have surgery to remove their cancer (cystectomy). The researchers will look at whether treatment with enfortumab vedotin and pembrolizumab before surgery can get rid of cancer within the lymph nodes. They will also try to find out if this combination of drugs is effective at shrinking participants' cancer before their surgery. The researchers think that a combination of enfortumab vedotin and pembrolizumab may help people with this disease because both drugs are designed to help the immune system attack and kill cancer cells. The researchers think the drugs may be more effective if given in combination rather than on their own.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Tian Zhang
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE2
NCT05239624
STU-2023-0105
Inclusion Criteria:
* Male/female participants who are at least 18 years of age on the day of signing informed consent with histologically confirmed diagnosis of muscle invasive bladder cancer (previously known as transitional cell) carcinoma (i.e., cancer of the bladder, renal pelvis, ureter, or urethra)
* Clinical Stage T2-T4, N1-N3, M0 OR cT1, N2-N3, M0
* Pathology:
* Representative urothelial carcinoma FFPE tumor specimens (tumor blocks or 20 unstained slides). Patients with \< 20 slides may be enrolled after discussion with the principal investigator.
* Muscle invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder histologically confirmed at the enrolling institution from TURBT. (Urothelial carcinoma invading into the prostatic stroma with no histologic muscle invasion is allowed provided the extent of disease is confirmed via imaging and/or EUA.)
* Evidence of urothelial carcinoma from FNA of lymph node OR lymphadenopathy suspicious for nodal disease on cross-sectional imaging, MRI, or u/s.
* Node positivity for eligibility will be defined as imaging read with suspicious lymph node ≥ 1.0 cm in the short axis, with biopsy, as documented by the radiologist at the treating center. While biopsy to confirm lymph node involvement is preferred, patients without biopsy proven urothelial carcinoma in lymph nodes may be enrolled if imaging shows a lymph node ≥ 1.0 cm in the short axis, and with confirmation from the study principal investigator.
* Deemed medically appropriate for radical cystectomy with treatment response achieved, as per MSK or participating site Attending Urologic Oncologist
* Platinum eligible and ineligible patients are permitted on study
* No prior treatments for muscle invasive or metastatic urothelial carcinoma
* Have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 to 1. Evaluation of ECOG is to be performed within 7 days prior to the first dose of study intervention.
* Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) ≥ 30 ml/min/1.73 m2 using the CKD-EPI equation: eGFR = 141 x min(Scr/k, 1)a x max (Scr/k, 1)-1.209 x 0.993Age x 1.018 \[if female\] x 1.159 \[if black\]
°Scr is serum creatinine, k is 0.7 for females and 0.9 for males, a is -0.329 for females and -0.411 for males, min indicates the minimum of Scr/k or 1, and max indicates the maximum of Scr/k or 1
* Be willing and able to provide written informed consent for the trial
* Contraception requirements:
• Male participants: A male participant must agree to use a contraception as detailed in Appendix 3 of this protocol during the treatment period and for at least 120 days following the last dose of treatment, corresponding to time needed to eliminate any study treatment(s) (e.g. 5 terminal half-lives for pembrolizumab and enfortumab vedotin) plus an additional 90 days (a spermatogenesis cycle) after the last dose of study treatment and refrain from donating sperm during this period.
• Female participants: A female participant is eligible to participate if she is not pregnant (see Appendix 3), not breastfeeding, and at least one of the following conditions applies: i. Not a woman of childbearing potential (WOCBP) as defined in Appendix 3 OR ii. A WOCBP who agrees to follow the contraceptive guidance in Appendix 3 during the treatment period and for at least \[90 days (corresponding to time needed to eliminate any study treatment(s) (pembrolizumab and enfortumab vedotin) plus 30 days (a menstruation cycle)\] after the last dose of study treatment. * Have adequate organ function as defined in the following table (Table 1). Specimens must be collected within 14 days prior to the start of study treatment either prior to consent or at the study screening visit. * Hematological * Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥1500/μL * Platelets ≥100 000/μL * Hemoglobin ≥9.0 g/dL or ≥5.6 mmol/La * Renal °Measured or calculatedb creatinine clearance (GFR can also be used in place of creatinine or CrCl) GFR or CrCl of ≥ 30 mL/min * Hepatic * Total bilirubin ≤1.5 ×ULN OR direct bilirubin ≤ULN for participants with total bilirubin levels \>1.5 × ULN * AST (SGOT) and ALT (SGPT) ≤ 2.5 × ULN * Coagulation °International normalized ratio (INR) OR prothrombin time (PT) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) ≤1.5 × ULN unless participant is receiving anticoagulant therapy as long as PT or aPTT is within therapeutic range of intended use of anticoagulants ALT (SGPT)=alanine aminotransferase (serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase); AST (SGOT)=aspartate aminotransferase (serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase); GFR=glomerular filtration rate; ULN=upper limit of normal. a Criteria must be met without erythropoietin dependency and without packed red blood cell (pRBC) transfusion within last 2 weeks. b eGFR as calculated by the CKD-EPI equation can be used in place of the creatinine clearance Note: This table includes eligibility-defining laboratory value requirements for treatment; laboratory value requirements should be adapted according to local regulations and guidelines for the administration of specific chemotherapies
Exclusion Criteria:
* Evidence of NYHA functional class III or IV heart disease
* Any of the following within 6 months prior to study drug administration: myocardial infarction, severe/unstable angina, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft, symptomatic congestive heart failure, cerebrovascular accident, or transient ischemic attack
* On-going cardiac dysrhythmias of NCI CTCAE Version 5.0 grade ≥ 2. However, stable atrial fibrillation controlled medically or with a device (i.e. pacemaker) or prior ablation is allowed
* Pre-existing sensory grade ≥ 2 neuropathy
* Major surgical procedure within 28 days prior to Cycle 1, Day 1 or anticipation of need for a major surgical procedure aside from cystectomy during the course of the study. Transurethral resection or other urinary tract diagnostic procedures, excisional biopsy, IR-guided biopsy, or MEDIPORT placement are NOT defined as major surgical procedures.
* Has known psychiatric or substance abuse disorders that would interfere with cooperation with the requirements of the trial.
* A WOCBP who has a positive urine pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to allocation. If the urine test is positive or cannot be confirmed as negative, a serum pregnancy test will be required.
Note: in the event that 72 hours have elapsed between the screening pregnancy test and the first dose of study treatment, another pregnancy test (urine or serum) must be performed and must be negative in order for subject to start receiving study medication.
* Is currently enrolled in another therapeutic trial. Patients cannot receive concurrent treatment on another clinical trial; Patients are allowed to enroll on supportive care trials or non-treatment trials (e.g. QOL, dietary survey studies) concurrently
* Has received prior therapy with an anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1, or anti PD L2 agent or with an agent directed to another stimulatory or co-inhibitory T-cell receptor (eg, CTLA-4, OX 40, CD137).
* Has received prior systemic anti-cancer therapy including investigational agents within 4 weeks prior to allocation.
* Prior treatment with an antibody drug conjugate for bladder cancer directed therapy
* Prior systemic chemotherapy (prior intravesical therapy is allowed)
* Prior radiation therapy to the bladder
* Has received prior radiotherapy within 2 weeks of start of study intervention. Participants must have recovered from all radiation-related toxicities, not require corticosteroids, and not have had radiation pneumonitis. A 1-week washout is permitted for palliative radiation (≤2 weeks of radiotherapy) to non-CNS disease.
* Has received a live vaccine or live-attenuated vaccine within 30 days prior to the first dose of study drug. 1. Examples of live vaccines include, but are not limited to, the following: measles, mumps, rubella, varicella/zoster (chicken pox), yellow fever, rabies, Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG), and typhoid vaccine. Seasonal influenza vaccines for injection are generally killed virus vaccines and are allowed; however, intranasal influenza vaccines (eg, FluMist®) are live attenuated vaccines and are not allowed. Administration of killed vaccines is allowed. COVID-19 vaccination is permitted.
°Influenza vaccination should be given during influenza season only (approximately October to March). Patients must not receive live, attenuated influenza vaccine (e.g., FluMist®) within 4 weeks prior to Cycle 1, Day 1 or at any time during the study.
* Has receieved intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) within 4 weeks before Cycle 1, Day 1 14.
* Has a diagnosis of immunodeficiency or is receiving chronic systemic steroid therapy (in dosing exceeding 10 mg daily of prednisone equivalent) or any other form of immunosuppressive therapy within 7 days prior to the first dose of study drug.
* Has a history of poorly controlled human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) related illness. Patients with a history of an aids-defining opportunistic infection within the last 12 months or who are on prophylactic antimicrobials related to underlying HIV are not eligible. Patients with a history of HIV and a CD4 T cell count of ≥350 are eligible to enroll in this study with the approval of the study PI.
* Subjects with uncontrolled diabetes. Uncontrolled diabetes is defined as hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) ≥8% or HbA1c 7% to \<8% with associated diabetes symptoms (polyuria or polydipsia) that are not otherwise explained.
* Has a history of autoimmune disease, including but not limited to myasthenia gravis, myositis, autoimmune hepatitis, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, Wegener's granulomatosis, vascular thrombosis associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, Sjogren's syndrome, Guillain-Barre syndrome, multiple sclerosis, systemic vasculitis, or glomerulonephritis.
* Patients with history of autoimmune related hypothyroidism on stable dose of thyroid replacement hormone may be eligible for this study
* Patients with controlled Type I diabetes mellitus on a stable dose of insulin may be eligible for this study
* Has a history of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonitis/interstitial lung disease that requires steroids or has current pneumonitis/interstitial lung disease (including drug induced), organizing pneumonia (i.e., bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, etc.), or evidence of active pneumonitis on screening chest computed tomography (CT) scan
* Patients with active hepatitis B virus (HBV, chronic or acute, defined as having a positive hepatitis B surface antigen \[HBsAg\] test at screening) or hepatitis C antibody
* Patients with past HBV infection or resolved HBV infection (defined as the presence of hepatitis B core antibody \[HBc Ab\] and absence of HBsAg) are eligible. HBV DNA must be obtained in these patients prior to Cycle 1, Day 1 and confirmed to be negative.
* Patients positive for hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody are eligible only if polymerase chain reaction is negative for HCV RNA.
* Active tuberculosis or BCG infection
* Severe infections within 4 weeks prior to Cycle 1, Day 1, including but not limited to hospitalization for complications of infection, bacteremia, or severe pneumonia
* Signs or symptoms of infection within 2 weeks prior to Cycle 1, Day 1. Abnormal urinalysis does not constitute signs/symptoms of infection unless urine culture obtained at screening grows ≥ 100,000 colonies of bacteria.
* Therapeutic oral or IV antibiotics within 2 weeks prior to Cycle 1, Day 1
* Patients receiving prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., for prevention of a urinary tract infection or to prevent chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation) are eligible.
* Patients receiving antibiotics for active infection are not eligible
* Prior allogeneic stem cell or solid organ transplant
* AEs from prior anticancer therapy that have not resolved to Grade ≤ 1 except for alopecia
* Patients with a history of or active bone marrow disorders expected to interfere with study therapy (e.g. acute leukemias, accelerated/blast-phase chronic myelogenous leukemia, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, Burkitt lymphoma, plasma cell leukemia, or non-secretory myeloma)
* Known clinically significant liver disease, including active viral, alcoholic, or other hepatitis; cirrhosis; and inherited liver disease
* Any other diseases, metabolic dysfunction, physical examination finding, or clinical laboratory finding giving reasonable suspicion of a disease or condition that contraindicates the use of an investigational drug or that may affect the interpretation of the results or render the patient at high risk from treatment complications
* Patients with active keratitis or history of corneal ulcers are excluded
* Patients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus of vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions:
* Rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA)
* Disease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, flucinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, aclometasone dipropionate 0.05%)
* No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation \[PUVA\], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)
* Malignancies other than the disease under study within 5 years prior to Cycle 1, Day 1, with the exception of those with a negligible risk of metastasis or death and with expected curative outcome (such as adequately treated carcinoma in situ of the cervix, basal or squamous cell skin cancer, localized prostate cancer treated surgically with curative intent, or ductal carcinoma in situ treated surgically with curative intent) or undergoing active surveillance per standard-ofcare management (e.g. prostate cancer with Gleason score ≤ 7, and prostate-specific antigen \[PSA\] ≤ 10 mg/mL, etc). DRUG: Enfortumab vedotin, DRUG: Pembrolizumab
Urothelial Carcinoma, Gall Bladder, Urinary Bladder
Locally Advanced and/or Node Positive, Enfortumab vedotin, Pembrolizumab, Clinical Stage T2-T4, N1-N3, M0 OR cT1, N2-N3, M0, 21-316
UT Southwestern
Phase 3 Study to Evaluate the Efficacy and Safety of HER2/Neu Peptide GLSI-100 (GP2 + GM-CSF) in HER2/Neu Positive Subjects (FLAMINGO-01)
This is a prospective, randomized, double-blinded, placebo-controlled, multi-center, Phase 3 study of GLSI-100 immunotherapy in HLA-A\*02 positive and HER2/neu positive subjects who are at high risk for disease recurrence and have completed both neoadjuvant and postoperative adjuvant standard of care therapy. Treatment consists of 6 intradermal injections, Primary Immunization Series (PIS), over the first 6 months of treatment and 5 booster intradermal injections spaced 6 months apart. A third open-label arm will explore GLSI-100 immunotherapy in non-HLA-A\*02 positive and HER2/neu positive subjects.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Nisha Unni
ALL
18 Years to 100 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05232916
STU-2023-0621
Inclusion Criteria:
* HLA-A\*02-positive, unless being enrolled in the third non-HLA-A\*02 arm
* Histologically confirmed diagnosis of HER2/neu positive primary breast cancer for all tumors biopsied (multifocal, multicentric, or synchronous contralateral disease)
* Completion of both neoadjuvant and adjuvant trastuzumab-based standard of care breast cancer therapy
* Stage I, II, or III at presentation with pathologic evidence of residual invasive carcinoma in the breast or axillary lymph nodes (residual disease) at surgery following completion of neoadjuvant therapy -OR- Stage III at presentation with pathologic complete response (pCR) at surgery following completion of neoadjuvant therapy
* The subject can begin study therapy within one year of completion of adjuvant trastuzumab-based therapy and any other standard therapies, but, study therapy can be administered concurrently with endocrine therapy.
* No clinical evidence of residual or persistent breast cancer per treating physician assessment
* ECOG 0-2
* Adequate organ function
* Negative pregnancy test or evidence of post-menopausal status
* If of childbearing potential, willing to use a form of highly effective contraception
* Subject must both reside in and have been treated for their cancer in the country in which the clinical site is located.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Stage IV cancer or metastatic breast cancer at any time
* Inflammatory breast cancer
* Receiving other investigational agents
* Receiving chemotherapy
* Requiring long-term systemic treatment with corticosteroids or other immunosuppressive therapy
* History of immunodeficiency or active autoimmune disease
* A history of serious allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis, to human granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factors such as sargramostim, yeast-derived products, or any component of the investigational product
* Other malignancies except adequately treated in situ carcinoma of the cervix or basal cell or squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
* Active infection
* Known HIV infection with a detectable viral load within 6 months of the anticipated start of treatment. Note: Subjects on effective antiretroviral therapy with an undetectable viral load within 6 months of the anticipated start of treatment are eligible for this trial. BIOLOGICAL: Placebo, BIOLOGICAL: GLSI-100
Breast Cancer, Breast - Female, Breast - Male
HER2/neu positive, Residual disease, pCR, Extended adjuvant, GP2, Immunotherapy, HLA type
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
A Study of Ivaltinostat Plus Capecitabine or Capecitabine in Metastatic Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma
This study is a Phase 1b/2, dose-escalation, randomized, multicenter study to assess the efficacy, safety, tolerability, and PK of ivaltinostat in combination with capecitabine and capecitabine monotherapy in patients with metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma whose disease has not progressed on a first line fluoropyrimidine-based chemotherapy (e.g., FOLFIRINOX). In Phase 1b, 3 dose levels of ivaltinostat will be studied in combination with a fixed dose of capecitabine to determine the RP2D of ivaltinostat. In Phase 2, patients will be randomized in a 1:1 ratio to the combination of ivaltinostat and capecitabine or to capecitabine monotherapy. A fixed dose for capecitabine 1000 mg/m2 orally twice daily will be taken on Days 1 to 14, and the RP2D of ivaltinostat will be administered intravenously once a week for 2 weeks, followed by 1 week of rest. One cycle consists of 21 days. Tumor response during study treatment will be assessed every 6 weeks up to Cycle 10, then every 9 weeks afterwards using RECIST v1.1 criteria.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Salwan Al Mutar
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE1
NCT05249101
STU-2023-0604
Inclusion Criteria:
* Age: ≥18 years
* For Phase 1b, histologically or cytologically confirmed pancreatic adenocarcinoma (locally advanced or metastatic) with at least 1 prior therapy in either the advanced or perioperative setting
* For Phase 1b, measurable disease and/or non-measurable disease per RECIST v1.1
* For Phase 2, histologically or cytologically confirmed pancreatic adenocarcinoma without evidence of disease progression while receiving initial chemotherapy for metastatic disease (e.g., must have had a demonstrated CR, PR, or SD following initial chemotherapy).
