Here are the studies that match your search criteria. If you are interested in participating, please reach out to the contact listed for the study. If no contact is listed, contact us and we'll help you find the right person.
421 Study Matches
Five or Ten Year Colonoscopy for 1-2 Non-Advanced Adenomatous Polyps (FORTE)
This trial examines colorectal cancer incidence in participants with 1 to 2 non-advanced adenomas randomized to surveillance colonoscopy at 10 years compared to participants randomized to surveillance colonoscopy at 5 and 10 years.
* • The participant must have signed and dated an IRB-approved consent form that conforms to federal and institutional guidelines.
* Participants with a first-time diagnosis of 1-2 non-advanced tubular adenomas (less than 10 mm without tubulovillous or villous changes or high grade or severe dysplasia) from the qualifying colonoscopy within 4 years prior to randomization.
* Sessile serrated polyps/adenomas, as long as they do not meet the criteria for advanced adenomas, will be considered as non-advanced adenomas.
* Qualifying colonoscopy must be a complete colonoscopy with visualization of the cecum and with adequate cleansing within 4 years prior to randomization.
* Complete excision of all observed polyps in qualifying colonoscopy
* Participants must be able to read or understand English or Spanish.
Exclusion Criteria:
* • Prior history of colorectal cancer or colorectal adenomas including sessile serrated polyps/adenomas excluding those found on the qualifying colonoscopy.
* Prior history of a hyperplastic polyp measuring greater than or equal to 1 cm in size.
* Traditional serrated adenomas found on the qualifying colonoscopy.
* Hyperplastic polyp measuring greater than or equal to 1 cm in size found on the qualifying colonoscopy.
* Previous malignancies unless the patient has been disease-free for 5 or more years prior to randomization and is deemed by the physician to be at low risk for recurrence. Patients with the following cancers are eligible if diagnosed and treated within the past 5 years: all in situ cancers and basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma of the skin.
* Colonoscopy performed after the qualifying colonoscopy but prior to randomization.
* Incomplete qualifying colonoscopy (e.g., cecum not visualized).
* Incomplete endoscopic excision of adenomatous polyps based on colonoscopist impression at qualifying colonoscopy. (Excision of all hyperplastic rectosigmoid polyps is not required.)
* Sub-total colectomy or total proctocolectomy. (Segmental resections are allowed.)
* Family history of CRC diagnosed at greater than or equal to 60 years of age in a first degree relative (mother, father, child, sibling) or in two first degree relatives with CRC at any age.
* Participants with a clinical diagnosis of a significant heritable risk for colorectal cancer (Familial Adenomatous Polyposis, Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer \[Lynch Syndrome\]).
* Participants tested positive for a Familial Adenomatous Polyposis, Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer \[Lynch Syndrome\] genetic mutation that increases risk of colorectal cancer.
* Inflammatory bowel disease (e.g., Crohn's Disease, ulcerative colitis).
* Life expectancy less than 10 years due to comorbid conditions in the opinion of the investigator.
* Other comorbid conditions that would prevent the participant from having colonoscopies or would prevent required follow-up.
PROCEDURE: 5-year and 10 Year Surveillance Colonoscopy after Qualifying Colonoscopy
Adenocarcinoma of the Colon, Adenocarcinoma of the Rectum, Colon, Rectum
Study of ONO-4685 in Patients With Relapsed or Refractory T Cell Lymphoma
This study will investigate the safety, tolerability, pharmacokinetics, and preliminary efficacy of ONO-4685 in patients with relapsed or refractory T cell Lymphoma
Inclusion Criteria
• Patients aged ≥ 18 years at time of screening
• Written informed consent by the patient or the patients' legally authorized representative prior to screening
• Patients with histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of one of the following subtypes of T-cell lymphoma:
• Peripheral T-cell lymphoma (PTCL): Angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma (AITL), PTCL, not otherwise specified (PTCL-NOS), nodal PTCL with T-follicular helper (TFH) and follicular T-cell lymphoma (FTCL)
• Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL) (stages II-B, III, and IV): Mycosis fungoides (MF) and Sezary syndrome (SS)
• Patients must have received at least 2 prior systemic therapies
• Patients with PTCL must have at least 1 measurable lesion (Cheson BD, 2014)
• Patients with CTCL must have assessable disease by response criteria for CTCL (Olsen EA, 2011)
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group Performance Status (ECOG PS) = 0-2
• Life expectancy of at least 3 months
• Adequate bone marrow, renal and hepatic functions
Exclusion Criteria:
• Patients with central nervous system (CNS) involvement
• Patients with Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL)
• Prior allogeneic stem cell transplant
• Prior treatment with ONO-4685, anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1, anticytotoxic T lymphocyte associated protein 4 (CTLA-4) antibody, or any other antibody or drug specifically targeting T-cell co-stimulation or checkpoint pathways
• Prior allogeneic and autologous chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy
• Patients with malignancies (other than T-cell lymphoma) except for completely resected basal cell carcinoma, stage I squamous cell carcinoma, carcinoma in situ, or any other malignancies that has not relapsed for at least 2 years
• History of severe allergy or hypersensitivity to any monoclonal antibodies, other therapeutic proteins or corticosteroid (e.g., dexamethasone)
• History of infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis within 2 years prior to the first dose of study treatment
• Patients with systemic and active infection including human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B or C virus infection
• Patients not recovered to Grade 1 or stabilized from the adverse effects (excluding alopecia) of any prior therapy for their malignancies
• Women who are pregnant or lactating
DRUG: ONO-4685
Relapsed or Refractory T Cell Lymphoma, Lymphoid Leukemia
ONO-4685, PD-1, CD3, Bispecific antibody, PTCL, AITL, PTCL-NOS, nodal PTCL with TFH, FTCL, CTCL, MF, SS
Phase 1/2 Study of Avutometinib (VS-6766) + Sotorasib With or Without Defactinib in KRAS G12C NSCLC Patients (RAMP203)
This study will assess the safety and efficacy of avutometinib (VS-6766) in combination with sotorasib with or without defactinib in patients with KRAS G12C Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC) in patients who have been exposed to prior G12C inhibitor and those who have not been exposed to prior G12C inhibitor.
* Male or female patients ≥ 18 years of age
* Histologic or cytologic evidence of NSCLC
* Known KRAS G12C mutation
* Either exposed or not exposed to a KRAS inhibitor to be included in Part A (avutometinib + sotorasib + defactinib) and not exposed to KRAS inhibitor to be included in Part B (avutometinib + sotorasib + defactinib), Cohort 1
* Received at least 1 dose of a G12C inhibitor to be included in Part B, Cohort 2 (avutometinib + sotorasib + defactinib)
* Must have received appropriate treatment with at least one prior systemic regimen, but no more than 2 prior regimens, for Stage 3B-C or 4 NSCLC
* Measurable disease according to RECIST 1.1
* An Eastern Cooperative Group (ECOG) performance status ≤ 1
* Adequate organ function
* Adequate recovery from toxicities related to prior treatments
* Agreement to use highly effective method of contraceptive
Exclusion Criteria:
* Systemic anti-cancer therapy within 4 weeks of the first dose of study therapy
* History of prior malignancy, with the exception of curatively treated malignancies
* Major surgery within 4 weeks, minor surgery within 2 weeks (excluding placement of vascular access)
* History of treatment with a direct and specific inhibitor of MEK
* Exposure to strong CYP3A4 inhibitors or inducers within 14 days prior to the first dose and during the course of therapy
* Symptomatic brain metastases requiring steroids or other local interventions.
* Known SARS-Cov2 infection ≤28 days prior to first dose of study therapy
* Known hepatitis B, hepatitis C, or human immunodeficiency virus infection that is active
* Active skin disorder that has required systemic therapy within the past year
* History of rhabdomyolysis
* Concurrent ocular disorders
* Concurrent heart disease or severe obstructive pulmonary disease
* Inability to swallow oral medications
* Female patients that are pregnant or breastfeeding
* Previously treated with sotorasib and were dose reduced due to toxicity
DRUG: avutometinib and sotorasib, DRUG: avutometinib and sotorasib and defactinib
Non Small Cell Lung Cancer, KRAS Activating Mutation, Lung/Thoracic
Preventing Cognitive Decline by Reducing BP Target Trial (PCOT)
The PCOT study is a multi-site randomized trial of patients 70 years or older with high BP. The main goal of the study Preventing Cognitive Decline by Reducing BP Target Trial (PCOT) is to conduct a large pragmatic clinical trial (PCT) to test the hypothesis that patients who receive care with a combination of clinical decision support (CDS) and team-based care delivered in primary care practices will have better blood pressure control and a lower incidence of mild cognitive impairment and dementia than patients receiving usual medical care. Patients will be recruited from UT Southwestern Medical Center and Parkland Health \& Hospital System.
* High BP defined as at least 1 BP readings of SBP \>= 130 or DBP \>=80 during the 24 months prior to enrollment
* Clinic visit with primary care provider within the last 24 months
* Ability to write and speak English or Spanish
* 70 years of age or older
* Ability to understand and willingness to provide informed consent
* Owns a smartphone
Exclusion Criteria:
* Blood pressure consistently \<130/80 mmHg
* Presence of dementia, Alzheimer's disease, or significant neurological disease
* Major and unstable heart disease (e.g., acute heart failure (systolic or diastolic), acute on chronic heart failure (systolic or diastolic), acute coronary syndrome or cardiac arrest, liver or renal transplantation
* Under 70 years of age
* Inability to write or speak English or Spanish
* Chronic kidney disease stage 5 or ESKD
* Chemotherapy
* Any conditions judged by the medical providers to contraindicate participation due to risk to patient safety or lack of adherence
* Expected life expectancy under a year
OTHER: Clinical Support Decision Tool
Cognitive Decline, Blood Pressure, Hypertension
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Evaluating the Addition of the Immunotherapy Drug Atezolizumab to Standard Chemotherapy Treatment for Advanced or Metastatic Neuroendocrine Carcinomas That Originate Outside the Lung
This phase II/III trial compares the effect of immunotherapy with atezolizumab in combination with standard chemotherapy with a platinum drug (cisplatin or carboplatin) and etoposide versus standard therapy alone for the treatment of poorly differentiated extrapulmonary (originated outside the lung) neuroendocrine cancer that may have spread from where it first started to nearby tissue, lymph nodes, or distant parts of the body (advanced) or that has spread from where it first started (primary site) to other places in the body (metastatic). The other aim of this trial is to compare using atezolizumab just at the beginning of treatment versus continuing it beyond the initial treatment. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as atezolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Cisplatin and carboplatin are in a class of medications known as platinum-containing compounds that work by killing, stopping or slowing the growth of cancer cells. Etoposide is in a class of medications known as podophyllotoxin derivatives. It blocks a certain enzyme needed for cell division and DNA repair, and it may kill cancer cells. Giving atezolizumab in combination with a platinum drug (cisplatin or carboplatin) and etoposide may work better in treating patients with poorly differentiated extrapulmonary neuroendocrine cancer compared to standard therapy with a platinum drug (cisplatin or carboplatin) and etoposide alone.
* Participants must have histologically-confirmed (local site pathological confirmation sufficient) extrapulmonary poorly differentiated, neuroendocrine carcinoma (NEC)
* Participants must have disease that is unresectable or metastatic and not eligible for definitive therapy as deemed per the treating investigator
* Participants must have radiologically evaluable disease, measurable or non-measurable, per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1 criteria. All measurable and non-measurable lesions must be assessed by CT scan with IV contrast of the chest/abdomen/and pelvis (or CT chest without contrast and MRI abdomen/pelvis with gadolinium contrast, if contraindication to CT iodinated contrast) within 28 days prior to registration. While may be used for routine clinical evaluation, PET scans and bone scans alone are not acceptable for disease assessment while participating in this study. All known sites of disease must be assessed and documented on the Baseline Tumor Assessment Form
* Participants must have brain MRI (or CT head with contrast if there is contraindication to MRI brain) if clinically indicated within 28 days prior to registration. Note: Brain imaging is not required in participants without known and/or clinical concern for brain metastases. Participants with asymptomatic central nervous system (CNS) metastases are eligible if one or more of the following apply:
* Participants who have received treatment for brain metastases must have:
* No evidence of radiological progression (by MRI brain or CT head with contrast if there is contraindication to MRI brain) within 28 days prior to registration
* Discontinued all corticosteroids at least 14 days prior to registration
* Participants with treatment-naive brain lesions must have:
* No lesion measuring \> 2.0 cm in size in any axis
* MRI brain or CT head with contrast (if there is contraindication to MRI brain) demonstrating no evidence for mass effect, edema, or other impending neurological compromise within 28 days prior to registration
* No evidence of radiological progression (by MRI brain or CT head with contrast if there is contraindication to MRI brain) within 28 days prior to registration
* No need for \> 2 mg of dexamethasone (or equivalent of \> 10 mg prednisone) per day at time of registration
* Participants must not have symptomatic central nervous system (CNS) metastases
* Participants must not have known or suspected leptomeningeal disease
* Participants with prior history of non-metastatic (localized/locally advanced disease) extrapulmonary poorly differentiated NEC may have had prior platinum-based therapy +/- radiation +/- surgery provided that all therapy was completed \>= 6 months prior to registration
* Participants must discontinue denosumab prior to study registration and plan to replace with a bisphosphonate while on the study
* Participants must not have had prior treatment for advanced or metastatic NEC EXCEPT one cycle of platinum (carboplatin/cisplatin) + etoposide is allowed prior to registration. Other chemotherapy regimens are not allowed. For participants with prostate or urothelial NEC, prior chemotherapy for the non-NEC component (e.g. adenocarcinoma or urothelial) is allowed as long as such therapy was completed \>= 24 weeks prior to registration and participants have recovered from all prior toxicities to =\< grade 1.
* Participants must not have had prior treatment with an anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1, anti-PD-L2, CD137 agonists, anti-CTLA-4 agent, or any other immune checkpoint inhibitors for any neuroendocrine neoplasm. Immune checkpoint inhibitors given for other cancer indications are allowed provided last therapy was given at least 12 months prior to study registration
* Participants must not have received treatment with systemic immunostimulatory agents including, but not limited to, interferon and interleukin2 \[IL-2\] within 4 weeks or 5 half-lives of the drug (whichever is longer) prior to registration
* Participants must not have had history of known severe allergy, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies, including to Chinese hamster ovary cell products or to any component of the atezolizumab formulation, cisplatin, carboplatin, or etoposide
* Participants must not be on active systemic therapy for another cancer with the exception of hormonal therapy including androgen deprivation therapy (e.g., gonadotropin-releasing hormone \[GnRH\] agonists or antagonists), which can be continued while participants are receiving protocol therapy. Use of enzalutamide or apalutamide is permitted after completion of chemotherapy and must be held during chemotherapy for participants receiving prior to enrollment. Use of darolutamide is permitted during chemotherapy. Glucocorticoid-containing regimens, including abiraterone, are not permitted.
