Exploring the Effects of Corticosteroids on the Human Hippocampus
Chronic corticosteroid (CS) exposure is associated with changes in memory and the hippocampus in both humans and in animal models. The hippocampus has a high concentration of glucocorticoid receptors (GCRs), and the pre-clinical literature demonstrates shortening of apical dendrites in the CA3 region of the hippocampus and decreased neurogenesis in the dentate gyrus (DG) following CS administration. In humans, both stress and CS exposure are associated with a decline in declarative memory performance (a process mediated by the hippocampus). Impairment in declarative memory and hippocampal atrophy are reported in patients with excessive CS release due to Cushing's disease, and, by our group, in patients receiving prescription CS therapy. These findings have important implications for patients with mood disorders, as a large subset of people with major depressive disorder (MDD) show evidence of HPA axis activation, elevated cortisol and, importantly, resistance to the effects of CSs on both the HPA axis and on declarative memory. Thus, resistance to corticosteroids appears to be a consequence of MDD. this study will examine changes in declarative memory, as well as use state-of-the-art high-resolution multimodal neuroimaging, including structural and functional (i.e., task-based and resting state) MRI, in both men and women healthy controls, and, as an exploratory aim, a depressed group, given 3-day exposures to hydrocortisone (160 mg/day) or placebo. The study will translate preclinical findings to humans, provide valuable data on possible sex differences in the response to cortisol and, for the first time, identify specific hippocampal subfields (e.g., CA3/DG) in humans that are most sensitive to acute CS effects. Using resting state fMRI data and whole brain connectomics using graph theoretical approaches, we will determine the effects of cortisol exposure on functional brain networks. Furthermore, this will be the first study to use neuroimaging to compare the brain's response to CSs in people with depression vs. controls, and determine whether depressed people demonstrate glucocorticoid resistance within the hippocampus. We hypothesize that hippocampal response to acute CSs will be greatest in the CA3/DG subfield, greater in women than in men, and that depressed people will show a blunted hippocampal response to CSs compared to controls. A multidisciplinary research team with extensive experience in CS effects on the brain and hippocampal subfield neuroimaging, and a prior history of research collaboration, will conduct the project.
• Men and women age 18-40 years with vision corrected to at least 20-40 (needed for fMRI tasks)
• Education of ≥ 12 years
• Baseline RAVLT total words recalled T-score ≥ 40 (normal range)
• BMI between 18.5-35.0 (neither underweight nor severely obese)
• Baseline QIDS-C ≤ 5 (virtual absence of depressive symptoms) for "healthy controls" and for the "depressed" group a QIDS-C between 11-20 (≥ moderate depressive symptoms but < very severe depressive symptoms)
• History of major psychiatric illness other than MDD for the depressed group, defined as bipolar disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder, schizoaffective disorder, schizophrenia, eating disorders, or MDD with psychotic features. For the control group, a past episode of MDD (per SCID) is also exclusionary
• History of drug or alcohol use disorder
• History of neurological disorders including seizures, brain surgery, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson's disease
• Taking CNS-acting medications (e.g., antidepressants, antipsychotics, lithium, anticonvulsants, sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytics). Thus, the depressed group will be medication free.
• History of allergic reaction or medical contraindication to hydrocortisone
• Metal implants, claustrophobia, or other contraindications to MRI
• Significant medical conditions (e.g., cancer, heart disease, diabetes)
• Vulnerable population including pregnant or nursing women, prisoners, and people with intellectual disability, history of special education classes, dementia, or other severe cognitive disorders
• Current suicidal ideation, a suicide attempt in the past 12 months or more than one lifetime attempt
• History of systemic CS use in the past 12 months, lifetime cumulative use of more than 12 weeks, or recent (defined as past 28 days) inhaled CS use
• Women who are using estrogen containing oral contraceptive agents (other contraceptives are acceptable, see Protection of Human Subjects section for a list of acceptable birth control methods) or who are post- or peri-menopausal or with irregular menstrual cycles (i.e., inconsistent menstruation patterns)
RejuvenAir® System Trial for COPD With Chronic Bronchitis (SPRAY-CB)
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is defined as an impaired ability to move air within the lungs and is a major public health problem that is projected to rank fifth worldwide in terms of disease burden and third in terms of mortality. Chronic bronchitis (CB) is a common clinical phenotype within the umbrella of a COPD diagnosis and is classically defined as chronic cough and sputum production for 3 months a year for 2 consecutive years2, but many studies have used different definitions to define it- chronic cough and sputum production for one year or cough and sputum production on most days of the week. CB is associated with multiple clinical consequences, including; the worsening of lung function decline, increasing risk of acute exacerbations of COPD, increased risk of developing pneumonia, reduced health related quality of life, and an increase in all-cause mortality.
• Males and females ≥40 to ≤80 years of age
• Subject is able to read, understand, and sign a written Informed Consent in order to participate in the Study
• Subject has a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis (CB) and/or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for a minimum of two years. (Chronic Bronchitis is defined clinically as chronic productive cough for 3 months in each of 2 successive years in a patient in whom other causes of productive cough have been excluded)
• Subject is classified as having a moderate or severe (GOLD 2/3) airflow obstruction defined by a post-bronchodilator of ≥30% FEV1 to <80% predicted with a baseline FEV1/FVC of <0.70
• Subject has a Baseline SGRQ of ≥50
• Subject demonstrates daily cough and significant mucus.
• Subject is being treated according to current medically accepted treatment guidelines for chronic bronchitis for minimum of 3 months prior to enrollment into the study. Subject agrees to continue maintenance pulmonary/COPD medications (GOLD standard medications recommended) for the duration of the study
• Non-smoking for a minimum of 2 months prior to consent and agrees to continue not smoking for the duration of the study
• Subject is able to adhere to and undergo 2 bronchoscopic procedures (cross over subjects may undergo two additional bronchoscopic procedures, if they agree to treatment), per hospital guidelines
• Subject demonstrates ability and willingness to use a daily eDiary Exclusion Criteria
• Subject has had an acute pulmonary infection, exacerbation or pneumonia requiring medical treatment (with antibiotics and/or steroids) within 4 weeks prior of initially planned study bronchoscopy
• Current diagnosis of Asthma
• Subject has Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as defined by blood level <59 mg/dL
• Subject has other origins of respiratory disease aside from chronic bronchitis and COPD
• Subject is using e-cigarettes, vaping or taking any inhaled substances not prescribed by a physician
• Subject has untreatable or life threatening arrhythmias, inability to adequately oxygenate during the bronchoscopy, or has acute respiratory failure
• Subject has bullous emphysema characterized as large bullae >30 millimeters on HRCT; or subject has stenosis in the tracheobronchial system, tracheobronchomegaly, trachea-bronchomalacia, amyloidosis or cystic fibrosis
• Subject has clinically significant bronchiectasis
• Subject has had a solid transplant procedure
• Subject has a known mucosal tear, has undergone prior lung surgery such as pneumonectomy, lobectomy, bullectomy, or lung volume reduction surgery
• Subject has had a prior lung device procedure, including emphysema stent(s) implanted, lung coils, valves, lung denervation, bronchial thermoplasty, cryotherapy or other therapies
• Subject is unable to temporarily discontinue use of anticoagulant therapy: warfarin, Coumadin, LMWH, heparin, clopidrogel (or equal)
• Subject has a serious medical condition, such as: uncontrolled coagulopathy or bleeding disorder, congestive heart failure, uncontrolled angina, myocardial infarction in the past year, renal failure, liver disease, cerebrovascular accident within the past 6 months, uncontrolled diabetes, uncontrolled hypertension or uncontrolled gastric reflux
• Subject is pregnant, nursing, or planning to get pregnant during study duration
• Subject has or is receiving chemotherapy or active radiation therapy within the past 6 months or is expected to receive chemotherapy during participation in this study
• Subject is or has been in another treatment study within 6 weeks of enrollment and agrees to not participate in any other treatment studies for the duration of study participation
• Subject has known sensitivity to medication required to perform bronchoscopy (such as lidocaine, atropine, and benzodiazepines)
Study to Investigate the Safety of the Transplantation of Human Glial Restricted Progenitor Cells Into Subjects With Transverse Myelitis
This study is a non-randomized, open-label, partially blinded, sequential cohort, dose-escalation study designed to obtain preliminary data on the safety, tolerability, and early activity of Q-Cells® transplantation in subjects with Transverse Myelitis. For each of the dose levels, transplantation of Q-Cells® unilaterally into spinal cord demyelinated lesions will be evaluated. Subjects will be blinded to side of treatment. Idiopathic Transverse Myelitis is a monophasic disorder characterized predominantly by demyelination. Patients are left with disability from damage to ascending and descending white matter tracts. Q-Cells® are comprised of glial progenitor cells.It is postulated that the Q-Cells® glial progeny (healthy astrocytes and oligodendrocytes) will integrate into the spinal cord lesion site and remyelinate demyelinated axons as well as provide trophic support for damaged axons. Therefore, Q-Cells® have the potential to repair damage that has occurred and could be clinically useful for patients with disability caused by TM. The study is planned to enroll up to 9 subjects. Each subject will be followed for 9 months after transplantation of Q-Cells®. Each subject will receive a single time point administration of Q-Cells®: with transplantation foci targeted to posterior columns in the spinal cord (all transplantation foci below C7) on one side. Study participation consists of Screening, Pre-operative/Treatment, and Post-treatment study periods that will generally last from 9 to 12 months in total. The study data will be assessed for safety and activity until the last subject has completed the 9-month study visit. Following completion of the 9-month follow-up period, subjects who consent will continue to be followed for safety and activity in a separate long-term follow-up protocol.
• Ability to understand the purpose and risks of the study and provide signed and dated informed consent and authorization to collect and use protected health information (PHI) in accordance with national and local subject privacy regulations.
• Live within reasonable travel distance to center or have reliable mechanism to travel to the center.
• Have a caregiver willing/able to assist in the transportation and care required by study participation.
• Subject is 18 - 70 years of age (inclusive) on day of Screening Visit.
• Subject is diagnosed with idiopathic TM within the past 120 months in accord with the Transverse Myelitis Consortium Working Group (2002).
• Subject has a MRI with a single focus of T2 hyperintensity that is 4 to 10 cm in length if no post contrast enhancement seen, or a single focus T1 post contrast enhancing lesion of 4 to 10 cm, with its most rostral extent at or below C8 myotome/dermatome level.
• Subject has negative NMO IgG (anti-AQP4) test at two separate time points, separated by at least 6 months.
• Subject has brain MRI not consistent with multiple sclerosis or other autoimmune or demyelinating disease.
• Subject is more than 12 months from TM onset.
• Subject has ASIA A categorization.
• Subject's neurological deficits related to TM have been stable for at least 3 months.
• Subject is medically able to undergo the study procedures and physically able to adhere to the visit schedule at the time of study entry.
• For women of child bearing capacity, negative pregnancy test during the Screening Period and at the Pre-Operative Visit.
• Males and females will agree to practice effective birth control during study participation and up to one year after.
• Subject with causes of weakness, sensory loss and/or autonomic dysfunction other than TM have not been practically excluded.
• Subject with significant cognitive impairment, clinical dementia, or major psychiatric illness including psychosis, bipolar disease, major depression, as determined by the DSM-V.
• Subject with a diagnosis of a neurodegenerative disease (e.g., ALS, Parkinson's disease, Alzheimer's disease).