* For Phase 2, measurable disease and/or non-measurable or no evidence of disease assessed by baseline CT (or MRI where CT is contraindicated). RECIST v1.1 will be used to allow for assessment of disease progression due to new lesions in patients with no evidence of disease at baseline. Patients with no evidence of disease following FOLFIRINOX chemotherapy will be deemed to have radiographic disease progression if new lesions are detected.
* For Phase 2, treatment with FOLFIRINOX for metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma at full or modified doses, for a minimum of 16 weeks, and no evidence of progression based on the radiographic imaging.
* a. Randomization must occur within 6 weeks of the last dose of chemotherapy.
* b. Patients who have received at least 16 weeks of FOLFIRINOX combination regimen but had non-fluoropyrimidine chemotherapeutic agents discontinued prior to 16 weeks due to toxicity are eligible if they have no radiographic evidence of disease.
* For Phase 2, patients who received prior chemotherapy or prior chemoradiation for a prior cancer or as adjuvant/neoadjuvant treatment for pancreatic adenocarcinoma are eligible provided at least 12 months have elapsed between the last dose of treatment and initiation of the FOLFIRINOX chemotherapy for metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma.
* Prior radiation therapy is allowed, provided \>14 days have elapsed since completion of radiation prior to randomization.
* Adequate organ function
* ECOG Performance Status 0-1 at the date of signing the informed consent.
Exclusion Criteria:
* For Phase 2, radiographic progression of tumor per RECIST 1.1 between start of first line FOLFIRINOX chemotherapy for metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma and randomization.
* Cytotoxic chemotherapy or non-hormonal targeted therapy within 28 days of Cycle 1 Day 1 is not permitted. Palliative radiotherapy must have been completed 14 or more days before Cycle 1 Day 1. The patient can receive a stable dose of bisphosphonates or RANKL directed therapy for bone metastases before and during the study as long as these were initiated at least 2 weeks prior to study treatment
* For Phase 2, not receiving FOLFIRINOX as initial therapy for metastatic PDAC. Patients who received FOLFIRINOX initially and who needed to discontinue irinotecan or oxaliplatin due to toxicity are eligible, provided they received at least 4 weeks (2 cycles) of FOLFIRINOX
* For Phase 2, more than 1 prior line of therapy for metastatic PDAC
* Exposure to an investigational agent within 30 days or 5 half-lives (whichever is longer) prior to randomization
* Any previous treatment with a HDAC inhibitor, including ivaltinostat DRUG: Ivaltinostat, DRUG: Capecitabine
Metastatic Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma, Pancreas
UT Southwestern
Namodenoson in the Treatment of Advanced Hepatocellular Carcinoma in Patients With Child-Pugh Class B7 Cirrhosis (LIVERATION)
This is a clinical trial in patients with advanced hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and Child-Pugh Class B7 (CPB7) cirrhosis whose disease has progressed on at least 1st-line therapy. The trial will evaluate the efficacy and safety of namodenoson as compared to placebo.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
David Hsieh
All
18 Years and over
Phase 3
NCT05201404
STU-2022-1196
Inclusion Criteria:
• Males and females at least 18 years of age.
• Diagnosis of HCC:
• For patients without cirrhosis at the time of diagnosis, histologic confirmation is required (archival tissue is acceptable).
• For patients with underlying cirrhosis at the time of diagnosis, diagnosis of HCC established according to the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases Practice Guideline algorithm (Marrero 2018).
• HCC is advanced (i.e., treatment-refractory or metastatic) and no standard therapies are expected to be curative.
• HCC has progressed on at least 1, but no more than 2, prior systemic treatment regimens; prior locoregional therapy is allowed.
• Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer (BCLC) Stage B or C (Llovet 1999).
• Prior HCC treatment was discontinued for at least 2 weeks prior to the Baseline Visit.
• Measurable disease by RECIST v1.1 (Eisenhauer 2009).
• ECOG PS of ≤ 1.
• Cirrhosis classified as CPB7; if ascites is used as a scoring criterion, it must be classified as Grade ≥2 by the Clinical Practice Guidelines of the European Association for the Study of the Liver (EASL 2010).
• The following laboratory values must be documented within ten days prior to the first dose of study drug:
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥ 1.5 × 109/L
• Platelet count at least 75 × 10^9/L
• Creatinine clearance at least 50 mg/dL (estimated glomerular filtration rate by the Cockcroft-Gault or the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease methods)
• AST and ALT ≤ 5 × the upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Total bilirubin ≤ 3.0 mg/dL
• Serum albumin ≥ 2.8 g/dL.
• Life expectancy of ≥ 6 weeks.
• For women of childbearing potential, negative serum pregnancy test result.
• Provide written informed consent to participate.
• Willing to comply with scheduled visits, treatment plans, laboratory assessments, and other trial-related procedures.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Receipt of >2 prior systemic drug therapies for HCC.
• Receipt of systemic cancer therapy, immunomodulatory drug therapy, immunosuppressive therapy, or corticosteroids > 20 mg/day prednisone or equivalent within 14 days prior to the Baseline Visit or concurrently during the trial.
• Locoregional treatment within 4 weeks prior to the Baseline Visit.
• Major surgery or radiation therapy within 4 weeks prior to the Baseline Visit.
• Use of any investigational agent within 4 weeks prior to the Baseline Visit.
• Concomitant use of P-glycoprotein (P-gp)/breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP) inhibitors and/or substrates with a narrow therapeutic index unless the medication can be taken at least 3 hours before or after taking the investigational product (see Section 12.2).
• Child-Pugh Class A, B8/9, or C cirrhosis.
• Hepatic encephalopathy.
• Occurrence of esophageal or other gastrointestinal hemorrhage requiring transfusion within 4 weeks prior to the Baseline Visit.
• Uncontrolled or clinically unstable thyroid disease, per judgment of the Principal Investigator.
• Active bacterial, viral, or fungal infection requiring systemic therapy or operative or radiological intervention.
• Known human immunodeficiency virus- or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome-related illness.
• Liver transplant.
• Active malignancy other than HCC.
• Uncontrolled arterial hypertension or congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association Classification 3 or 4).
• Angina, myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular accident, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft surgery, transient ischemic attack, or pulmonary embolism within 3 months prior to initiation of study drug.
• History of, or ongoing, cardiac dysrhythmias requiring treatment, atrial fibrillation of any grade, or persistent prolongation of the QTc (Fridericia) interval to > 470 msec (patients with bundle branch block will not be excluded for QTc reasons).
• Pregnant or lactating female.
• Women of childbearing potential, unless they agree to use dual contraceptive methods which, in the opinion of the Investigator, are effective and adequate for the patient's circumstances while on study drug.
• Men who partner with a woman of childbearing potential, unless they agree to use effective, dual contraceptive methods (i.e., a condom, with female partner using oral, injectable, or barrier method) while on study drug and for 3 months afterward.
• Any severe, acute, or chronic medical or psychiatric condition, or laboratory abnormality that may increase the risk associated with trial participation or study drug administration; may interfere with the informed consent process and/or with compliance with the requirements of the trial; or may interfere with the interpretation of trial results and, in the Investigator's opinion, would make the patient inappropriate for entry into this trial.
Drug: Namodenoson, Drug: Placebo
Hepatocellular Carcinoma, Cirrhosis, Liver
Hepatocellular carcinoma, HCC, Liver cancer, Child-Pugh Class B7 cirrhosis, CPB7
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Thoracotomy Versus Thoracoscopic Management of Pulmonary Metastases in Patients With Osteosarcoma
This phase III trial compares the effect of open thoracic surgery (thoracotomy) to thoracoscopic surgery (video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery or VATS) in treating patients with osteosarcoma that has spread to the lung (pulmonary metastases). Open thoracic surgery is a type of surgery done through a single larger incision (like a large cut) that goes between the ribs, opens up the chest, and removes the cancer. Thoracoscopy is a type of chest surgery where the doctor makes several small incisions and uses a small camera to help with removing the cancer. This trial is being done evaluate the two different surgery methods for patients with osteosarcoma that has spread to the lung to find out which is better.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Matthew Campbell
ALL
up to 50 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05235165
STU-2022-0187
Inclusion Criteria:
* Patients must be \< 50 years at the time of enrollment.
* Patients must have =\< 4 nodules per lung consistent with or suspicious for metastases, with at least one of which being \>= 3 mm and all of which must be =\< 3 cm size.
* Note: Patient must have eligibility confirmed by rapid central imaging review.
* Lung nodules must be considered resectable by either open thoracotomy or thoracoscopic surgery. Determination of resectability is made by the institutional surgeon.
* Patients must have a histological diagnosis of osteosarcoma.
* Patients must have evidence of metastatic lung disease at the time of initial diagnosis, or at time of 1st recurrence following completion of therapy for initially localized disease.
* Patients with newly diagnosed disease must have completed successful gross tumor resection for their primary tumor or surgical local control of primary tumor must be planned to be performed simultaneously with thoracic surgery.
* Newly diagnosed patients must be receiving or recently completed (within 60 days) systemic therapy considered by the treating physician to be standard treatment for newly diagnosed osteosarcoma (eg, cisplatin-doxorubicin or ifosfamide-based drug regimens) at the time of enrollment on this study. Dose and drug modifications for toxicity do not exclude patients from participation.
* Patients at time of 1st recurrence must have completed systemic therapy for their initial primary tumor, considered by the treating physician to be standard treatment for newly diagnosed osteosarcoma (eg, cisplatin-doxorubicin or ifosfamide-based drug regimens) at the time of enrollment on this study. Dose and drug modifications for toxicity do not exclude patients from participation.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patients with unresectable primary tumor.
* Patients with pulmonary metastatic lesions that would require anatomic resection (lobectomy or pneumonectomy) or lesions that are defined as "central" (i.e., central lesion involves or is proximal to segmental bronchi and peripheral is lesion distal to segmental bronchi).
* Patients with chest wall or mediastinal based metastatic lesions, or with significant pleural effusion.
* Patients with disease progression at either the primary or pulmonary metastatic site while on initial therapy. Note: Once the patient has been enrolled on the study, additional computed tomography (CT) scans are not anticipated prior to thoracic surgery. Note: Some variation in nodule size measurements over the course of pre-operative therapy is anticipated and does not qualify for exclusion unless deemed true disease progression by the primary treatment team.
* Patients with evidence of extrapulmonary metastatic disease.
* Patients who received therapeutic pulmonary surgery for lung metastasis prior to enrollment.
* All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent.
* All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met. PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, PROCEDURE: Computed Tomography, OTHER: Questionnaire Administration, PROCEDURE: Thoracoscopy, PROCEDURE: Thoracotomy
Metastatic Malignant Neoplasm in the Lung, Metastatic Osteosarcoma, Osteosarcoma, Bones and Joints, Lung/Thoracic
Children’s Health
Venetoclax in Children With Relapsed Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
A study to evaluate if the randomized addition of venetoclax to a chemotherapy backbone (fludarabine/cytarabine/gemtuzumab ozogamicin \[GO\]) improves survival of children/adolescents/young adults with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in 1st relapse who are unable to receive additional anthracyclines, or in 2nd relapse.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Kathleen Ludwig
ALL
29 Days to 21 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05183035
STU-2022-0725
Inclusion Criteria
* Participants must have enrolled on APAL2020SC, NCT Number: NCT04726241 prior to enrollment on ITCC-101/APAL2020D. (This is only applicable for participants in USA/Canada/Australia/New Zealand sites/LLS territory).
* Participants must be ≥ 29 days of age and ≤ 21 years of age at enrollment.
* Participants must have one of the following:
* Children, adolescents, and young adults with acute myeloid leukemia without FLT3/internal tandem duplication (ITD) mutation in:
• Second relapse, who are sufficiently fit to undergo another round of intensive chemotherapy
• First relapse who per investigator discretion cannot tolerate additional anthracycline containing chemotherapy. * Participants must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1 or 2 (≥ 50% Lansky or Karnofsky score) * Participants must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anti-cancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anti-cancer directed therapy prior to start of protocol treatment:
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy: Must not have received cytotoxic chemotherapy within 14 days prior to start of protocol treatment, except for corticosteroids, low dose cytarabine or hydroxyurea that can be given up to 24 hours prior to start of protocol treatment.
• Intrathecal cytotoxic therapy: No wash-out time is required for participants having received any combination of intrathecal cytarabine, methotrexate, and/or hydrocortisone.
• Antibodies: ≥ 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of an antibody-drug conjugate before start of protocol treatment. For unmodified antibodies or T cell engaging antibodies, 2 half-lives must have elapsed before start of protocol treatment. Any toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to Grade ≤ 1.
• Interleukins, Interferons and Cytokines (other than Hematopoietic Growth Factors): ≥ 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon or cytokines (other than Hematopoietic Growth Factors) before start of protocol treatment.
• Hematopoietic growth factors: ≥ 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g., pegfilgrastim) or ≥7 days for short-acting growth factor before start of protocol treatment.
• Radiation therapy (RT) (before start of protocol treatment): * ≥ 14 days have elapsed for local palliative RT (small port); * ≥ 84 days must have elapsed if prior craniospinal RT or if ≥ 50% radiation of pelvis; * ≥ 42 days must have elapsed if other substantial bone marrow (BM) radiation.
• Stem Cell Infusions (before start of protocol treatment): * ≥ 84 days since allogeneic (non-autologous) bone marrow or stem cell transplant (with or without total body irradiation \[TBI\]) or boost infusion (any stem cell product; not including donor lymphocyte infusion \[DLI\]) * No evidence of active graft versus host disease (GVHD).
• Participants who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to treat or prevent either graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant or organ rejection post-transplant are not eligible for this trial. Participants must be off medications to treat or prevent either graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant or organ rejection post-transplant for at least 14 days prior to enrollment.
• Cellular Therapy: ≥ 42 days after the completion of donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI) or any type of cellular therapy (e.g., modified T cells, natural killer \[NK\] cells, dendritic cells, etc.) before start of protocol treatment.
• Participants with prior exposure to venetoclax are eligible in this trial * Adequate organ function:
• Adequate Renal Function defined as: * Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ≥ 60ml/min/1.73 m\^2, or * Normal serum creatinine based on age/sex
• Adequate Liver Function defined as: * Direct bilirubin \< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN), and * Alkaline phosphatase ≤ 2.5 x ULN, and * Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤ 2.5 x ULN. If liver abnormality is due to radiographically identifiable leukemia infiltrate, the participant will remain eligible.
• Cardiac performance: Minimum cardiac function defined as: * No history of congestive heart failure in need of medical treatment * No pre-treatment diminished left ventricular function on echocardiography (shortening fraction \[SF\] \< 25% or ejection fraction \[EF\] \< 40%) * No signs of congestive heart failure at presentation of relapse. * Participant, parent or guardian must sign and date informed consent and pediatric assent (when required), prior to the initiation of screening or study specific procedures, according to local law and legislation. Exclusion Criteria * Participants who in the opinion of the investigator may not be able to comply with the study requirements of the study, are not eligible. * Participants with Down syndrome. * Participants with Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) or Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML). * Participants with isolated CNS3 disease or symptomatic CNS3 disease. * Participants with malabsorption syndrome or any other condition that precludes enteral administration of venetoclax. * Participants who are currently receiving another investigational drug (GO is not considered investigational in this study). * Participants with Fanconi anemia, Kostmann syndrome, Shwachman syndrome or any other known congenital bone marrow failure syndrome. * Participants with known prior allergy to any of the medications used in protocol therapy. * Participants with documented active, uncontrolled infection at the time of study entry. * No known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. * Post menarchal female participants with positive pregnancy test. * Concomitant Medications * Participants who have received strong and moderate CYP3A inducers such as rifampin, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and St. John's wort within 7 days of the start of study treatment. * Participants who have consumed grapefruit, grapefruit products, Seville oranges (including marmalade containing Seville oranges) or starfruit within 3 days of the start of study treatment. * Participants who have hypersensitivity to the active substance or to any of the excipients listed in summary of product characteristics (SPC). * Pregnancy or Breast-Feeding: * Participants who are pregnant or breast-feeding. * Participants of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use a highly effective contraceptive method per clinical trials facilitation group (CTFG) guidelines for the duration of study therapy and for 6 months after the completion of all study therapy. * Male participants must use a condom during intercourse and agree not to father a child or donate sperm during therapy and for the duration of study therapy and for 4 months after the completion of all study therapy. Additional criteria to receive a gemtuzumab ozogamicin infusion: Gemtuzumab ozogamicin should not be given: * to participants with history of veno-occlusive disease (VOD)/Sinusoidal obstruction syndrome (SOS) grade 4 * to participants with history of VOD/SOS grade 3 * to participants with CD33 negative leukemic blasts (determined at local lab) Note that these participants are eligible for the study but will not be treated with gemtuzumab ozogamicin.