* Participants must be \>= 18 years of age
* Participants must have a Zubrod performance status of =\< 2 within 28 days prior to registration
* Participants must have a complete medical history and physical exam within 28 days prior to registration
* Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) \>= 1.5 x 10\^9 /L (obtained within 14 days prior to registration. For participants who received a cycle of chemotherapy prior to registration, at least 21 days must have elapsed between day 1 of platinum + etoposide and performance of these tests)
* Hemoglobin \>= 9.0 g/dl (obtained within 14 days prior to registration. For participants who received a cycle of chemotherapy prior to registration, at least 21 days must have elapsed between day 1 of platinum + etoposide and performance of these tests)
* Platelet count \>= 100 x 10\^9/L (obtained within 14 days prior to registration. For participants who received a cycle of chemotherapy prior to registration, at least 21 days must have elapsed between day 1 of platinum + etoposide and performance of these tests)
* Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) =\< 2.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (obtained within 14 days prior to registration. For participants who received a cycle of chemotherapy prior to registration, at least 21 days must have elapsed between day 1 of platinum + etoposide and performance of these tests)
* Serum total bilirubin =\< 1.5 x ULN (obtained within 14 days prior to registration. For participants who received a cycle of chemotherapy prior to registration, at least 21 days must have elapsed between day 1 of platinum + etoposide and performance of these tests)
* Adequate renal function as defined by any 1 of the following: 1) Measured creatinine clearance (CL) \> 50 mL/min OR 2) Calculated creatinine CL \> 50 mL/min by the Cockcroft-Gault formula OR by 24-hour urine collection for determination of creatinine clearance (obtained within 14 days prior to registration. For participants who received a cycle of chemotherapy prior to registration, at least 21 days must have elapsed between day 1 of platinum + etoposide and performance of these tests)
* Participants must not have uncontrolled or symptomatic hypercalcemia (\> 1.5 mmol/L ionized calcium or calcium \> 12 mg/dL or corrected serum calcium \> ULN) within 14 days prior to registration. Participants who have asymptomatic hypercalcemia are eligible provided that medical therapy to treat the hypercalcemia is planned
* Participants must not have a diagnosis of immunodeficiency nor be receiving systemic steroid therapy (equivalent of \> 20 mg of hydrocortisone per day) or any other form of immunosuppressive therapy within 14 days prior to registration
* Participants must not have active or history of autoimmune disease or immune deficiency, including, but not limited to myasthenia gravis, myositis, autoimmune hepatitis, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, Wegener granulomatosis, Sjogren syndrome, Guillain-Barre syndrome, or multiple sclerosis with the following exceptions:
* Patients with a history of autoimmune-related hypothyroidism who are on thyroid-replacement hormone are eligible for the study
* Patients with controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus who are on an insulin regimen are eligible for the study
* Patients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus, or vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis are excluded) are eligible for the study provided all of following conditions are met:
* Rash must cover \< 10% of body surface area
* Disease is well controlled at baseline and requires only low-potency topical corticosteroids
* No occurrence of acute exacerbations of the underlying condition requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation, methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors, or high-potency or oral corticosteroids within the previous 12 months
* Participants must not have history of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, organizing pneumonia (e.g., bronchiolitis obliterans), drug-induced pneumonitis, idiopathic pneumonitis, or evidence of active pneumonitis on screening chest CT scan. NOTE: History of radiation pneumonitis in the radiation field (fibrosis) is permitted
* Participants must not have significant cardiovascular disease, such as New York Heart Association class II or greater cardiac disease, myocardial infarction within 3 months prior to registration, unstable arrythmias, or unstable angina
* Participants must not have had a major surgical procedure other than for diagnosis within 28 days prior to registration. Participant must not plan to receive a major surgical procedure during the course of protocol treatment. NOTE: Patient port placement is not considered a major surgery
* Participants must not have severe infections (i.e., Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events \[CTCAE\] grade \>= 2) at time of registration, including but not limited to hospitalization for complications for infection, bacteremia, or severe pneumonia
* Participants must not have known active tuberculosis
* Participants with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection must have undetectable HBV viral load, with testing performed as clinically indicated
* Participants with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. Participants with active HCV infection who are currently on treatment must have an undetectable HCV viral load, with testing performed as clinically indicated
* Participants with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infection must be on effective anti-retroviral therapy at time of registration and have undetectable HIV viral load within 6 months of registration
* Participants must not have prior allogeneic bone marrow transplantation or solid organ transplant
* Participants must not have received administration of a live, attenuated vaccine (e.g., FluMist \[registered trademark\]) within 28 days prior to initiation of study treatment, during treatment with atezolizumab, and not plan to receive for 5 months after the last dose of atezolizumab
* Participants must not be pregnant due to the possibility of harm to the fetus. Individuals who are of reproductive potential must have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method (with details provided as a part of the consent process) during the treatment period and for 5 months after the final dose of atezolizumab. A person who has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months or who has semen likely to contain sperm is considered to be of "reproductive potential." In addition to routine contraceptive methods, "effective contraception" also includes refraining from sexual activity that might result in pregnancy and surgery intended to prevent pregnancy (or with a side-effect of pregnancy prevention) including hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy, bilateral tubal ligation/occlusion, and vasectomy with testing showing no sperm in the semen
* Participants must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking. With participant consent, specimens must be collected and submitted via the Southwest Oncology Group (SWOG) Specimen Tracking System
* Participants must be informed of the investigational nature of this study and must sign and give informed consent in accordance with institutional and federal guidelines
Advanced Extrapulmonary Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Metastatic Extrapulmonary Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Recurrent Extrapulmonary Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Unresectable Extrapulmonary Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Anus, Bones and Joints, Brain and Nervous System, Breast - Female, Breast - Male, Cervix, Colon, Corpus Uteri, Esophagus, Kidney, Larynx, Lip, Oral Cavity and Pharynx, Liver, Melanoma, skin, Other Digestive Organ, Other Endocrine System, Other Female Genital, Other Hematopoietic, Other Male Genital, Other Respiratory and Intrathoracic Organs, Other Skin, Other Urinary, Ovary, Pancreas, Prostate, Rectum, Small Intestine, Soft Tissue, Stomach, Thyroid, Urinary Bladder
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
ALTUS: Performance of a Multi- Target Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC) Test in Subjects With Increased Risk
The primary objective is to assess overall sensitivity and specificity of Oncoguard™ Liver for hepatocellular cancer (HCC) detection in a surveillance population.
• Be 18 years of age or older.
• Understand the study procedures, be able to provide written informed consent to participate in the study, and have authorization for release of data, including personal health data and images, to the study Investigator, Sponsor, and regulatory authorities.
• Present for surveillance imaging due to increased risk for HCC, including either:
• Diagnosis of cirrhosis based on at least one of the following:
* Histology from a liver biopsy.
* Ultrasound, CT, or MRI showing a cirrhotic liver combined with portal hypertension (as evidenced by the presence of intra-abdominal varices, or recanalized umbilical vein, or ascites or splenomegaly or thrombocytopenia \[defined as Platelet count \< 150,000\]). The imaging results must have been obtained within 5 years of study enrollment.
* Liver stiffness ≥4.71 kilopascal (kPa) by Magnetic Resonance (MR) elastography or ≥12.1 kPa by vibration controlled transient elastography.
* Presence of varices on endoscopy or imaging and presence of a chronic liver disease. OR
• Non-cirrhotic subjects with chronic Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) infection (Hepatitis B surface antigen present for \>6 months)
Exclusion Criteria:
• Known cancer diagnosis (including active malignancy) within the past 5 years except for nonmelanoma skin cancer.
• Chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy within 5 years prior to study enrollment.
• Known Child-Pugh class C liver function at the time of enrollment, except for those on the waiting list for transplant.
• Solid liver nodule \>1 cm by ultrasound or elevated Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) (\>100 ng/mL) in 12 months preceding the qualifying surveillance imaging visit without subsequent documentation of HCC negative or LIRADS 1 (Liver Imaging Reporting and Data System) by diagnostic CT/MRI.
• Females known to be pregnant at the time of enrollment.
• Illness that the Investigator believes poses a significant risk of mortality during the study period, including but not limited to
• Congestive heart failure with ejection fraction \<50%
• Chronic lung disease requiring supplemental oxygen.
• History of recent stroke.
• Sustained virologic response (SVR) for Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) (undetectable HCV RNA 12 to 24 weeks after completion of antiviral therapy) for \>10 years prior to enrollment.
• Not able to have IV contrast for CT or MRI due to
• Allergy to IV contrast and unwilling or unable to receive IV contrast after pre-medication.
• Estimated glomerular filtration rate \<35 mL/min and not on hemodialysis.
DEVICE: Study CT/MRI Imaging, DEVICE: Standard of Care CT/MRI Imaging, DIAGNOSTIC_TEST: Oncoguard™ Liver Test
Elucidating the Neurocircuitry of Irritability With High-Field Neuroimaging to Identify Novel Therapeutic Targets (UNIKET)
The study is investigating dysfunctions in neurocircuitry in regards to irritability with
healthy controls (HC) and individuals with Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) by performing
MRIs. The MDD group will also be randomized to receive ketamine or midazolam to investigate
changes post-treatment in neurocircuitry with regards to irritability.
• Male or female subjects, 18-65 years of age and body weight less than or equal to 120
kg on baseline visit.
• Participants must have a level of understanding of the English language sufficient to
agree to all tests and examinations required by the study and must be able to
participate fully in the informed consent process.
• For Healthy Controls: Subjects must be free of any lifetime psychiatric condition
based on the Mini-International Neuropsychiatric Interview (MINI). For MDD: Subjects
must meet Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) criteria for
current unipolar depression [major depressive disorder (MDD) or persistent depressive
disorder (PDD) in a current major depressive episode (MDE)] based on MINI.
• A woman of childbearing potential who is sexually active with a male must agree to use
an acceptable method of contraception [defined as either one highly effective
(permanent sterilization, intrauterine device or hormonal implant) or two other forms
of contraception (such as oral contraceptive pill and condom)] to avoid pregnancy
throughout the study. Throughout the study and for 90 days (one spermatogenesis cycle)
after receiving the last dose of study drug (ketamine/midazolam) man who is sexually
active with a woman of childbearing potential must use an acceptable method of
contraception (described above) with his female partner and must agree not to donate
sperm.
• Subjects must either be free of psychotropic medications (including antidepressants,
antipsychotics, benzodiazepines, mood stabilizers, sedative/hypnotics, dopamine
agonists, stimulants, buspirone, and triptans) and certain anticonvulsants (topiramate
and levetiracetam) or be stable on these medications for four weeks prior to the
baseline visit [first magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan].
• Subjects with MDD should be willing to participate in neuroimaging scans before and
after infusions, and be willing to undergo infusions with study drug.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Lifetime diagnosis of schizophrenia or any psychotic disorder, bipolar disorder,
pervasive developmental disorder or intellectual development disorder.
• Current diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder, anorexia nervosa or bulimia.
Comorbid anxiety, stress and trauma-related disorders are permitted as long as
unipolar depression is the primary diagnosis.
• Diagnosis of a moderate or severe substance use disorder within the past 6 months per
MINI; all subjects must have a negative urine toxicology test on the day of the MRI,
prior to the scan.
• Female subjects who are pregnant, nursing, for may become pregnant. Women of
childbearing potential must have a negative urine pregnancy test on the day of the
fMRI, prior to scan, and on days of study drug infusion, prior to infusion.
• Any unstable medical illnesses including hepatic, renal, gastroenterologic,
respiratory, cardiovascular (including ischemic heart disease), endocrinologic,
immunologic, or hematologic disease.
• Inadequately treated obstructive sleep apnea (STOP-Bang score of 5-8 if untreated, if
using positive airway pressure device then past-month apnea hypopnea index ≥ 15 per
hour representing moderate or higher severity).
• Presence of a significant neurological disease such as Parkinson's disease, primary or
secondary seizure disorders, intracranial tumors, or severe head trauma.
• Presence of neurocognitive or dementing disorders.
• Clinically significant abnormalities of laboratories, physical examination (including
unstable hypertension - systolic blood pressure >170, diastolic blood pressure >100),
or electrocardiogram at screening visit.
• Subjects judged to be at serious and imminent suicidal or homicidal risk by the PI or
another study-affiliated psychiatrist.
• Any contraindications to MRI, including pacemakers or metallic objects in the body.
• Any claustrophobia or other conditions which may result in inability to lie still in
the MRI scanner for 1 hour or more.
• Allergy to ketamine or midazolam in subjects with MDD.
• Must not be on any prohibited concomitant medication.
ORACLE: Observation of ResiduAl Cancer With Liquid Biopsy Evaluation (ORACLE)
The purpose of ORACLE is to demonstrate the ability of a novel ctDNA assay developed by Guardant Health to detect recurrence in individuals treated for early-stage solid tumors. It is necessary that ctDNA test results are linked to clinical outcomes in order to demonstrate clinical validity for recurrence detection and explore its value in a healthcare environment subject to cost containment.