• Subject suffering with medical conditions that impair nerve or muscle function (e.g., notable peripheral neuropathy, metabolic muscle disease) or any disease or condition that would impair the subject's neuromuscular function or impair the adequate assessment of the subject's function (e.g., severe osteoarthritis).
• Subject with a clinically significant history of unstable cardiac, pulmonary, renal, hepatic, endocrine, hematologic, or active malignancy or infectious disease or other medically significant illness that may render them at an unacceptable risk for surgery or that may cause them to be unable to complete the scheduled duration of the trial.
• History of spine surgery or anatomic variation incompatible with route of administration (as determined by neurosurgeon).
• Severe spinal stenosis or cord compression causing myelopathy.
• Abnormal flow voids on the surface of the spinal cord suggestive of arteriovenous malformation (AVM) or evidence of a vascular cause of a myelopathy (e.g., infarct of spinal artery).
• Any evidence of CNS malignancy or clinically significant CNS lesions as defined by imaging studies of the CNS (MRI of brain and spinal cord).
• Uncontrolled hypertension (Systolic BP>180mmHg and/or Diastolic BP >110mmHg).
• Any history of thrombotic or embolic events.
• Any poorly controlled medical conditions that, in the opinion of the site investigator and/or surgeon, increase risk of surgery to a medically unacceptable degree.
• Subjects who cannot undergo MRI examination because of any contraindication to the procedure, including the presence of a pacemaker, an implanted defibrillator or certain other implanted electronic or metallic devices, or who have been or might have been exposed to metal fragments, or any reason the subject cannot undergo an MRI routinely for the duration of the trial.
• Subject with clinically significant abnormal clinical laboratory values, as determined by the Investigator at the screening visit (Visit 1).
• Subject who is immune compromised (by therapeutic agent or disease) or who has a condition contraindicated to treatment with immunosuppression agents (e.g., tuberculosis, latent infection) as determined by history or testing. Any subject with an ongoing infection until it has been adequately treated and it is deemed to be resolved.
• Subject with aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or alanine aminotransferase (ALT) value >3.0 times the upper limit of normal at the screening visit (Visit 1).
• Subject with diabetes or HgbA1c > 6.5
• Subject with a history of alcohol or drug abuse or dependence within 1 year of screening visit (Visit 1), per DSM-V criteria.
• Subject unlikely to comply with study requirements, as determined by Investigator.
• Subject who has been exposed to any other experimental agent (off-label use or investigational) within 60 days of screening visit (Visit 1). Biologic agents may need additional time for washout and will be evaluated by the Sponsor on a case-by-case basis.
• Subject with pre-existing anti-human leukocyte antigen (HLA) class I or class II antibodies directed against the Q-Cells®, as determined by panel reactive antibody (PRA) assay.
• Allergy to study treatment or any of its constituents (e.g., chicken eggs), or allergy to any of the co-administered immunosuppressants or any of their excipients.
• Subject with any medical condition or using concomitant medication that would contraindicate the use of tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, or prednisone as determined by Investigator.
• Subject has undergone stem cell transplantation (including T-cell or bone marrow transplants) at any time prior to study (within or outside the US).
• Subject with evidence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by venous ultrasound or any previous evidence of DVT.
• Subject has recent (1 year) or recurrent history of gastrointestinal bleeding or peptic ulcer disease or is under active treatment to prevent recurrence.
• Subject with estimated glomerular filtration rate at screening of less than 60 mL/min/1.73m2.
• Subjects with hereditary deficiency of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl-transferase (HGPRT) such as Lesch-Nyhan and Kelley-Seegmiller syndrome.
• Vaccination with live virus within 6 weeks of screening.
• History or evidence of optic neuritis.
• Any reason, in the judgment of the investigator, which would make the subject inappropriate for entry into this trial.
Testing the Effect of Taking Ruxolitinib and CPX-351 in Combination for the Treatment of Advanced Phase Myeloproliferative Neoplasms
This phase I/II trial studies the best dose of ruxolitinib when given together with CPX-351 and to see how well they work in treating patients with accelerated phase or blast phase myeloproliferative neoplasm. Ruxolitinib may stop the growth of cancer cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. CPX-351 is a mixture of 2 chemotherapy drugs (daunorubicin and cytarabine) given for leukemia in small fat-based particles (liposomes) to improve the drug getting into cancer cells. Giving ruxolitinib and CPX-351 may work better in treating patients with secondary acute myeloid leukemia compared to CPX-351 alone.
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0 to 2
• Participants eligible for this study have either MPN in accelerated phase (AP) or blast phase (BP), defined as:
• MPN-AP is defined by 10% to 19% blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow
• MPN-BP is defined by >= 20% blasts in the blood or bone marrow
• Either MPN-AP or MPN-BP requires a previous diagnosis of polycythemia vera (PV), essential thrombocythemia (ET), or primary myelofibrosis (PMF)
• Participants with ET, PV, or MF that have received prior MPN-associated therapy (e.g., hydroxyurea, hypomethylating agents [azacitidine, decitabine], anti-platelet therapies [e.g., aspirin, anagrelide], as well as JAK2 inhibitor therapy [e.g., ruxolitinib or other investigational JAK2 inhibitor]) are eligible
• Female participants of childbearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (2 forms of contraception or abstinence) from the screening visit until 30 days following the last dose of study treatment. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she or her partner is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately
• Male participants of childbearing potential having intercourse with females of childbearing potential must agree to abstain from heterosexual intercourse or have their partner use 2 forms of contraception from the screening visit until 90 days until the last dose of study treatment. They must also refrain from sperm donation from the screening visit until 90 days following the last dose of study treatment
• Left ventricular ejection fraction at >= 50% as measured by echocardiogram (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA) scan (14 days prior to initiating study treatment)
• Candidate for cytotoxic-intensive induction chemotherapy
• Willing to take oral medication
• Serum creatinine =< 2 x the upper limit of normal (ULN), or glomerular filtration rate > 20 ml/min/1.73m^2 as calculated by Cockcroft-Gault formula
• Serum potassium, magnesium, and calcium (corrected for albumin) within institutional normal limits or can be corrected with supplementation
• Total serum bilirubin =< 2.5 x ULN
• Serum aspartate transaminase (AST) and/or alanine transaminase (ALT) =< 2.5 x ULN
• Ongoing participation in another clinical trial
• Isolated myeloid sarcoma (i.e., participants must have blood or marrow involvement with AML to enter the study)
• Acute promyelocytic leukemia (French-American-British [FAB] M3 classification)
• Active central nervous system (CNS) involvement by AML
• Current treatment or treatment within 2 weeks or 5 half-lives (whichever is longer) prior to the first dose of study medication with another investigational medication or current enrollment in another investigational drug protocol (unless there is evidence of rapidly progressive disease in which case a shorter interval from last therapy may be acceptable)
• Any unresolved toxicity equal to or greater than grade 2 from previous anticancer therapy, except for stable chronic toxicities not expected to resolve, such as peripheral neurotoxicity
• Incomplete recovery from any prior surgical procedures or had surgery within 4 weeks prior to study entry, excluding the placement of vascular access
• Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy with active bleeding or signs of thrombosis
• Participants with rapidly progressive disease (defined by blast count doubling within 48 hours) or organ dysfunction that would prevent them from receiving these agents
• Participants with uncontrolled infection will not be enrolled until infection is treated and symptoms controlled
• Participants with an infection receiving treatment (antibiotic, antifungal or antiviral treatment) may be entered into the study but must be afebrile and hemodynamically stable for >= 72 hours (hrs)
• Known hypersensitivity to ruxolitinib, cytarabine, daunorubicin, or liposomal products
• History of Wilson's disease or other copper metabolism disorder
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness or any concurrent condition that, in the investigator's opinion, would jeopardize the safety of the participant or compliance with the protocol per investigator's discretion. Including, but not limited to, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, serious cardiac arrhythmia, myocardial infarction within 6 months prior to enrollment, New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV heart failure, severe uncontrolled ventricular arrhythmias
• Participants with prior cumulative anthracycline exposure of greater than 368 mg/m^2 daunorubicin (or equivalent)
• All participants must discontinue anti-platelet agents or anticoagulants prior to initiation of study drug, including therapeutic doses of aspirin and clopidogrel
Study of Efficacy and Safety of Tisagenlecleucel in HR B-ALL EOC MRD Positive Patients (CASSIOPEIA)
This is a single arm, open-label, multi-center, phase II study to determine the efficacy and safety of tisagenlecleucel in de novo HR pediatric and young adult B-ALL patients who received first-line treatment and are EOC MRD positive. The study will have the following sequential phases: screening, pre-treatment, treatment & follow-up, and survival. After tisagenlecleucel infusion, patient will have assessments performed more frequently in the first month and then at Day 29, then every 3 months for the first year, every 6 months for the second year, then yearly until the end of the study. Efficacy and safety will be assessed at study visits and as clinically indicated throughout the study. The study is expected to end in approximately 8 years after first patient first treatment (FPFT). A post-study long term follow-up safety will continue under a separate protocol per health authority guidelines.
• CD19 expressing B-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
• De novo NCI HR B-ALL who received first-line treatment and are MRD ≥ 0.01% at EOC. EOC bone marrow MRD will be collected prior to screening and will be assessed by multi-parameter flow cytometry using central laboratory analysis.
• Age 1 to 25 years at the time of screening
• Lansky (age < 16 years) or Karnofsky (age ≥ 16 years) performance status ≥ 60%
• Adequate organ function during the screening period: A. Renal function based on age/gender B. ALT ≤ 5 times ULN for age C. AST ≤ 5 times ULN for age D. Total bilirubin < 2 mg/dL (for Gilbert's Syndrome subjects total bilirubin < 4 mg/dL) E. Adequate pulmonary function defined as:
• no or mild dyspnea (≤ Grade 1)
• oxygen saturation of > 90% on room air F. Adequate cardiac function defined as LVSF ≥ 28% confirmed by echocardiogram or LVEF ≥ 45% confirmed by echocardiogram or MUGA within 6 weeks of screening
• Prior induction and consolidation chemotherapy allowed: 1st line subjects: ≤ 3 blocks of standard chemotherapy for first-line B-ALL, defined as 4-drug induction, Berlin-Frankfurt-Münster (BFM) consolidation or Phase 1b, and interim maintenance with high-dose methotrexate.
• M3 marrow at the completion of 1st line induction therapy
• M2 or M3 marrow or persistent extramedullary disease at the completion of first-line consolidation therapy or evidence of disease progression in the peripheral blood or new extramedullary disease prior to enrollment. Patients with previous CNS disease are eligible if there is no active CNS involvement of leukemia at the time of screening.
• Philadelphia chromosome positive ALL
• Hypodiploid: less than 44 chromosomes and/or DNA index < 0.81, or other clear evidence of a hypodiploid clone
• Prior tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy
• Subjects with concomitant genetic syndromes associated with bone marrow failure states: such as subjects with Fanconi anemia, Kostmann syndrome, Shwachman syndrome or any other known bone marrow failure syndrome. Subjects with Down syndrome will not be excluded.
• Subjects with Burkitt's lymphoma/leukemia (i.e. subjects with mature B-ALL, leukemia with B-cell [sIg positive and kappa or lambda restricted positivity] ALL, with FAB L3 morphology and /or a MYC translocation)
• Has had treatment with any prior anti-CD19 therapy 9. Treatment with any prior gene or engineered T cell therapy Other protocol-defined inclusion/exclusion may apply.