• Second relapse, who are sufficiently fit to undergo another round of intensive chemotherapy
• First relapse who per investigator discretion cannot tolerate additional anthracycline containing chemotherapy. * Participants must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1 or 2 (≥ 50% Lansky or Karnofsky score) * Participants must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anti-cancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anti-cancer directed therapy prior to start of protocol treatment:
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy: Must not have received cytotoxic chemotherapy within 14 days prior to start of protocol treatment, except for corticosteroids, low dose cytarabine or hydroxyurea that can be given up to 24 hours prior to start of protocol treatment.
• Intrathecal cytotoxic therapy: No wash-out time is required for participants having received any combination of intrathecal cytarabine, methotrexate, and/or hydrocortisone.
• Antibodies: ≥ 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of an antibody-drug conjugate before start of protocol treatment. For unmodified antibodies or T cell engaging antibodies, 2 half-lives must have elapsed before start of protocol treatment. Any toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to Grade ≤ 1.
• Interleukins, Interferons and Cytokines (other than Hematopoietic Growth Factors): ≥ 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon or cytokines (other than Hematopoietic Growth Factors) before start of protocol treatment.
• Hematopoietic growth factors: ≥ 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g., pegfilgrastim) or ≥7 days for short-acting growth factor before start of protocol treatment.
• Radiation therapy (RT) (before start of protocol treatment): * ≥ 14 days have elapsed for local palliative RT (small port); * ≥ 84 days must have elapsed if prior craniospinal RT or if ≥ 50% radiation of pelvis; * ≥ 42 days must have elapsed if other substantial bone marrow (BM) radiation.
• Stem Cell Infusions (before start of protocol treatment): * ≥ 84 days since allogeneic (non-autologous) bone marrow or stem cell transplant (with or without total body irradiation \[TBI\]) or boost infusion (any stem cell product; not including donor lymphocyte infusion \[DLI\]) * No evidence of active graft versus host disease (GVHD).
• Participants who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to treat or prevent either graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant or organ rejection post-transplant are not eligible for this trial. Participants must be off medications to treat or prevent either graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant or organ rejection post-transplant for at least 14 days prior to enrollment.
• Cellular Therapy: ≥ 42 days after the completion of donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI) or any type of cellular therapy (e.g., modified T cells, natural killer \[NK\] cells, dendritic cells, etc.) before start of protocol treatment.
• Participants with prior exposure to venetoclax are eligible in this trial * Adequate organ function:
• Adequate Renal Function defined as: * Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ≥ 60ml/min/1.73 m\^2, or * Normal serum creatinine based on age/sex
• Adequate Liver Function defined as: * Direct bilirubin \< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN), and * Alkaline phosphatase ≤ 2.5 x ULN, and * Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤ 2.5 x ULN. If liver abnormality is due to radiographically identifiable leukemia infiltrate, the participant will remain eligible.
• Cardiac performance: Minimum cardiac function defined as: * No history of congestive heart failure in need of medical treatment * No pre-treatment diminished left ventricular function on echocardiography (shortening fraction \[SF\] \< 25% or ejection fraction \[EF\] \< 40%) * No signs of congestive heart failure at presentation of relapse. * Participant, parent or guardian must sign and date informed consent and pediatric assent (when required), prior to the initiation of screening or study specific procedures, according to local law and legislation. Exclusion Criteria * Participants who in the opinion of the investigator may not be able to comply with the study requirements of the study, are not eligible. * Participants with Down syndrome. * Participants with Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) or Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML). * Participants with isolated CNS3 disease or symptomatic CNS3 disease. * Participants with malabsorption syndrome or any other condition that precludes enteral administration of venetoclax. * Participants who are currently receiving another investigational drug (GO is not considered investigational in this study). * Participants with Fanconi anemia, Kostmann syndrome, Shwachman syndrome or any other known congenital bone marrow failure syndrome. * Participants with known prior allergy to any of the medications used in protocol therapy. * Participants with documented active, uncontrolled infection at the time of study entry. * No known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. * Post menarchal female participants with positive pregnancy test. * Concomitant Medications * Participants who have received strong and moderate CYP3A inducers such as rifampin, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and St. John's wort within 7 days of the start of study treatment. * Participants who have consumed grapefruit, grapefruit products, Seville oranges (including marmalade containing Seville oranges) or starfruit within 3 days of the start of study treatment. * Participants who have hypersensitivity to the active substance or to any of the excipients listed in summary of product characteristics (SPC). * Pregnancy or Breast-Feeding: * Participants who are pregnant or breast-feeding. * Participants of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use a highly effective contraceptive method per clinical trials facilitation group (CTFG) guidelines for the duration of study therapy and for 6 months after the completion of all study therapy. * Male participants must use a condom during intercourse and agree not to father a child or donate sperm during therapy and for the duration of study therapy and for 4 months after the completion of all study therapy. Additional criteria to receive a gemtuzumab ozogamicin infusion: Gemtuzumab ozogamicin should not be given: * to participants with history of veno-occlusive disease (VOD)/Sinusoidal obstruction syndrome (SOS) grade 4 * to participants with history of VOD/SOS grade 3 * to participants with CD33 negative leukemic blasts (determined at local lab) Note that these participants are eligible for the study but will not be treated with gemtuzumab ozogamicin.
DRUG: Fludarabine, DRUG: Cytarabine, DRUG: Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin, DRUG: Azacitidine, DRUG: Venetoclax
Acute Myeloid Leukemia, Leukemia, Not Otherwise Specified, Leukemia, Other
Venetoclax, Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin, Fludarabine, Cytarabine, Relapsed refractory, Azacitidine
Children’s Health
First-in-Human Study of Mutant-selective PI3Kα Inhibitor, RLY-2608, As a Single Agent in Advanced Solid Tumor Patients and in Combination with Fulvestrant in Patients with Advanced Breast Cancer
This is an open-label, FIH study designed to evaluate the maximum tolerated dose, recommended Phase 2 dose, safety, tolerability, PK, pharmacodynamics, and preliminary antineoplastic activity of RLY-2608, in advanced solid tumor patients with a Phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate-3 kinase, catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA) mutation in blood and/or tumor per local assessment. The study will evaluate RLY-2608 as a single agent for patients with unresectable or metastatic solid tumors. It will also evaluate RLY-2608 in combination RLY-2608 + fulvestrant and in triple combination RLY-2608 + fulvestrant + CDK4/6 inhibitor (palbociclib or ribociclib) or CDK4 inhibitor (PF-07220060) for patients with HR+ HER2- locally advanced or metastatic breast cancer or endometrial cancer (palbociclib or ribociclib Part 1). The RLY-2608 single agent arm, RLY-2608 + fulvestrant combination arm, and triple combination arms will have 2 parts: a dose escalation (Part 1) and a dose expansion (Part 2).
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Nisha Unni
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE1
NCT05216432
STU-2023-1126
Key Inclusion Criteria
Patient has ECOG performance status of 0-1
One or more documented primary oncogenic PIK3CA mutation(s) in blood and/or tumor per local assessment
• Other potentially oncogenic PIK3CA mutations may be considered but must be approved by the Sponsor prior to enrollment. Part 1 - Ability to provide archived tumor tissue or be willing to undergo pretreatment tumor biopsy to assess PIK3CA status retrospectively Part 2 - Submit tumor tissue prior to study drug initiation for determination of PIK3CA mutation retrospectively. Key Inclusion for RLY-2608 Single Agent Arm * \[For Part 1\]: Evaluable disease per RECIST v1.1 * \[For Part 2\]: Measurable disease per RECIST v1.1 * Disease that is refractory to standard therapy, intolerant to standard therapy, or has declined standard therapy. * Part 1- histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of unresectable or metastatic solid tumor * Part 2 - Unresectable or metastatic solid tumor with PIK3CA mutation(s) and one of the following tumor types: Group 1: clear cell ovarian cancer Group 2: head and neck squamous cell carcinoma Group 3: cervical cancer Group 4: other solid tumors, excluding colorectal, clear cell ovarian, head and neck squamous cell, and cervical cancers Group 5: unresectable or metastatic solid tumors with PIK3CA double mutations In addition, the SRC (with Sponsor approval) may choose to open additional group(s) of 20 participants to study the clinical activity, safety, and PK/PD in other specified solid tumor types. Key Inclusion for Combination Arms * \[For Part 1 and Part 2\]: Evaluable disease per RECIST v1.1 * \[For Part 1 and Part 2\]: Male or female with histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of HR+, HER2- unresectable or metastatic breast cancer that is not amenable to curative therapy. Females may be postmenopausal, premenopausal, or perimenopausal. Premenopausal or perimenopausal females must have a histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of HR+ HER2- advanced or metastatic breast cancer that is not amenable to curative therapy and must have been previously treated with GnRH agonist at least 4 weeks prior to start of study drug * \[For Part 1 and Part 2\]: Had previous treatment for breast cancer with:
• ≤1 line of chemotherapy in the metastatic setting
• ≥1 CDK4/6 inhibitor in either the adjuvant and/or metastatic setting
• ≥1 antiestrogen therapy in either adjuvant and/or metastatic setting, including, but not limited to, selective estrogen-receptor degraders (eg, fulvestrant), selective estrogen receptor modulators (eg, tamoxifen), and aromatase inhibitors (AI) (letrozole, anastrozole, exemestane), and
• ≥1 PARP inhibitor, if appropriate, if documented germline BRCA1/2 mutation Note: Systemic local, loco-regional, or adjuvant treatment with chemotherapy and PARP inhibitors is not to be included in enumeration or previous treatment \[For RLY-2608 + fulvestrant arm; Part 2, Group 2\]: Received prior treatment with a PI3Kα or AKT inhibitor and discontinued the inhibitor due to intolerance and not disease progression, where intolerance is defined as treatment discontinuation due to treatment related AE (eg. hyperglycemia, rash, diarrhea, stomatitis) other than severe hypersensitivity reaction and/or life-threatening reactions, such as anaphylaxis and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. \[For triple combination arms; Part 1 only\]: Participants who had previous treatment for breast cancer with PI3Kα or AKT inhibitors will be considered. \[For triple combination arms with ribociclib or palbociclib; Part 1 only\]: endometrial cancer may be enrolled. Key Exclusion Criteria Prior treatment with PI3Kα, AKT, or mTOR inhibitors (except for RLY-2608 + fulvestrant arm, Part 2, Group 2; and triplet combinations, Part 1). Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes requiring antihyperglycemic medication, or fasting plasma glucose ≥140 mg/dL and glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) ≥7.0%. History of hypersensitivity to PI3K inhibitors. For combination arms only: hypersensitivity to fulvestrant, palbociclib, ribociclib, and/or PF-07220060, as appropriate for the combination. Past medical history of or ongoing ILD, or pneumonitis requiring intervention. Participants with past history of resolved Grade 1 pneumonitis may be considered, except in triple combination arms. Any of the following cardiac criteria: * Mean resting corrected QT interval (QTc) \>470 msec. For triple combination arm with ribociclib: Mean QTcF ≥450 msec. * Patient has a history of prolonged QT syndrome or torsades de pointes. Patient has a familial history of prolonged QT syndrome. * Clinically significant, uncontrolled cardiovascular disease CNS metastases or primary CNS tumor that is associated with progressive neurologic symptoms
• Other potentially oncogenic PIK3CA mutations may be considered but must be approved by the Sponsor prior to enrollment. Part 1 - Ability to provide archived tumor tissue or be willing to undergo pretreatment tumor biopsy to assess PIK3CA status retrospectively Part 2 - Submit tumor tissue prior to study drug initiation for determination of PIK3CA mutation retrospectively. Key Inclusion for RLY-2608 Single Agent Arm * \[For Part 1\]: Evaluable disease per RECIST v1.1 * \[For Part 2\]: Measurable disease per RECIST v1.1 * Disease that is refractory to standard therapy, intolerant to standard therapy, or has declined standard therapy. * Part 1- histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of unresectable or metastatic solid tumor * Part 2 - Unresectable or metastatic solid tumor with PIK3CA mutation(s) and one of the following tumor types: Group 1: clear cell ovarian cancer Group 2: head and neck squamous cell carcinoma Group 3: cervical cancer Group 4: other solid tumors, excluding colorectal, clear cell ovarian, head and neck squamous cell, and cervical cancers Group 5: unresectable or metastatic solid tumors with PIK3CA double mutations In addition, the SRC (with Sponsor approval) may choose to open additional group(s) of 20 participants to study the clinical activity, safety, and PK/PD in other specified solid tumor types. Key Inclusion for Combination Arms * \[For Part 1 and Part 2\]: Evaluable disease per RECIST v1.1 * \[For Part 1 and Part 2\]: Male or female with histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of HR+, HER2- unresectable or metastatic breast cancer that is not amenable to curative therapy. Females may be postmenopausal, premenopausal, or perimenopausal. Premenopausal or perimenopausal females must have a histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of HR+ HER2- advanced or metastatic breast cancer that is not amenable to curative therapy and must have been previously treated with GnRH agonist at least 4 weeks prior to start of study drug * \[For Part 1 and Part 2\]: Had previous treatment for breast cancer with:
• ≤1 line of chemotherapy in the metastatic setting
• ≥1 CDK4/6 inhibitor in either the adjuvant and/or metastatic setting
• ≥1 antiestrogen therapy in either adjuvant and/or metastatic setting, including, but not limited to, selective estrogen-receptor degraders (eg, fulvestrant), selective estrogen receptor modulators (eg, tamoxifen), and aromatase inhibitors (AI) (letrozole, anastrozole, exemestane), and
• ≥1 PARP inhibitor, if appropriate, if documented germline BRCA1/2 mutation Note: Systemic local, loco-regional, or adjuvant treatment with chemotherapy and PARP inhibitors is not to be included in enumeration or previous treatment \[For RLY-2608 + fulvestrant arm; Part 2, Group 2\]: Received prior treatment with a PI3Kα or AKT inhibitor and discontinued the inhibitor due to intolerance and not disease progression, where intolerance is defined as treatment discontinuation due to treatment related AE (eg. hyperglycemia, rash, diarrhea, stomatitis) other than severe hypersensitivity reaction and/or life-threatening reactions, such as anaphylaxis and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. \[For triple combination arms; Part 1 only\]: Participants who had previous treatment for breast cancer with PI3Kα or AKT inhibitors will be considered. \[For triple combination arms with ribociclib or palbociclib; Part 1 only\]: endometrial cancer may be enrolled. Key Exclusion Criteria Prior treatment with PI3Kα, AKT, or mTOR inhibitors (except for RLY-2608 + fulvestrant arm, Part 2, Group 2; and triplet combinations, Part 1). Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes requiring antihyperglycemic medication, or fasting plasma glucose ≥140 mg/dL and glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) ≥7.0%. History of hypersensitivity to PI3K inhibitors. For combination arms only: hypersensitivity to fulvestrant, palbociclib, ribociclib, and/or PF-07220060, as appropriate for the combination. Past medical history of or ongoing ILD, or pneumonitis requiring intervention. Participants with past history of resolved Grade 1 pneumonitis may be considered, except in triple combination arms. Any of the following cardiac criteria: * Mean resting corrected QT interval (QTc) \>470 msec. For triple combination arm with ribociclib: Mean QTcF ≥450 msec. * Patient has a history of prolonged QT syndrome or torsades de pointes. Patient has a familial history of prolonged QT syndrome. * Clinically significant, uncontrolled cardiovascular disease CNS metastases or primary CNS tumor that is associated with progressive neurologic symptoms
DRUG: RLY-2608, DRUG: Fulvestrant, DRUG: Palbociclib 125mg, DRUG: Ribociclib 400mg, DRUG: Ribociclib 600mg, DRUG: PF-07220060 100mg, DRUG: PF-07220060 300 mg
PIK3CA Mutation, Solid Tumor, Adult, HER2-negative Breast Cancer, Breast Cancer, Metastatic Breast Cancer, Advanced Breast Cancer, Unresectable Solid Tumor, Endometrial Cancer, Breast - Female, Breast - Male
UT Southwestern
Colon Adjuvant Chemotherapy Based on Evaluation of Residual Disease (CIRCULATE-US)
This Phase II/III trial will evaluate the what kind of chemotherapy to recommend to patients based on the presence or absences of circulating tumor DNA (ctDNA) after surgery for colon cancer.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Nilesh Verma
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE2
NCT05174169
STU-2023-0699
Inclusion Criteria:
The patient must have an ECOG performance status of 0 or 1.