* Age \> 18 years old AND
* Initial treatment is given with curative/radical intent AND
* Are planning to undergo regular follow-up and monitoring for cancer recurrence per standard of care at the enrolling site AND
* Provided written informed consent to participate in the study AND
* Are willing to have de-identified clinical data shared with investigators at regular intervals as outlined in the study protocol and informed consent AND
* Are willing to provide blood samples at enrollment and at subsequent clinical visits coinciding with standard of care follow-up, for up to 5 years as outlined in the study protocol and informed consent AND
* Have at least one Landmark blood sample
Have a histologically confirmed Index Cancer that qualifies for inclusion, defined as:
Primary Study Cohorts
* Cohort 1: Cohort 1: Muscle invasive carcinoma of the bladder, ureter, or renal pelvis (stage II-III),
* Cohort 2: Cohort 2: Non-small cell lung cancer (stage IB-III),
* Cohort 3: Invasive breast carcinoma with hormone receptor (e.g. estrogen receptor (ER) and progesterone receptor (PR) expression) and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) status known and one the following:
Cohort 3A: High-risk2 HER2+ breast cancer (any ER, PR status allowed) OR Cohort 3B: High-risk2 triple negative breast cancer (TNBC) OR Cohort 3C: High-risk3 HR-positive/HER2-negative invasive breast carcinoma
Exploratory Cohorts
* Cohort 4: Stage IIB-III cutaneous melanoma or limited (resectable) stage IV melanoma treated with curative intent,
* Cohort 5: Esophageal or gastroesophageal junction carcinoma (stage II-III),
* Cohort 6: Gastric adenocarcinoma (stage II-III),
* Cohort 7: Pancreatic adenocarcinoma that is has been surgically resected or is eligible for surgical resection,
* Cohort 8: Invasive squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck (Includes stage I-IVB oral cavity, oropharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, nasopharynx, nasal cavity, and paranasal sinus cancers),
* Cohort 9: High-risk epithelial ovarian or Fallopian tube carcinoma (Defined as stage IC-III or stage I that has high grade (grade 3-4) or clear cell histology),
* Cohort 10: High-risk endometrial carcinoma (Defined as having any of the following: serous or clear cell adenocarcinoma histology (any stage), grade 3 or 4 deeply invasive (T1b or greater) endometrioid carcinoma, stage III disease (any histology)),
* Cohort 11: High-risk renal cell carcinoma (Defined as high grade (grade 3-4) stage II, stage III or limited (resectable) stage IV treated with curative intent),
* Cohort 12: Pathologically confirmed adenocarcinoma of the rectum (located up to 15 cm from the anal verge) that is undergoing or underwent a preoperative chemotherapy- or immunotherapy- containing regimen
Exclusion Criteria:
* History of allogeneic organ or tissue transplant
* Index cancer has predominantly neuroendocrine histology
* History of another primary cancer diagnosed within 3 years of enrollment, with the exception that in situ cancers, non-melanoma skin carcinomas, localized low- or intermediate risk prostate cancers, and stage I papillary thyroid carcinoma, and participants with bilateral/multifocal tumors within the same organ (for example, bilateral breast cancer) are allowed if diagnosed within 3 years of enrollment
* Known distant metastasis at time of enrollment (with the exception of participants with limited/resectable stage IV cutaneous melanoma or RCC)
* Is participating in a clinical trial or another observational study that is evaluating the performance of another genomic test in the post-treatment surveillance setting at predicting/detecting recurrence
DIAGNOSTIC_TEST: Guardant Reveal
Bladder Carcinoma, Ureter Carcinoma, Renal Pelvis Carcinoma, Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer, Invasive Breast Carcinoma, Cutaneous Melanoma, Esophageal Carcinoma, Gastroesophageal Junction Carcinoma, Gastric Adenocarcinoma, Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma, Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Head and Neck, Epithelial Ovarian Carcinoma, Fallopian Tube Carcinoma, Endometrial Carcinoma, Renal Cell Carcinoma, Rectal Adenocarcinoma, Breast - Female, Breast - Male, Cervix, Corpus Uteri, Esophagus, Kidney, Larynx, Lip, Oral Cavity and Pharynx, Lung/Thoracic, Melanoma, skin, Other Skin, Other Urinary, Ovary, Pancreas, Rectum, Stomach, Unknown Sites, Uterine (Endometrial)
Two Studies for Patients With Unfavorable Intermediate Risk Prostate Cancer Testing Less Intense Treatment for Patients With a Low Gene Risk Score and Testing a More Intense Treatment for Patients With a Higher Gene Risk Score, The Guidance Trial
This phase III trial uses the Decipher risk score to guide therapy selection. Decipher score is based on the activity of 22 genes in prostate tumor and may predict how likely it is for recurrent prostate cancer to spread (metastasize) to other parts of the body. Decipher score in this study is used for patient selection and the two variations of treatment to be studied: intensification for higher Decipher score or de-intensification for low Decipher score. Patients with higher Decipher risk score will be assigned to the part of the study that compares the use of 6 months of the usual treatment (hormone therapy and radiation treatment) to the use of darolutamide plus the usual treatment (intensification). The purpose of this section of the study is to determine whether the additional drug can reduce the chance of cancer coming back and spreading in patients with higher Decipher score. The addition of darolutamide to the usual treatment may better control the cancer and prevent it from spreading. Alternatively, patients with low Decipher risk score will be assigned to the part of the study that compares the use of radiation treatment alone (de-intensification) to the usual approach (6 months of hormone therapy plus radiation). The purpose of this part of the study is to determine if radiation treatment alone is as effective compared to the usual treatment without affecting the chance of tumor coming back in patients with low Decipher score prostate cancer. Radiation therapy uses high energy to kill tumor cells and reduce the tumor size. Hormone therapy drugs such as darolutamide suppress or block the production or action of male hormones that play role in prostate cancer development. Effect of radiation treatment alone in patients with low Decipher score prostate cancer could be the same as the usual approach in stabilizing prostate cancer and preventing it from spreading, while avoiding the side effects associated with hormonal therapy.
* Pathologically (histologically or cytologically) proven diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the prostate within 270 days prior to registration
* Unfavorable intermediate risk prostate cancer, defined as having ALL the following bulleted criteria:
* Has at least one intermediate risk factor (IRF):
* PSA 10-20 ng/mL
* Clinical stage T2b-c (digital rectal examination \[DRE\] and/or imaging) by American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 8th edition
* Gleason score 7 (Gleason 3+4 or 4+3 \[ International Society of Urological Pathology (ISUP) Grade Group 2-3\])
* Has ONE or more of the following 'unfavorable' intermediate-risk designators:
* \> 1 immature reticulocyte fraction (IRF)
* Gleason 4+3=7 (ISUP Grade Group 3)
* \>= 50% of biopsy cores positive
* Biopsies may include 'sextant' sampling of right/left regions of the prostate, often labeled base, mid-gland and apex. All such 'sextant' biopsy cores should be counted. Men may also undergo 'targeted' sampling of prostate lesions (guided by MRI, ultrasound or other approaches). A targeted lesion that is biopsied more than once and demonstrates cancer (regardless of number of targeted cores involved) should count as a single additional positive core sampled and positive. In cases of uncertainty, count the biopsy sampling as sextant core(s)
* Absence of high-risk features
* Appropriate stage for study entry based on the following diagnostic workup:
* History/physical examination within 120 days prior to registration;
* Negative bone imaging (M0) within 120 days prior to registration; Note: Tc-99m bone scan or sodium fluoride (NaF) positron emission tomography (PET) are allowed. Equivocal bone scan findings are allowed if plain films X-ray, computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are negative for metastasis at the concerned site(s). While a negative fluciclovine, choline, or prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA) PET may be counted as acceptable substitute for bone imaging, any suspicious findings must be confirmed and correlated with conventional imaging (Tc-99m bone scan, NaF PET, CT, X-ray, or MRI) to determine eligibility based on the latter modalities (e.g. M0 based on conventional imaging modalities)
* Clinically negative lymph nodes (N0) as established by conventional imaging (pelvic +/- abdominal CT or MR), within 120 days prior to registration. Patients with lymph nodes equivocal or questionable by imaging are eligible if the nodes are =\< 1.0 cm in short axis and/or if biopsy is negative.
Note: While a negative fluciclovine, choline, or prostate specific membrane antigen (PSMA) PET may be counted as acceptable substitute for pelvic imaging, any suspicious findings must be confirmed by conventional imaging (CT, MRI or biopsy). If the findings do not meet pathological criteria based on the latter modalities (e.g. node =\< 10 mm in short axis, negative biopsy), the patient will still be eligible
* Age \>= 18
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0-2 within 120 days prior to registration
* Non-castrate testosterone level (\> 50 ng/dL) within 120 days prior to registration
* Absolute neutrophil \>= 1,000 cells/mm\^3 (within 120 days prior to registration)
* Hemoglobin \>= 8.0 g/dL, independent of transfusion and/or growth factors (within 120 days prior to registration)
* Platelet count \>= 100,000 cells/mm\^3 independent of transfusion and/or growth factors (within 120 days prior to registration)
* Creatinine clearance (CrCl) \>= 30 mL/min estimated by Cockcroft-Gault equation (within 120 days prior to registration)
* For African American patients specifically whose renal function is not considered adequate by the formula above, an alternative formula that takes race into account (Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration CKD-EPI formula) should be used for calculating the related estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) with a correction factor for African American race creatinine clearance for trial eligibility, where GFR \>= 30 mL/min/1.73m\^2 will be considered adequate
* Total bilirubin: 1.5 =\< institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (within 120 days prior to registration) (Note: In subjects with Gilbert's syndrome, if total bilirubin is \> 1.5 x ULN, measure direct and indirect bilirubin. If direct bilirubin is less than or equal to 1.5 x ULN, subject is eligible)
* Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)(serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase \[SGOT\]) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT)(serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase \[SGPT\]): =\< 2.5 x institutional ULN (within 120 days prior to registration)
* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial; Note: HIV testing is not required for eligibility for this protocol
* For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated.
* Note: Known positive test for hepatitis B virus surface antigen (HBV sAg) indicating acute or chronic infection would make the patient ineligible unless the viral load becomes undetectable on suppressive therapy. Patients who are immune to hepatitis B (anti-Hepatitis B surface antibody positive) are eligible (e.g. patients immunized against hepatitis B)
* For patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
* Note: Known positive test for hepatitis C virus ribonucleic acid (HCV RNA) indicating acute or chronic infection would make the patient ineligible unless the viral load becomes undetectable on suppressive therapy
* The patient or a legally authorized representative must provide study-specific informed consent prior to study entry and, for patients treated in the United States (U.S.), authorization permitting release of personal health information
Exclusion Criteria:
* Previous radical surgery (prostatectomy) or any form of curative-intent ablation whether focal or whole-gland (e.g., cryosurgery, high intensity focused ultrasound \[HIFU\], laser thermal ablation, etc.) for prostate cancer
* Definitive clinical or radiologic evidence of metastatic disease (M1)
* Prior invasive malignancy (except non-melanomatous skin cancer) unless disease free for a minimum of 3 years. History of or current diagnosis of hematologic malignancy is not allowed
* Prior radiotherapy to the prostate/pelvis region that would result in overlap of radiation therapy fields
* Previous bilateral orchiectomy
* Previous hormonal therapy, such as luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists (e.g., leuprolide, goserelin, buserelin, triptorelin) or LHRH antagonist (e.g. degarelix), anti-androgens (e.g., flutamide, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate). ADT started prior to study registration is not allowed
* Prior use of 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors is allowed, however, it must be stopped prior to enrollment on the study with at least a 30 day washout period before baseline study PSA measure and registration
* Active testosterone replacement therapy; any replacement therapy must be stopped at least 30 days prior to registration
* Severe, active co-morbidity defined as follows:
* Current severe or unstable angina;
* New York Heart Association Functional Classification III/IV (Note: Patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification)
* History of any condition that in the opinion of the investigator, would preclude participation in this study
* Inability to swallow oral pills
* High risk features, which includes any of the following:
* Gleason 8-10 \[ISUP Grade Group 4-5\]
* PSA \> 20
* cT3-4 by digital exam OR gross extra-prostatic extension on imaging \[indeterminate MRI evidence will not count and the patient will be eligible\]
Intraventricular Administration of Rhenium-186 NanoLiposome for Leptomeningeal Metastases (ReSPECT-LM)
This is an open-label Phase I clinical study that will administer a single dose of 186RNL via
intraventricular catheter for treatment of Leptomeningeal Metastases (LM).
• At least 18 years of age at time of screening.
• Ability to understand the purposes and risks of the study and has signed a written
informed consent document approved by the site-specific IRB.
• Subject has proven and documented LM that meets the requirements for the study:
a. Current EANO-ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Type 1 and 2 LM of any primary type.
2D is excluded.
• Karnofsky performance status of 60 to 100.
• Acceptable liver function:
• Bilirubin 1.5 times upper limit of normal
• AST (SGOT) and ALT (SGPT) ≤ 3.0 times upper limit of normal for subjects with
normal liver
• AST (SGOT) and ALT (SGPT) ≤ 5.0 times upper limit of normal for subjects with
liver metastasis
• Acceptable renal function with serum creatinine ≤ 2 times upper limit of normal
• Acceptable hematologic status (without hematologic support):
• ANC ≥ 1000 cells µL
• Platelet count ≥ 75,000/µL
• Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL
• All women of childbearing potential must have a negative serum pregnancy test at
screening. Male and female subjects must agree to use effective means of contraception
(for example, surgical sterilization or the use of barrier contraception with either a
condom or diaphragm in conjunction with spermicidal gel or an IUD) with their partner
from entry into the study through 6 months after the last dose.
• Subjects with a creatinine clearance greater than or equal to 60 mL/min (using the
Cockcroft-Gault Equation) for males and females.
Exclusion Criteria:
• The subject has not recovered to National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology
Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE v5.0) Grade ≤ 1 from AEs due to antineoplastic
agents, investigational drugs, or other medications that were administered prior to
study. Prior AEs due to alopecia, anemia, and lymphopenia are not required to be
recovered to Grade ≤ 1 prior to 186RNL treatment, assuming other inclusion criteria
are satisfied.
• Obstructive or symptomatic communicating hydrocephalus.
• Ventriculo-peritoneal or ventriculo-atrial shunts without programable valves or
contraindications to placement of Ommaya reservoir.
• Females of childbearing potential who are pregnant, breast feeding, or may possibly be
pregnant without a negative serum pregnancy test (see inclusion criteria).
• Serious intercurrent illness, such as progressive systemic (extra leptomeningeal)
disease, clinically significant cardiac arrhythmias, uncontrolled systemic infection,
symptomatic congestive heart failure or unstable angina pectoris within 3 months prior
study drug, myocardial infarction, stroke, transient ischemic attack within 6 months,
seizure disorder with any seizure occurring within 14 days prior to consenting or
encephalopathy.
• Active severe non hematologic organ toxicity such as renal, cardiac, hepatic,
pulmonary, or gastrointestinal systemic toxicity grade 3 or above.
• Significant coagulation abnormalities such as inherited bleeding diathesis or acquired
coagulopathy with unacceptable risks of bleeding.
• Patients who had any dose to the spinal cord or whole brain radiation therapy,
regardless of when the radiation treatment was delivered. Prior, non-CNS radiation for
primary tumor is allowed.
• Systemic chemotherapeutic agents with CNS penetration (such as temozolomide,
carmustine, lomustine, capecitabine, carboplatin, vinorelbine, bevacizumab, irinotecan
or topotecan) are excluded if given within 14 days or 5 half-lives, whichever is
shorter, prior to 186RNL treatment.
• If the washout period is satisfied, the patient may be enrolled, providing all
other I/E criteria are satisfied.
• If the patient is undergoing systemic chemotherapy with CNS penetration (such as
temozolomide, carmustine, lomustine, capecitabine, carboplatin, vinorelbine,
bevacizumab, irinotecan or topotecan) and they develop or have
progressive/persistent LM while on the agent, they may be included in the trial
at the PI's discretion.
• Systemic therapy (including investigational agents and small-molecule kinase
inhibitors) is excluded if given within 14 days or 5 half-lives, whichever is shorter,
prior to 186RNL treatment.
a. If the washout period is satisfied, the patient may be enrolled, providing all
other I/E criteria are satisfied.
• Nitrosoureas or mitomycin C within 42 days, or metronomic/protracted low-dose
chemotherapy within 14 days, or other cytotoxic chemotherapy within 28 days, are
excluded if given within the above timepoints prior to 186RNL treatment.
a. If the washout period is satisfied, the patient may be enrolled, providing all
other I/E criteria are satisfied.
• Impaired CSF Flow Study, within 4 +/- 3 days of 186RNL treatment, based on study
imaging and as determined by the investigator.
Drug: 186RNL
Leptomeningeal Metastasis, Brain and Nervous System
Safety and Efficacy of Atorvastatin v. Placebo on HCC Risk (TORCH)
Prospective randomized, multi-center, double blind placebo-controlled trial to assess the chemopreventive impact of atorvastatin (20 mg oral) vs placebo in up to 60 adults with advanced fibrosis at high risk of developing HCC.
• Willing and able to provide informed consent
• Male or female age \> 18 years at time of consent
• Clinically or histologically diagnosed advanced liver fibrosis or cirrhosis, as defined by one or more of the following:
* Liver biopsy demonstrating advanced fibrosis or cirrhosis (METAVIR 3-4)
* Fibroscan or MR elastography consistent with advanced fibrosis or cirrhosis
* Imaging showing cirrhotic-appearing liver with signs of portal hypertension
* Advanced fibrosis or cirrhosis documented clinically by a treating physician
• High-risk for HCC at screening according to the FIB-4 index
• PLSec score ≥ 3 measured in screening blood samples from the FIB-4-high individuals.