A Study of the Drugs Selumetinib Versus Carboplatin/Vincristine in Patients With Neurofibromatosis and Low-Grade Glioma
This phase III trial studies if selumetinib works just as well as the standard treatment with carboplatin/vincristine (CV) for subjects with NF1-associated low grade glioma (LGG), and to see if selumetinib is better than CV in improving vision in subjects with LGG of the optic pathway (vision nerves). Selumetinib is a drug that works by blocking some enzymes that low-grade glioma tumor cells need for their growth. This results in killing tumor cells. Drugs used as chemotherapy, such as carboplatin and vincristine, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. It is not yet known whether selumetinib works better in treating patients with NF1-associated low-grade glioma compared to standard therapy with carboplatin and vincristine.
• Patients must be >= 2 years and =< 21 years at the time of enrollment
• Patients must have a body surface area (BSA) of >= 0.5 m^2 at enrollment
• Patients must have neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) based on clinical criteria and/or germline genetic testing
• Patients must be newly diagnosed or have previously diagnosed NF-1 associated LGG that has not been treated with any modality other than surgery
• For patients with optic pathway gliomas (OPGs):
• Newly-diagnosed patients with OPG are eligible if there are neurologic symptoms (including visual dysfunction, as defined below) or other exam findings associated with the tumor
• Previously-diagnosed patients with OPG are eligible if they have new or worsening neurologic symptoms (including visual dysfunction, as defined below) or have tumor growth
• For both newly-diagnosed and previously-diagnosed OPG, the patient may be eligible, irrespective of whether there has been tumor growth or other neurological symptoms or worsening, if they meet at least one of the following visual criteria:
• Visual worsening, defined as worsening of visual acuity (VA) or visual fields (VF) documented within the past year (by examination or history); OR
• Significant visual dysfunction (defined as VA worse than normal for age by
• 6 logMAR [20/80, 6/24, or 2.5/10] or more in one or both eyes)
• For patients with LGG in other locations (i.e., not OPGs):
• Newly-diagnosed patients with LGG are eligible if there are neurologic symptoms or other exam findings associated with the tumor
• NOTE: Newly-diagnosed patients with LGG without associated neurologic symptoms or exam findings are not eligible
• Previously-diagnosed patients with LGG are eligible if they have new or worsening neurologic symptoms or have tumor growth
• Although not required, if a biopsy/tumor resection is performed, eligible histologies will include all tumors considered LGG or low-grade astrocytoma (World Health Organization [WHO] grade I and II) by 5th edition WHO classification of central nervous system (CNS) tumors with the exception of subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
• Patients must have two-dimensional measurable tumor >= 1 cm^2
• Patients with metastatic disease or multiple independent primary LGGs are allowed on study
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration Rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 OR a serum creatinine based on age/gender (within 7 days prior to enrollment) as follows:
• Age; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL)
• 2 to < 6 years; 0.8 (male) and 0.8 (female)
• 6 to < 10 years; 1 (male) and 1 (female)
• 10 to < 13 years; 1.2 (male) and 1.2 (female)
• 13 to < 16 years; 1.5 (male) and 1.4 (female)
• >= 16 years; 1.7 (male) and 1.4 (female)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment) (children with a diagnosis of Gilbert's syndrome will be allowed on study regardless of their total and indirect [unconjugated] bilirubin levels as long as their direct [conjugated] bilirubin is < 3.1 mg/dL)
• Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) =< 3 x upper limit of normal (ULN) = 135 U/L (within 7 days prior to enrollment). For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L
• Albumin >= 2 g/dL (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) >= 53% (or institutional normal; if the LVEF result is given as a range of values, then the upper value of the range will be used) by echocardiogram (within 4 weeks prior to enrollment)
• Corrected QT (QTc) interval =< 450 msec by electrocardiography (EKG) (within 4 weeks prior to enrollment)
• Absolute neutrophil count >= 1,000/uL (unsupported) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Platelets >= 100,000/uL (unsupported) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Hemoglobin >= 8 g/dL (may be supported) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients with a known seizure disorder should be stable and should have not experienced a significant increase in seizure frequency within 2 weeks prior to enrollment
• Patients 2-17 years of age must have a blood pressure that is =< 95th percentile for age, height, and gender at the time of enrollment. Patients >= 18 years of age must have a blood pressure =< 130/80 mmHg at the time of enrollment (with or without the use of antihypertensive medications).
• Note: Adequate blood pressure can be achieved using medication for the treatment of hypertension
• All patients must have ophthalmology toxicity assessments performed within 4 weeks prior to enrollment
• For all patients, an MRI of the brain (with orbital cuts for optic pathway tumors) and/or spine (depending on the site(s) of primary disease) with and without contrast must be performed within 4 weeks prior to enrollment
• For patients who undergo a surgery on the target tumor (not required), a pre- and post-operative* MRI of the brain (with orbital cuts for optic pathway tumors) or spine (depending on the site(s) of primary disease) with and without contrast must also be performed within 4 weeks prior to enrollment
• The post-operative MRIs should be performed ideally within 48 hours after surgery if possible
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2. Use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age
• Patients must have the ability to swallow whole capsules
• Patients must have receptive and expressive language skills in English or Spanish to complete the quality of life (QOL) and neurocognitive assessments
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent.
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met.
• Patients must not have received any prior tumor-directed therapy including chemotherapy, radiation therapy, immunotherapy, or bone marrow transplant. Prior surgical intervention is permitted
• Patients with a concurrent malignancy or history of treatment (other than surgery) for another tumor within the last year are ineligible
• Patients may not be receiving any other investigational agents
• Patients with any serious medical or psychiatric illness/ condition, including substance use disorders likely in the judgement of the investigator to interfere or limit compliance with study requirements/treatment are not eligible
• Patients who, in the opinion of the investigator, are not able to comply with the study procedures are not eligible
• Female patients who are pregnant are not eligible since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants are not eligible
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation and for 12 weeks after stopping study therapy are not eligible
• Note: Women of child-bearing potential and males with sexual partners who are pregnant or who could become pregnant (i.e., women of child-bearing potential) should use effective methods of contraception for the duration of the study and for 12 weeks after stopping study therapy to avoid pregnancy and/or potential adverse effects on the developing embryo
• Cardiac conditions:
• Known genetic disorder that increases risk for coronary artery disease. Note: The presence of dyslipidemia in a family with a history of myocardial infarction is not in itself an exclusion unless there is a known genetic disorder documented
• Symptomatic heart failure
• New York Heart Association (NYHA) class II-IV prior or current cardiomyopathy
• Severe valvular heart disease
• History of atrial fibrillation
• Ophthalmologic conditions:
• Current or past history of central serous retinopathy
• Current or past history of retinal vein occlusion or retinal detachment
• Patients with uncontrolled glaucoma
• If checking pressure is clinically indicated, patients with intraocular pressure (IOP) > 22 mmHg or ULN adjusted by age are not eligible
• Ophthalmological findings secondary to long-standing optic pathway glioma (such as visual loss, optic nerve pallor, or strabismus) or longstanding orbito-temporal plexiform neurofibroma (PN), such as visual loss, strabismus) will NOT be considered a significant abnormality for the purposes of the study
• Treatments and/or medications patient is receiving that would make her/him ineligible, such as:
• Supplementation with vitamin E greater than 100% of the daily recommended dose. Any multivitamin containing vitamin E must be stopped prior to study enrollment even if less than 100% of the daily recommended dosing for vitamin E
• Surgery within 2 weeks prior to enrollment, with the exception of surgical placement for vascular access or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) diverting procedures such as endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV) and ventriculo-peritoneal (VP) shunt.
• Note: Patients must have healed from any prior surgery prior to enrollment
• Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
Testing the Effectiveness of Two Immunotherapy Drugs (Nivolumab and Ipilimumab) With One Anti-cancer Targeted Drug (Cabozantinib) for Rare Genitourinary Tumors
This phase II trial studies how well cabozantinib works in combination with nivolumab and ipilimumab in treating patients with rare genitourinary (GU) tumors that that has spread from where it first started (primary site) to other places in the body. Cabozantinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as nivolumab and ipilimumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Giving cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab may work better in treating patients with genitourinary tumors that have no treatment options compared to giving cabozantinib, nivolumab, or ipilimumab alone.
• Metastatic disease defined as new or progressive lesions on cross-sectional imaging or bone scan. Patients must have at least:
• One measurable site of disease as per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) version (v) 1.1
• One bone lesion on bone scan (tec99 or sodium fluoride [NaF] PET/CT, CT or MRI) for the bone-only cohort.