Patients must have histologically/pathologically confirmed Stage IIB, IIC, or Stage III colon adenocarcinoma with R0 resection according to AJCC 8th edition criteria.
No radiographic evidence of overt metastatic disease within 45 days prior to Step 1/Study entry (CT with IV contrast or MRI imaging is acceptable and must include chest, abdomen, and pelvis).
The distal extent of the tumor must be greater than or equal to 12 cm from the anal verge on colonoscopy or above the peritoneal reflection as documented during surgery or on pathology specimen (i.e., excluding rectal adenocarcinomas warranting treatment with chemoradiation).
The patient must have had an en bloc complete gross resection of tumor (curative resection). Patients who have had a two-stage surgical procedure, to first provide a decompressive colostomy and then in a later procedure to have the definitive surgical resection, are eligible.
The resected tumor specimen and a blood specimen from patients with Stage IIB, IIC, or Stage III colon cancer must have central testing for ctDNA using the Signatera™ assay by Natera (after Step 1/Study entry and before Step2/Randomization). Patient must have sufficient tissue to meet protocol requirements. This blood specimen for the Signatera assay must be collected after surgery (and recommended at least 14 days post surgery).
Tumor must be documented as microsatellite stable or have intact mismatch repair proteins through CLIA-approved laboratory testing. Patients whose tumors are MSI-H or dMMR are excluded.
The treating investigator must deem the patient a candidate for all potential agents used in this trial (5FU, LV, oxaliplatin and irinotecan).
The interval between surgery (post-operative Day 7) and Step 1/Study entry must be no more than 60 days. NOTE: Step 1/Study Entry may occur as early as post operative Day 7, but it cannot occur beyond 60 days from the actual date of the patient's surgery.
Availability and provision of adequate surgical tumor tissue for molecular diagnostics and confirmatory profiling.
Adequate hematologic function within 28 days before Step 1/Study entry defined as follows:
* Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) must be greater than or equal to 1500/mm3;
* Participants with benign ethnic neutropenia (BEN): ANC less than 1300 mm3 are eligible.
* BEN (also known as constitutional neutropenia) is an inherited cause of mild or moderate neutropenia that is not associated with any increased risk for infections or other clinical manifestations. BEN is referred to as ethnic neutropenia because of its increased prevalence in people of African descent and other specific ethnic groups.
* Platelet count must be greater than or equal to 100,000/mm3; and
* Hemoglobin must be greater than or equal to 9 g/dL.
Adequate hepatic function within 28 days before Step 1/Study entry defined as follows:
* total bilirubin must be less than or equal to ULN (upper limit of normal) for the lab and
* alkaline phosphatase must be less than 2.5 x ULN for the lab; and
* AST and ALT must be less than 2.5 x ULN for the lab.
Adequate renal function within 28 days before Step 1/Study entry defined as serum creatinine less than or equal to 1.5 x ULN for the lab or measured or calculated creatinine clearance greater than or equal to 50 mL/min using the Cockroft-Gault formula for patients with creatinine levels greater than 1.5 x ULN for the lab.
For Women Creatinine Clearance (mL/min) = (140 - age) x weight (kg) x 0.85 72 x serum creatinine (mg/dL) For Men Creatinine Clearance (mL/min) = (140 - age) x weight (kg) 72 x serum creatinine (mg/dL) NOTE: Adjusted body weight (AdjBW) should be used for patients that have BMI greater than or equal to 28 (less than or equal to 30% above IBW).
HIV-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial.
Pregnancy test (urine or serum according to institutional standard) done within 14 days before Step 1/Study entry must be negative (for women of childbearing potential only).
Patients receiving a coumarin-derivative anticoagulant must agree to weekly monitoring of INR if they are randomized to Arm 1 or Arm 3 and receive capecitabine.
Eligibility Criteria for Cohort A Arm-2 patients on Second Randomization
Patient must have developed a ctDNA +ve assay during serial monitoring.
Patient's willingness to be re-randomized affirmed.
The patient must continue to have an ECOG performance status of 0 or 1.
No radiographic evidence of overt metastatic disease.
Pregnancy test (urine or serum according to institutional standard) done within 14 days before second randomization must be negative (for women of childbearing potential only).
Adequate hematologic function within 28 days before second randomization defined as follows:
* Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) must be greater than or equal to 1500/mm3;
* Participants with benign ethnic neutropenia (BEN): ANC less than 1300 mm3 are eligible.
* BEN (also known as constitutional neutropenia) is an inherited cause of mild or moderate neutropenia that is not associated with any increased risk for infections or other clinical manifestations. BEN is referred to as ethnic neutropenia because of its increased prevalence in people of African descent and other specific ethnic groups.
* Platelet count must be greater than or equal to 100,000/mm3; and
* Hemoglobin must be greater than or equal to 9 g/dL.
Adequate hepatic function within 28 days before second randomization defined as follows:
* total bilirubin must be less than or equal to ULN (upper limit of normal) for the lab and
* alkaline phosphatase must be less than 2.5 x ULN for the lab; and
* AST and ALT must be less than 2.5 x ULN for the lab.
Adequate renal function within 28 days before second randomization defined as serum creatinine less than or equal to 1.5 x ULN for the lab or measured or calculated creatinine clearance greater than or equal to 50 mL/min using the Cockroft-Gault formula for patients with creatinine levels greater than 1.5 x ULN for the lab.
For Women Creatinine Clearance (mL/min) = (140 - age) x weight (kg) x 0.85 72 x serum creatinine (mg/dL) For Men Creatinine Clearance (mL/min) = (140 - age) x weight (kg) 72 x serum creatinine (mg/dL)
Exclusion Criteria:
Colon cancer histology other than adenocarcinoma (i.e., neuroendocrine carcinoma, sarcoma, lymphoma, squamous cell carcinoma, etc.).
Pathologic, clinical, or radiologic overt evidence of metastatic disease. This includes isolated, distant, or non-contiguous intra-abdominal metastases, even if resected.
Tumor-related bowel perforation.
History of prior invasive colon malignancy, regardless of disease-free interval.
History of bone marrow or solid organ transplantation (regardless of current immunosuppressive therapy needs). Bone grafts, skin grafts, corneal transplants and organ/tissue donation are not exclusionary.
Any prior systemic chemotherapy, targeted therapy, or immunotherapy; or radiation therapy administered as treatment for colorectal cancer (e.g., primary colon adenocarcinomas for which treatment with neoadjuvant chemotherapy and/or radiation is warranted are not permitted). EXCEPTION: one cycle of chemotherapy (regimen per treating physicians' discretion - 5-FU or capecitabine with or without oxaliplatin) is allowed but not required after consent. The optional cycle of chemotherapy should be started greater than or equal to 4 weeks from surgery and while awaiting Step 2 randomization.
Other invasive malignancy within 5 years before Step 1/Study entry. Exceptions are colonic polyps, non-melanoma skin cancer or any carcinoma-in-situ.
Synchronous primary rectal and/ or colon cancers.
Patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification. To be eligible for this trial, patients should be class 2B or better.
Sensory or motor neuropathy greater than or equal to grade 2, according to CTCAE v5.0.
Blood transfusion within two weeks before collection of blood for central ctDNA testing.
Active seizure disorder uncontrolled by medication.
Active or chronic infection requiring systemic therapy.
Known homozygous DPD (dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase) deficiency.
Patients known to have Gilbert's Syndrome or homozygosity for UGT1A1\*28 polymorphism.
Pregnancy or lactation at the time of Step 1/Study entry.
Co-morbid illnesses or other concurrent disease that would make the patient inappropriate for entry into this study (i.e., unable to tolerate 6 months of combination chemotherapy or interfere significantly with the proper assessment of safety and toxicity of the prescribed regimens or prevent required follow-up).
Ineligibility Criteria for Cohort A Arm-2 patients on Second Randomization
Pregnancy or lactation at the time of randomization.
No longer a candidate for systemic chemotherapy (FOLFOX, CAPOX, and mFOLFIRINOX) in the opinion of the treating investigator. DEVICE: Signatera test, DRUG: mFOLFOX6 3-6 month, DRUG: CAPOX 3 month, DRUG: mFOLFIRINOX, DRUG: mFOLFOX6 6 month, DRUG: CAPOX 6 month
Stage III Colon Cancer, Colon, Rectum
ctDNA positive, ctDNA negative, Adjuvant Chemotherapy, Natera, Signatera, mFOLFOX6, Stage III, CAPOX, mFOLFIRINOX, Oxaliplatin, 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU), Capecitabine, Leucovorin, Irinotecan, Stage II
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
A Study of TAK-330 to Reverse the Effects of Factor Xa Inhibitors For Adults Needing Urgent Surgery
The aim of this study is to find out the effects of TAK-330 compared with four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (4F-PCC) as part of standard treatment other than Prothromplex Total for anticoagulation reversal in participants treated with Factor Xa inhibitors who require urgent surgery/invasive procedure. The participant will be assigned by chance to either TAK-330 or SOC 4F-PCC as part of standard treatment before surgery. Patients participating in this study will need to be hospitalized. They will also be contacted (via telehealth/phone call) 30 days after the surgery.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Emily.Melikman@UTSouthwestern.edu
Kunal Karamchandani
ALL
18 Years to old
PHASE3
NCT05156983
STU-2022-0943
Inclusion Criteria:
* Participant or legally authorized representative willing to sign e-consent/written informed consent form.
* Participants at least 18 years of age at enrollment.
* Participant currently on treatment with oral Factor Xa inhibitor (rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban).
* In the opinion of the surgeon, the participant requires an urgent surgery/procedure that is associated with high-risk of intraoperative bleeding within 15 hours from the last dose of Factor Xa inhibitor and requires a reversal agent for suspected direct oral Factor Xa inhibitor-related coagulopathy. For participants who are beyond the 15-hour window, eligibility requires proof of elevated plasma anti-Factor Xa (FXa) levels using either specific direct oral anti-coagulant (DOAC)-calibrated (apixaban, rivaroxaban or edoxaban) anti-FXa levels of greater than (\>) 75 nanograms per milliliter (ng/mL), or heparin calibrated anti-FXa assay levels of \>0.5 international unit per milliliter (IU/mL) at screening.
* Women of childbearing potential should have a negative pregnancy test documented prior to enrollment.
Exclusion Criteria:
* The participant has an expected survival of less than 30 days, even with best available medical and surgical care.
* Recent history (within 90 days prior to screening) of venous thromboembolism, myocardial infarction (MI), disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), ischemic stroke, transient ischemic attack, hospitalization for unstable angina pectoris or severe or critical coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) infection.
* Active major bleeding defined as bleeding that requires surgery or transfusion of \>2 units of packed red blood cell (PRBC) or intracranial hemorrhage with the exception of subacute and chronic subdural hemorrhages with a Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) greater than or equal to (\>=) 9.
* Polytrauma for which reversal of Factor Xa-inhibition alone would not be sufficient to achieve hemostasis.
* Known prothrombotic disorder including primary antiphospholipid syndrome, antithrombin-3 deficiency, homozygous protein C deficiency, homozygous protein S deficiency, and homozygous factor V Leiden.
* Known bleeding disorder (example, platelet function disorders, hemophilia, Von Willebrand disease, or coagulation factor deficiency).
* Platelet count less than (\<) 50,000 per microliter (/mcL).
* History of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
* Administration of procoagulant drugs (example, non-study prothrombin complex concentrates (PCCs), recombinant Factor VIIa) or blood products (transfusion of whole blood, fresh frozen plasma, cryoglobulins, plasma fractions, or platelets) within 7 days before enrollment. (Note: administration of PRBCs for hemoglobin correction, tranexamic acid or aminocaproic acid are not exclusion criteria).
* Planned use of procoagulant drugs (example, Vitamin K, non-study PCCs, recombinant Factor VIIa) or blood products (transfusion of whole blood, fresh frozen plasma, cryoglobulins, plasma fractions, or platelets) after enrollment but before the 24±4 hours hemostatic assessment (Key secondary endpoint). Planned administration of tranexamic acid (TXA) or aminocaproic acid after randomization but before the start of IP infusion, should be noted during randomization to properly stratify these participants in the interactive response technology (IRT). Planned administration of TXA or aminocaproic acid after start of IP infusion but before the 24±4 hours hemostatic assessment is prohibited. Administration of any of the above products before the 24±4 hours hemostatic assessment will impact the assessment of hemostasis. Administration of PRBCs for hemoglobin correction, is not an exclusion criterion.
* Administration of unfractionated heparin within 2 hours before randomization or low molecular weight heparin within 6 hours before randomization.
* Hypersensitivity to PCC constituents or any excipient of TAK-330.
* Participants with history of confirmed immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency with hypersensitivity reaction and antibodies to IgA.
* Septic shock as defined by persistent hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) \>=65 millimeters of mercury (mmHg) and having blood lactate \>2 millimole (mmol) despite adequate volume resuscitation.
* Acute or chronic liver failure (hepatic cirrhosis Child-PUGH score C)
* Renal failure requiring dialysis
* Any other condition that could, in the opinion of the investigator, put the participant at undue risk of harm if the participant were to participate in the study.
* Participation in another clinical study involving an investigational product or device within 30 days prior to study enrollment, or planned participation in another clinical study involving an investigational product or device during the course of this study. Participation in an observational study is not an exclusion criterion.
* The use of PROTHROMPLEX TOTAL as SOC 4F-PCC.
* Women who are breastfeeding at the time of enrollment. DRUG: TAK-330, DRUG: SOC 4F-PCC
Coagulation Disorder
Reversal of Factor Xa inhibitors
UT Southwestern
Efficacy and Safety of REC-2282 in Patients With Progressive Neurofibromatosis Type 2 (NF2) Mutated Meningiomas (POPLAR-NF2)
This is a two-staged, Phase 2/3, randomized, multi-center study to investigate the efficacy and safety of REC-2282 in patients with progressive NF2 mutated meningiomas.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Laura Klesse
All
12 Years and over
Phase 2/Phase 3
NCT05130866
STU-2021-1151
Inclusion Criteria:
• ≥12 years of age and weighing at least 40 kg
• Progressive meningioma that is amenable to volumetric analysis
• Has either 1) sporadic meningioma with confirmed NF2 mutation; or, 2) confirmed diagnosis of NF2 disease (revised Manchester criteria); or, 3) at least one NF2-related tumor (with pathogenic germline or proven mosaic NF2 variant)
• Adequate bone marrow function
• Has provided written informed consent/assent to participate in the study
Exclusion Criteria:
• Progressive disease associated with significant or disabling clinical symptoms likely to require surgery or radiation therapy within the next 3 months.
• Received prior surgery, radiosurgery, or laser interstitial thermal therapy in the target tumor, or immediately adjacent to the target tumor within 6 months prior to screening.
• Received an anti- tumor agent for meningioma within 3 months, or 5 half-lives (whichever is longer), prior to screening.
• History of an active malignancy within the previous 3 years except for localized cancers that are considered cured, and, in the opinion of the investigator, present a low risk of recurrence.
• Received another investigational drug within 30 days prior to screening
• Pregnant, lactating, or is planning to attempt to become pregnant or impregnate someone during this study or within 90 days after the last dose of IMP.