• Liver imaging within 6 months of Day 1 is required in cirrhotic subjects only, to exclude HCC
• Female subjects of childbearing potential who engage in heterosexual intercourse must agree to use protocol specified method(s) of contraception
• Willing and able to undergo protocol blood sampling
• Subject must be able to comply with dosing instructions for study drug administration and able to complete study schedule of assessments
Exclusion Criteria:
• Diagnosis of any of the following forms of chronic liver disease:
* alpha-1-antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency, Wilson disease, hemochromatosis, iron overload, prior known or suspected drug-induced liver injury (DILI)
* Patients with PBC, PSC, AIH, or stable hemochromatosis may be included if their liver disease etiology overlaps with that of steatotic liver disease (SLD)
• Current or prior history of any of the following:
• Clinically significant illness or any other major medical disorder that in the opinion of the investigator, may interfere with subject treatment, assessment or compliance with the protocol
• Known positivity for HIV infection
• Active, untreated HCV infection
• Patients with prior history of HCV who achieved sustained virologic response (SVR) \>12 from Day 1 may be included in the study
• Uncontrolled chronic HBV
• Patients with well controlled disease with \>12 months of stable medication use (or no medication use, in those persons for whom anti-HBV therapy is not indicated)
• Clinical hepatic decompensation, defined as Child's Pugh class \>B7 or C cirrhosis
• Patients with Child's Pugh score of 7, class B, may be included in the study
• History of biliary diversion
• Solid organ transplant
• Malignancy within the 5 years prior to screening, with the exception of specific cancers that have been cured by surgical resection (basal cell skin cancer, etc). Subjects under evaluation for possible malignancy are not eligible
• Pregnant or Nursing Females (a negative serum pregnancy test is required at screening for WOCBP)
• Life threatening SAE during the screening period
• Subjects having the following laboratory parameters at screening
* ALT \> 10 x ULN
* AST \> 10 x ULN
* Hemoglobin \< 8.5 g/dl
* Serum creatinine \> 2.0 mg/dL
* CK \> 3x ULN
• Females who may wish to become pregnant and/or plan to undergo egg harvesting during the study and up to 30 days of the last dose of study drug
• WOCBP must abstain from breastfeeding and be willing to use effective birth control during through the week 4 post treatment follow-up visit
• Clinically relevant alcohol or drug abuse within 12 months of screening
• Use of any prohibited concomitant medications as described in Section 9.1.1
• Use of a statin medication within 90 days of Day 1 visit
• Subjects who are on a current statin at time of consent must be willing to undergo a 90-day washout period prior to randomization
• Known hypersensitivity to atorvastatin
• Current or planned participation in an investigational new drug (IND) trial from 30-days prior to randomization through the week 4 post treatment follow-up visit
CD40 Agonist, Flt3 Ligand, and Chemotherapy in HER2 Negative Breast Cancer
This research study is being done to find out if the immunotherapy drugs called CDX-301 and CDX-1140 in combination with the standard chemotherapy treatment pegylated liposomal doxorubicin (PLD, Doxil) are safe and effective at controlling the cancer in patients with metastatic triple Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2 (HER2) negative breast cancer, and to determine a safe dose and treatment schedule of the three drugs. This research study will also test how your immune system responds to these treatments alone and in combination.
* Unresectable Stage III or Stage IV HER2 negative breast cancer (either triple negative or hormone receptor positive)
* Triple negative breast cancer for this study is defined as estrogen receptor \<10%, progesterone receptor \<10% by immunohistochemistry, and HER2- negative by Herceptest (0 or 1+) or not amplified by in situ hybridization as per routine clinical testing.
* Hormone receptor positive breast cancer for this study is defined as either estrogen receptor ≥10% or progesterone receptor ≥10% by immunohistochemistry, and HER2- negative by Herceptest (0 or 1+) or not amplified by in situ hybridization as per routine clinical testing.
* Age 18 years or older
* Performance status ECOG 0-2
* Life expectancy ≥ 12 weeks
* Documented progressive disease, based on radiographic, clinical or pathologic assessment, during or subsequent to last anticancer therapy. Patients who need to change systemic therapy for other indications such as toxicity that are otherwise eligible for this study may enroll with approval of the lead principal investigator.
* For triple negative breast cancer patients, subject is in first to fourth line setting of treatment for metastatic or unresectable disease, and have received 0 to 3 prior regimens for metastatic or unresectable disease.
* For hormone receptor positive breast cancer patients, subjects must have received prior cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor in the metastatic setting. They may have received up to 3 prior lines of chemotherapy and/or antibody drug conjugates for metastatic or unresectable disease.
* Among triple negative breast cancer patients enrolled in the first line treatment setting, subjects must be PD-L1 negative by 22C3 assay and not be eligible for FDA approved standard of care chemotherapy and anti-PD-1/PD-L1 combination therapy as alternative to this clinical trial. This does not apply if patients have previously received PD-1 or PD-L1 blockade as part of neoadjuvant or adjuvant therapy regimen.
* Screening laboratory values must meet the following criteria:
* Neutrophils ≥ 1500/uL
* Platelets ≥ 100 x10(9)/L
* Hemoglobin ≥ 8 g/dL Patients may receive erythrocyte transfusions to achieve this hemoglobin level at the discretion of the investigator. Initial treatment must not begin earlier than the day after the erythrocyte transfusion.
* Creatinine ≤ 2 mg/dL
* Creatinine clearance \>30 mL/minute
* AST ≤ 2.5 X ULN without, and ≤ 5 x ULN with hepatic metastasis
* ALT ≤ 2.5 X ULN without, and ≤ 5 x ULN with hepatic metastasis
* Total Bilirubin ≤ 1.5 X ULN (except patients with Gilbert's syndrome or liver involvement, who must have a total bilirubin ≤ 2 X ULN)
* Alkaline phosphatase ≤ 2.5 X ULN without, and ≤ 5 x ULN with hepatic metastasis
* All men as well as women of child bearing potential enrolled in this trial must agree to use effective contraception during the course of the trial and for at least 6 months after discontinuing study treatment. Patients and/or partners who are surgically sterile or postmenopausal are exempt from this requirement.
* A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, marital status, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria: ( 1) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy OR (2) has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months).
* Provision of consent for pre-treatment and on-treatment biopsies. Biopsy sites must be soft tissue tumor lesions or accessible visceral diseases that can be biopsied with acceptable clinical risk (as judged by the investigator); are large enough to allow for the collection of tumor tissue for proposed correlative studies (e.g., anticipated goal of 6-8 cores preferred when feasible using a ≥ 18 gauge needle with an expected core sample length of 5 mm); and have not been irradiated prior to entry. This does not include bone lesions. This may exclude many lung lesions and small lesions.
* Measurable disease allowing for serial assessment of at least one target lesion(s) by RECIST 1.1 criteria \[100\]. Target lesions selected for tumor measurements should be those where additional (e.g., palliative) treatments are not indicated or anticipated.
* All residual toxicity related to prior anticancer therapies (excluding alopecia, grade 2 fatigue, vitiligo, endocrinopathies on stable replacement therapy, grade 2 neuropathy from taxanes or platinum and grade 2 hearing loss from platinum) must resolve to grade 1 severity or less (or returned to baseline) prior to receipt of study treatment.
* Read, understood, and provided written informed consent, and if applicable, Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) authorization, after the nature of the study has been fully explained, and must be willing to comply with all study requirements and procedures.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Among any patients enrolled in the first line treatment setting, tumors should not be PD-L1+ by 22C3 assays or eligible for FDA approved standard of care chemotherapy and anti-PD-1/PD-L1 combination therapy as alternative to this clinical trial. This does not apply if patients have previously received PD-1 or PD-L1 blockade as part of neoadjuvant or adjuvant therapy regimen.
* History of severe hypersensitivity reactions to mAbs.
* Prior treatment with any anti-CD40 antibody or rhuFlt3L product.
* Treatment with anthracycline in the metastatic setting.
* Prior progression while on anthracycline based therapy or within 6 months of completing neoadjuvant or adjuvant anthracycline.
* Prior history of acute myeloid leukemia (AML), or tumor with known Flt3 mutation/amplification
* Receipt of any antibody targeting T cell check point or co-stimulation pathways within 4 weeks, use of any other monoclonal based therapies within 4 weeks, and all other immunotherapy (tumor vaccine, cytokine, or growth factor given to control the cancer) within 2 weeks prior to the planned start of study treatment.
* Prior T-cell or other cell-based therapies within 12 weeks (or 2 weeks if patient experienced disease progression on the prior treatment)
* Systemic radiation therapy within 4 weeks, prior focal radiotherapy within 2 weeks, or radiopharmaceuticals (strontium, samarium) within 8 weeks prior to the first dose of study treatment.
* Chemotherapy or antibody drug conjugate within 21 days or at least 5 half-lives (whichever is shorter) prior to the planned start of study treatment.
* Any kinase inhibitors within 2 weeks prior to the first dose of study treatment.
* Major surgery within 4 weeks prior to the first dose of study treatment. Surgery requiring local/epidural anesthesia must be completed at least 72 hours before study drug administration and patients should be recovered.
* Use of other investigational drugs within 4 weeks or 5 half-lives (whichever is longer) prior to study treatment administration.
* Use of immunosuppressive medications within 4 weeks or systemic corticosteroids within 2 weeks prior to first dose of study treatment. Topical, inhaled or intranasal corticosteroids (with minimal systemic absorption) may be continued if the patient is on a stable dose. Non-absorbed intraarticular corticosteroid and replacement steroids (≤ 10 mg/day prednisone or equivalent) will be permitted.
* Other prior malignancy, except for adequately treated basal or squamous cell skin cancer or in situ cancers; or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease-free for at least 3 years.
* Active, untreated central nervous system metastases.
* Patients with known treated brain metastases should be neurologically stable for 4 weeks post-treatment and prior to study enrollment. Continued use of steroids and/or anticonvulsants (in the absence of any suspicion of progressive brain metastases) is acceptable if ≤ equivalent of prednisone 10 mg daily. Brain MRI required on screening to document lack of progression.
* Women who are pregnant or nursing. All female patients with reproductive potential must have a negative pregnancy test prior to starting treatment.
* Active autoimmune disease or history of autoimmune disease or syndrome that required systemic steroids or immunosuppressive medications within the preceding 6 months, except for patients with vitiligo, endocrinopathies, or type 1 diabetes, Patients with mild asthma who require intermittent use of bronchodilators (such as albuterol) who have not been hospitalized for asthma in the preceding 6 months will not be excluded from this study.
* Significant cardiovascular disease including unstable angina pectoris, uncontrolled hypertension or arrhythmia, congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association Class III or IV or EF\<50%) related to primary cardiac disease, uncontrolled ischemic or severe valvular heart disease or any of the following within 6 months prior to the first dose of study treatment: myocardial infarction, severe/unstable angina, coronary artery bypass graft, congestive heart failure, cerebrovascular accident, transient ischemic attack.
* Prior anthracycline therapy with a cumulative doxorubicin-equivalent dose greater than 240 mg/m2. 240 mg/m2 anthracycline is equivalent to 4 doses of anthracycline-based chemotherapy in the localized setting (generally 60 mg/m2 per dose). Notes from physicians demonstrating 4 prior cycles/doses of anthracycline or if less than 60 mg/m2 specifying as such to estimate the total anthracycline dose is sufficient. Exact calculation based on mg received originally is not required.
* Has received a live vaccine within 30 days prior to the first dose of study drug. Examples of live vaccines include, but are not limited to the following: measles, mumps, rubella, varicella/zoster (chicken pox), yellow fever, rabies, Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG), and typhoid vaccine. Seasonal influenza vaccines for injection are generally killed virus vaccines and are allowed; however, intranasal influenza vaccines (e.g., FluMist®) are live attenuated vaccines and are not allowed. The COVID-19 vaccines available in the United States are not live vaccines and are allowed if the final vaccine dose (of a regimen that requires more than 1 dose) is received at least 1 week prior to study enrollment.
* History of (non-infectious) pneumonitis or has current pneumonitis. This includes asymptomatic infiltrates on screening chest CT scan that are felt by the investigator to potentially be an inflammatory process (i.e. grade 1 pneumonitis).
* Active infection requiring systemic therapy, known HIV infection, or positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen or hepatitis C (antibody screen and if positive confirmed by RNA analysis). If positive results are not indicative of a true active or chronic infection, the patient can be enrolled after discussion with and agreement by the Investigator.
* Any other acute or chronic medical or psychiatric condition or laboratory abnormality that could increase the risk associated with trial participation or trial drug administration or could interfere with the interpretation of trial results and, in the judgment of the investigator, would make the patient inappropriate for entry into the trial.
* Evidence of acute or chronic infection on screening chest radiography.
A Randomized, Controlled Trial to Evaluate the Safety and Effectiveness of the Route 92 Medical Reperfusion System (SUMMIT MAX)
The SUMMIT MAX study is a prospective, randomized, controlled, interventional clinical trial
to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of the Route 92 Medical MonoPoint® Reperfusion
System for aspiration thrombectomy in acute ischemic stroke patients.
• The consent process has been completed and documented according to applicable country
regulations and as approved by the IRB / Ethics Committee
• Age >=18 years and <= 85
• Patient presenting with clinical signs consistent with an acute ischemic stroke
• Baseline National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) score >= 6
• Pre-stroke modified Rankin Score (mRS) <= 1
• Baseline ASPECTS >= 6
• Endovascular treatment initiated (defined as time of first angiogram) within 8 hours
from time last known well
• If indicated, thrombolytic therapy shall be initiated per clinical guidelines. If
eligible for thrombolytic therapy, subjects should be treated as soon as possible and
lytic use should not be delayed regardless of potential eligibility for mechanical
neurothrombectomy.
• The patient is indicated for aspiration neurothrombectomy with the Route 92 Medical
Reperfusion System as determined by the Investigator
• Angiographic confirmation of a large vessel occlusion of the M1 segment of the middle
cerebral artery or distal internal carotid artery
Exclusion Criteria:
• Known pregnancy or breast feeding
• In the Investigator's opinion, any known comorbidity (including COVID-19 positivity)
that may complicate treatment or prevent improvement or follow-up
• Known serious, advanced, or terminal illness with anticipated life expectancy < 12
months
• Known history of severe allergy to contrast medium
• Known to have suffered a stroke in the past 90 days
• Known connective tissue disorder affecting the arteries (e.g. Marfan syndrome,
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome)
• Any known previous cerebral hemorrhagic event
• Any known pre-existing coagulation deficiency
• Known hemorrhagic diathesis, coagulation factor deficiency, or oral anticoagulant
therapy with INR >3.0
• Known baseline platelet count <50,000/µL
• Known baseline blood glucose of <50 mg/dL or >400 mg/dL
• Known to be participating in another study involving an investigational device or drug
• Clinical symptoms suggestive of bilateral stroke or stroke in multiple territories.
• Computed Tomography (CT) or Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) evidence of recent/ fresh
cerebral hemorrhage (the presence of microbleeds is allowed)
• Baseline CT or MRI showing intracranial tumor (except small meningioma <= 2cm) or
significant mass effect with midline shift due to the tumor
• Presumed septic thrombus, or suspicion of bacterial endocarditis
• Inability to access the cerebral vasculature in the opinion of the neurointerventional
team
• Unlikely to be available for a 90-day follow-up (e.g. no fixed home address)
• Evidence of carotid dissection
• Evidence of cervical carotid artery high-grade stenosis or occlusion (i.e., tandem
occlusion)
• Active or recent history of drug abuse (within last 6 months)
• Known history or presence of aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation (AVM) in the
territory of the target lesion
• For all patients, severe sustained hypertension with SBP >200 and/or DBP >120; for
patients treated with IV tPA, sustained hypertension despite treatment with SBP >185
and/or DBP >110
• Treatment with heparin within 48 hours with a partial thromboplastic time more than
two times the laboratory normal
• Renal failure with serum creatinine >3.0 or Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) <30
• Ongoing seizure due to stroke
• Evidence of active systemic infection
• Known cancer with metastases
• Cervical carotid stenosis requiring balloon angioplasty or stenting at the time of the
procedure
• Angiographic evidence of multiple cerebrovascular occlusions (e.g., bilateral anterior
circulation, anterior/posterior circulation)
• Angiographic evidence of known or suspected underlying intracranial vasculopathy or
atherosclerotic lesions responsible for the target occlusion
• Angiographic evidence or suspicion of aortic dissection
Inclusion Criteria
• At least 18 years of age.