• Histologically confirmed diagnosis of one of the following metastatic cohorts:
• Small cell/ neuroendocrine carcinoma of the bladder- All urothelial carcinomas with any amount of neuroendocrine differentiation (including small cell differentiation) will be included. If the tumor is purely neuroendocrine, metastasis from another site of origin should be clinically excluded
• Adenocarcinoma of the bladder, or urachal adenocarcinoma, or bladder/urethra clear cell adenocarcinoma - must be pure (per World Health Organization [WHO] definition), (i.e. urothelial carcinoma with glandular differentiation is not considered a pure adenocarcinoma
• Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder - must be pure (i.e. urothelial carcinoma with squamous differentiation is not considered a pure squamous cell carcinoma)
• Plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma - Tumor should show predominantly > or equal ~ 50% plasmacytoid histology (including all types of discohesive growth, such as tumors with signet-ring and/or rhabdoid features as well)
• Any penile cancer
• Sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma - Tumor should be predominantly sarcomatoid ~ 50% (including rhabdoid differentiation) is also unclassified renal cell carcinomas (RCCs): all (assuming they are high grade with metastasis) malignant angiomyolipomas are allowed
• Sarcomatoid urothelial carcinoma - Tumor should show predominantly ~ 50% sarcomatoid differentiation
• Renal medullary carcinoma - Per WHO definition, ideally confirmed with immunostains
• Renal collecting duct carcinoma - Per WHO definition (medullary involvement, predominant tubular morphology, desmoplastic stromal reaction, high grade cytology, infiltrative growth pattern, and absence of other renal cell carcinoma subtype or urothelial carcinoma)
• Bone only urothelial carcinoma or other non-prostate GU tumor
• Urethra carcinoma- May be of any histology but if urothelial carcinoma then must be isolated to the urethra and not have metachronous or synchronous urothelial carcinoma of the bladder
• Other miscellaneous histologic variants of the urothelial carcinoma, such as, but not limited to : micropapillary (Tumor should show predominantly > or equal 50% micropapillary architecture), giant cell, lipid-rich, clear cell and nested variants (Tumor should predominantly > or equal 50% show these features), large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma, lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma and mixed patterns will be considered, as well as small cell neuroendocrine prostate cancer (Only treatment-naïve primary small cell of prostate with any amount of small cell component allowed. Post-treatment small cell prostatic carcinomas are not allowed), Malignant testicular Sertoli or Leydig cell tumors, and papillary and chromophobe RCC
• Note: Translocation positive renal cell carcinoma patients are eligible. However, AREN1721 should be considered before this trial
• Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) slides from diagnostic tumor tissue for retrospective central pathology review
• Patients may have received up to 2 systemic anti-cancer treatments or be treatment naive. Patients with small cell carcinoma should have received a platinum-based combination regimen either as neoadjuvant, adjuvant or first-line treatment). Patients in the bone-only cohort may be urothelial carcinoma histology but must receive standard cisplatin-based chemotherapy (if cisplatin-eligible)
• Age >= 18 years
• Patients must be able to swallow oral formulation of the tablets
• Karnofsky performance status >= 80%
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mcL
• Platelet count >= 75,000/mcL
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN). For subjects with known Gilbert's disease or similar syndrome with slow conjugation of bilirubin, total bilirubin =< 3.0 mg/dL
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 3.0 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (or =< 5 x ULN for patients with liver metastases or Gilbert's disease)
• Creatinine =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) OR creatinine clearance >= 40 mL/min/1.73 m^2 (calculated using the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology [CKD-EPI] equation or Cockcroft-Gault formula) for patients with creatinine levels above institutional normal
• Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL (transfusion of packed red blood cells [PRBCs] allowed)
• Serum albumin >= 3.2 g/dL
• Lipase and amylase =< 2.0 x ULN and no radiologic (on baseline anatomical imaging) or clinical evidence of pancreatitis
• Prior treatment with MET or VEGFR inhibitors is allowed. However, prior cabozantinib will not be allowed. Also, patients that have received both prior MET or VEGF and prior PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 (sequentially or in combination) are also not allowed
• Prior treatment with any therapy on the PD-1/PD-L1 axis or anti- CTLA-4/CTLA-4 inhibitors is allowed, either in the perioperative or in the metastatic setting. However, patients that have received both prior MET or VEGF and prior PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 (sequentially or in combination) are not allowed
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients are eligible if on stable dose of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART), no clinically significant drug-drug interactions are anticipated with the current HAART regimen, CD4 counts are greater than 350 and viral load is undetectable
• Patients with rheumatoid arthritis and other rheumatologic arthropathies, Sjogren's syndrome and psoriasis controlled with topical medication only and patients with positive serology, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-thyroid antibodies etc. are eligible but should be considered for rheumatologic evaluation for the presence of target organ involvement and potential need for systemic treatment
• Patients with vitiligo, endocrine deficiencies including thyroiditis managed with replacement hormones or medications (e.g. thyroiditis managed with propylthiouracil [PTU] or methimazole) including physiologic oral corticosteroids are eligible
• Patients who have evidence of active or acute diverticulitis, intra-abdominal abscess, and gastrointestinal (GI) obstruction, within 12 months are not eligible
• Women of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test =< 7 days prior to registration
• Women of childbearing potential include women who have experienced menarche and who have not undergone successful surgical sterilization (hysterectomy, bilateral tubal ligation, or bilateral oophorectomy) or are not postmenopausal. Post menopause is defined as amenorrhea >= 12 consecutive months. Note: women who have been amenorrheic for 12 or more months are still considered to be of childbearing potential if the amenorrhea is possibly due to prior chemotherapy, antiestrogens, ovarian suppression or any other reversible reason
• Pregnant women may not participate in this study because with cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab have potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with these agents
• The patient has received no cytotoxic chemotherapy (including investigational cytotoxic chemotherapy) or biologic agents (e.g., cytokines or antibodies) within 2 weeks before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no radiation therapy:
• To the lungs and mediastinum or abdomen within 4 weeks before the first dose of study treatment, or has ongoing complications, or is healing from prior radiation therapy
• To brain metastasis within 3 weeks for whole-brain radiotherapy (WBXRT), and 2 weeks for stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT) before the first dose of study treatment
• To the abdomen within 4 weeks before the first dose of study treatment, or has ongoing complications, or is healing from prior radiation therapy
• To any other site(s) within 2 weeks before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no radionuclide treatment within 6 weeks of the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no prior treatment with a small molecule kinase inhibitor within 14 days or five half-lives of the compound or active metabolites, whichever is longer, before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no prior treatment with hormonal therapy within 14 days or five half-lives of the compound or active metabolites, whichever is longer, before the first dose of study treatment. Subjects receiving gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists and antagonists are allowed to participate
• The patient has not received any other type of investigational agent within 14 days before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient must have recovered to baseline or Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) =< grade 1 from toxicity due to all prior therapies except alopecia, neuropathy and other non-clinically significant adverse events (AEs) defined as lab elevation with no associated symptoms or sequelae
• The patient may not have active brain metastases or epidural disease. Patients with brain metastases previously treated with whole brain radiation or radiosurgery who are asymptomatic and do not require steroid treatment for at least 2 weeks before starting study treatment are eligible. Neurosurgical resection of brain metastases or brain biopsy is permitted if completed at least 3 months before starting study treatment. Baseline brain imaging with contrast-enhanced CT or MRI scans for subjects with known brain metastases is required to confirm eligibility
• No concomitant treatment with warfarin. Aspirin (up to 325 mg/day), thrombin or factor Xa inhibitors, low-dose warfarin (=< 1 mg/day), prophylactic and therapeutic low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) are permitted
• No chronic concomitant treatment with strong CYP3A4 inducers (e.g., dexamethasone, phenytoin, carbamazepine, rifampin, rifabutin, rifapentine, phenobarbital, and St. John's wort) or strong CYP3A4 inhibitors
• Because the lists of these agents are constantly changing, it is important to regularly consult medical reference texts such as the Physicians' Desk Reference may also provide this information. As part of the enrollment/informed consent procedures, the patient will be counseled on the risk of interactions with other agents, and what to do if new medications need to be prescribed or if the patient is considering a new over-the-counter medicine or herbal product
• The patient has not experienced any of the following:
• Clinically-significant gastrointestinal bleeding within 6 months before the first dose of study treatment
• Hemoptysis of >= 0.5 teaspoon (2.5 mL) of red blood per day within 1 months before the first dose of study treatment
• Any other signs indicative of pulmonary hemorrhage within 3 months before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has no tumor invading any major blood vessels
• The patient has no evidence of tumor invading the GI tract (esophagus, stomach, small or large bowel, rectum or anus), or any evidence of endotracheal or endobronchial tumor within 28 days before the first dose of cabozantinib. Patients with rectal tumor masses are not eligible
• The patient has no uncontrolled, significant intercurrent or recent illness including, but not limited to, the following conditions:
• Cardiovascular disorders including:
• Congestive heart failure (CHF): New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III (moderate) or class IV (severe) at the time of screening.
• Concurrent uncontrolled hypertension defined as sustained blood pressure (BP) > 150 mm Hg systolic, or > 90 mm Hg diastolic despite optimal antihypertensive treatment within 7 days of the first dose of study treatment
• The subject has a corrected QT interval calculated by the Fridericia formula (QTcF) > 500 ms within 28 days before randomization. Note: if initial QTcF is found to be > 500 ms, two additional electrocardiograms (EKGs) separated by at least 3 minutes should be performed. If the average of these three consecutive results for QTcF is =< 500 ms, the subject meets eligibility in this regard
• Any history of congenital long QT syndrome
• Any of the following within 6 months before registration of study treatment:
• Unstable angina pectoris
• Clinically-significant cardiac arrhythmias (patients with atrial fibrillation are eligible)
• Stroke (including transient ischemic attack [TIA], or other ischemic event)
• Myocardial infarction
• No significant gastrointestinal disorders particularly those associated with a high risk of perforation or fistula formation including:
• Any of the following that have not resolved within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment:
• Active peptic ulcer disease
• Acute diverticulitis, cholecystitis, symptomatic cholangitis or appendicitis, or malabsorption syndrome
• None of the following within 2 years before the first dose of study treatment:
• Abdominal fistula or genitourinary fistula
• Gastrointestinal perforation
• Bowel obstruction or gastric outlet obstruction
• Intra-abdominal abscess. Note: Complete resolution of an intra-abdominal abscess must be confirmed prior to initiating treatment with cabozantinib even if the abscess occurred more than 2 years before the first dose of study treatment
• Disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement are not eligible
• No other clinically significant disorders such as:
• Severe active infection requiring IV systemic treatment within 14 days before the first dose of study treatment
• Serious non-healing wound/ulcer/bone fracture within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment
• History of organ or allogeneic stem cell transplant
• Concurrent uncompensated hypothyroidism or thyroid dysfunction within 7 days before the first dose of study treatment (for asymptomatic patients with an elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], thyroid replacement may be initiated if clinically indicated without delaying the start of study treatment)
• No history of major surgery as follows:
• Major surgery within 3 months of the first dose of cabozantinib; however, if there were no wound healing complications, patients with rapidly growing aggressive cancers, may start as soon as 6 weeks if wound has completely healed post-surgery
• Minor surgery within 1 month of the first dose of cabozantinib if there were no wound healing complications or within 3 months of the first dose of cabozantinib if there were wound complications excluding core biopsies and mediport placement
• Complete wound healing from prior surgery must be confirmed before the first dose of cabozantinib irrespective of the time from surgery
• No history of severe hypersensitivity reaction to any monoclonal antibody
• No evidence of active malignancy, requiring systemic treatment within 2 years of registration
• No history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to cabozantinib, nivolumab, ipilimumab or other agents used in study
• No positive test for hepatitis B virus surface antigen (HBV sAg) or hepatitis C virus ribonucleic acid (HCV antibody) indicating acute or chronic infection. If HBV sAG is positive, subsequent ribonucleic acid (RNA) polymerase chain reaction (PCR) must be negative
• No patients with active autoimmune disease or history of autoimmune disease that might recur, which may affect vital organ function or require immune suppressive treatment including systemic corticosteroids. These include, but are not limited to patients with a history of immune related neurologic disease, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune (demyelinating) neuropathy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis; systemic autoimmune disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), connective tissue diseases, scleroderma, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), Crohn's, ulcerative colitis, hepatitis; and patients with a history of toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), Stevens-Johnson syndrome, or phospholipid syndrome should be excluded because of the risk of recurrence or exacerbation of disease
Lung-MAP: A Master Screening Protocol for Previously-Treated Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer
This screening and multi-sub-study randomized phase II/III trial will establish a method for genomic screening of similar large cancer populations followed by assigning and accruing simultaneously to a multi-sub-study hybrid Master Protocol (Lung-MAP). The type of cancer trait (biomarker) will determine to which sub-study, within this protocol, a participant will be assigned to compare new targeted cancer therapy, designed to block the growth and spread of cancer, or combinations to standard of care therapy with the ultimate goal of being able to approve new targeted therapies in this setting. In addition, the protocol includes non-match sub-studies which will include all screened patients not eligible for any of the biomarker-driven sub-studies.
• 1 Registration Step 0:
• Patients who need the fresh biopsy must also submit whole blood for ctDNA testing (see Section 15.3). These patients must be registered to Step 0 to obtain a patient ID number for the submission. Patients registered to Step 0 are not registered to the LUNGMAP protocol. To participate in LUNGMAP, patients must be registered to Step 1 after evaluation of patient eligibility, including tumor tissue adequacy, per protocol Section 5.1, Step
• Patients registered at Step 0 must use the same SWOG patient ID for registration at Step 1. Step 1:
• Patients must have pathologically proven non-small cell lung cancer (all histologic types) confirmed by tumor biopsy and/or fine-needle aspiration. Disease must be Stage IV as defined in Section 4.0, or recurrent. The primary diagnosis of non-small cell lung cancer should be established using the current WHO/IASLC-classification of Thoracic Malignancies. All histologies, including mixed, are allowed.
• Patients must either be eligible to be screened at progression on prior treatment or to be pre-screened prior to progression on current treatment. These criteria are:
• Screening at progression on prior treatment: To be eligible for screening at progression, patients must have received at least one line of systemic therapy for any stage of disease (Stages I-IV) and must have progressed during or following their most recent line of therapy.
• For patients whose prior systemic therapy was for Stage I-III disease only (i.e. patient has not received any treatment for Stage IV or recurrent disease), disease progression on platinum-based chemotherapy must have occurred within one year from the last date that patient received that therapy. For patients treated with consolidation anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 therapy for Stage III disease, disease progression on consolidation anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 therapy must have occurred within one year from the date or initiation of such therapy.