Drug: REC-2282, Drug: Placebo
Neurofibromatosis Type 2, Brain and Nervous System
Neurofibromatosis Type 2, Neurofibromatosis Type II
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
Phase 1/2a Study of Belantamab Mafodotin in Relapsed or Refractory AL Amyloidosis
The goal of this study is to test the safety of drug, Belantamab Mafodotin, and see what effects (good and bad) it has on people who take it and amyloidosis, and to determine the most effective dose of the drug. The study will have 2 phases (parts). The first phase of the study will test different doses of Belantamab Mafodotin. The second phase will test Belantamab Mafodotin at the dose level found to be safe and effective in phase 1
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Larry Anderson
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE1
NCT05145816
STU-2021-0952
Inclusion Criteria:
• Participants medically diagnosed with relapsed or refractory Amyloid Light Chain Amyloidosis (AL amyloidosis) with one or more line of treatment as below:
• Must have received a proteosome inhibitor, alkylator and anti-cluster of differentiation 38 (CD38) antibody (e.g., daratumumab - for patients who were eligible to receive in newly diagnosed AL Amyloidosis) and autologous stem cell transplant (for transplant eligible candidates). OR
• Failed treatment and/or intolerant/ineligible for above agents NOTE: Patients who fail to achieve Partial Hematological Response or better after 2 cycles of induction therapy for newly diagnosed AL Amyloidosis are also eligible.
• Participant must be over 18 years of age inclusive, at the time of signing the informed consent.
• Participant and Disease Characteristics: Patient must have primary systemic AL amyloidosis, histologically confirmed at the initial diagnosis before initiation of 1st-line treatment by positive Congo red stain with green birefringence on polarized light microscopy, Or characteristic appearance by electron microscopy AND confirmatory AL amyloid typing (mass spectrometry-based proteomic analysis or immunofluorescence).
• Patient must have measurable disease within 28 days prior to registration; serum quantitative immunoglobulins (immunoglobulin G (IgG), immunoglobulin A (IgA), and immunoglobulin M (IgM), serum free kappa and lambda, and serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) with M-protein quantification must be obtained within 14 days prior to registration.
• Measurable disease of amyloid light chain amyloidosis as defined by at least One of the following:
• Serum M-protein ≥0.5 g/dL by protein electrophoresis (routine serum protein electrophoresis and immunofixation).
• Serum free light chain ≥50 mg/L with an abnormal kappa: lambda ratio or the difference between the involved and uninvolved free light chains (dFLC) ≥50 mg/L.
• One or more organs impacted by AL Amyloidosis according to consensus guidelines below per National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN)Guidelines Version 1.2016: a. Cardiac Involvement i. Mean left ventricular wall thickness on echocardiogram greater than or equal to 12 mm in the absence of hypertension or valvular heart disease, OR N-terminal fragment brain natriuretic protein (NT-pro) brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) greater than 332 ng/mL provided that patient does not have impaired renal function (as defined by calculated creatinine clearance less than 25 mL/min) within 14 days prior to registration, OR prior cardiac biopsy (at time of diagnosis) showing amyloid deposition with past documented or presently noted clinical symptoms and signs supportive of a diagnosis of heart failure in the absence of an alternative explanation for heart failure. b. Non-Cardiac Organ Involvement i. Kidney: albuminuria greater than or equal to 500 mg per day on a 24-hour urine specimen within 35 days prior to registration, OR prior kidney biopsy (at the time of diagnosis) showing amyloid deposition. ii. Liver: hepatomegaly (total liver span \> 15 cm) as demonstrated by computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) within 35 days prior to registration OR alkaline phosphatase (ALP) greater than 1.5 times the institutional upper limit of normal within 14 days prior to registration, OR prior liver biopsy (at the time of diagnosis) showing amyloid deposition. iii. Gastrointestinal tract: direct biopsy verification with symptoms. iv. Lung: biopsy verifications with symptoms and interstitial radiographic pattern. v. Soft tissue: tongue enlargement, clinical, arthropathy, claudication, presumed vascular amyloid, skin involvement, carpal tunnel syndrome, myopathy by biopsy or pseudohypertrophy.
• Patients must have completed other systemic therapy or investigational drug \> 28 days or five half-lives prior to registration, surgery (other than biopsies) \> 28 days prior to registration, and any autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) \> 100 days prior to registration.
• Patients must have a complete medical history and physical exam within 14 days prior to registration.
• New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class 1 - 3a which has been clinically stable for 56 days before registration
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance score 0, 1 or 2
• Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) by echocardiogram (ECHO) \> 35% within 28 days prior to registration.
• Adequate organ system functions within 14 days of registration as defined by the laboratory assessments below: a) Hematologic i) Absolute neutrophil count (ANC): ≥1.0 × 109/ L \* ii) Hemoglobin: ≥8.0 g/dL \* iii) Platelets: ≥50 × 109/L \* b) Hepatic i) Total bilirubin: 1.5 × upper limit of normal (ULN); (Isolated bilirubin ≥1.5 × ULN is acceptable if bilirubin is fractionated, and direct bilirubin is \<35%) ii) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): ≤2.5 × ULN c) Renal i) Estimated glomerular rate (eGFRª): ≥30 mL/min/1.73 m2 Note: Laboratory results obtained during Screening should be used to determine eligibility criteria. In situations where laboratory results are outside the permitted range, the investigator may re-test the participant and the subsequent within range screening result may be used to confirm eligibility. \* Without growth factor or cell transfusion support for the past 14 days prior to testing, excluding erythropoietin. ª As calculated by Modified Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) formula (Appendix 4 in Protocol)
• Females of childbearing potential: These participants must have a negative baseline pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to registration; this may be either a serum or urine pregnancy test, with a sensitivity of at least 50 milli-International unit (mIU)/mL; females of childbearing potential must also agree: (1) to have a pregnancy test prior to the start of each treatment cycle and (2) to either commit to continued abstinence from heterosexual intercourse or to use effective contraception while receiving study drug and for at least 4 months after receiving the last dose of study drug; females are considered to be of childbearing potential if they have had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months; in addition to routine contraceptive methods, effective contraception also includes heterosexual celibacy and surgery intended to prevent pregnancy (or with a side-effect of pregnancy prevention) defined as a hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy or bilateral tubal ligation; however, if at any point a previously celibate patient chooses to become heterosexually active during the time period for use of contraceptive measures outlined in the protocol, she is responsible for beginning contraceptive measures.
• Is a woman of child bearing potential (WOCBP) and using a contraceptive method that is highly effective (with a failure rate of \<1% per year), preferably with low user dependency (as described in Appendix 9), during the intervention period and for at least 4 months after the last dose of study intervention and agrees not to donate eggs (ova, oocytes) for the purpose of reproduction during this period. The investigator should evaluate the effectiveness of the contraceptive method in relationship to the first dose of study intervention.
• A WOCBP must have a negative serum pregnancy test (as required by local regulations) within 72 hours before the first dose of study intervention.
• The investigator is responsible for review of medical history, menstrual history, and recent sexual activity to decrease the risk for inclusion of a woman with a nearly undetected pregnancy.
• Non-childbearing potential is defined as follows (by other than medical reasons): i. ≥45 years of age and has not had menses for \>1 year. ii. Patients who have been amenorrhoeic for \<2 years without history of a hysterectomy and oophorectomy must have a follicle stimulating hormone value in the postmenopausal range upon screening evaluation. iii. Post-hysterectomy, post-bilateral oophorectomy, or post-tubal ligation. Documented hysterectomy or oophorectomy must be confirmed with medical records of the actual procedure or confirmed by an ultrasound. Tubal ligation must be confirmed with medical records of the actual procedure.
• Male participants are eligible to participate if they agree to the following during the intervention period and for 6 months after the last dose of study treatment to allow for clearance of any altered sperm:
• Refrain from donating sperm Plus, either:
• be abstinent from heterosexual intercourse as their preferred and usual lifestyle (abstinent on a long term and persistent basis) and agree to remain abstinent Or
• agree to use a barrier method of birth control (e.g., male condom), even if they have undergone a successful vasectomy, and female partner to use an additional highly effective contraceptive method with a failure rate of \<1% per year as when having sexual intercourse with a woman of childbearing potential (including pregnant females).
• Patients with Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection are eligible if:
• patients without a history of Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)-defining opportunistic infections
• patients with a history of AIDS-defining opportunistic infection may be eligible if they have not had an opportunistic infection within past 12 months.
• Patients on active anti-retroviral therapy are eligible as long as anti-retroviral therapy is established for at least four weeks and have HIV viral load less than 400 copies/ml prior to enrollment.
• Patients with chronic Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) infection or chronic Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) infection or virologically suppressed on HCV treatment are eligible if:
• Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)-negative, anti-Hemoglobin C (HBc)-positive patients are at lower risk of HBV reactivation compared with HBsAg-positive patients, risk of HBV reactivation should be considered in all patients and if patients can be on anti-HBV prophylaxis prior to initiation of anti-cancer therapy.
• Patients with chronic HBV infection with active disease who meet the criteria for anti HBV therapy should be on a suppressive antiviral therapy prior to initiation of cancer therapy.
• Patients actively on treatment for HCV should have HCV below the limit of quantification before initiation of anti-cancer therapy.
• Patients who are HCV antibody (Ab) positive but HCV Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) negative due to prior treatment or natural resolution of infection are eligible.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Patients previously treated for active symptomatic multiple myeloma.
• Any corneal disease except for mild epithelial punctate keratopathy.
• Patients with known immediate or delayed hypersensitivity reaction or idiosyncratic reactions to belantamab mafodotin or drugs chemically related to belantamab mafodotin, or any of the components of the study treatment.
• Patients eligible for autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT).
• Evidence of significant cardiovascular condition as specified below:
• N-terminal-prohormone of brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) ≥ 8500ng/L within 14 days of registration.
• New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification IIIB (3b) through IV (4) heart failure
• Heart failure that in the opinion of the investigator is on the basis of ischemic heart disease (e.g., prior myocardial infarction with documented history of cardiac enzyme elevation and electrocardiogram (ECG) changes) or uncorrected valvular disease and not primarily due to AL amyloid cardiomyopathy
• Unstable heart failure defined as emergency hospitalization for worsening, or decompensated heart failure, or syncopal episode within 1 month of screening
• Subjects with a history of sustained ventricular tachycardia or aborted ventricular fibrillation or with a history of atrioventricular nodal or sinoatrial (SA) nodal dysfunction for which a pacemaker/implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is indicated but not placed (Subjects who do have a pacemaker/ICD are allowed on study)
• Interval from the Q wave on the ECG to point T using Fredericia's formula (QTcF) \> 500 msec. Subjects who have a pacemaker may be included regardless of calculated QTc interval
• Symptomatic, clinically significant autonomic neuropathy which the Investigator feels will preclude administration of study treatment
• Acute coronary syndrome, or any form of coronary revascularization procedure including coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), within 6 months of screening
• Prior solid organ transplant, or anticipated to undergo solid organ transplantation, or requiring left ventricular assist device (LVAD) implantation, during the course of the study
• Stroke within 6 months of screening, or transient ischemic attack (TIA) within 3 months of screening
• Evidence of current clinically significant uncontrolled arrhythmias, including clinically significant ECG abnormalities such as 2nd degree (Mobitz Type II) or 3rd degree atrioventricular (AV) block
• History of myocardial infarction, acute coronary syndromes (including unstable angina), coronary angioplasty, or stenting or bypass grafting within three (3) months of Screening
• Uncontrolled hypertension
• Prior history of malignancy with the exception of the following: adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, curatively treated non-melanoma skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer, adequately treated stage I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for at least two years.
• Presence of any comorbid or uncontrolled medical condition (e.g., diabetes mellitus or uncontrolled hypertension) at screening, which in the opinion of the investigator would increase the potential risk to the subject.
• Unwillingness or inability to follow the procedures outlined in the protocol.
• Received an investigational drug (including investigational vaccines) or used an invasive investigational medical device within 4 weeks or five half-lives, whichever is shorter, before Cycle 1 Day 1.
• Participant must not use contact lenses while participating in this study.
• Participant must not have had major surgery ≤ 4 weeks prior to initiating study treatment.
• Participant must not have any evidence of active mucosal or internal bleeding.
• Participant must not have any serious and/or unstable pre-existing medical, psychiatric disorder, or other conditions (including lab abnormalities) that could interfere with participant's safety, obtaining informed consent or compliance to the study procedures.
• Participants must not be pregnant or lactating.
• Participant must not be simultaneously enrolled in any interventional clinical trial.
• Participant must not have an active infection requiring treatment.
• Participant must not have current unstable liver or biliary disease defined by the presence of ascites, encephalopathy, coagulopathy, hypoalbuminemia, esophageal or gastric varices, persistent jaundice, or cirrhosis. Note: Stable non-cirrhotic chronic liver disease (including Gilbert's syndrome or asymptomatic gallstones) or hepatobiliary involvement of malignancy is acceptable if otherwise meets entry criteria.
DRUG: Belantamab mafodotin 2.5 mg/kg (8 weeks), DRUG: Belantamab mafodotin 1.9 mg/kg (8 weeks), DRUG: Belantamab mafodotin 1.4 mg/kg (12 weeks), DRUG: Belantamab mafodotin 1.9 mg/kg (12 weeks), DRUG: Belantamab mafodotin every 4 weeks, 6 weeks,8 weeks, or 12 weeks as determined by Part 1 recommended dosages, DRUG: Belantamab mafodotin 1.0 mg/kg (12 weeks)
AL Amyloidosis, Amyloidosis, Multiple Myeloma
UT Southwestern
A Study to Examine the Effects of Novel Therapy Linvoseltamab in Combination With Other Cancer Treatments for Adult Patients With Multiple Myeloma That is Resistant to Current Standard of Care Treatments
This study is researching an experimental drug called linvoseltamab in combination with other drugs for the treatment of a blood cancer called multiple myeloma. Linvoseltamab has previously been studied as a single agent (without other cancer treatments) in participants with multiple myeloma that returned after prior therapies and needed to be treated again. In the initial study, some participants treated with linvoseltamab had improvement of their myeloma, including complete responses (no evidence of myeloma in their bodies). This study is the first time linvoseltamab will be combined with other cancer therapies. The main goal is to understand if linvoseltamab can be given safely with other cancer treatments, and if so, what dose of linvoseltamab should be used for each combination. The study is looking at several other research questions, including: * How many participants treated with linvoseltamab in combination with each of the other cancer treatments have improvement of their multiple myeloma * What side effects may happen from taking linvoseltamab together with another cancer treatment * How much study drug is in the blood at different times * Whether the body makes antibodies against the study drug (which could make the drug less effective or could lead to side effects)
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Aimaz Afrough
ALL
18 Years to old
PHASE1
NCT05137054
STU-2023-0537
General Key
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status ≤1
• Participants must have measurable disease as defined in the protocol according to International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG) consensus criteria
• Adequate creatinine clearance, hematologic function and hepatic function, as defined in protocol
• Life expectancy of at least 6 months. Cohort Specific
• Diagnosis of plasma cell leukemia, primary light-chain amyloidosis (excluding myeloma associated amyloidosis), Waldenström macroglobulinemia (lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma), or POEMS syndrome (polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal protein, and skin changes)
• Participants with known MM brain lesions or meningeal involvement
• Treatment with any systemic anti-myeloma therapy within 5 half-lives or within 21 days prior to first administration of study drug regimen, whichever is shorter
• History of allogeneic stem cell transplantation, or autologous stem cell transplantation within 12 weeks of the start of study drug regimen
• Unless stated otherwise in a specific sub-protocol, prior treatment with BCMA-directed immunotherapies, including BCMA bispecific antibodies and bispecific T-cell engagers (BiTEs), and BCMA chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T cells (Note: BCMA antibody-drug conjugates are not excluded)
• History of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, neurodegenerative condition or central nervous system (CNS) movement disorder or participants with a history of seizure within 12 months prior to study enrollment are excluded
• Live or attenuated vaccination within 28 days prior to first study drug regimen administration with a vector that has replicative potential
• Cardiac ejection fraction \<40% by echocardiogram (Echo) or multigated acquisition (MUGA) scan. Cohort Specific
• Known malabsorption syndrome or pre-existing gastrointestinal (GI) condition that may impair absorption of lenalidomide; delivery of lenalidomide via nasogastric tube or gastrostomy tube is not allowed. Cohort 4:
• Peripheral neuropathy grade ≥2 Cohort 5:
• Known malabsorption syndrome or pre-existing GI conditions that may impair absorption of pomalidomide; delivery of pomalidomide via nasogastric tube or gastrostomy tube is not allowed. Cohort 7:
• Prior treatment with anti-lymphocyte activation gene 3 (LAG-3) agents. Prior exposure to vaccine therapies or other immune checkpoint modulating therapies such as anti-programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1) antibodies is permitted, as described in the protocol.