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
• Newly diagnosed FIGO IVB cervical cancer with radiographic evidence of metastatic disease for whom systemic therapy is standard of care, who are within 6 months of systemic therapy treatment, OR
• Patients with recurrent/metastatic disease with measurable disease in the pelvis for whom systemic therapy is standard of care and who are within 6 months of initiation of systemic therapy.
• Patients with brain metastasis are allowed as long as they are clinically stable and/or the mets are treated or are amenable to treatment with radiation and/or surgery.
• Eastern Cooperative Group (ECOG) performance status of 0-3.
• Women of child-bearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) starting with the first radiation pulse through 90 days after the last fraction of radiation. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. Medically acceptable birth control (contraceptives) includes:
1) approved hormonal contraceptives (such as birth control pills, patch or ring; Depo-Provera, Implanon), or 2) barrier methods (such as a condom or diaphragm) used with a spermicide (a substance that kills sperm).
A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, marital status, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
* Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
* Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months).
• Biopsy of primary tumor or recurrent site within 6 months prior to registration
Exclusion Criteria
• Prior radiation treatment to the pelvis, unless it was for palliation with a total of \<=9GY.
• Subjects may not be receiving any other investigational agents for the treatment of the cancer under study.
• Patients with active Inflammatory Bowel disease or Collagen vascular disease -SLE, scleroderma or on active immunosuppressant (exclusions per PI discretion).
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that, in the opinion of the investigator, would limit compliance with study requirements.
• Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.
• Presence of brain metastases that are not amenable to treatment with radiation or surgery, or brain metastasis leading to clinical instability.
RADIATION: Ultra-fractionated radiation therapy
Stage IV Cervical Cancer FIGO 2018, Adenosquamous Carcinoma of Cervix, Cervical Cancer, Metastasis, Cervix
Cervix
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
A Comparison of TULSA Procedure vs. Radical Prostatectomy in Participants With Localized Prostate Cancer (CAPTAIN)
Men with localized, intermediate risk prostate cancer will be randomized to undergo either radical prostatectomy or the TULSA procedure, with a follow-up of 10 years in this multi-centered randomized control trial. This study will determine whether the TULSA procedure is as effective and more safe compared to radical prostatectomy.
* Male
* Age 40 to 80 years, with \>10 years life expectancy
* NCCN (favorable and unfavourable) intermediate-risk prostate cancer on biopsy acquired within last 12 months
* Stage ≤cT2c, N0, M0
* ISUP Grade Group 2 or 3 disease on TRUS-guided biopsy or in-bore biopsy
* PSA ≤20ng/mL within last 3 months
* Treatment-naïve
* Planned ablation volume is \< 3 cm axial radius from urethra on mpMRI acquired within last 6 months
Exclusion Criteria:
* Inability to undergo MRI or general anesthesia
* Suspected tumor is \> 30 mm from the prostatic urethra
* Prostate calcifications \> 3 mm in maximum extent obstructing ablation of tumor
* Unresolved urinary tract infection or prostatitis
* History of proctitis, bladder stones, hematuria, history of acute urinary retention, severe neurogenic bladder
* Artificial urinary sphincter, penile implant, or intraprostatic implant
* Patients who are otherwise not deemed candidates for radical prostatectomy
* Inability or unwillingness to provide informed consent
* History of anal or rectal fibrosis or stenosis, or urethral stenosis, or other abnormality challenging insertion of devices
A Study of Intravesical Enfortumab Vedotin For Treatment of Patients With Non-muscle Invasive Bladder Cancer (NMIBC)
This study will test a drug called enfortumab vedotin in participants with a type of bladder cancer called non-muscle invasive bladder cancer (NMIBC).
This study will also evaluate what the side effects are and if the drug works to treat NMIBC. A side effect is anything a drug does to your body besides treating your disease.
In this study enfortumab vedotin will be put into the bladder using a catheter. A catheter is a thin tube that can be put into your bladder.
* Histologically confirmed, non-muscle invasive urothelial carcinoma with carcinoma in situ (CIS) (with or without papillary disease)
* Predominant histologic component (\>50 percent) must be urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma
* Participants must have high-risk Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) - unresponsive disease, defined as (where adequate BCG therapy is defined as one of the following: 5 of 6 doses of an initial induction course + at least 2 of 3 doses maintenance therapy or 5 of 6 doses of an initial induction course + at least 2 of 6 doses of a second induction course):
* Persistent or recurrent CIS alone or with recurrent Ta/T1 (noninvasive papillary disease/tumor invades the subepithelial connective tissue) disease within 12 months of completion of adequate BCG therapy.
* Recurrent high-grade Ta/T1 disease within 6 months of completion of adequate BCG therapy, or
* T1 high-grade disease at the first evaluation following an induction BCG course (at least 5 or 6 doses)
* Participant must be ineligible for or refusing a radical cystectomy
* All visible papillary Ta/T1 tumors must be completely resected within 60 days prior to enrollment.
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group Performance Status score of 0, 1, or 2.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Current or prior history of muscle-invasive urothelial carcinoma or metastatic disease.
* Nodal or metastatic disease as noted on computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) within 3 months prior to study treatment
* Concomitant upper tract urothelial carcinoma as noted on CT or MRI urogram performed within 3 months prior to study treatment
* Prior or concomitant urothelial carcinoma of the prostatic urethra within 6 months prior to study treatment
* Participants with tumor-related hydronephrosis
* Participant has received other systemic anticancer therapy including chemotherapy, biologic therapy, immunotherapy, targeted therapy, endocrine therapy, and/or investigational agent within 4 weeks or intravesical therapy within 6 weeks of first dose of study treatment
* Participant has had any prior radiation to the bladder for urothelial cancer
Study of GS-1811 Given Alone or With Zimberelimab in Adults With Advanced Solid Tumors
This is a first-in-human (FIH) study to evaluate the safety and tolerability and to determine the maximum tolerated dose (MTD) and/or the recommended Phase 2 dose (RP2D) of denikitug (also known as GS-1811) as monotherapy and in combination with zimberelimab in participants with advanced solid tumors.
This study will be conducted in 6 parts (Parts A, B, and E: monotherapy, Parts C and D: combination therapy, and Part F for both monotherapy and combination therapy) in participants with advanced solid tumors who have received, been intolerant to, or been ineligible for all treatments known to confer clinical benefit or in participants with select solid tumors.
* Disease:
* Part A: Individuals with histologically or cytologically confirmed advanced solid tumors who have received, been intolerant to, or been ineligible for all treatment known to confer clinical benefit.
* Part B: Individuals with histologically or cytologically confirmed select indications who have received, been intolerant to, or been ineligible for all treatment known to confer clinical benefit.
* Part C: Individuals with histologically or cytologically confirmed advanced solid tumors who have received, been intolerant to, or been ineligible for all treatments known to confer clinical benefit or whose disease is indicated for anti- programmed cell death protein 1 or programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-\[L\]1) monoclonal antibody monotherapy.
* Part D: Individuals with pathologically confirmed select advanced solid tumors.
* Part E: Individuals with pathologically confirmed select advanced solid tumors. Participants must have received, have been intolerant to, or have been ineligible for all treatment known to confer clinical benefit.
* Part F: Individuals with pathologically-confirmed select advanced solid tumors. Participants must have received, have been intolerant to, or have been ineligible for all treatments known to confer clinical benefit; or, for participants who will undergo combination therapy, have disease which is indicated for anti-PD-(L)1 mAb monotherapy.
* Measurable disease per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) v1.1
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0, 1, or 2 for individuals in Parts A, B, and C, and 0 or 1 for individuals in Parts D, E, and F.
* Adequate organ function.
* Male individuals and female individuals of childbearing potential who engage in heterosexual intercourse must agree to use methods of contraception.
* Tissue requirement:
* Parts A, C, D, E and F: Must provide pre-treatment adequate tumor tissue sample prior to enrollment.
* Part B and select participants in Parts C and F: Must have fresh pre-treatment and on-treatment biopsies for biomarker analysis.
Key
Exclusion Criteria:
* Concurrent anticancer treatment.
* Any anti-cancer therapy, whether investigational or approved, within protocol specified time prior to initiation of study including: immunotherapy or biologic therapy (\< 28 days), chemotherapy (\< 21 days), targeted small molecule therapy (\< 14 days), hormonal therapy or other adjunctive therapy (\< 14 days) or radiotherapy (\< 21 days).
* Any prior CCR8 directed therapy.
* Prior allogeneic tissue/solid organ transplantation, including allogeneic stem cell transplantation. Exception: prior corneal transplant without requirement for systemic immunosuppressive agents is allowed.
* Concurrent active malignancy other than nonmelanoma skin cancer, curatively resected carcinoma in situ, localized prostate cancer, or superficial bladder cancer after undergoing potentially curative therapy with no evidence of disease. Individuals with other previous malignancies are eligible if disease-free for \> 2 years.
* History of intolerance, hypersensitivity, or treatment discontinuation due to severe immune-related adverse events (irAEs) on prior immunotherapy.
* History of autoimmune disease or active autoimmune disease requiring systemic treatment within 2 years.
* History of pneumonitis, interstitial lung disease, or severe radiation pneumonitis (excluding localized radiation pneumonitis).
* Active and clinically relevant bacterial, fungal, or viral infection that is not controlled or requires IV antibiotics.
* Active hepatitis B virus (HBV) and/or hepatitis C virus (HCV), and/or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
* Positive serum pregnancy test or breastfeeding female.
* Live vaccines within 30 days prior to first dose.
* Significant cardiovascular disease.
Note: Other protocol defined Inclusion/Exclusion criteria may apply.
NP-G2-044 as Monotherapy and Combination Therapy in Patients With Advanced or Metastatic Solid Tumor Malignancies
Multicenter, open-label study in patients with advanced or metastatic solid tumor malignancies to evaluate the safety, tolerability, and preliminary anti-tumor efficacy, PK, and pharmacodynamics of continuously dosed NP-G2-044 monotherapy and NP-G2-044 in combination with anti-PD-1 therapy.
• Male or female ≥18 years of age;
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status of 0 or 1;
• Life expectancy of \> 6 months;
• Abilty to swallow capsules and tablets;
• Adequate organ and bone marrow function, defined by the following:
ANC \>1500 cells/μL; Hemoglobin \>9.0 g/dL; Platelet count \>100,000 cells/μL; Total bilirubin ≤1.5 mg/dL; Albumin ≥3.0 g/dL; Alanine aminotransferase, aspartate aminotransferase, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase ≤2.5 × upper limit of normal (ULN); Creatinine clearance ≥50 mL/min; and Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time ≤1.5 × ULN.
• Female patients of childbearing potential must have a negative serum or urine pregnancy test at Screening and within 24 hours (if urine test) or 72 hours (if serum test) before the first dose of NP-G2-044. If the urine test is positive or cannot be confirmed as negative, a serum pregnancy test will be required and must be negative for the patient to be eligible; Note: A woman is considered to be childbearing potential unless she is postmenopausal (≥1 year without menses and confirmed with a follicle-stimulating hormone \[FSH\] test) or surgically sterilized via bilateral oophorectomy, hysterectomy, bilateral tubal ligation, or successful Essure® placement with a documented confirmation test at least 3 months after the procedure.
• Male patients must be surgically sterile or willing to use a highly effective double-barrier contraception method (eg, male condom with diaphragm or male condom with cervical cap) upon study entry, while on NP-G2-044, and for a period of at least 4 months following the last dose of NP-G2-044; and
• Able to understand and voluntarily sign a written informed consent form (ICF) and willing and able to comply with protocol requirements.
Inclusion Criteria for NP-G2-044 Monotherapy:
Patients must meet all the following criteria to receive NP-G2-044 monotherapy in the study:
• Have a histopathologically confirmed advanced or metastatic solid tumor malignancy for which standard therapies are no longer effective, not tolerated or ineligible for the patient to receive;
• Have measurable disease per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1.;
• For monotherapy expansion cohort A (after the Mono-RP2D has been identified), patients must have:
• Gynecologic malignancies including ovarian, endometrial/uterine, fallopian tube, cervical, vulvar, and vaginal cancers; or
• Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)-high (2+ or 3+ staining per DAKO criteria or genomic sequencing data showing 3 or more copies of the EGFR gene) triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC).
• For Monotherapy Expansion Cohort B, patient must have advanced or metastatic solid tumors malignancy
Inclusion Criteria for NP-G2-044 Combination Therapy Patients must meet 1 of the following criteria to receive NP-G2-044 in combination with anti-PD-1 therapy in the study:
• Have initiated anti-PD-1 therapy in accordance with the package insert and have been receiving the anti-PD-1 therapy for ≥3 months (with therapy currently ongoing) and have stable disease, or had an initial period of stable disease and now have an initial scan demonstrating progressive disease per RECIST 1.1. or Have discontinued prior anti-programmed death-1/programmed death ligand-1 (PD- \[L\]1) therapy and are now eligible for de novo NP-G2-044 plus standard of care anti-PD 1 therapy.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Received chemotherapy or radiotherapy within 4 weeks or 5 half-lives, whichever is shorter, of the first dose of NP-G2-044; Note: Prior immunotherapy is allowed for patients receiving NP-G2-044 monotherapy.
• Unresolved toxicities from previous anti-cancer therapy, defined as toxicities (other than NCI CTCAE v5.0 Grade ≤2 alopecia or neuropathy) not yet resolved to NCI CTCAE v5.0 Grade ≤1; Note: Patients who experienced a Grade ≥3 anti-PD-1-related AE per NCI CTCAE v5.0 are excluded unless recovered and reviewed by the Novita Medical Monitor or designee.
• Receiving any other investigational agent(s) or have received an investigational agent within 4 weeks of the first dose of NP-G2-044; Note: Patients who have progressed on NP-G2-044 treatment prior to this study are not eligible
• Known untreated brain metastases or treated brain metastases that have not been radiographically and clinically stable (ie, not requiring steroids) ≥4 weeks prior to study enrollment;
• QTc by Fridericia method \>470 msec or electrocardiogram (ECG) with evidence of clinically meaningful conduction abnormalities or active ischemia as determined by the Investigator;
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, symptomatic congestive heart failure, hypertension, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, autoimmune or inflammatory diseases, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements;
• Pregnant, lactating, or is planning to attempt to become pregnant or impregnate someone during the study or within 90 days after dosing of NP-G2-044;
• Received prior allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation or allogenic bone marrow transplantation;
• Received prior solid organ transplantation;
• Ongoing immunosuppressive therapy (≥10 mg/day of prednisone or its equivalent);
• Requires the use of a strong inhibitor or inducer of cytochrome P450 (CYP)3A4, CYP1A2, or CYP2D6 during the study;
• History of clinically meaningful gastrointestinal bleeding, intestinal obstruction, or gastrointestinal perforation within 6 months of study enrollment; or
• Excluded by the Sponsor due to medical history, physical examination findings, clinical laboratory results, prior medications, or other entrance criteria.