• For patients whose prior therapy was for Stage IV or recurrent disease, the patient must have received at least one line of a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen or anti-PD-1/PD-L1 therapy, alone or in combination (e.g. Nivolumab or Pembrolizumab).
• Pre-Screening prior to progression on current treatment: To be eligible for pre-screening, current treatment must be for Stage IV or recurrent disease and patient must have received at least one dose of the current regimen. Patients must have previously received or currently be receiving a platinum-based chemotherapy regimen or anti-PD-1/PD-L1 therapy, alone or in combination (e.g. Nivolumab or Pembrolizumab). Patients on first-line treatment are eligible upon receiving Cycle 1, Day 1 infusion. Note: Patients will not receive their sub-study assignment until they progress and the LUNGMAP Notice of Progression is submitted.
• Patients must have adequate tumor tissue available, defined as ≥ 20% tumor cells and ≥
• 2 mm3 tumor volume.
• The local interpreting pathologist must review the specimen.
• The pathologist must sign the LUNGMAP Local Pathology Review Form confirming tissue adequacy prior to Step 1 registration. Patients must agree to have this tissue submitted to Foundation Medicine for common broad platform CLIA biomarker profiling, PD-L1, and c-MET IHC (see Section 15.2). If archival tumor material is exhausted, then a new fresh tumor biopsy that is formalin-fixed and paraffin-embedded (FFPE) must be obtained. Patients who need the fresh biopsy must also submit whole peripheral blood for ctDNA testing. A tumor block or FFPE slides 4-5 microns thick must be submitted. Bone biopsies are not allowed. If FFPE slides are to be submitted, at least 12 unstained slides plus an H&E stained slide, or 13 unstained slides must be submitted. However, it is strongly recommended that 20 FFPE slides be submitted. Note: Previous next-generation DNA sequencing (NGS) will be repeated if done outside this study for sub-study assignment. Patients must agree to have any tissue that remains after testing retained for the use of sub-study Translational Medicine (TM) studies at the time of consent the patient is enrolled in.
• Patients with known EGFR sensitizing mutations, EGFR T790M mutation, ALK gene fusion, ROS 1 gene rearrangement, or BRAF V600E mutation are not eligible unless they have progressed following all standard of care targeted therapy. EGFR/ALK/ROS/BRAF testing is not required prior to Step 1 registration, as it is included in the Foundation One testing for screening/pre-screening.
• Patients must have Zubrod performance status 0-1 (see Section 10.2) documented within 28 days prior to Step 1 registration.
• Patients must be ≥ 18 years of age.
• Patients must also be offered participation in banking for future use of specimens as described in Section 15.0.
• Patients must be willing to provide prior smoking history as required on the LUNGMAP Onstudy Form.
• As a part of the OPEN registration process (see Section 13.4 for OPEN access instructions) the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system.
• Patients must be informed of the investigational nature of this study and must sign and give written informed consent in accordance with institutional and federal guidelines.
• U.S. patients who can complete the survey and the interview by telephone or email in English must be offered participation in the S1400GEN Survey Ancillary Study if local institution's policies allow participants to receive the Amazon gift card (see Sections 15.7 and 18.5). Patients at institutions that cannot offer the survey must still participate in the main study.
Stopping Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors in Affecting Treatment-Free Remission in Patients With Chronic Phase Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
This phase II trial studies how stopping tyrosine kinase inhibitors will affect treatment-free remission in patients with chronic myeloid leukemia in chronic phase. When the level of disease is very low, it's called molecular remission. TKIs are a type of medication that help keep this level low. However, after being in molecular remission for a specific amount of time, it may not be necessary to take tyrosine kinase inhibitors. It is not yet known whether stopping tyrosine kinase inhibitors will help patients with chronic myeloid leukemia in chronic phase continue or re-achieve molecular remission.
• Patient must have been diagnosed with CML-CP at < 18 years of age.
• Patient must have histologic verification of CML-CP at original diagnosis
• Patient must be in molecular remission (MR) with a BCR-ABL1 level of =< 0.01% BCR-ABL1 as measured using the International Scale (IS) by RQ-PCR for >= 2 consecutive years at the time of enrollment
• Please note: The lab evaluating disease status and molecular response for this study must be College of American Pathology (CAP) and/or Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified (United States [US] only), sites in other countries must be certified by their accredited authorities. All labs must use the International Scale guidelines with a sensitivity of detection assay =< 0.01% BCR-ABL1 and be able to report results in =< 2 weeks
• Patient must have received any TKI for a minimum of 3 consecutive years at time of enrollment
• Patient agrees to discontinue TKI therapy
• REGULATORY REQUIREMENTS
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
• ELIGIBILITY FOR PATIENT-REPORTED OUTCOMES (PROs):
• Age >= 8 years at the time of enrollment
• Ability to understand English or Spanish
• Cognitive ability to complete instruments according to the primary team
• ELIGIBILITY FOR AAML18P1 NEUROCOGNITIVE STUDY:
• Patient must be 5 years or older at the time of enrollment
• English-, French- or Spanish-speaking
• No known history of neurodevelopmental disorder prior to diagnosis of CML (e.g., Down syndrome, Fragile X, William syndrome, mental retardation)
• No significant visual or motor impairment that would prevent computer use or recognition of visual test stimuli
• Known T3151 mutation
• Additional clonal chromosomal abnormalities in Philadelphia chromosome (Ph) positive (+) cells at any time prior to enrollment that include "major route" abnormalities (second Ph, trisomy 8, isochromosome 17q, trisomy 19), complex karyotype or abnormalities of 3q26.2
• History of accelerated phase or blast crisis CML
• Female patients who are pregnant
• Lactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infants
• Female patients of childbearing potential are not eligible unless a negative pregnancy test result has been obtained
Testing Immunotherapy Versus Observation in Patients With HPV Throat Cancer
This phase III trials studies whether maintenance immunotherapy (nivolumab) following definitive treatment with radiation and chemotherapy (cisplatin) result in significant improvement in overall survival (time being alive) and progression-free survival (time being alive without cancer) for patients with intermediate risk human papillomavirus (HPV) positive oropharynx cancer (throat cancer) that has spread to nearby tissue or lymph nodes. Drugs used in chemotherapy such as cisplatin work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Radiation therapy uses high energy rays to kill tumor cells and shrink tumors. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as nivolumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. It is not yet known whether chemotherapy and radiation therapy followed by maintenance nivolumab therapy works better than chemotherapy and radiation therapy alone in treating patients with HPV positive oropharyngeal cancer.
• STEP 1: Age >= 18 years
• STEP 1: Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1.
• STEP 1: Patients must have oropharynx cancer (American Joint Committee on Cancer [AJCC] 8) that is p16-positive by immunohistochemistry OR p16 equivocal by IHC and HPV positive by in situ hybridization with the following criteria: >= 10 pack-years, stage T1-2N2-N3 or T3-4N0-3 (less than 10 pack-years is considered a non-smoker) OR < 10 pack-years, stage T4N0-N3 or T1-3N2-3
• STEP 1: Patients must not have known hypersensitivity to nivolumab or compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition.
• STEP 1: Patients with a history of allergic reactions attributed to platinum-based chemotherapy agents are excluded.
• STEP 1: Patients must not have had prior systemic therapy, radiation treatment or surgery for p16 positive oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (OPSCC).
• NOTE: Patients who had resection of T1 or T2 carcinoma with no radiation or chemotherapy are eligible if surgery was done 5 years prior to enrollment
• STEP 1: Patients must not have received previous irradiation for head and neck tumor, skull base, or brain tumors.
• STEP 1: Patients must not receive investigational agents within 4 weeks of enrollment or at any time while on study.
• STEP 1: Patients with evidence of distant metastases or leptomeningeal disease (LMD) are excluded.
• STEP 1: Patients with uncontrolled inter-current illnesses which in the opinion of the investigator will interfere with the ability to undergo therapy including chemotherapy are excluded.
• STEP 1: Patients with a history of prior or second malignancy are excluded, with the exception of curatively treated non-melanoma skin cancer, or curatively treated cervical cancer; additionally, patients curatively treated for malignancy who remain disease-free at > 2 years of follow up, are not excluded.
• STEP 1: Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1500/mm^3 (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to randomization).
• STEP 1: Hemoglobin (Hgb) >= 8.0 g/dL (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to randomization).
• STEP 1: Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to randomization).
• STEP 1: Creatinine clearance of >= 60 ml/min (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to randomization). Creatinine clearance may be measured or calculated. If calculating, creatinine clearance, use the Cockcroft-Gault formula.
• STEP 1: Total bilirubin within 1.5 times the normal limits (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to randomization).
• STEP 1: Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) or serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) within 2.0 times the normal limits (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to randomization).
• STEP 1: Alkaline phosphatase within 2.0 times the normal limits (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to randomization).
• STEP 1: Patients must not be pregnant or breast-feeding as chemotherapy, radiation, and immunotherapy may have possible teratogenicity effects; in addition, complications from pregnancy may interfere with the ability of patients to have an uninterrupted therapy. All patients of childbearing potential must have a blood test or urine study within 2 weeks prior to randomization to rule out pregnancy. A patient of childbearing potential is any female, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria: 1) has achieved menarche at some point, 2) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy or 3) has not been naturally postmenopausal (amenorrhea following cancer therapy does not rule out childbearing potential) for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months).
• STEP 1: Patients of childbearing potential must use an accepted and effective method of contraception or abstain from sexual intercourse for at least one week prior to the start of treatment, and continue for 5 months after the last dose of protocol treatment. Patients must also not donate ova during this same time period.
• STEP 1: Patients must have measurable disease
• STEP 1: Patients must have tumor measurements with CT of neck and CT of chest (or CT of neck and FDG PET/CT if standard of care) within 4 weeks prior to Step 1 randomization.
• STEP 1: Patients with active autoimmune disease or history of autoimmune disease that might recur, which may affect vital organ function or require immune suppressive treatment including systemic corticosteroids, should be excluded. These include but are not limited to patients with a history of immune related neurologic disease, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune (demyelinating) neuropathy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis; systemic autoimmune disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), connective tissue disease, scleroderma, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), Crohn's, ulcerative colitis, hepatitis; and patients with a history of toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), Stevens-Johnson syndrome, or phospholipid syndrome should be excluded because of the risk of recurrence or exacerbation of disease. Patients with vitiligo, endocrine deficiencies including thyroiditis managed with replacement hormones including physiologic corticosteroids are eligible. Patients with rheumatoid arthritis and other arthropathies, Sjogren's syndrome and psoriasis controlled with topical medication and patients with positive serology, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-thyroid antibodies should be evaluated for the presence of target organ involvement and potential need for systemic treatment but should otherwise be eligible.
• STEP 1: Patients are permitted to enroll if they have vitiligo, type I diabetes mellitus, residual hypothyroidism due to autoimmune condition only requiring hormone replacement, psoriasis not requiring systemic treatment, or conditions not expected to recur in the absence of an external trigger (precipitating event).
• STEP 1: Patients must not have a condition requiring systemic treatment with either corticosteroids (> 10 mg/day prednisone equivalents) or other immunosuppressive medications which are expected to continue during nivolumab administration. Inhaled or topical steroids and adrenal replacement doses > 10 mg/day prednisone equivalents are permitted in the absence of active autoimmune disease
• STEP 1: Patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated
• STEP 1: Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
• STEP 1: Patients with a known history of testing positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or known acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) must have no detectable viral load on a stable antiviral regimen
• STEP 1: Patients must not be receiving any other investigational agents.