• Ongoing or recent (within 2 years) evidence of an autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment with immunosuppressive agents, as described in the protocol.
• Prior solid organ transplant.
• History of grade ≥3 immune-mediated adverse events (with the exclusion of endocrinopathies that are fully controlled by hormone replacement) from prior checkpoint inhibitor therapies. Cohort 8:
• Prior treatment with anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 agents. Prior exposure to vaccine therapies or other immune checkpoint modulating therapies such as anti-cytotoxic T lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4) antibodies is permitted, as described in the protocol.
• Encephalitis or meningitis in the year prior to enrollment.
• History of interstitial lung disease (eg, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis or organizing pneumonia), of active, noninfectious pneumonitis that required immune-suppressive doses of glucocorticoids to assist with management, or of pneumonitis within the last 5 years. A history of radiation pneumonitis in the radiation field is permitted as long as pneumonitis resolved ≥6 months prior to enrollment.
• Ongoing or recent (within 2 years) evidence of an autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment with immunosuppressive agents, as described in the protocol.
• Prior solid organ transplant.
• History of grade ≥3 immune-mediated adverse events (with the exclusion of endocrinopathies that are fully controlled by hormone replacement) from prior checkpoint inhibitor therapies. Cohort 9:
• Abnormal QT interval corrected by Fridericia's formula (QTcF), as described in the protocol
• Use of concomitant medications that are known to prolong the QT/QTcF interval including Class Ia and Class III antiarrhythmics at the time of informed consent
• Ongoing use or anticipated use of food or drugs that are known strong/moderate cytochrome P450 (CYP)3A4 inhibitors, or strong CYP3A inducers within 14 days prior to first dose of nirogacestat
• Known malabsorption syndrome or existing gastrointestinal GI condition that may impair absorption of nirogacestat; delivery of nirogacestat via nasogastric tube or gastrostomy tube is not allowed. NOTE: Other protocol defined inclusion/exclusion criteria apply
Inclusion Criteria:
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status ≤1
• Participants must have measurable disease as defined in the protocol according to International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG) consensus criteria
• Adequate creatinine clearance, hematologic function and hepatic function, as defined in protocol
• Life expectancy of at least 6 months. Cohort Specific
Inclusion Criteria:
For the below cohorts, each participant must have RRMM with progression following at least 3 lines of therapy, or at least 2 lines of therapy and either prior exposure to at least 1 anti-CD38 antibody, 1 immunomodulatory imide drug (IMiD) and 1 proteasome inhibitor (PI), or double-refractory to 1 PI and 1 IMiD, or the combination of 1 PI and 1 IMiD.
Cohort 1: Prior treatment with daratumumab is allowed if previously tolerated. However, participants enrolled in the expansion portion cannot be refractory to an anti-CD38 antibody containing regimen. In addition, all participants must have at least a 6-month washout from prior anti-CD38 antibody therapy.
Cohort 2: Prior treatment with carfilzomib is allowed if previously tolerated at the approved full dose. Carfilzomib-refractory participants may enroll in the dose finding portion provided they are triple-class refractory (PI, IMiD, anti-CD38 antibody). However, participants enrolled in the dose expansion portion cannot be refractory to carfilzomib. In addition, all participants must have at least a 6-month washout from prior carfilzomib therapy.
Cohort 3: Prior treatment with lenalidomide is allowed if previously tolerated at the approved full dose. However, a participant cannot be refractory to any combination regimen that included 25 mg of lenalidomide. In addition, participants must have at least a 6-month washout from any prior lenalidomide therapy (including maintenance therapy).
Cohort 4: Prior treatment with bortezomib is allowed if previously tolerated at the approved full dose. Bortezomib-refractory participants may enroll in the dose finding portion provided they are triple-class refractory (PI, IMiD, anti-CD38 antibody). However, participants enrolled in the dose expansion portion cannot be refractory to bortezomib. In addition, all participants must have at least a 6-month washout from prior bortezomib therapy.
Cohort 5: Prior treatment with pomalidomide is allowed if previously tolerated at the approved full dose. Additionally, participants must undergo at least a 6-month washout following prior pomalidomide therapy before enrollment.
Cohort 6: Prior treatment with isatuximab is allowed if previously tolerated. Additionally, participants must undergo at least a 3-month washout following prior anti-CD38 antibody therapy before enrollment.
Cohort 7 and 8: RRMM with progressive disease and one of the following:
* Received at least 3 lines of therapy including exposure to at least 1 anti-CD38 antibody, 1IMiD, and 1 PI or
* Triple-class refractory disease (anti-CD38 antibody, IMiD, PI)
Cohort 9: each participant must have progressive RRMM and the following:
* Received at least 3 lines of therapy and
* Triple-class refractory disease (anti-CD38 antibody, IMiD, PI)
General Key Exclusion Criteria:
• Diagnosis of plasma cell leukemia, primary light-chain amyloidosis (excluding myeloma associated amyloidosis), Waldenström macroglobulinemia (lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma), or POEMS syndrome (polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal protein, and skin changes)
• Participants with known MM brain lesions or meningeal involvement
• Treatment with any systemic anti-myeloma therapy within 5 half-lives or within 21 days prior to first administration of study drug regimen, whichever is shorter
• History of allogeneic stem cell transplantation, or autologous stem cell transplantation within 12 weeks of the start of study drug regimen
• Unless stated otherwise in a specific sub-protocol, prior treatment with BCMA-directed immunotherapies, including BCMA bispecific antibodies and bispecific T-cell engagers (BiTEs), and BCMA chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T cells (Note: BCMA antibody-drug conjugates are not excluded)
• History of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, neurodegenerative condition or central nervous system (CNS) movement disorder or participants with a history of seizure within 12 months prior to study enrollment are excluded
• Live or attenuated vaccination within 28 days prior to first study drug regimen administration with a vector that has replicative potential
• Cardiac ejection fraction \<40% by echocardiogram (Echo) or multigated acquisition (MUGA) scan. Cohort Specific
Exclusion Criteria:
Cohort 3:
• Known malabsorption syndrome or pre-existing gastrointestinal (GI) condition that may impair absorption of lenalidomide; delivery of lenalidomide via nasogastric tube or gastrostomy tube is not allowed. Cohort 4:
• Peripheral neuropathy grade ≥2 Cohort 5:
• Known malabsorption syndrome or pre-existing GI conditions that may impair absorption of pomalidomide; delivery of pomalidomide via nasogastric tube or gastrostomy tube is not allowed. Cohort 7:
• Prior treatment with anti-lymphocyte activation gene 3 (LAG-3) agents. Prior exposure to vaccine therapies or other immune checkpoint modulating therapies such as anti-programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1) antibodies is permitted, as described in the protocol.
• Ongoing or recent (within 2 years) evidence of an autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment with immunosuppressive agents, as described in the protocol.
• Prior solid organ transplant.
• History of grade ≥3 immune-mediated adverse events (with the exclusion of endocrinopathies that are fully controlled by hormone replacement) from prior checkpoint inhibitor therapies. Cohort 8:
• Prior treatment with anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 agents. Prior exposure to vaccine therapies or other immune checkpoint modulating therapies such as anti-cytotoxic T lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4) antibodies is permitted, as described in the protocol.
• Encephalitis or meningitis in the year prior to enrollment.
• History of interstitial lung disease (eg, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis or organizing pneumonia), of active, noninfectious pneumonitis that required immune-suppressive doses of glucocorticoids to assist with management, or of pneumonitis within the last 5 years. A history of radiation pneumonitis in the radiation field is permitted as long as pneumonitis resolved ≥6 months prior to enrollment.
• Ongoing or recent (within 2 years) evidence of an autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment with immunosuppressive agents, as described in the protocol.
• Prior solid organ transplant.
• History of grade ≥3 immune-mediated adverse events (with the exclusion of endocrinopathies that are fully controlled by hormone replacement) from prior checkpoint inhibitor therapies. Cohort 9:
• Abnormal QT interval corrected by Fridericia's formula (QTcF), as described in the protocol
• Use of concomitant medications that are known to prolong the QT/QTcF interval including Class Ia and Class III antiarrhythmics at the time of informed consent
• Ongoing use or anticipated use of food or drugs that are known strong/moderate cytochrome P450 (CYP)3A4 inhibitors, or strong CYP3A inducers within 14 days prior to first dose of nirogacestat
• Known malabsorption syndrome or existing gastrointestinal GI condition that may impair absorption of nirogacestat; delivery of nirogacestat via nasogastric tube or gastrostomy tube is not allowed. NOTE: Other protocol defined inclusion/exclusion criteria apply
DRUG: Linvoseltamab, DRUG: Daratumumab, DRUG: Carfilzomib, DRUG: Lenalidomide, DRUG: Bortezomib, DRUG: Pomalidomide, DRUG: Isatuximab, DRUG: Fianlimab, DRUG: Cemiplimab, DRUG: Nirogacestat
Multiple Myeloma
Relapsed/Refractory Multiple Myeloma (RRMM), B-cell maturation antigen (BCMA), Anti-CD3 monoclonal antibodies (mAbs)
UT Southwestern
Study to Evaluate the Safety and Efficacy of Daily Subcutaneous Metreleptin Treatment in Subjects With PL (METRE-PL)
This is a Phase III, double-blind, placebo-controlled, safety and efficacy study of daily SC metreleptin in subjects with Partial Lipodystrophy.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, CHANDNA.VASANDANI@UTSouthwestern.edu
Abhimanyu Garg
ALL
12 Years and over
PHASE3
NCT05164341
STU-2021-1141
Inclusion Criteria:
* Diagnosis of Familial Partial Lipodystrophy (FPLD)
* Subjects with poor metabolic control defined as:
HbA1c ≥7% (at Visit 1 and Visit 3) and/or Fasting TGs ≥500 mg/dL (5.65 mmol/L, at Visit 1 and Visit 3)
* Patients should be receiving optimized stable therapy
Exclusion Criteria:
* Previous treatment with metreleptin
* Leptin levels \>20.0 ng/mL
* Acquired or radiation induced partial lipodystrophy (APL)
Other protocol defined inclusion/exclusion criteria apply DRUG: metreleptin, DRUG: Placebo
Partial Lipodystrophy
metreleptin
UT Southwestern
Radiofrequency Ablation of Adenomyosis
To observe the effects of radiofrequency ablation on adenomyosis through the pathological analysis of treated tissue that has been removed during planned hysterectomy.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Marisa.Latham@UTSouthwestern.edu
Kimberly Kho
FEMALE
18 Years and over
NA
NCT05130190
STU-2021-0741
Inclusion Criteria:
* planning to undergo an abdominal, laparoscopic, or robotic-assisted hysterectomy due to benign conditions
* uterus \< 16 weeks gestational size if undergoing a laparoscopic or robotic procedure (no size limit for patients planning to undergo a transabdominal hysterectomy)
* at least one area of focal or diffuse adenomyosis or adenomyomas that is/are contralateral to any fibroids as determined by MRI
* able to provide informed consent
* suitable candidates for surgery (have passed a standard pre-operative health assessment)
* English speaking
Exclusion Criteria:
* require emergent hysterectomy or vaginal hysterectomy
* have a uterus \> 16 weeks gestational size if undergoing a laparoscopic or robotic procedure (no size limit for patients planning to undergo a transabdominal hysterectomy)
* have fibroids in the proximity of the target adenomyosis (same side, similar location)
* are not appropriate surgical candidates as determined during pre-operative health assessment
* are unable or unwilling to undergo a hysterectomy
* are pregnant or lactating
* are under the age of 18 years
* have active pelvic inflammatory disease
* have a history of gynecologic malignancy within the past 3 years
* are unable to give informed consent
* have an implantable uterine or fallopian tube device for contraception
* are not English speaking DEVICE: RF Treatment
Adenomyosis, Uterine (Endometrial)
adenomyosis, radiofrequency ablation
UT Southwestern
Testing Nivolumab With or Without Ipilimumab in Deficient Mismatch Repair System (dMMR) Recurrent Endometrial Carcinoma
This phase II trial tests whether the combination of nivolumab and ipilimumab is better than nivolumab alone to shrink tumors in patients with deficient mismatch repair system (dMMR) endometrial carcinoma that has come back after a period of time during which the cancer could not be detected (recurrent). Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) mismatch repair (MMR) is a system for recognizing and repairing damaged DNA. In 2-3% of endometrial cancers this may be due to a hereditary condition resulted from gene mutation called Lynch Syndrome (previously called hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer or HNPCC). MMR deficient cells usually have many DNA mutations. Tumors that have evidence of mismatch repair deficiency tend to be more sensitive to immunotherapy. There is some evidence that nivolumab with ipilimumab can shrink or stabilize cancers with deficient mismatch repair system. However, it is not known whether this will happen in endometrial cancer; therefore, this study is designed to answer that question. Monoclonal antibodies, such as nivolumab and ipilimumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Giving nivolumab in combination with ipilimumab may be better than nivolumab alone in treating dMMR recurrent endometrial carcinoma.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
David Miller
FEMALE
18 Years to old
PHASE2
NCT05112601
STU-2024-1289
Inclusion Criteria:
* Patients with measurable or non-measurable (detectable) recurrent endometrial cancer
* Measurable disease will be defined and monitored by RECIST v 1.1. Measurable disease is defined per RECIST 1.1 criteria as at least one lesion that can be accurately measured in at least one dimension (longest diameter to be recorded). Each lesion must be \>= 10 mm when measured by computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Lymph nodes must be \>= 15 mm in short axis when measured by CT or MRI
* Non-measurable (detectable) disease in a patient is defined in this protocol per RECIST 1.1 criteria as one who does not have measurable disease but has at least one of the following conditions:
* All other lesions (or sites of disease), including small lesions (longest diameter \<10 mm or pathological lymph nodes with \>= 10 to \< 15 mm short axis), are considered non-measurable disease
* Ascites and/or pleural effusion attributed to tumor
* Solid and/or cystic abnormalities on radiographic imaging that do not meet RECIST 1.1 definitions for target lesions
* Patients must have endometrial cancer with deficient mismatch repair system. All patients must have institutional immunohistochemistry (IHC) and/or microsatellite instability (MSI) testing to determine mismatch repair (MMR) status. MMR deficiency is defined as lack of expression of one or more mismatch repair proteins (MLH1, PMS2, MSH2, MSH6, EPCAM) by immunohistochemistry and/or presence of microsatellite instability high using the National Cancer Institute (NCI)-5plex and Promega v1.2 assays, or institutional standards (e.g. next-generation sequencing \[NGS\] panel)
* Method(s) of detection of MMR deficiency will be recorded for each patient. An institutional pathology report, and additional reports if available, documenting these results must be submitted. Patients with "equivocal" results on MMR testing by immunohistochemistry may be eligible if they have documented evidence of microsatellite instability by MSI testing or by next generation sequencing assays. MMR testing by IHC may be used to resolve equivocal/indeterminate MSI results
* Histologic confirmation of the original primary tumor is required (submission of pathology report(s) is required). Patients with the following histologic types are eligible: Endometrioid adenocarcinoma, mucinous adenocarcinoma, dedifferentiated/undifferentiated carcinoma, clear cell adenocarcinoma, mixed epithelial carcinoma, adenocarcinoma not otherwise specified (N.O.S.)