Blood Purification for the Treatment of Pathogen Associated Shock (PURIFY-RCT)
This study is a multi-center, randomized controlled feasibility trial to evaluate the initial safety and efficacy of a novel extracorporeal blood purification (EBP) therapy in critically ill patients with pathogen associated shock across 15 U.S. sites. Adults (18 years old and older) admitted to the ICU with all of the following:
• Pathogen associated shock defined as:
* The need for vasopressors to maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥ 65 mmHg despite adequate fluid resuscitation
* Presence of a pathogen detected in the bloodstream within 72 hours of screening using commercially available in-vitro diagnostic testing
• Admitted to an ICU with pathogen associated shock defined as:
* The need for vasopressors to maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥ 65 mmHg despite adequate fluid resuscitation, AND
* Presence of a pathogen detected in the bloodstream within 72 hours of screening using commercially available in-vitro diagnostic testing
• Male or non-pregnant female adult
• At least 18 years of age at time of enrollment
Exclusion Criteria:
• Pregnant or breast feeding
• Anticipated transfer to another hospital (that is not a study site) within 72 hours for any reason
• Not anticipated to survive more than 24 hours
• Known allergy to heparin sodium
• Patients who cannot tolerate placement of double-lumen catheter
• High risk of bleeding (platelet count \<50mm3 or International Normalized Ratio (INR) \>2) unless adequate line for treatment already placed (e.g. ECMO or RRT/CRRT)
• Inability to tolerate extracorporeal therapy (defined as MAP\<65 despite fluids and vasopressors)
• Advanced cancer (defined as stage IV) with life expectancy of less than 30 days
• Unable to obtain informed consent from either patient or legally authorized representative (LAR)
• Hypotension and volume depletion due to etiologies other than sepsis.
• Neutropenia with an absolute neutrophil count \<500mm3
• Patients must be treated with one of the antimicrobial agents listed in the Antimicrobial Management Guideline (Table 19). Patients who require treatment with an antimicrobial outside of this list while still receiving treatment with the investigational device must be excluded from the study.
• If a patient enters the study and later requires a change in the antimicrobial agent used to one which is not listed in the Antimicrobial Management Guideline while still receiving treatment with the investigational device, that patient must be removed from this trial. Clinical data for any patient removed from the trial for this reason will continue to be collected for safety evaluation".
• Patient is a prisoner or member of a different vulnerable population that should not be included in the study per the investigator or IRB/ethics committee.
• Advanced directive for "Do Not Resuscitate".
DEVICE: Seraph-100 + State of the Art Care, DEVICE: State of the Art Care
[18F]PT2385 PET/CT in Patients with Renal Cell Carcinoma
This is an exploratory study to assess \[18F\]PT2385 Positron Emission Tomography/Computed Tomography (PET/CT) in patients with renal cell carcinoma (RCC). This is an open-label, nontherapeutic trial. The main objective is to correlate hypoxia-inducible factor-2alpha (HIF2α) levels as determined by an investigational \[18F\]PT2385 PET/CT scan with the levels on subsequently obtained tissue by HIF2α immunohistochemistry (IHC). There will be three cohorts. The first pre-surgical cohort will have \[18F\]PT2385 PET/CT prior to nephrectomy. The uptake and retention on Positron Emission Tomography (PET), quantified as standardized uptake value (SUV) max and mean, abbreviated SUV henceforth will be correlated with HIF2α levels by IHC on the primary tumor. The second cohort will comprise patients with metastatic clear cell renal carcinoma (ccRCC). SUV will be correlated with HIF2α levels measured by IHC on a biopsy sample from a metastasis. Both low- and high-avidity sites will be biopsied and tracer uptake correlated with HIF2α IHC. A third cohort will include patients with Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome and any of the following disease manifestations - RCC, central nervous system (CNS) hemangioblastoma, and/or pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor(s). Investigational imaging will evaluate HIF2α expression within a tumor type and across different tumor types. A biopsy is encouraged but not mandatory for this cohort.
* Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent that includes study interventions (PET/CT and, if cohort 2, mandatory biopsy).
* Ability to lie still for a 30- to 60-minute PET/CT scan.
* One of the following:
• Cohort 1. Patients with suspected RCC planned for surgery.
• Cohort 2. Patients with metastatic ccRCC or VHL syndrome and RCC. Biopsy is required (planned resection for treatment reasons of a metastatic site is acceptable in lieu of the biopsy).
• Cohort 3. Patients with VHL syndrome with RCC, CNS hemangioblastoma, and/or pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor(s) planning to start belzutifan.
* Patients with liver dysfunction will be considered "patients of special interest," and enrollment is allowed with or without criteria outlined for Cohorts 1-3. Liver dysfunction is defined clinically and is typically supported by abnormalities in imaging or laboratory studies (alanine / aspartate amino-transferase, bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, or international normalized range (INR) for prothrombin time).
* Women of child-bearing potential must agree to undergo and have documented a negative pregnancy test on the day of \[18F\]PT2385 administration. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a tubal ligation, or celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months).
Exclusion Criteria:
* Uncontrolled severe and irreversible intercurrent illness or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements.
* Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.
* Claustrophobia or other contraindications to PET/CT.
* Subjects must not weigh more than the maximum weight limit for the table for the PET/CT scanner where the study is being performed (\>200 kilograms or 440 pounds).
* For cohort 2 patients, lack of suitable sites for mandatory biopsy. For example, patients with metastatic disease restricted to the lungs that would require percutaneous biopsies with associated risk of bleeding and pneumothorax will be excluded.
Testing Combination Erdafitinib and Enfortumab Vedotin in Metastatic Bladder Cancer After Treatment With Chemotherapy and Immunotherapy
This phase Ib trial evaluates the best dose, potential benefits, and/or side effects of erdafitinib in combination with enfortumab vedotin in treating patients with bladder cancer that has spread from where it first started (primary site) to other places in the body (metastatic) and possesses genetic alterations in FGFR2/3 genes. Erdafitinib is in a class of medications called kinase inhibitors. It works by blocking the action of an abnormal FGFR protein that signals cancer cells to multiply. This may help keep cancer cells from growing and may kill them. Enfortumab vedotin is a monoclonal antibody, enfortumab, linked to an anticancer drug called vedotin. It works by helping the immune system to slow or stop the growth of cancer cells. Enfortumab attaches to a protein called nectin-4 on cancer cells in a targeted way and delivers vedotin to kill them. It is a type of antibody-drug conjugate. Giving erdafitinib in combination with enfortumab vedotin may shrink or stabilize metastatic bladder cancer with alterations in FGFR 2/3 genes.
* Patients must have histologically or cytologically documented locally advanced (T4b, any N; or any T, N 2-3) or metastatic (M1, Stage IV; or metastatic recurrence after locoregional treatment) urothelial carcinoma (including renal pelvis, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra). Patients with mixed histologies are required to have a dominant transitional cell pattern
* Patients who had disease progression during or following treatment with at least one platinum-containing regimen (e.g., gemcitabine and cisplatin \[GC\], methotrexate, vinblastine, doxorubicin and cisplatin \[MVAC\], carboplatin and gemcitabine \[Carbo-Gem\]) and an immune checkpoint inhibitor (PD-1/ PD-L1 inhibitor including but not limited to: atezolizumab, pembrolizumab, durvalumab, avelumab, and nivolumab)
* Received a first-line platinum-containing regimen in the metastatic setting or for inoperable locally advanced disease
* Or received neo/adjuvant platinum-containing therapy for localized muscle-invasive UC, with recurrence/progression =\< 12 months following completion of therapy
* Patients who received immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy in the neoadjuvant/adjuvant setting and had recurrent or progressive disease either during therapy or within 12 months of therapy completion are eligible. This criterion does not apply if the checkpoint inhibitor is contraindicated
* Patients with metastatic urothelial carcinoma who are cisplatin-ineligible and progressed on upfront immune checkpoint inhibitor; or ineligible/refused immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy will be eligible for this trial
* Patient who received prior antibody drug conjugate such as sacituzumab govitecan are allowed
* Patients must have measurable disease, as defined by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) version (v)1.1. Previously irradiated lesions cannot be counted as target lesions unless there has been demonstrated progression in the lesion since radiotherapy and no other lesions are available for selection as target lesions
* Patients must have FGFR2/3 activating alterations identified by tumor tissue or plasma ctDNA profiling using a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified College of American Pathologists (CAP) accredited platform
* Age \>= 18 years, for ability to comply with protocol
* Because no dosing or adverse event data are currently available on the use of erdafitinib in combination with enfortumab vedotin in patients \< 18 years of age, children are excluded from this study
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status =\< 2 (Karnofsky \>= 60%)
* Absolute neutrophil count \>= 1,500/mcL (within 14 days prior to beginning trial treatment)
* Platelets \>= 100,000/mcL (within 14 days prior to beginning trial treatment)
* Hemoglobin \>= 9 g/dL (within 14 days prior to beginning trial treatment)
* Measured or calculated creatine clearance (CrCl) \>= 30 ml/min (glomerular filtration rate \[GFR\] can also be used in place of creatinine CrCl) (within 14 days prior to beginning trial treatment)
* Total bilirubin =\< 1.5 x ULN (institutional upper limit of normal) OR direct bilirubin =\< ULN for subjects with total bilirubin levels \> 1.5 x ULN (within 14 days prior to beginning trial treatment)
* Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)(serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase \[SGOT\])/alanine aminotransferase (ALT)(serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase \[SGPT\]) =\< 2.5 x institutional ULN (=\< 5 x ULN for subjects with liver metastasis) (within 14 days prior to beginning trial treatment)
* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
* For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated
* Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
* Patients with treated brain metastases are eligible if follow-up brain imaging after central nervous system (CNS)-directed therapy shows no evidence of progression (CNS metastases have been clinically stable for at least 4 weeks prior to screening and baseline scans show no evidence of new or enlarged metastasis)
* Patients with a history of prostate cancer (T2NXMX or lower with Gleason score =\< 7) treated with definitive intent (surgically or with radiation therapy) at least 1 year prior to study entry are eligible, provided that the subject is considered prostate cancer-free and the following criteria are met:
* Patients who have undergone radical prostatectomy must have undetectable prostate specific antigen (PSA) for \> 1 year and at screening
* Patients who have had radiation must have a PSA doubling time \> 1 year (based on at least 3 values determined \>1 month apart) and a total PSA value that does not meet Phoenix criteria for biochemical recurrence (i.e., \< 2.0 ng/mL above nadir)
* Patients with untreated low-risk prostate cancer (Gleason score =\< 6) on active surveillance with PSA doubling time \>1 year (based on at least 3 values determined \> 1 month apart) are also eligible
* Patients who have undergone an ophthalmologic examination and have no active eye disease which would be likely to increase the risk of eye toxicity
* The effects of erdafitinib and enfortumab vedotin on the developing human fetus are unknown. For this reason and because FGFR inhibitors and humanized antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) agents are known to be teratogenic, women of child-bearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and 3 months after completion of erdafitinib and enfortumab vedotin administration. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she or her partner is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. Men treated or enrolled on this protocol must also agree to use adequate contraception prior to the study, for the duration of study participation, and 5 months after completion of erdafitinib and enfortumab vedotin administration
* Ability to understand and willingness to sign a written informed consent document
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patients who have had chemotherapy, targeted therapies, immunotherapy, or treatment with an investigational anticancer agent within 2 weeks (6 weeks for nitrosoureas or mitomycin C) prior to entering the study
* Patients who have not recovered from adverse events due to prior anti-cancer therapy (including ongoing sensory or motor neuropathy of grade 2 or higher) (i.e., have residual toxicities \> grade 1 or returned to baseline) with the exception of alopecia. Subjects with =\< grade 2 immunotherapy- related hypothyroidism or panhypopituitarism may be enrolled when well-maintained/controlled on a stable dose of hormone replacement therapy (if indicated). Subjects with ongoing \>= grade 3 immunotherapy-related hypothyroidism or panhypopituitarism are excluded. Subjects with ongoing immunotherapy related colitis, uveitis, myocarditis, or pneumonitis or subjects with other immunotherapy related adverse events (AEs) requiring high doses of steroids (\> 20 mg/day of prednisone or equivalent) are excluded
* Patients who have previously received enfortumab vedotin or other MMAE-based ADCs
* Patients who have had prior treatment with an FGFR inhibitor
* History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to erdafitinib and enfortumab vedotin
* Patients receiving any medications or substances that are strong inhibitors or inducers of CYP3A are ineligible. Because the lists of these agents are constantly changing, it is important to regularly consult a frequently updated medical reference. As part of the enrollment/informed consent procedures, the patient will be counseled on the risk of interactions with other agents, and what to do if new medications need to be prescribed or if the patient is considering a new over-the-counter medicine or herbal product
* Patients with a history of any corneal or retinal abnormality likely to increase the risk of eye toxicity
* Patients with uncontrolled intercurrent illness and currently receiving systemic antimicrobial treatment for active infection (viral, bacterial, or fungal) at the time of starting treatment. Routine antimicrobial prophylaxis is permitted
* Patients with psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
* Subjects who have received radiotherapy within 2 weeks prior to start of treatment. Subject must have recovered adequately from the toxicity from the intervention prior to starting study treatment
* Patients with uncontrolled diabetes. Uncontrolled diabetes is defined as hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) \>= 8% or HbA1c 7% to \< 8% with associated diabetes symptoms (polyuria or polydipsia) that are not otherwise explained
* Subjects who have received major surgery within 4 weeks prior to start of treatment. Subject must have recovered adequately from complications from the intervention prior to starting study treatment
* Subjects who have received a prior allogeneic stem cell or solid organ transplant
* Has persistent phosphate level \> ULN during screening (within 14 days of treatment and prior to cycle 1 day 1) and despite medical management
* Has a history of or current uncontrolled cardiovascular disease including:
* Unstable angina, myocardial infarction, or known congestive heart failure class II-IV within the preceding 12 months; cerebrovascular accident or transient ischemic attack within the preceding 3 months
* Any of the following: sustained ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, Torsades de Pointes, cardiac arrest, Mobitz II second degree heart block or third degree heart block; known presence of dilated, hypertrophic, or restrictive cardiomyopathy
* Corrected QT interval (QTc) prolongation as confirmed by triplicate assessment at screening (Fridericia;QTc \> 480 milliseconds)
* Subjects with a history of another invasive malignancy within 3 years before the first dose of study drug, or any evidence of residual disease from a previously diagnosed malignancy. Subjects with nonmelanoma skin cancer or carcinoma in situ of any type (if complete resection was performed) are allowed
Global Linerixibat Itch Study of Efficacy and Safety in Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC) (GLISTEN)
This is a 2-part study in PBC participants with cholestatic pruritus and will evaluate the
efficacy, safety and impact on health-related quality of life of linerixibat compared with
placebo.
• Male and female participants must be between 18 to 80 years of age inclusive, at the
time of signing the informed consent.
• Participants who have documented PBC.
• Participants who have moderate to severe itch.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Symptoms suggestive of active coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) infection whilst
symptoms persist or known COVID-19 positive contacts within the past 14 days should be
excluded for at least 14 days from the exposure.