• STEP 1: Patient must not have a baseline clinically significant hearing loss, which in the opinion of the investigator would preclude the use of cisplatin
• STEP 2: Patients must have progression per RECIST criteria AND tissue-proven progression on Arm B treatment within 12 months after completion of radiation therapy.
• STEP 2: ECOG performance status of 0 or 1.
• STEP 2: Patients must not have known hypersensitivity to nivolumab or compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition.
• STEP 2: Patients must not have received non-protocol anti-cancer therapy after completion of radiation and chemotherapy.
• STEP 2: ANC >= 1500/mm^3 (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to registration).
• STEP 2: Hgb >= 8.0 g/dL (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to registration).
• STEP 2: Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to registration).
• STEP 2: Creatinine within institutional limits of normal (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to registration)
• STEP 2: Total bilirubin within 1.5 times the normal limits (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to registration).
• STEP 2: SGOT (AST) or SGPT (ALT) within 2.0 times the normal limits (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to registration).
• STEP 2: Alkaline phosphatase within 1.5 times the normal limits (must be obtained =< 2 weeks prior to registration).
• STEP 2: Patients must not be pregnant or breast-feeding as chemotherapy, radiation, and immunotherapy may have possible teratogenicity effects; in addition, complications from pregnancy may interfere with the ability of patients to have an uninterrupted therapy. All women of childbearing potential must have a blood test or urine study within 2 weeks prior to registration to rule out pregnancy. A women of childbearing potential is any female, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria: 1) has achieved menarche at some point, 2) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy or 3) has not been naturally postmenopausal (amenorrhea following cancer therapy does not rule out childbearing potential) for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months).
• STEP 2: Patients of childbearing potential must use an accepted and effective method of contraception or abstain from sexual intercourse for at least one week prior to the start of treatment, and continue for 5 months after the last dose of protocol treatment. Patients must also not donate ova during this same time period.
• STEP 2: Patients must have measurable disease at the time of documented progression
• NOTE: For patients that have undergone salvage surgery for disease recurrence, measurable disease is not required at the time of registration to Step 2
• STEP 2: Patients must have tumor measurements with CT of neck and CT of chest (or CT of neck and FDG PET/CT if standard of care) within 4 weeks prior to Step 2 registration
• NOTE: Patients that have undergone salvage surgery for disease recurrence prior to Step 2 are not required to have measurable disease post-resection, but must have CT of neck and CT of chest (or CT of neck and FDG PET/CT if standard of care) after salvage surgery and within 4 weeks prior to step 2 registration to establish a baseline prior to nivolumab
Phase 2 Study of TVB-2640 in KRAS Non-Small Cell Lung Carcinomas
This is a prospective one-arm, two-stage phase 2 trial of TVB-2640 in KRAS mutant NSCLC patients. 13 patients will be treated with a minimum of 1 cycle of TVB-2640 therapy over 8 weeks.
• Metastatic or advanced stage, histologically or cytologically confirmed NSCLC and molecular identification of oncogenic KRAS mutation.
• KRAS mutant NSCLC must be refractory, relapsed, and previously treated with doublet chemotherapy and immune checkpoint inhibitor (unless there is a specific contraindication to checkpoint inhibitor).
• Molecular characterization (tissue- or blood-based [ie, cell-free/circulating tumor DNA]) must have been performed and must have demonstrated an oncogenic KRAS mutation (e.g., exon 12, 13, 61, or 117 mutation detected by sequencing) by a CLIA-certified assay (source documentation required). KRAS mutations at other codons require review and approval by Study Chair.
• Subjects' EGFR mutation and ALK gene rearrangement status must be known prior to study entry. Subjects with EGFR mutation or ALK gene rearrangement must have progressed after appropriate FDA-approved targeted therapy options prior to eligibility.
• Patient has evidence of disease progression on most recent line of therapy.
• Patient has measurable disease by RECIST v1.1 (Eisenhauer, 2009).
• Age ≥ 18 years.
• ECOG performance status of 0 or 1.
• Predicted life expectancy of >3 months.
• Adequate organ and marrow function as defined below:
• absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1,500/mcL
• platelets ≥ 75,000/mcL
• total bilirubin <2X institutional upper limit of normal
• AST and ALT ≤5X institutional upper limit of normal
• serum creatinine <1.5X institutional upper limit of normal
• LVEF >50%
• QTcF <470msec
• Women of child-bearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and for 90 days following completion of therapy. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately.
• A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months).
• No significant ischemic heart disease or myocardial infarction within 6 months of first dose of TVB-2640 and with current adequate cardiac function as in 3.1.8.
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent. Exclusion:
• Patient is unable to swallow oral medications or has impairment of GI function or GI disease that may significantly alter drug absorption such as active inflammatory bowel disease, uncontrolled nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or malabsorption syndrome.
• Patient has a history of risk factors for torsade de pointes such as uncontrolled heart failure, severe hypokalemia with potassium less than 3mM/L, history of long QT syndrome or require use during study participation of concomitant medications known to prolong QT/QTc interval.
• Patients who require use of strong CYP3A4/5 agonists or inhibitors during study participation.
• Patient has uncontrolled or severe intercurrent medical condition including uncontrolled brain metastases. Patients with stable brain metastases either treated or untreated, on a stable dose of steroids/anticonvulsants, with no dose increase within 4 weeks before the first dose of TVB-2640, and no anticipated dose change, are allowed.
• Patient underwent major surgery within 4 weeks before the first dose of TVB-2640 or received cancer-directed therapy either chemotherapy, radiotherapy, hormonal therapy, biologic or immunotherapy, etc. or an investigational drug or device within 2 weeks (6 weeks for mitomycin C and nitrosoureas) or 5 half-lives of that agent, whichever is shorter before the first dose of TVB-2640. In addition, any drug- related toxicity, with the exception of alopecia, an endocrinopathy controlled with replacement therapy, or a clinically stable toxicity not expected to increase from study therapy (eg, cisplatin-associated ototoxicity) should have recovered to
• Patient has evidence of a serious active infection-infection requiring treatment with intravenous antibiotics.
• Patient has known immunodeficiency virus-HIV or hepatitis B or C infection, as such patients may be at increased risk for toxicity due to concomitant treatment and disease-related symptoms may preclude accurate assessment of the safety of TVB-2640.
• Patient has an important medical illness or abnormal laboratory finding that, in the Investigator's opinion, would increase the risk of participating in this study.
• Patients with prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment has the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational agent.
• History of clinically significant dry eye (xerophthalmia) or other corneal abnormality or, if a contact lens wearer, does not agree to abstain from contact lens use from baseline through the last study drug dose.
• Patient has a known allergy or hypersensitivity to components of TVB-2640.
• Patient has a prior history of hypersensitivity, drug/radiation-induced, or other immune-mediated pneumonitis.
Irinotecan Hydrochloride, Temozolomide, and Dinutuximab With or Without Eflornithine in Treating Patients With Relapsed or Refractory Neuroblastoma
This phase II trial studies how well irinotecan hydrochloride, temozolomide, and dinutuximab work with or without eflornithine in treating patients with neuroblastoma that has come back (relapsed) or that isn't responding to treatment (refractory). Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as irinotecan hydrochloride and temozolomide, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as dinutuximab, may induce changes in the body's immune system and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Eflornithine blocks the production of chemicals called polyamines that are important in the growth of cancer cells. Giving eflornithine with irinotecan hydrochloride, temozolomide, and dinutuximab, may work better in treating patients with relapsed or refractory neuroblastoma.
• Patients must have had histologic verification of neuroblastoma or ganglioneuroblastoma or demonstration of neuroblastoma cells in the bone marrow with elevated urinary catecholamines (i.e. > 2 x upper limit of normal [ULN]), at the time of initial diagnosis.
• For the purposes of this study, aggressive multidrug chemotherapy is defined as chemotherapy including 2 or more agents that must include an alkylating agent and a platinum-containing compound as intended to treat high-risk disease. The doses of chemotherapy must be comparable to those used in frontline high-risk neuroblastoma therapies (examples include A3973, ANBL0532, ANBL09P1, ANBL12P1, and ANBL1531). Patients must have ONE of the following:
• First episode of recurrent high-risk disease following completion of aggressive multi-drug frontline high-risk therapy.
• First episode of progressive high-risk disease during aggressive multi-drug frontline therapy.
• Primary resistant/refractory disease (less than partial response by International Neuroblastoma Response Criteria [INRC]) detected at the conclusion of at least 4 cycles of aggressive multidrug induction chemotherapy on or according to a high-risk neuroblastoma protocol (examples include A3973, ANBL0532, ANBL09P1, ANBL12P1, ANBL1531, etc.).
• Patients must have at least ONE of the following at the time of enrollment:
• Measurable tumor on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) scan. Measurable is defined as >= 10 mm in at least one dimension on spiral/helical CT that is metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) avid or demonstrates increased fludeoxyglucose F-18 (FDG) uptake on positron emission tomography (PET) scan.
• MIBG-avid lesion detected on MIBG scan with positive uptake at a minimum of one site. This site must represent disease recurrence after completion of therapy, progressive disease on therapy, or refractory disease during induction.
• Patients with resistant/refractory soft tissue disease that is not MIBG avid or does not demonstrate increased FDG uptake on PET scan must undergo biopsy to document the presence of viable neuroblastoma. Biopsy is not required for patients who have a new site of soft tissue disease (radiographic evidence of disease progression) regardless of whether progression occurs while receiving therapy or after completion of therapy.
• Patients with bone marrow disease only will be eligible if they have more than 5% disease involvement (documented neuroblastoma cells) in at least one sample from bilateral bone marrow biopsies.
• Note: Patients with elevated catecholamines (i.e. > 2 x ULN) only are NOT eligible for this study.
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1 or 2. Use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age.
• Primary refractory/resistant patients must have received at least 4 cycles of frontline high-risk chemotherapy. Frontline therapy may also have included surgery, chemotherapy, autologous stem cell transplantation (SCT) +/- MIBG, immunotherapy, radiotherapy, and retinoids but must NOT have received second line therapy for resistant/refractory, relapsed, or progressive disease. Patients who received intensified therapy for poor induction response or refractory disease (e.g. MIBG) will be considered to have received second line therapy and will not be eligible.
• At least 14 days must have elapsed since completion of myelosuppressive therapy.
• Anti-cancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g. not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil count [ANC] counts): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent.
• Antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1.
• No interim time prior to study entry is required following prior radiation therapy (RT) for non-target lesions. However, patients must not have received radiation for a minimum of 4 weeks prior to study entry at the site of any lesion that will be identified as a target lesion to measure tumor response. Lesions that have been previously radiated cannot be used as target lesions unless there is radiographic evidence of progression at the site following radiation or a biopsy done following radiation shows viable neuroblastoma. Palliative radiation while on study is not permitted.
• Patients are eligible >= 6 weeks after autologous stem cell transplants or stem cell infusions (including stem cell infusions given as supportive care following 131 I-MIBG therapy) as long as hematologic and other eligibility criteria have been met.
• Patients are eligible >= 6 weeks after therapeutic 131 I-MIBG provided that all other eligibility criteria are met.
• Subjects who have previously received anti-GD2 monoclonal antibodies with or without retinoids for biologic therapy are eligible unless they have had progressive disease while receiving prior anti-GD2 therapy or progressed/relapsed within 3 months of receiving anti-GD2 therapy. However, eligible patients may NOT have received anti-GD2 monoclonal antibodies in combination with chemotherapy.