* Patients may have received 1-2 prior lines of systemic therapy:
* Prior anti-PD1/PD-L1 therapy is allowed if given in combination with chemotherapy or radiation therapy in adjuvant or primary metastatic/recurrent settings. Patients must have had a complete response and have disease progression/relapse with treatment-free interval of 12 months or more from last dose of therapy with immune check inhibition
* Patients may have received prior radiation therapy for treatment of endometrial cancer. Prior radiation therapy may have included pelvic radiation therapy, extended field pelvic/para aortic radiation therapy, intravaginal brachytherapy, and/or palliative radiation therapy. All radiation therapy must be completed at least 4 weeks prior to registration
* Patients may have received prior hormonal therapy for treatment of endometrial cancer. All hormonal therapy must be discontinued at least three weeks prior to registration
* Any other prior therapy directed at the malignant tumor including chemotherapy, targeted agents, biologic agents, immunologic agents, and any investigational agents, must be discontinued at least 4 weeks prior to registration (6 weeks for nitrosoureas or mitomycin C)
* Age \>= 18
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status of 0, 1, or 2
* Platelets \>= 100,000/mcl
* Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \>= 1,500/mcl
* Creatinine =\< 1.5 x institutional/laboratory upper limit of normal (ULN)
* Total serum bilirubin level =\< 1.5 x ULN (patients with known Gilbert's disease who have bilirubin level =\<3 x ULN may be enrolled)
* Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =\< 3 x ULN
* Adequate oxygen saturation via pulse oximeter (CTCAE v.5.0 hypoxia \< grade 2 within 28 days prior to registration)
* Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limits (TSH \< ULN allowed in euthyroid patients on thyroid replacement therapy). TSH testing is only required if clinically indicated
* Patients must have recovered from effects of recent surgery, radiotherapy or chemotherapy. At least 4 weeks must have elapsed since major surgery
* As clinically indicated, patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification. To be eligible for this trial, patients should be class 2B or better and have a corrected QT (QTc) interval \< 450 msec
* The effects of nivolumab, and ipilimumab on the developing human fetus are unknown. For this reason and because nivolumab and ipilimumab are known to be teratogenic, women of child-bearing potential (WOCBP) must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry and for 5 months after the last dose of investigational drug. Women of childbearing potential must have a negative serum or urine pregnancy test (minimum sensitivity 25 IU/L or equivalent units of human chorionic gonadotropin \[HCG\]) within 24 hours prior to the start of nivolumab. Women must not be breastfeeding. Women who are not of childbearing potential (i.e., who are postmenopausal or surgically sterile) do not require contraception
* WOCBP is defined as any female who has experienced menarche and who has not undergone surgical sterilization (hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy) or who is not postmenopausal. Menopause is defined clinically as 12 months of amenorrhea in a woman over 45 in the absence of other biological or physiological causes. In addition, women under the age of 55 must have a documented serum follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) level less than 40 mIU/mL
* Patients with a prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment does not have the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen are eligible for this trial
* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months of registration are eligible for this trial
* Patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection must have an undetectable HBV viral load on suppressive therapy, if indicated
* Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
* Patients with treated brain metastases are eligible if follow-up brain imaging after central nervous system (CNS)-directed therapy shows no evidence of progression and the patient is stable off steroids for at least one month
* The patient or a legally authorized representative must provide study-specific informed consent prior to study entry and, for patients treated in the United States (U.S.), authorization permitting release of personal health information
* Patients with vitiligo, endocrine deficiencies including thyroiditis managed with replacement hormones including physiologic corticosteroids are eligible
* Patients with rheumatoid arthritis and other arthropathies, Sjogren's syndrome and psoriasis controlled with topical medication and patients with positive serology, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-thyroid antibodies should be evaluated for the presence of target organ involvement and potential need for systemic treatment but should otherwise be eligible
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patients with a diagnosis of endometrial serous carcinoma or carcinosarcoma
* Patients who received prior anti-PD1/PD-L1 therapy and had grade 3-4 or recurring grade 2 immune-related toxicities that led to dose delay or discontinuation of immunotherapy due to those toxicities
* Patients who received anti-CTLA-4 therapy or other immunotherapeutic agents
* Patients on chronic steroid therapy except those on replacement therapy at a daily dose of 10mg or less prednisone or equivalent
* Patients on immunosuppressive therapy, with the exception of:
* Intra-nasal, inhaled, topical or local steroid injections
* Premedication for hypersensitivity reaction
* Patients with active autoimmune disease or history of autoimmune disease that might recur, which may affect vital organ function or require immune suppressive treatment including systemic corticosteroids, should be excluded. These include but are not limited to patients with a history of immune related neurologic disease, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune (demyelinating) neuropathy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis; systemic autoimmune disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), connective tissue diseases, scleroderma, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), Crohn's, ulcerative colitis, hepatitis; and patients with a history of toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), Stevens-Johnson syndrome, or phospholipid syndrome should be excluded because of the risk of recurrence or exacerbation of disease
* Patients with known immune impairment who may be unable to respond to anti-CTLA-4 antibody
* Patients with uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to: ongoing or active infection (except for uncomplicated urinary tract infection), interstitial lung disease or active, non-infectious pneumonitis, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
* Women who are pregnant or unwilling to discontinue nursing
* Prior therapy with CTLA-4 inhibitors, or any other antibody or drug specifically targeting T-cell co-stimulation or immune checkpoint pathways
* History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to nivolumab, and/or ipilimumab including severe hypersensitivity reactions to any monoclonal antibody PROCEDURE: Biospecimen Collection, PROCEDURE: Computed Tomography, BIOLOGICAL: Ipilimumab, PROCEDURE: Magnetic Resonance Imaging, BIOLOGICAL: Nivolumab
Endometrial Adenocarcinoma, Endometrial Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma, Endometrial Dedifferentiated Carcinoma, Endometrial Endometrioid Adenocarcinoma, Endometrial Mixed Cell Adenocarcinoma, Endometrial Mucinous Adenocarcinoma, Endometrial Undifferentiated Carcinoma, Endometrioid Adenocarcinoma, Recurrent Endometrial Carcinoma, Corpus Uteri
UT Southwestern
A Study of CAP-1002 in Ambulatory and Non-Ambulatory Patients With Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (HOPE-3)
HOPE-3 is a two cohort, Phase 3, multi-center, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trial evaluating the efficacy and safety of a cell therapy called CAP-1002 in study participants with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and impaired skeletal muscle function. Non-ambulatory and ambulatory boys and young men who meet eligibility criteria will be randomly assigned to receive either CAP-1002 or placebo every 3 months for a total of 4 doses during the first 12-months of the study. All participants will be eligible to receive 4 doses of CAP-1002 for an additional 12 months as part of an open-label extended assessment period.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Tammy.Ramm@UTSouthwestern.edu
Susan Iannaccone
MALE
10 Years and over
PHASE3
NCT05126758
STU-2022-0124
Inclusion Criteria:
• Male subjects at least 10 years of age at time of consent who are willing and able to provide informed consent to participate in the trial if ≥ 18 years of age or assent with parental or guardian informed consent if \< 18 years of age. If a third-party caregiver is involved, they must provide informed consent.
• Diagnosis of DMD based on clinical and phenotypic manifestations consistent with DMD (e.g., family history of DMD, elevated creatine kinase, dystrophin muscle biopsy, calf pseudohypertrophy, history of Gowers' sign, and gait impairment before 7 years of age) as confirmed by the Investigator.
• Confirmatory genetic testing performed to have reached a diagnosis of DMD at any time in the past or currently performed at a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory or equivalent.
• Performance of the Upper Limb test (PUL) entry item scores 2-6 and total PUL score less than or equal to 40. For Cohort A only: enrollment of patients with PUL entry score 6, Exon 44 skipping amenable, and/or Exon 3 through 7 deletions will be capped at no more than 10% of the total study population (approximately 6 patients with these characteristics).
• Reduced ability to walk/run (if ambulatory): subjects must take more than 10 seconds for the 10-meter walk/run (i.e., velocity \< 1 meter/second).
• If non-ambulatory, loss of independent ambulation between 10th and 18th year birthday (standing unassisted or ability to take, at most, several steps independently is not considered ambulation). Subjects who are considered non-ambulatory between the ages of 9 and10 may be enrolled with prior approval from the sponsor.
• Receiving standard of care therapy at an experienced, multidisciplinary DMD center as evidenced by regular cardiac and pulmonary monitoring, systemic glucocorticoid treatment, and at-home range of motion exercises.
• Treatment with systemic glucocorticoids for at least 12 months and at a stable dose at least 6 months prior to study participation, except for either weight-based dose adjustment or a decrease in steroid dose of ≤ 10% for toxicity. For patients on chronic deflazacort, treatment with an equivalent dose of prednisone or prednisolone for a period of ≤ 30 days to bridge lack of availability of deflazacort during the 6 months prior to randomization is acceptable.
• Current and up-to-date immunizations according to children and adolescent Centers for Disease Control and Prevention immunization schedule at the discretion of the Investigator.
• Adequate venous access for parenteral IP infusions and routine blood collection.
• Assessed by the Investigator as willing and able to comply with the requirements of the trial.
• Sexually active subjects and their partners who are fertile must agree to use effective method(s) of contraception.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) less than or equal to 35% prior to randomization.
• Elbow-flexion contractures \> 30° in both extremities.
• Body mass index (BMI) \> 45.
• Percent predicted forced vital capacity (FVC%) \< 35% within 6 months prior to randomization.
• Inability to perform consistent PUL 2.0 measurement within ± 2 points without shoulder domain or within ± 3 points with shoulder domain during paired testing at screening.
• Risk of near-term respiratory decompensation in the judgment of the Investigator, or the need for initiation of day and night non-invasive ventilator support as defined by serum bicarbonate ≥ 29 mmol/L at screening.
• History of non DMD-related chronic respiratory disease requiring ongoing or intermittent treatment, including, but not limited to, asthma, bronchitis, and tuberculosis.
• Acute respiratory illness within 30 days prior to screening and during screening.
• Initiation of nocturnal non-invasive ventilation within 30 days prior to screening.
• Planned or anticipated thoracic or spinal surgery within the 6 months following randomization.
• Planned or anticipated lower extremity surgery within the 6 months following randomization, if ambulatory.
• Known hypersensitivity to dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) or bovine products.
• Initiation of treatment with metformin or insulin within 3 months prior to randomization.
• Initiation of treatment with an FDA-approved exon skipping therapy for the treatment of DMD and/or non-weight based adjustments within 12 months prior to randomization.
• Treatment with human growth hormone within 3 months prior to randomization, unless on a stable dose allowing for weight-based dose adjustments (as determined by the site Investigator) for at least 24 months prior to randomization.
• Treatment with a cell therapy product within 12 months prior to randomization; any prior exposure to CAP-1002 will be excluded.
• Treatment with an investigational product within 6 months prior to randomization.
• History, or current use, of drugs or alcohol that could impair the ability to comply with participation in the trial.
• Inability to comply with the investigational plan and follow-up visit schedule for any reason, in the judgment of the investigator.
• Inability to undergo a cardiac MRI. For Cohort B Only - Subjects with a known hypersensitivity to gadolinium may forgo the LGE assessment but must complete a cardiac MRI without contrast. For Cohort B Only - Subjects who are unable to tolerate gadolinium due to renal insufficiency as measured by an estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 may forgo the LGE assessment but must complete a cardiac MRI without contrast.
• For Cohort B: Subjects with PUL entry score 6, Exon 44 skipping amenable, or Exon 3 through 7 deletions are excluded from participation.
BIOLOGICAL: CAP-1002, BIOLOGICAL: Placebo
Muscular Dystrophies, Muscular Dystrophy, Duchenne, Muscular Disorders, Atrophic, Muscular Diseases, Neuromuscular Diseases, Genetic Diseases, X-Linked, Genetic Diseases, Inborn, Nervous System Diseases
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, Cell Therapy, Performance of the Upper Limb, Ambulatory, Non-Ambulatory
Children’s Health
RAdiolabeled Perfusion to Identify Coronary Artery Disease Using WAter to Evaluate Responses of Myocardial FLOW (RAPID-WATER-FLOW)
This a Phase 3, prospective, open-label, multicenter study of \[15-O\]-H2O injection for PET imaging of subjects with suspected CAD. Approximately 182 evaluable participants with suspected CAD referred for testing will be included in the study at approximately 10 study sites in the United States and Europe. Approximately 215 participants will be enrolled to account for an estimated 15% drop-out rate. Screening assessments will occur prior to enrollment to confirm eligibility. All participants will receive two doses of \[15-O\]-H2O as part of a single PET imaging session (one dose at rest and one during pharmacological stress with adenosine). A safety follow-up phone call will occur 24 ± 8 hrs after completion of the \[15-O\]-H2O scan.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Michael.Fulkerson@UTSouthwestern.edu
Orhan Oz
ALL
18 Years and over
PHASE3
NCT05134012
STU-2022-0565
Inclusion Criteria:
• Male and female participants ≥18 years;
• Informed consent form (ICF) read, signed, and dated prior to any study procedures being performed;
• Participants who fall into any one of the following categories:
• Have been referred for an ICA directly of after non-invasive testing (e.g., SPECT or PET MPI, stress echo, CCTA, ETT).
• Had an ICA with no intervention. However, if any stenosis \>40% but ≤70% was observed, an FFR or iFR assessment was performed.
• Had a CCTA with normal coronaries or minimal CAD (no stenosis \>25%). The SPECT study, PET 15O-H2O study, and ICA or CCTA testing need to be completed within a 30-day window, with time 0 defined as the date of the first of these three tests.
• Women of Child Bearing Potential (WOCBP) must be non-pregnant, and non-lactating. For women of childbearing potential, the results of a urine human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) pregnancy test (with the result known on the day of drug administration) must be negative; these participants must be practicing appropriate birth control from time of the screening visit until the end of the follow-up period. For women who are either surgically sterile (have a documented bilateral tubal ligation or oophorectomy and/or hysterectomy) or are post-menopausal (cessation of menses for more than 1 year), enrollment in the study without a pregnancy test at screening is allowed.
• Male will need to use contraceptive methods until end of the follow-up period.
• Participants are able to comply with all study procedures as described in the protocol.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Participants are unable to undergo (even partially) any of the imaging procedures;
• Participants with a known history of cardiac disease including:
• myocardial infarction, previous coronary revascularization, or chronic ischemic cardiomyopathy
• primary myocardial disease such as cardiac amyloidosis or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• known left ventricular dysfunction
• moderate or severe aortic or mitral stenosis or regurgitation
• Participants in whom adenosine stress testing is contraindicated, including but not limited to:
• Participants with severe COPD or chronic asthma.
• Participants with second- or third-degree atrioventricular block without a pacemaker.
• Participants with claustrophobia to an extent that would limit their ability to undergo SPECT and PET imaging (patients whose claustrophobia is known to be readily controlled with drugs or psychological support may be enrolled).
• Participants who are on sildenafil (Viagra) or oral dipyridamole (Persantine, Aggrenox) therapy or on any PDE5 inhibitor (i.e. tadalafil, avanafil, vardenafil),and for whom its use cannot be terminated or suspended for ≥24 hours prior to treatment of study drug.
• Participants with significant co-morbidities that would prevent appropriate completion of the protocol procedures.
• Participants who have participated in another research study using investigational drugs within the 30 days prior to enrollment or through the duration of the trial (patients in observational studies with approved agents and participants known to be on placebo may be enrolled).
• Participants who have previously participated in this study.
• Subjects scheduled for, or planning to undergo, any interventional cardiac procedures between enrollment and ICA (pathway 1) or signing of informed consent and 15O-H2O PET MPI (pathway 2 and 3)
DRUG: [O-15]-Water PET Myocardial Perfusion Imaging (MPI)
Coronary Artery Disease, Cardiovascular
Myocardial Blood Flow (MBF), Myocardial Perfusion Imaging (MPI), RAPID-WATER-FLOW, Positron Emission Tomography (PET), Oxygen-15, Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)
UT Southwestern
Vitamin D Deficiency in Adults Following a Major Burn Injury
This is a single site double blind randomized controlled trial of replacing Vitamin D for Vitamin D-deficient burn patients at a current recommended dose (400 IU daily) versus a higher dose (4000 IU daily). Capsules will be made in a compounding pharmacy and will look identical. Randomized controlled trial. People who meet the selection criteria will be randomized to either low or high dosage of Vitamin D. Treatment arm is high dose Vitamin D (4000 IU), and control is low dose Vitamin D (400 IU). Main outcome variables include PROMIS-29 measures of physical health, mental health and social health, the Veterans RAND 12 Item Health Survey (VR-12), and the 4-D Itch Scale. Secondary outcome variables include subject demographics, injury demographics and characteristics.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Jennifer.Bell-DePaz@UTSouthwestern.edu
Karen Kowalske
All
18 Years and over
Phase 4
NCT05084248
STU-2019-1223
Inclusion Criteria:
• Adults, 18 years of age or older, who have completed 6 months from time of their burn injury
• ≥ 10% TBSA, ≥ 65 years of age and Burn Surgery for Wound Closure
• ≥ 20% TBSA, 18 - 64 of age and Burn Surgery for Wound Closure
• Electrical high voltage / lightning and Burn Surgery for Wound Closure
• Hand burn and/or face burn, and/or feet burn and Burn Surgery for Wound Closure
• May speak English or Spanish
• Vit. D deficiency
Exclusion Criteria:
• Patients with parathyroid disease, severe liver dysfunction, sever kidney dysfunction, which are not caused by the burn injury
• Patients with malignant tumors
• Patients not meeting the inclusion criteria
Drug: Ergocalciferol Capsules
Vitamin D Deficiency, Burns
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Caloric Restriction and Activity to Reduce Chemoresistance in B-ALL (IDEAL2)
This study is for older children, adolescents, and young adults with B-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (B-ALL). Higher amounts of body fat is associated with resistance to chemotherapy in patients with B-ALL. Chemotherapy during the first month causes large gains in body fat in most people, even those who start chemotherapy at a healthy weight. This study is being done to find out if caloric restriction achieved by a personalized nutritional menu and exercise plan during routine chemotherapy can make the patient's ALL more sensitive to chemotherapy and also reduce the amount of body fat gained during treatment. The goals of this study are to help make chemotherapy more effective in treating the patient's leukemia as demonstrated by fewer patients with leukemia minimal residual disease (MRD) while also trying to reduce the amount of body fat that chemotherapy causes the patient to gain in the first month.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Tamra Slone
All
10 Years to 25 Years old
Phase 2
NCT05082519
STU-2022-0479
Inclusion Criteria:
• Patients must be ≥ 10.0 and <26.0 years of age.