• Total bilirubin >2.0 times Upper Limit of Normal (ULN) using the average of two
Baseline measures.
• Screening Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) > 6 times ULN in a single Baseline measure or
ALT > 5 times ULN using the average of two Baseline measures.
• Screening estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) <30 milliliter per minute per
• 73 square meter (mL/min/1.73m^2).
• History or presence of hepatic decompensation (e.g., variceal bleeding, hepatic
encephalopathy or ascites).
• Presence of actively replicating viral hepatitis B or C (HBV, HCV) infection, primary
sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), alcoholic liver disease and/or confirmed hepatocellular
carcinoma or biliary cancer.
• Current clinically significant diarrhea or active inflammatory ileal disease according
to Investigator´s clinical judgment.
• Current symptomatic cholelithiasis or cholecystitis.
• Current diagnosis of primary skin disorders with itch symptoms (e.g., atopic
dermatitis, psoriasis).
• Primary sleep disorders such as but are not limited to sleep apnea, narcolepsy,
hypersomnia.
• Current/previous diagnosis of colorectal cancer.
• Initiation, discontinuation or change in dose of ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA),
bezafibrate or fenofibrate in the 8 weeks prior to Screening.
• Use of obeticholic acid: within 8 weeks prior to Screening. (Participants may not
initiate or restart during the study).
• Initiation, discontinuation, or change in dose of any of the following in the 8 weeks
prior to Screening: bile acid binding resins, rifampicin, naltrexone, naloxone,
nalfurafine, pregabalin, gabapentin, sertraline or other selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitor (SSRIs), antihistamines used for the treatment of itching.
• Administration of any other human ileal bile acid transporter (IBAT) inhibitor in the
12 weeks prior to screening.
• Any planned procedures intended to treat cholestatic pruritus such as nasobiliary
drainage or ultraviolet light therapy from Screening and throughout the study.
• History of sensitivity or intolerance to the study treatment.
The brain networks controlling movement are complex, involving multiple areas of the brain. Some neurological disorders, like Parkinson's disease (PD) and essential tremor (ET), cause abnormalities in these brain networks. Deep brain stimulation is a treatment that is used to treat these types of neurological diseases and is thought to help patients by modulating brain networks responsible for movement. Levodopa medication is also used to modulate this brain networks in patients with PD. The overall objective is to develop a unified theory of basal ganglia thalamocortical (BGTC) circuit dynamics that accounts for disease symptomatology, movement, and their inter-relationship. The underlying hypothesis, is that the rigidity and bradykinesia of PD are fundamentally related to excessive functional coupling across nodes in the BGTC motor circuit impeding effective information flow. In this research, the investigator will take advantage of the unique opportunity provided by awake deep brain stimulation surgery to learn more about how the brain functions in a diseased state and how deep brain stimulation changes these networks to make movement more normal. The investigator will simultaneously assess cortical and subcortical electrophysiology in relation to clinical symptoms and behavioral measures and in response to deep brain stimulation, cortical stimulation, and pharmacologic therapy in patients undergoing Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS) implantation surgery.
* Diagnosis of Parkinson's disease who have been recommended to undergo deep brain stimulation for management of their movement disorder
* Preoperative MRI without evidence of cortical or subdural adhesions or vascular abnormalities
* Willingness and ability to cooperate during conscious operative procedure for up to 40 minutes
Exclusion Criteria:
* Patients with recent use (within one week) of anticoagulant or antiplatelet agents
* Neurocognitive testing indicating amnestic cognitive deficits
Olanzapine Versus Megestrol Acetate for the Treatment of Loss of Appetite Among Advanced Cancer Patients
This phase III trial compares the effects of olanzapine versus megestrol acetate in treating loss of appetite in patients with cancer that has spread to other places in the body (advanced). Olanzapine may stimulate and increase appetite. This study aims to find out if olanzapine is better than the usual approach (megestrol acetate) for stimulating appetite and preventing weight loss.
* Women and men of reproductive potential should agree to use an appropriate method of birth control throughout their participation in this study due to the teratogenic potential of the therapy utilized in this trial. Appropriate methods of birth control include abstinence, oral contraceptives, implantable hormonal contraceptives or double barrier method (diaphragm plus condom)
* Diagnosis of advanced cancer
* Patient-reported 2-month weight loss of at least 5 pounds (2.3 kilograms) and/or physician-estimated caloric intake of less than 20 calories/kilogram of body weight per day
* The patient must perceive loss of appetite and/or weight as a problem; and have an appetite score of 4 or worse on the "Please rate your appetite...." question that requires a patient response on a 0-10 numeric rating scale
* Not receiving ongoing tube feedings or parenteral nutrition at the time of registration
* Not currently using systemic adrenal steroids (with the exception of short-term dexamethasone within 3 days of chemotherapy for control of chemotherapy side effects)
* No use of androgens, progesterone analogs, or other appetite stimulants within the past month
* Patient should not have poorly controlled hypertension or congestive heart failure at registration
* Patient should not have an obstruction of the alimentary canal, malabsorption, or intractable vomiting (defined as vomiting more than 3 times per day over the preceding week)
* Not currently using olanzapine for another medical condition or had previously used olanzapine for chronic nausea or for any pre-existing psychotic disorder
* Patient should not have had a previous blood clot at any time in the past
* No history of poorly controlled diabetes
* No symptomatic leptomeningeal disease or known brain metastases as these patients may have difficulty taking oral medications
* No history of hypersensitivity to olanzapine or megestrol acetate
* No COVID-19 infection in the past that, in the opinion of the treating physician, had left patients with compromised taste, which has not resolved at the time of registration
* Not pregnant and not nursing, because this study involves an investigational agent whose genotoxic, mutagenic and teratogenic effects on the developing fetus and newborn are unknown. Therefore, for women of childbearing potential only, a negative urine or serum pregnancy test done =\< 14 days prior to registration is required
* Age \>= 18 years
* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0, 1 or 2
* Estimated life expectancy of 3 months or longer
* Serum creatinine =\< 2.0 mg/dL
* Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =\< 3 x upper limit of normal (ULN)
* Fasting glucose \< 140 mg/dL
* Granulocytes \> 1000/hpf
* No treatment with another antipsychotic agent, such as risperidone, quetiapine, clozapine, butyrophenone within 30 days of enrollment
* In order to complete the mandatory patient-completed measures, participants must be able to speak and/or read English or Spanish. Sites seeking to enroll Spanish-speaking patients should have access to Spanish speaking staff on site or through the use of a translation service to be able to conduct the informed consent discussion in Spanish, and to conduct the weekly phone calls
Exclusion Criteria:
* Psychiatric illness which would prevent the patient from giving informed consent
* Medical condition such as uncontrolled infection (including human immunodeficiency virus \[HIV\]), uncontrolled diabetes mellitus or cardiac disease which, in the opinion of the treating physician, would make this protocol unreasonably hazardous for the patient
* Patients who cannot swallow oral formulations of the agents
* Patients with impaired decision-making capacity (such as with a diagnosis of dementia or memory loss) are not eligible for this study
* No presence of a hormone-sensitive tumor, such as breast, endometrial, or prostate cancer (this exclusion criterion is intended to circumvent any confounding antineoplastic effects of megestrol acetate)
Aging and Disease Course: Contributions to Lifespan Neurobiology of Schizophrenia
The 2020 NIMH Strategic Plan for Research calls for investigations targeting neurobiology of mental illness across the lifespan. Growing evidence suggests that lifespan neurobiology of schizophrenia (SZ) incorporates two distinct dimensions: aging and disease course. However, their clinical correlates, associated biomarker trajectories, and implications for treatment are unknown. This study will investigate differential aspects of SZ neurobiology captured by aging and disease course, in order to develop specific biomarkers which may offer actionable targets for SZ stage-dependent intervention. The study is predicated on a novel mechanistic Model of SZ Trajectories across the Adult Lifespan, positing distinct biological fingerprints within the anterior limbic system for aging and disease course in SZ: (1) alterations in the circuit's function and structure that occur earlier in the lifespan and are larger in magnitude than the alterations expected with normal aging (accelerated aging dimension); and (2) regionally-specific anterior limbic "hyperactivity" in early SZ, with a subsequent transformation into "hypoactivity" in advanced SZ (disease course dimension). In a sample of SZ and matched healthy controls (n=168, 84/group) aged 18-75 years the investigators will ascertain a broad panel of biomarkers \[via multimodal brain imaging: optimized 1H-MRS, high-resolution task-based fMRI, perfusion (Vascular Space Occupancy) and structural MRI\], along with comprehensive cognitive and clinical assessments. All measures will be acquired at baseline and repeated at 2-year longitudinal follow-up. Using cutting-edge computational approaches, the study will examine (i) effects of aging and SZ course on anterior limbic system biomarkers; (ii) lifespan trajectories for different biomarkers; (iii) patterns of limbic system biomarkers in age- and SZ course-based subgroups (e.g., Younger vs. Older, Early-Course vs. Advanced SZ), as well as in data-driven subgroups (e.g., those with vs. without accelerated aging profiles); and (iv) associations between biomarkers and cognitive and clinical outcomes. This research will advance the field by providing novel biomarkers that capture unique neurobiological contributions of aging and disease course in SZ, and will motivate future studies on SZ mechanisms across the lifespan and development of precision treatments.
* 18-65 years of age (SZ); 18-75 years of age (CON)
* Women and men
* All races and ethnicities
* Psychiatric diagnoses:
Patient participants (SZ): Meet DSM-5 criteria for schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder Healthy control participants (CON): No personal history of lifetime psychiatric disorders, or a family history of psychotic disorders in 1st-or 2nd- degree relatives
* Able to read, speak, and understand English
* Able and willing to provide written informed consent; and willing to commit to the study protocol, including 2-year longitudinal follow-up
Exclusion Criteria:
• Compromised cognitive function: Both SZ and CON participants: Estimated premorbid intellectual ability \<75 age-corrected score on Wide Range Achievement Test-4/Word Reading Subtest (WRAT-4) CON participants: \<26 score on the Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)
* Neurological or medical disorder that may affect brain function (history of stroke, head injury with a loss of consciousness \>10 min, seizure disorder, AIDS, poorly controlled hypertension, poorly controlled diabetes, decompensated lung disease, etc.)
* Co-morbid DSM-5 diagnosis of drug/alcohol use disorder in prior 3 months
* Current treatment with benzodiazepine or non-benzodiazepine sedatives/hypnotics, and/or anticonvulsants
* Presence of ferromagnetic objects in body
* Weight or body size exceeding MRI scanner capacity \[\>300 lbs\]
* Claustrophobia in MRI scanner
* Pregnant women
* Breastfeeding women (VASO scan will not be administered. All other imaging modalities are safe to administer.)
* Impaired kidney function: Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) \< 30 ml/min/1.73m2 (VASO scan will not be administered due to an association between Gadolinium-based MR contrast use and Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis in individuals with severely impaired renal function. All other imaging modalities are safe to administer.)
* History of hypersensitivity to any MRI contrast agent (VASO scan will not be administered. All other imaging modalities are safe to administer.)
Outpatient Treatment With Anti-Coronavirus Immunoglobulin (OTAC)
The primary objective of the Outpatient Treatment with Anti-Coronavirus Immunoglobulin (OTAC) (INSIGHT 012) trial is to compare the safety and efficacy of a single infusion of anti-COVID-19 hyperimmune intravenous immunoglobulin (hIVIG) versus placebo among adults with recently diagnosed severe acute respiratory syndrome - coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV2) infection who do not require hospitalization. The primary endpoint of this double-blind randomized trial is a five-category ordinal outcome that assesses the participant's clinical status seven days after the infusion of hIVIG or placebo.
1. Asymptomatic and no limitations in usual activity due to COVID-19
2. Mild COVID-19 illness or minor limitations to usual activity
3. Moderate COVID-19 illness and with major limitations to usual activity
4. Severe COVID-19 or serious disease manifestation from COVID-19
5. Critical illness from COVID-19 or Death
Two strata of participants will be identified for analysis purposes. Stratum 2 will be participants who receive direct-acting antivirals (DAAs) or other anti-SARS-CoV2 agents that are approved/available and recommended for use as part of standard of care (SOC), estimated to be about 20% of participants. Stratum 1 will be participants who do not receive this agents, estimated to be about 80% of participants.
* Clinical risk based on age ≥ 55 years or an adult (age ≥ 18 years) with an immunosuppressed condition.
* Positive test for SARS-CoV-2 within ≤5 days (if \>1 test, the first positive is within ≤5 days). Tests may include an institutional-based nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT), or any protocol-approved rapid test.
* Within ≤5 days from symptom onset, if symptomatic from current SARS-CoV-2 infection.
* Agrees to not participate in another clinical trial for the treatment or management of SARS-CoV-2 infection through Day 7, or until hospitalized or significant disease progression if prior to Day 7 (defined by ordinal category 4 or 5).
* Participant provides written informed consent prior to study procedures, and understands and agrees to adhere to planned study procedures through Day 28.
Ongoing immunosuppressive condition or immunosuppressive treatment, includes:
• Steroids equivalent to prednisone \> 10 mg/day for at least the last 28 days
• Rheumatologic or autoimmune disorder treated with a biologic or non-biologic immunosuppressive therapy
• Antirejection medicine after solid organ or stem cell transplantation
• Cancer treatment with systemic chemotherapy, biologic and/or cell-based therapy in the last 12 months
• Primary or acquired severe B- or T-lymphocyte immune dysfunction
• HIV infection
• Splenectomy or functional asplenia
Exclusion Criteria:
* Asymptomatic and had prior symptoms from the current infection that have now resolved (for \>24 hours).
* Asymptomatic and has received a vaccination for COVID-19 (≥1 dose).
* Undergoing evaluation for possible admission to hospital for medical management (this does not include evaluation of possible hospitalization for public health purposes).
* Evidence of pneumonia and/or hypoxia due to COVID-19 (NOTE: chest imaging is not required, but if available it should not show new infiltrates suggestive of pneumonia; hypoxia is defined by new oxygen supplementation or increase above pre-illness level).
* Prior receipt of immunoglobulin product or passive immune therapy for SARS-CoV-2 in the past 90 days (i.e., convalescent plasma, SARS-CoV-2 monoclonal antibodies, or any IVIG).
* Any of the following thrombotic or procoagulant conditions or disorders:
• acute coronary syndrome, cerebrovascular syndrome, pulmonary embolism, or deep venous thrombosis within 28 days of randomization.
• prothrombin gene mutation 20210, homozygous Factor V Leiden mutations, antiphospholipid syndrome, or a deficiency in antithrombin III, protein C, or protein S.
* History of hypersensitivity to blood, plasma or IVIG excipients.
* Known immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency or anti-IgA antibodies.
* In the opinion of the investigator, any condition for which participation would not be in the best interest of the participant or that could prevent or confound protocol assessments.
BIOLOGICAL: Hyperimmune immunoglobulin to SARS-CoV-2 (hIVIG), OTHER: Placebo
COVID, SARS-CoV2 Infection, Covid19
immunotherapy, hIVIG, early treatment
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Ph I/II Study of NMS-03305293+TMZ in Adult Patients With Recurrent Glioblastoma
Multicenter, open-label, single-arm Phase 1/2 study on the safety and efficacy of the combination of NMS-03305293 and temozolomide (TMZ) in adult patients with diffuse gliomas (Phase 1) and isocitrate dehydrogenase (IDH) wild type glioblastoma (Phase 2) at first relapse.