• Subjects who have received autologous marrow infusions or autologous stem cell infusions that were purged using monoclonal antibody linked to beads are eligible.
• Subjects who have previously received DFMO are eligible for this study provided they have not had progressive disease while receiving DFMO or progressed/relapsed within 3 months of completing DFMO.
• Patients must not have received long-acting myeloid growth factors (e.g. pegfilgrastim) within 14 days of entry on this study. Seven days must have elapsed since administration of a short-acting myeloid growth factor.
• For patients with solid tumors (without marrow involvement) including status post SCT: peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 750/uL (within 7 days prior to enrollment).
• For patients with solid tumors (without marrow involvement) including status post SCT: platelet count >= 75,000/uL (transfusion independent) (within 7 days prior to enrollment).
• Patients known to have bone marrow involvement with neuroblastoma are eligible provided that minimum ANC and transfusion independent platelet count criteria are met (as above). However, these patients are not evaluable for hematological toxicity.
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope GFR >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• 1 to < 2 years (male 0.6 mg/dL, female 0.6 mg/dL)
• 2 to < 6 years (male 0.8 mg/dL, female 0.8 mg/dL)
• 6 to < 10 years (male 1 mg/dL, female 1 mg/dL)
• 10 to < 13 years (male 1.2 mg/dL, female 1.2 mg/dL)
• 13 to < 16 years (male 1.5 mg/dL, female 1.4 mg/dL)
• >= 16 years (male 1.7 mg/dL, female 1.4 mg/dL) (within 7 days prior to enrollment).
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x ULN for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment).
• Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) =< 5.0 x ULN for age (=< 225 U/L). For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L (within 7 days prior to enrollment).
• Shortening fraction of >= 27% by echocardiography (ECHO) (within 7 days prior to enrollment).
• Ejection fraction of >= 50% by ECHO or gated radionuclide study (within 7 days prior to enrollment).
• No evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, no chronic oxygen requirement, and room air pulse oximetry > 94% if there is a clinical indication for pulse oximetry. Normal pulmonary function tests in patients who are capable of cooperating with testing (including diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide [DLCO)] are required if there is a clinical indication for determination. For patients who do not have respiratory symptoms, full pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are NOT required.
• Patients with a history of central nervous system (CNS) disease must have no clinical or radiological evidence of active CNS disease at the time of study enrollment.
• Patients with seizure disorders may be enrolled if seizures are well controlled on anti-convulsants.
• CNS toxicity =< grade 2.
• Men and women of childbearing potential and their partners must agree to use adequate contraception while enrolled on this study. Based on the established teratogenic potential of alkylating agents, pregnant women will be excluded from this study. Because of potential risks to breastfed infants due to drug metabolites that could be excreted in breast milk, female patients who are lactating must agree to stop breastfeeding or will otherwise be excluded from this study. Females of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test to be eligible for this study.
• Patients with only elevated catecholamines (i.e. > 2 x ULN) are NOT eligible for this study.
• Patients must have been off pharmacologic doses of systemic steroids for at least 7 days prior to enrollment. Patients who require or are likely to require pharmacologic doses of systemic corticosteroids while receiving treatment on this study are ineligible. The only exception is for patients known to require 2 mg/kg or less of hydrocortisone (or an equivalent dose of an alternative corticosteroid) as premedication for blood product administration in order to avoid allergic transfusion reactions. The use of conventional doses of inhaled steroids for the treatment of asthma is permitted, as is the use of physiologic doses of steroids for patients with known adrenal insufficiency. Patients on any other immunosuppressive medications (e.g. cyclosporine, tacrolimus) are not eligible.
• Patients must not have received prior treatment with irinotecan and temozolomide.
• Patients must not have received enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants including phenytoin, phenobarbital, or carbamazepine for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment. Patients receiving non-enzyme inducing anticonvulsants such as gabapentin, valproic acid, or levetiracetam will be eligible.
• Patients who have received drugs that are strong inducers or inhibitors of CYP3A4 within 7 days prior to study enrollment are not eligible.
• Patients must not have been diagnosed with myelodysplastic syndrome or with any malignancy other than neuroblastoma.
• Patients with symptoms of congestive heart failure are not eligible.
• Patients must not have >= grade 2 diarrhea.
• Patients who are unable to tolerate oral/nasogastric/gastrostomy medications will not be eligible for this trial. Additionally, patients with significant malabsorption will not be eligible for this trial.
• Patients must not have uncontrolled infection.
• Patients with a history of grade 4 allergic reactions to anti-GD2 antibodies or reactions that required permanent discontinuation of the anti-GD2 therapy are not eligible.
• Patients with a significant intercurrent illness (any ongoing serious medical problem unrelated to cancer or its treatment) that is not covered by the detailed exclusion criteria and that is expected to interfere with the action of study agents or to significantly increase the severity of the toxicities experienced from study treatment are not eligible.
Testing the Timing of Pembrolizumab Alone or With Chemotherapy as First Line Treatment and Maintenance in Non-small Cell Lung Cancer
This phase III trial studies whether pembrolizumab alone as a first-line treatment, followed by pemetrexed and carboplatin with or without pembrolizumab after disease progression is superior to induction with pembrolizumab, pemetrexed and carboplatin followed by pembrolizumab and pemetrexed maintenance in treating patients with stage IV non-squamous non-small cell lung cancer. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as pembrolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Chemotherapy drugs, such as pemetrexed, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Carboplatin is in a class of medications known as platinum-containing compounds. It works in a way similar to the anticancer drug cisplatin, but may be better tolerated than cisplatin. Carboplatin works by killing, stopping or slowing the growth of cancer cells. It is not yet known whether giving first-line pembrolizumab followed by pemetrexed and carboplatin with or without pembrolizumab works better in treating patients with non-squamous non-small cell cancer.
• Patients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed stage IV non-squamous non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) (includes M1a, M1b, and M1c stage disease, American Joint Committee on Cancer [AJCC] 8th edition). Patients with stage IIIB and IIIC disease are eligible if they are not candidates for combined chemotherapy and radiation. Prior chemo-radiation therapy (RT) for stage III with recurrence is allowed
• Patients must have PD-L1 expression Tumor Proportion Score (TPS) >= 1% in tumor cells. If PD-L1 expression TPS is unevaluable or the testing could not be completed, the patients are not eligible. The assay must have been performed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) (or equivalent) certified laboratory
• Patients must have measurable or non-measurable disease. The presence of malignant pleural fluid alone is sufficient to satisfy this eligibility criterion. Baseline imaging assessments and measurements used to evaluate all measurable or non-measurable sites of disease must be done within 4 weeks prior to study registration
• NOTE: If patient receives pemetrexed, follow institutional guidelines to drain fluids
• NOTE: An additional 15 days is allowed to account for any infection/exposure related logistical delays
• Patients must be >= 18 years of age
• Patients must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 to 1
• Patients must NOT have received the following:
• Prior systemic chemotherapy or immunotherapy for advanced metastatic NSCLC. Patients treated with any prior checkpoint inhibitors for metastatic lung cancer are ineligible. Chemotherapy for non-metastatic disease (e.g. adjuvant therapy) or immunotherapy for locally advanced stage III disease, or treated with neoadjuvant IO is allowed if at least 6 months have elapsed between the last dose of the prior therapy and study registration. Local therapy, e.g. palliative radiation, is allowed as long as a period of 14 days has passed between completion of local therapy and the start of protocol treatment. Registration during the 14 days is allowed. Palliative radiation must be to non-target lesions. Palliative radiation to pre-existing lesions while on protocol treatment is allowed as long as these areas have not grown to RECIST defined progression. Development of any new metastasis is considered progression. Concurrent radiation and protocol treatment is not allowed; protocol treatment may resume after completion of radiation as long as patient does not have greater than grade 2 side effects from radiation per physician discretion.
• Methotrexate (MTX) given in low doses for non-malignant conditions with last dose at least 14 days prior to date of registration will be allowed. Other low dose chemotherapeutics for non-malignant conditions will be considered, but review by the study chair is required
• Palliative radiation to non-target lesions (bone metastasis) is allowed if the patient develops symptoms
• Patients with known EGFR mutations (except exon 20 insertion), BRAF mutations (V600) or ALK or ROS1 translocations or other driver mutations that can be treated with oral tyrosine kinase inhibitors are excluded
• Patients with treated brain metastases are eligible if follow-up brain imaging obtained at least 14 days after central nervous system (CNS)-directed therapy shows no evidence of progression. CNS progression counts as progression and patients must move on to the next phase after CNS treatment. Patients with asymptomatic new (at screening) or progressive brain metastases (active brain metastases at screening) are eligible if the treating physician determines that immediate CNS specific treatment is not required and is unlikely to be required during the first cycle of therapy
• Patients are eligible if off steroids for at least 14 days prior to protocol treatment
• Anticonvulsants are allowed
• Patients with asymptomatic, sub-centimeter brain metastasis who at the discretion of investigators do not need immediate CNS directed therapies are eligible
• Patients with prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment does not have the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen are eligible for this trial
• Patients must not have known pre-existing and clinically active interstitial lung disease, or a known history of (non infectious) pneumonitis that required steroids, or current pneumonitis
• Patients must not have significant gastrointestinal disorders with diarrhea as a major symptom (e.g., Crohn's disease, malabsorption, etc.)
• Patients must not have history of auto-immune condition (including Guillain-Barre Syndrome or Multiple Sclerosis) requiring ongoing or intermittent systemic treatment in the past 2 years prior to registration (i.e., with use of disease modifying agents, corticosteroids or immunosuppressive drugs). Replacement therapy (e.g., thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency, etc.) is not considered a form of systemic treatment
• Patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification. To be eligible for this trial, patients should be class 2B or better
• Patients must not have any other concomitant serious illness or organ system dysfunction that in the opinion of the investigator would either compromise patient safety or interfere with the evaluation of the safety of the study drug
• Patients must not receive any other investigational agents during the course of therapy
• Patients must not be pregnant or breast-feeding due to potential harm to the fetus or infant from cytotoxic chemotherapy and the unknown risk of pembrolizumab (MK-3475). All patients of childbearing potential must have a blood test or urine study within 72 hours prior to registration to rule out pregnancy. A patient of childbearing potential is anyone, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria: 1) has achieved menarche at some point; 2) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or 3) has not been naturally postmenopausal (amenorrhea following cancer therapy does not rule out childbearing potential) for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months)
• Patients must use accepted and effective method(s) of contraception or by abstaining from sexual intercourse from time of registration, while on study treatment, and continue for 120 days after the last dose of study treatment
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1500/mm^3 (within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Platelets >= 100,000/mm^3 (within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Prothrombin time (PT)/international normalized ratio (INR) (only if on active anticoagulation with warfarin or any formulations of heparin) =< 3.0 (within 14 day prior to randomization)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 mg/dL (obtained within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) < 5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) (obtained within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) < 5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) (obtained within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Calculated creatinine clearance >= 45 ml/min to be eligible to receive pemetrexed (obtained within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Serum creatinine =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (obtained within 14 days prior to randomization)
• Patients must not have a known history of active tuberculosis (TB)
• Patients must not have a diagnosis of immunodeficiency or receive systemic steroid therapy or any other form of immunosuppressive therapy within 7 days prior to the first dose of protocol treatment
• Patients must not have received a live vaccine within 30 days prior to randomization. Patients are permitted to receive inactivated vaccines and any non-live vaccines including those for the seasonal influenza and COVID-19 (Note: intranasal influenza vaccines, such as Flu-Mist [registered trademark] are live attenuated vaccines and are not allowed). If possible, it is recommended to separate study drug administration from vaccine administration by about a week (primarily, in order to minimize an overlap of adverse events)
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
• For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable or on suppressive therapy, if indicated. Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
Safety and Efficacy of Quizartinib in Children and Young Adults With Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML), a Cancer of the Blood
Quizartinib is an experimental drug. It is not approved for regular use. It can only be used in medical research. Children or young adults with a certain kind of blood cancer (FLT3-ITD AML) might be able to join this study if it has come back after remission or is not responding to treatment.