• Patients must have a diagnosis of de novo B-ALL
• Patients must have a M3 marrow (>25% blasts by morphology) or at least 1,000/µL circulating leukemia cells in PB confirmed by Flow Cytometry (or other convincing evidence of a B-ALL diagnosis not meeting above criteria following central review by the Study Hematopathologist and Study Chair or Vice-Chair).
• The treatment regimen must be the first treatment attempt for B-ALL-
• Must be a multi-agent induction regimen inclusive of vincristine, glucocorticoid, pegaspargase/calaspargase, and daunorubicin or doxorubicin and with a planned duration <35 days.
• Organ function must meet that required for initiation of chemotherapy
• Patients at diagnosis must meet Karnofsky > 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky > 50% for patients ≤ 16 years of age (or be expected to recover prior to Day 8) .
• If the patient is a female of childbearing potential, a negative urine or serum pregnancy test is required within two weeks prior to enrollment.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Patient will be excluded if they are underweight at time of enrollment (BMI% <5th percentile for age for patients age 10-19 years, BMI <18.5 in patients 20-29 years).
• Patients with Down syndrome or a DNA fragility syndrome (such as Fanconi anemia, Bloom syndrome) will be excluded.
• Patient receiving a SJCRH-style "Total Therapy" regimen will be excluded.
• Patients receiving anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody therapy during induction therapy.
• Patients will be excluded if they received treatment for a previous malignancy.
• Patient will be excluded if they are pregnant.
• Patient will be excluded if they have a pre-diagnosis requirement for enteral or parenteral supplementation .
• Patient will be excluded due to inability to perform the intervention (e.g., specific nutritional needs, severe developmental delay, paraplegia)
• Patients will be excluded if they have significant concurrent disease, illness, psychiatric disorder or social issue that would compromise patient safety or compliance with the protocol treatment or procedures, interfere with consent, study participation, follow up, or interpretation of study results
Behavioral: IDEAL2 Intervention
B-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Obesity, Lymphoid Leukemia
obesity, leukemia, B-cell leukemia, Pediatric obesity, Pediatric ALL
Children’s Health
Testing the Addition of the Chemotherapy Drug Lomustine (Gleostine) to the Usual Treatment (Temozolomide and Radiation Therapy) for Newly Diagnosed MGMT Methylated Glioblastoma
This phase III trial compares the effect of adding lomustine to standard chemotherapy with temozolomide and radiation therapy versus temozolomide and radiation therapy alone in shrinking or stabilizing newly diagnosed MGMT methylated glioblastoma. MGMT methylated tumors are more likely to respond to temozolomide chemotherapy. Temozolomide is in a class of medications called alkylating agents. It works by damaging the cell's DNA and may kill tumor cells and slow down or stop tumor growth. Lomustine is a chemotherapy drug and in a class of medications called alkylating agents. It damages the cell's DNA and may kill tumor cells. Radiation therapy uses high energy x-ray photons to kill tumor cells and shrink tumors. Adding lomustine to standard chemotherapy with temozolomide and radiation therapy may shrink or stabilize glioblastoma.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Nawal Shaikh
ALL
18 Years to 70 Years old
PHASE3
NCT05095376
STU-2022-0465
Inclusion Criteria:
* STEP 1 REGISTRATION: No known IDH mutation. (If tested before step 1 registration, patients known to have IDH mutation in the tumor on local or other testing are ineligible and should not be registered)
* STEP 1 REGISTRATION: Availability of formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tumor tissue block and hematoxylin and eosin (H\&E) stained slide to be sent for central pathology review for confirmation of histology and MGMT promoter methylation status. Note that tissue for central pathology review and central MGMT assessment must be received by the New York University (NYU) Center for Biospecimen Research and Development (CBRD) on or before postoperative calendar day 30. If tissue cannot be received by postoperative calendar day 30, then patients may NOT enroll on this trial as central pathology review will not be complete in time for the patient to start treatment no later than 8 weeks following surgery. Results of central pathology review and central MGMT analysis will generally be completed within 10 business days of receipt of tissue. Results will be entered by the central lab directly into Rave. Note: In the event of an additional tumor resection(s), tissue must be received within 30 days of the most recent resection and the latest resection must have been performed within 30 days after the initial resection. Surgical resection is required; stereotactic biopsy alone is not allowed because it will not provide sufficient tissue for MGMT analysis
* STEP 1 REGISTRATION: Willing to use highly effective method of contraception for participants of childbearing potential (participants who may become pregnant or who may impregnate a partner) during therapy and for 6 months after completing treatment; this inclusion is necessary because the treatment in this study may be significantly teratogenic
* STEP 1 REGISTRATION: The patient or a legally authorized representative must provide study-specific informed consent prior to study entry and, for patients treated in the United States (U.S.), authorization permitting release of personal health information
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Histopathologically proven diagnosis of glioblastoma (or gliosarcoma as a subtype of glioblastoma) confirmed by central pathology review
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: MGMT promoter with methylation confirmed by central pathology review. Note: Patients with tissue that is insufficient or inadequate for analysis, fails MGMT testing, or has indeterminate or unmethylated MGMT promoter are excluded
* Note: Any MGMT result other than methylated would require step 2 registration to be reported as a "central review failure"
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Contrast-enhanced brain MRI performed either after surgery or prior to step 2 registration
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: IDH mutation testing by at least one method (such as immunohistochemistry for IDH1 R132H) must be performed as part of standard of care and no mutation must be found (i.e IDH wildtype). (If a mutation is identified then the patient will be ineligible and must be registered as ineligible at step 2.)
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: History/physical examination within 28 days prior to step 2 registration
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Karnofsky performance status (KPS) \>= 70 within 28 days prior to step 2 registration
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Neurologic function assessment within 28 days prior to step 2 registration
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Age 18-70 years
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Hemoglobin \>= 10 g/dl (Note: the use of transfusion or other intervention to achieve hemoglobin \[Hgb\] \>= 10.0 g/dl is acceptable) (Within 14 days prior to step 2 registration)
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Leukocytes \>= 2,000/mm\^3 (Within 14 days prior to step 2 registration)
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Absolute neutrophil count \>= 1,500/mm\^3 (Within 14 days prior to step 2 registration)
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Platelets \>= 100,000/mm\^3 (Within 14 days prior to step 2 registration)
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Total bilirubin =\< 1.5 x institutional/lab upper limit of normal (ULN) (Within 14 days prior to step 2 registration)
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase \[SGOT\]) =\< 2.5 x ULN (Within 14 days prior to step 2 registration)
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) (serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase \[SGPT\]) =\< 2.5 x ULN (Within 14 days prior to step 2 registration)
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Serum creatinine =\< 1.5 x ULN OR creatinine clearance (CrCl) \>= 50 mL/min (if using the Cockcroft-Gault formula) (Within 14 days prior to step 2 registration)
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated
* Note: Known positive test for hepatitis B virus surface antigen (HBV sAg) indicating acute or chronic infection would make the patient ineligible unless the viral load becomes undetectable on suppressive therapy. Patients who are immune to hepatitis B (anti-hepatitis B surface antibody positive) are eligible (e.g. patients immunized against hepatitis B)
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: For patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
* Note: Known positive test for hepatitis C virus ribonucleic acid (HCV ribonucleic acid \[RNA\]) indicating acute or chronic infection would make the patient ineligible unless the viral load becomes undetectable on suppressive therapy
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months prior to step 2 registration are eligible for this trial. Testing is not required for entry into protocol
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Negative serum or urine pregnancy test (in persons of childbearing potential) within 14 days prior to step 2 registration
* Childbearing potential is defined as any person who has experienced menarche and who has not undergone surgical sterilization (hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy) or who is not postmenopausal
Exclusion Criteria:
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Prior therapy for tumor except for resection or prior laser interstitial thermal therapy (LITT). For example, prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or targeted therapy for GBM or lower grade glioma is disallowed (including but not limited to temozolomide, lomustine, bevacizumab, any viral therapy, ipilimumab or other CTLA-4 antibody, PD-1 antibody, CD-137 agonist, CD40 antibody, PDL-1 or 2 antibody, vaccine therapy, polio or similar viral injection as treatment for the tumor, and/or any other antibody or drug specifically targeting T-cell co-stimulation or immune checkpoint pathways) as is Gliadel wafer, radiotherapy, radiosurgery, vaccine or other immunotherapy, brachytherapy, or convection enhanced delivery
* Note: 5-aminolevulinic acid (ALA)-mediated fluorescent guided resection (FGR) photodynamic therapy (PDT) or fluorescein administered prior to/during surgery to aid resection is not exclusionary and is not considered a chemotherapy or intracerebral agent. Prior laser interstitial thermal therapy (LITT) is allowed
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Current or planned treatment with any other investigational agents for the study cancer
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Definitive clinical or radiologic evidence of metastatic disease outside the brain
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Prior invasive malignancy (except non-melanomatous skin cancer, cervical cancer in situ and melanoma in situ) unless disease free for a minimum of 2 years
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Prior radiotherapy to the head or neck that would result in overlap of radiation therapy fields
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Pregnancy and individuals unwilling to discontinue nursing due to the potential teratogenic effects and potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to temozolomide or lomustine
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: History of pulmonary fibrosis
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to:
* Ongoing or active infection requiring intravenous (IV) antibiotics, IV antiviral, or IV antifungal treatment
* Symptomatic congestive heart failure, defined as New York Heart Association Functional Classification III/IV (Note: Patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification)
* Unstable angina pectoris within 6 months prior to Step 2 registration
* Uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia
* Psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
* STEP 2 REGISTRATION: No evidence of diffuse leptomeningeal disease that requires whole brain irradiation DRUG: Lomustine, PROCEDURE: Magnetic Resonance Imaging, RADIATION: Photon Beam Radiation Therapy, OTHER: Questionnaire Administration, DRUG: Temozolomide
Glioblastoma, Gliosarcoma, Brain and Nervous System
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Premedication for Less Invasive Surfactant Administration Study (PRELISA) (PRELISA)
The purpose of this study is to conduct a double blinded randomized control trial to determine the safety and efficacy of using IV fentanyl and atropine prior to Less Invasive Surfactant Administration (LISA) procedure in preterm infants with Respiratory Distress Syndrome compared to the local standard of care to perform this procedure without any premedication. Hypothesis: In infants greater than or equal to 29 weeks gestational age requiring the Less Invasive Surfactant Administration procedure, premedication with a combination of IV atropine and IV fentanyl will be associated with fewer combined bradycardia events, defined as heartrate less than 100 beats per minute for longer than 10 seconds, and hypoxemia events, defined as saturations less than or equal to 80% for longer than 30 seconds, during the procedure compared with placebo. Specific Aims: - To determine if infants receiving IV fentanyl and atropine prior to LISA will have a decrease in hypoxemia and bradycardia events during the procedure compared to infants receiving placebo - To determine if infants receiving premedication prior to Less Invasive Surfactant Administration will have higher procedure first attempt success rate compared with infants receiving placebo - To determine the effect of premedication on cerebral oxygenation compared to placebo during and for 12 hours after Less Invasive Surfactant Administration using cerebral Near Infrared Spectroscopy - To determine the effect of premedication prior to Less Invasive Surfactant Administration on the need for mechanical ventilation for 24 hours after the procedure
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu, Kathryn.Mazioniene@UTSouthwestern.edu
Venkatakrishna Kakkilaya
All
0 Hours to 72 Hours old
Phase 4
NCT05065424
STU-2021-0380
Inclusion Criteria:
• Infants ≥29 weeks gestational age between 0-72 hours of life on CPAP for respiratory support who qualify for the LISA procedure as determined by the primary team using Parkland OPTISURF guidelines
Exclusion Criteria:
• Infants requiring intubation prior to surfactant therapy
• Infants with known severe congenital anomalies (including complex congenital heart disease, airway, and central nervous system anomalies)
• Infants born to mothers with known opioid addiction or in a methadone treatment program
Drug: IV Atropine and Fentanyl Premedication Arm, Drug: IV Normal Saline Placebo Arm
Respiratory Distress Syndrome, Newborn, Lung/Thoracic
Premedication for Less Invasive Surfactant Administration, Fentanyl and Atropine for Less Invasive Surfactant Administration, Cerebral Near Infrared Spectroscopy monitoring in neonates, Premedication for LISA, Fentanyl and Atropine for LISA, Cerebral NIRS monitoring in neonates
Parkland Health & Hospital System
Five or Ten Year Colonoscopy for 1-2 Non-Advanced Adenomatous Polyps (FORTE)
This trial examines colorectal cancer incidence in participants with 1 to 2 non-advanced adenomas randomized to surveillance colonoscopy at 10 years compared to participants randomized to surveillance colonoscopy at 5 and 10 years.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Luke Engelking
ALL
50 Years to 70 Years old
NA
NCT05080673
STU-2023-0888
Inclusion Criteria:
* • The participant must have signed and dated an IRB-approved consent form that conforms to federal and institutional guidelines.
* Participants with a first-time diagnosis of 1-2 non-advanced tubular adenomas (less than 10 mm without tubulovillous or villous changes or high grade or severe dysplasia) from the qualifying colonoscopy within 4 years prior to randomization.
* Sessile serrated polyps/adenomas, as long as they do not meet the criteria for advanced adenomas, will be considered as non-advanced adenomas.
* Qualifying colonoscopy must be a complete colonoscopy with visualization of the cecum and with adequate cleansing within 4 years prior to randomization.
* Complete excision of all observed polyps in qualifying colonoscopy
* Participants must be able to read or understand English or Spanish.
Exclusion Criteria:
* • Prior history of colorectal cancer or colorectal adenomas including sessile serrated polyps/adenomas excluding those found on the qualifying colonoscopy.
* Prior history of a hyperplastic polyp measuring greater than or equal to 1 cm in size.
* Traditional serrated adenomas found on the qualifying colonoscopy.
* Hyperplastic polyp measuring greater than or equal to 1 cm in size found on the qualifying colonoscopy.
* Previous malignancies unless the patient has been disease-free for 5 or more years prior to randomization and is deemed by the physician to be at low risk for recurrence. Patients with the following cancers are eligible if diagnosed and treated within the past 5 years: all in situ cancers and basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma of the skin.
* Colonoscopy performed after the qualifying colonoscopy but prior to randomization.
* Incomplete qualifying colonoscopy (e.g., cecum not visualized).
* Incomplete endoscopic excision of adenomatous polyps based on colonoscopist impression at qualifying colonoscopy. (Excision of all hyperplastic rectosigmoid polyps is not required.)
* Sub-total colectomy or total proctocolectomy. (Segmental resections are allowed.)
* Family history of CRC diagnosed at greater than or equal to 60 years of age in a first degree relative (mother, father, child, sibling) or in two first degree relatives with CRC at any age.
* Participants with a clinical diagnosis of a significant heritable risk for colorectal cancer (Familial Adenomatous Polyposis, Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer \[Lynch Syndrome\]).
* Participants tested positive for a Familial Adenomatous Polyposis, Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer \[Lynch Syndrome\] genetic mutation that increases risk of colorectal cancer.
* Inflammatory bowel disease (e.g., Crohn's Disease, ulcerative colitis).
* Life expectancy less than 10 years due to comorbid conditions in the opinion of the investigator.
* Other comorbid conditions that would prevent the participant from having colonoscopies or would prevent required follow-up. PROCEDURE: 5-year and 10 Year Surveillance Colonoscopy after Qualifying Colonoscopy
Adenocarcinoma of the Colon, Adenocarcinoma of the Rectum, Colon, Rectum
UT Southwestern