* Phase 1
• Histologically confirmed diagnosis of an intracranial diffuse glioma (i.e. diffuse astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma or glioblastoma). Sponsor may opt to restrict enrollment based on MGMT status, tumor type, tumor measurability or apply restriction on time to first relapse.
• Patients at first radiographic relapse after chemotherapy including temozolomide as long as no more than 12 cycles of temozolomide were administered.
• Patients may have been operated for recurrence. If operated:
* residual and measurable disease after surgery is not required but pathology must have confirmed tumor recurrence.
* a post-surgery MRI should be available within 48 hours following surgery.
* surgery completed at least 2 weeks before enrolment and patient clinical status should not be worsened respect to pre-surgery condition
* Backfill cohorts
• Histologically confirmed diagnosis of Glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype as per WHO 2021 classification, including IDH-wildtype diffuse and astrocytic glioma in adults if there is microvascular proliferation or necrosis or TERT promoter mutation or EGFR gene amplification or +7/-10 chromosome copy number changes or c-IMPACT-NOW 3 definition including diffuse astrocytic glioma, IDH-wildtype, with molecular features of glioblastoma, WHO Grade 4. IDH1 status must be assessed locally by immunohistochemistry (IHC). If IHC is performed and is negative, and patient is \< 55 years old, sequencing or a PCR-based validated test must be performed to exclude other IDH1 or IDH2 most frequent mutations. Sponsor may opt to restrict enrollment based on MGMT status or apply restriction on time to first relapse.
• Patients must have measurable disease and meet standard of care resection, if indicated, and irradiation, if indicated, with concomitant temozolomide plus up to 6 cycles of adjuvant temozolomide consistent with local standards of care.
• Patients may have been operated for recurrence. If operated:
* residual and measurable disease after surgery is required
* a post-surgery MRI should be available within 48 hours following surgery
* surgery completed at least 2 weeks before enrolment and patient clinical status should not be worsened respect to pre-surgery condition.
* Phase 2
• Histologically confirmed diagnosis of Glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype as per WHO 2021 classification, including IDH-wildtype diffuse and astrocytic glioma in adults if there is microvascular proliferation or necrosis or TERT promoter mutation or EGFR gene amplification or +7/-10 chromosome copy number changes or c-IMPACTNOW 3 definition including diffuse astrocytic glioma, IDH-wildtype, with molecular features of glioblastoma, WHO Grade 4. IDH1 status must be assessed locally by immunohistochemistry (IHC). If IHC is performed and is negative, and patient is \< 55 years old, sequencing or a PCR-based validated test must be performed to exclude other IDH1 or IDH2 most frequent mutations. Sponsor may opt to restrict enrollment based on MGMT status or apply restriction on time to first relapse.
• Patients must have measurable disease at first radiographic relapse after initial standard therapy including temozolomide as long as no more than 6 cycles of adjuvant temozolomide were administered and provided that patient completed standard of care concurrent temozolomide and the radiation therapy; multiple surgeries are allowed as long as patient is at first relapse and TMZ was administered as standard of care.
• Patients may have been operated for recurrence. If operated:
* residual and measurable disease after surgery is required
* a post-surgery MRI should be available within 48 hours following surgery
* surgery completed at least 2 weeks before enrolment and patient clinical status should not be worsened respect to pre-surgery condition.
* Phase 1 (including backfill) and Phase 2
• For non-operated patients with measurable disease in Phase I, for backfill and for all patients in Phase 2, recurrent disease must be defined by at least one bidimensionally measurable contrast-enhancing lesion with clearly defined margins with minimal diameters of 10 mm, visible on 2 or more axial slices 5 mm apart, based on MRI scan done within two weeks prior to enrolment.
• Patients on steroids should have stable or decreasing dose of steroids for 7 days prior to the baseline MRI scan.
• Life expectancy of at least 3 months.
• Able to undergo brain MRI scans with IV gadolinium.
• No evidence of symptomatic and acute intratumoral hemorrhage on MRI. Patients with MRI demonstrating old hemorrhage or subacute blood after a neurosurgical procedure (biopsy or resection) are eligible.
• Sufficient tissue representative of the disease available for central MGMT promoter methylation status (Phase I and II) and IDH status evaluation (Phase I).
• Male or female patients with age ≥ 18 years.
• ECOG performance status ≤2.
• Signed and dated IEC or IRB-approved Informed Consent.
• Resolution of all acute toxic effects (excluding alopecia) of any prior anticancer therapy to NCI CTCAE (Version 5.0) Grade ≤ 1 or to the baseline laboratory values as defined in Inclusion Criterion Number 14.
• Baseline laboratory values fulfilling the requirements declared into the Protocol
• Patients must use highly effective contraception or true abstinence. Female patients of childbearing potential must agree to use effective contraception or abstinence during the period of therapy and in the following 6 months plus 5x NMS-03305293 half-life (3 days) after discontinuation of study treatment. Being NMS-03305293 a potential CYP3A perpetrator, hormonal contraception may lose efficacy while on treatment with NMS-03305293, therefore this should be taken into account. Male patients must be surgically sterile or must agree to use highly effective contraception or true abstinence during the period of therapy and in the following 90 days plus 5x NMS-03305293 half-life (3 days) after discontinuation of study treatment.
• Ability to swallow capsules intact (without chewing, crushing, or opening).
• Willingness and ability to comply with scheduled visits, treatment plan, laboratory tests and other study indications or procedures.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Current enrollment in another interventional clinical trial.
• Current treatment with other anticancer agents or devices, or treatment at recurrence with carmustine wafer implants and proteasome inhibitors.
• Previous treatment with PCV (procarbazine, lomustine and vincristine) or any of its components, carmustine wafer implants, or bevacizumab.
• Previous treatment with PARP inhibitors.
• Major surgery, other than surgery for recurrent diffuse glioma, within 4 weeks prior to treatment.
• Standard radiotherapy within the three months (12 weeks) prior to the diagnosis of progression unless the progression is clearly outside the radiation field (eg, beyond the high-dose region or 80% isodose line) or unless the recurrence is histologically proven.
• Prior radiotherapy with a dose over 65 Gy, stereotactic radiosurgery or brachytherapy, unless the recurrence is histologically proven.
• Use of full-dose anticoagulants unless the INR or aPTT is within therapeutic limits (according to the medical standard in the institution) and the patient has been on a stable dose of anticoagulants for at least two weeks before enrollment
• Treatment with concomitant medications known to be sensitive substrates of CYP2D6 and CYP2C19 that cannot be replaced with another treatment.
• Treatment with enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drugs (EIAED). Patients may be on non-EIAED or not be taking any anti-epileptic drugs. Patients previously on EIAED must be fully switched to non-EIAED at least 2 weeks prior to enrolment.
• Pregnant or breast-feeding women.
• Known hypersensitivity to any component of NMS-03305293 or TMZ drug formulations.
• Known active infections (bacterial, fungal, viral including HIV positivity) requiring systemic treatment.
• Patients with QTc interval ≥460 milliseconds for women, ≥450 milliseconds for men or with risk factors for torsade de pointes (e.g., uncontrolled heart failure, uncontrolled hypokalemia, history of prolonged QTc interval or family history of long QT syndrome). For patients receiving treatment with concomitant medications known to prolong the QTc interval, replacement with another treatment prior to enrollment is mandatory. If concomitant use of anti-emetics is considered essential for the care of the patients, instruction in protocol will be followed.
• Active gastrointestinal disease (e.g., documented gastrointestinal ulcer, Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, or short gut syndrome) or other syndromes that would impact on drug absorption.
• Any of the following in the past 6 months: myocardial infarction, unstable angina, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft, symptomatic congestive heart failure, cerebrovascular accident or transient ischemic attack, active bleeding disorder.
• Prior invasive malignancy (except for non melanoma skin cancer, carcinoma in situ or localized cancer) unless the patient has been disease-free and off therapy for that disease for ≥ 3 years.
• Other severe acute or chronic medical or psychiatric condition or laboratory abnormality that may increase the risk associated with study participation or study drug administration or may interfere with the interpretation of study results and, in the judgment of the Investigator, would make the patient inappropriate for entry into this study or could compromise protocol objectives in the opinion of the Investigator and/or the Sponsor.
DRUG: NMS-03305293, DRUG: Temozolomide
Glioblastoma, Diffuse Glioma, Brain and Nervous System
To assess toxicity with use of Ruxolitinib in NSCLC cachexia patients; to associate levels of JAK/STAT signaling in blood, adipose, and muscle pre- and post-ruxolitinib treatment with changes in cachexia and anorexia.
• Male or female subjects at least 18 years of age;
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent;
• Histological or biopsy proven Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer (squamous or non-squamous);
• ECOG performance status of 0-2;
• Patients with evidence of:
* cancer cachexia, defined by the International Cancer Cachexia Consensus Definition (\>5% weight loss over the preceding 6 months prior to diagnosis); OR
* Patients with evidence of cancer pre-cachexia, defined by the International Cancer Cachexia Consensus Definition (0 to \<=5% weight loss over the preceding 6 months prior to diagnosis);
• Any de novo stage IV NSCLC disease diagnosis as defined by AJCC 8th edition staging. Staged with PET/CT, MRI brain, or other acceptable staging tool; measurable disease as defined by RECIST 1.1;
• Adequate end-organ function, based on routine clinical and laboratory workup and institutional guidelines, as determined by oncology team offering patient standard of care therapy, including:
• ANC \>1,000 cells/µl, Platelets \> 100,000 cells/µl, Hemoglobin \> 10.0 g/dl;
• Serum creatinine ≤ 1.5 x ULN or calculated creatinine clearance ≥ 45 ml/min;
• Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 x ULN (or direct bilirubin below the ULN), AST and ALT ≤ 2.5 x ULN;
• International normalized ratio (INR) (or prothrombin time (PT)) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) ≤ 1.5 x ULN unless participant is receiving anticoagulant therapy, if values are within the intended therapeutic range;
• Women of child-bearing potential (WOCBP) and men must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and for 90 days following completion of therapy. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately; A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria: a. Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or b. Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months);
• Male subjects who are surgically sterile or are using a medically acceptable form of contraception for 90 days following the completion of therapy;
• Life expectancy anticipated to be 6 months or greater;
• No prior therapy for advanced lung cancer.
Exclusion Criteria:
• Subjects with confirmed stage I-III NSCLC;
• Patients whose tumors have actionable mutations treatable with targeted therapies;
• Patients with no evidence of cancer cachexia, defined by the International Cancer Cachexia Consensus Definition (\>5% weight loss over the preceding 6 months prior to diagnosis); OR Patients with no evidence of cancer pre-cachexia, defined by the International Cancer Cachexia Consensus Definition (0 to \<=5% weight loss over the preceding 6 months prior to diagnosis);
• Active malignancy other than lung cancer that requires concurrent treatment other than hormonal therapy and is deemed by the treating physicians to be likely to affect the subject's survival duration;
• Subjects who have not recovered or have disease control from prior treatment-related to toxicities judged by treating physician;
• History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to ruxolitinib or other agents used in study;
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, serious ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that, in the opinion of the investigator, would limit compliance with study requirements;
• Inadequate liver or renal function, if out of the acceptable ranges of the inclusion criteria;
• Significant bacterial, fungal, parasitic, or viral infection requiring treatment;
• Previous treatment with a JAK inhibitor;
• Uncontrolled congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association Classification 3 or 4), angina, myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular accident, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft surgery, transient ischemic attack, or pulmonary embolism within 3 months prior to initiation of ruxolitinib;
• Females who are pregnant, breast-feeding or plan to become pregnant;
• Participation in other clinical trials either to treat diagnosed lung or other cancers (patients on registry trials are eligible);
• Requirement for treatment with drugs that may, in the judgment of the treating investigator, create a risk for a precipitous change in patient's health;
• Any other conditions that, in the Investigator's opinion, might indicate the subject to be unsuitable for the study;
• Life expectancy of less than 6 months;
• Prior therapy for the newly diagnosed advanced lung cancer.
• Patients taking therapies that are strong CYP3A4 inhibitors and fluconazole.
DRUG: Identify any dose-limiting toxicity (DLT) when ruxolitinib is administered to NSCLC cachexia patients.
Stage IV Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer, Cachexia, Lung/Thoracic
PLAN Intervention to Enhance Engagement of Latino Cancer Patients in Advanced Care Planning
This trial tests whether Planning for Your Advance Care Needs (PLAN) intervention works to enhance Latino patients' understanding of and engagement in advanced care planning. The PLAN intervention may be an effective method to help people with cancer plan for and talk about advance care planning (the care they would want if they were unable to communicate) with their loved ones and doctors.
* Identifying ethnically as Latino.
* Locally advanced or metastatic cancer and/or have experienced disease progression on at least first-line chemotherapy.
* Ability to provide informed consent.
Exclusion Criteria:
* Not fluent in English or Spanish.
* Severely cognitively impaired (as measured by Short Portable Mental Status Questionnaire scores of \>= 6 to be delivered by trained study research staff during screening).
* Too ill or weak to complete the interviews (as judged by interviewer).
* Currently receiving palliative care/hospice at the time of enrollment (to allow prediction of \[advanced care planning\] ACP).
* Children and young adults under age 18.
* Patients deemed inappropriate for the study by their treating oncologist.
OTHER: Communication Intervention, OTHER: Best Practice, OTHER: Questionnaire Administration
Locally Advanced Malignant Solid Neoplasm, Metastatic Malignant Solid Neoplasm, Cervix, Colon, Esophagus, Gall Bladder, Head and Neck, Liver, Lung/Thoracic, Lymphoma, Other Female Genital, Other Urinary, Ovary, Pancreas, Sarcoma, Stomach
advance care planning, Latinos, communication
UT Southwestern; Parkland Health & Hospital System
PROGRESS: Management of Moderate Aortic Stenosis by Clinical Surveillance or TAVR (PROGRESS)
This study objective is to establish the safety and effectiveness of the Edwards SAPIEN 3 / SAPIEN 3 Ultra / SAPIEN 3 Ultra RESILIA Transcatheter Heart Valve systems in subjects with moderate, calcific aortic stenosis.
Following completion of enrollment, subjects will be eligible for enrollment in the continued access phase of the trial.
• 65 years of age or older at time of randomization
• Moderate aortic stenosis
• Subject has symptoms or evidence of cardiac damage/dysfunction
• The subject or subject's legal representative has been informed of the nature of the study, agrees to its provisions, and has provided written informed consent.
Key
Exclusion Criteria:
• Native aortic annulus size unsuitable for the THV
• Anatomical characteristics that would preclude safe transfemoral placement of the introducer sheath or safe passage of the delivery system
• Aortic valve is unicuspid or non-calcified
• Bicuspid aortic valve with an aneurysmal ascending aorta \> 4.5 cm or severe raphe/leaflet calcification
• Pre-existing mechanical or bioprosthetic aortic valve
• Severe aortic regurgitation
• Prior balloon aortic valvuloplasty to treat severe AS
• LVEF \< 20%
• Left ventricular outflow tract calcification that would increase the risk of annular rupture or significant paravalvular leak post-TAVR
• Cardiac imaging evidence of intracardiac mass, thrombus, or vegetation
• Coronary or aortic valve anatomy that increases the risk of coronary artery obstruction post-TAVR