• Has diagnosis of AML according to the World Health Organization (WHO) 2008 classification with ≥5% blasts in bone marrow, with or without extramedullary disease
• In first relapse or refractory to first-line high-dose chemotherapy with no more than 1 attempt (1 to 2 cycles of induction chemotherapy) at remission induction - prior HSCT is permitted
• Has presence of the FLT3-ITD activating mutation in bone marrow or peripheral blood as defined in the protocol
• Is between 1 month and 21 years of age at the time the Informed Consent/Assent form is signed
• Has protocol-defined adequate performance status score
• Has fully recovered from the acute clinically significant toxicity effects of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy, per protocol guidelines
• Has protocol-defined adequate renal, hepatic and cardiac functions
• If of reproductive potential, is permanently sterile or agrees to use highly effective birth control upon enrollment, during the period of therapy, and for 6 months following the last dose of quizartinib, etoposide, fludarabine, methotrexate, or cytarabine, whichever is later
• If female of child-bearing potential, tests negative for pregnancy and agrees not to breast feed
• Male participants must be surgically sterile or willing to use highly effective birth control during the treatment period, and for 6 months following the last dose of quizartinib, etoposide, fludarabine, methotrexate, or cytarabine, whichever is later.
• Participant/legal representative is capable of understanding the investigational nature of the study, potential risks, and benefits, and the patient (and/or legal representative) signs a written assent/informed consent
• Has been diagnosed with isolated central nervous system relapse, acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL), juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia, French-American-British classification M3 or WHO classification of APL with translocation, or with myeloid proliferations related to Down syndrome
• Has uncontrolled or pre-defined significant cardiovascular disease as detailed in the protocol
• Has systemic fungal, bacterial, viral or other infection that is exhibiting ongoing signs/symptoms related to the infection without improvement despite appropriate antibiotics or other treatment. The patient must be off vasopressors and have negative blood cultures for at least 48 hours prior to the start of systematic protocol therapy.
• Has known active clinically relevant liver disease (e.g., active hepatitis B or active hepatitis C)
• Has known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
• Has history of hypersensitivity to any of the study medications or their excipients
• Is receiving or is anticipated to receive concomitant chemotherapy, radiation, or immunotherapy other than as specified in the protocol
• Has any significant concurrent disease, illness, psychiatric disorder or social issue that would compromise subject safety or compliance, interfere with consent/assent, study participation, follow up, or interpretation of study results
• Is currently participating in another investigative interventional procedure (observational or long-term interventional follow-up is allowed)
• Is otherwise considered inappropriate for the study by the Investigator
Immunotherapy With Nivolumab and Ipilimumab Followed by Nivolumab or Nivolumab With Cabozantinib for Patients With Advanced Kidney Cancer, The PDIGREE Study
This phase III trial compares the usual treatment (treatment with ipilimumab and nivolumab followed by nivolumab alone) to treatment with ipilimumab and nivolumab, followed by nivolumab with cabozantinib in patients with untreated renal cell carcinoma that has spread to other parts of the body. The addition of cabozantinib to the usual treatment may make it work better. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as nivolumab and ipilimumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Cabozantinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. It is not yet known how well the combination of cabozantinib and nivolumab after initial treatment with ipilimumab and nivolumab works in treating patients with renal cell cancer that has spread to other parts of the body.
• STEP I REGISTRATION CRITERIA
• Histologically documented renal cell carcinoma with clear cell component, including patients who have sarcomatoid or rhabdoid features
• Any metastatic disease, including visceral, lymph node, other soft tissue and bone, measurable per RECIST 1.1.
• Measurable disease as defined in the protocol.
• Must be intermediate or poor risk patient per International Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma Database (IMDC) criteria (1 or more of the following): Karnofsky performance status [KPS] < 80, < 1 year from diagnosis [including initial nephrectomy] to systemic treatment for metastatic disease, hemoglobin less than lower limit of normal [LLN], corrected calcium concentration greater than upper limit of normal [ULN], absolute neutrophil count greater than ULN, platelet count > ULN).
• Central nervous system (CNS) disease permitted, if stable and not otherwise causing symptoms or needing active treatment.
• Karnofsky performance status >= 70%.
• No prior treatment with PD-1, PD-L1, or CTLA-4 targeting agents (including but not limited to nivolumab, pembrolizumab, pidilizumab, durvalumab, atezolizumab, tremelimumab, and ipilimumab), or any other drug or antibody specifically targeting T-cell co-stimulation or checkpoint pathways. The only exception is for prior treatment with nivolumab or other PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 targeting therapy on pre- or post-operative trials, as long as > 1 year since completion of systemic therapy.
• No prior previous systemic therapy for renal cell carcinoma (prior HD IL-2 [> 28 days] and prior adjuvant sunitinib > 180 days since completion and prior immunotherapy as above are allowed).
• No systemic cancer therapy less than 28 days prior to registration; no radiation therapy less than 14 days prior to registration. There must be a complete recovery and no ongoing complications from radiotherapy.
• Not pregnant and not nursing, because this study involves an agent that has known genotoxic, mutagenic and teratogenic effects. Therefore, for women of childbearing potential only, a negative serum or urine pregnancy test done =< 14 days prior to registration is required.
• Age >= 18 years
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500/mm^3.
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3.
• Hemoglobin >= 8 g/dL.
• Calculated (Calc.) creatinine clearance >= 30 mL/min.
• Urine protein =< 1+ or urine protein to creatinine (UPC) ratio < 1.
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) (except for patients with known or likely Gilbert's syndrome, for whom total bilirubin up to 3 mg/dL is allowed with direct bilirubin =< 20% total bilirubin)
• Aspartate aminotransferase/alanine aminotransferase (AST/ALT) =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) or < 5 x ULN if hepatic metastases present.
• STEP 2 REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA
• Successful completion of at least 1 cycle of ipilimumab/nivolumab.
• Resolution of any treatment-related adverse events to grade 1 or less per dose modification section (this criteria does not include any adverse events [AEs] not attributable to treatment which are present due to disease), with prednisone-equivalent dosing at 10 mg daily or less. Exceptions for this criteria include patients receiving replacement hormone treatments (such as levothyroxine for treatment-related hypothyroidism or glucocorticoid replacement for adrenal insufficiency). Please contact study chair if further discussion is needed.
• No more than 80 days from last dose of ipilimumab/nivolumab.
• Active autoimmune disease requiring ongoing therapy.
• Ongoing acute toxicity > grade 2 from previous treatment.
• History of severe allergic, anaphylactic or other hypersensitivity reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies.
• Active hepatitis B/C, or active tuberculosis (PPD response without active TB is allowed)
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) -infected patients with detectable viral load within 6 months prior to registration. Patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months prior to registration are eligible.
• Concurrent use of immunosuppressive medication including prednisone above 10 mg daily.
• Uncontrolled adrenal insufficiency.
• Uncontrolled hypertension (systolic blood pressure [BP] >150 mmHg or diastolic BP > 90 mmHg).
• Major surgery less than 28 days prior to registration.
• Any serious non-healing wound, ulcer, or bone fracture within 28 days prior to registration.
• Any arterial thrombotic events within 180 days prior to registration.
• Clinically significant hematuria, hematemesis, or hemoptysis within 12 weeks prior to registration.
• Cavitating pulmonary lesions or known endotracheal or endobronchial disease manifestations.
• Lesions encasing or invading any major blood vessels (this does not include tumor thrombus extending into/through renal vein/inferior vena cava [IVC]). Patients with tumor thrombus extending into/through renal vein are considered eligible.
• Moderate of severe hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh B or C).
• Any history of untreated pulmonary embolism or deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the 180 days prior to registration. (Any asymptomatic, treated pulmonary embolism or asymptomatic, treated deep venous thrombosis > 30 days prior to registration allowed).
• Corrected QT interval calculated by the Fridericia formula (QTcF) > 500 ms.
• Unstable cardiac arrhythmia within 6 months prior to registration.
• Any gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding =< 180 days, hemoptysis, or other signs of pulmonary hemorrhage =< 90 days prior to registration.
• History of abdominal fistula, gastrointestinal perforation, intra-abdominal abscess, bowel obstruction, or gastric outlet obstruction within 180 days prior to registration.
• Active peptic ulcer disease, inflammatory bowel disease, or malabsorption syndrome within 28 days prior to registration.
• Untreated hypothyroidism (treated hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement therapy is allowed. Abnormal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is acceptable with normal T3/free T4 if treated on thyroid replacement therapy)
• Evidence of pancreatitis, history of organ transplant, or history of congenital QT syndrome.
• Active treatment with coumarin agents (e.g., warfarin), direct thrombin inhibitors (e.g., dabigatran), direct Xa inhibitor betrixaban or platelet inhibitors (e.g., clopidogrel) within 5 days of registration. Allowed anticoagulants include: prophylactic use of low-dose aspirin for cardio-protection (per local applicable guidelines) and low-dose low molecular weight heparins (LMWH), therapeutic doses of LMWH or anticoagulation with direct factor Xa inhibitors rivaroxaban, edoxaban, apixaban. Allowed also in patients with known brain metastases who are on a stable dose of the anticoagulant for at least 1 week prior to registration without clinically significant hemorrhagic complications from the anticoagulation regimen or the tumor.
• Significant cardiac ischemia events (ST elevation myocardial infarction [STEMI] or non-ST elevation myocardial infarction [NSTEMI]) within 6 months or active NY Heart Association class 3-4 heart failure symptoms
Chemoradiotherapy With or Without Atezolizumab in Treating Patients With Localized Muscle Invasive Bladder Cancer
This phase III trial studies how well chemotherapy and radiation therapy work with or without atezolizumab in treating patients with localized muscle invasive bladder cancer. Radiation therapy uses high energy rays to kill tumor cells and shrink tumors. Chemotherapy drugs, such as gemcitabine, cisplatin, fluorouracil and mitomycin-C, work in different ways to stop the growth of cancer cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Giving chemotherapy with radiation therapy may kill more tumor cells. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as atezolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Giving atezolizumab with radiation therapy and chemotherapy may work better in treating patients with localized muscle invasive bladder cancer compared to radiation therapy and chemotherapy without atezolizumab.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: If this will be the first patient from a registering site to receive a given RT modality (3DCRT vs. IMRT), the site must first submit pre-RT planning documents within 3 days of Step 1 registration and receive approval from Imaging and Radiation Oncology Core (IROC) before randomizing the patient to Step 2. If this will not be the first patient to receive a specific RT modality, the patient should be immediately randomized to Step 2 on the same day.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: If patient required review of pre-RT planning, randomization must occur within 14 days of initial registration.
• Patients must have histologically proven, T2-T4a N0M0 urothelial carcinoma of the bladder within 120 days prior to randomization and no intervening treatment between the histologic proof and randomization. Patients with mixed urothelial carcinoma will be eligible for the trial, but the presence of small cell carcinoma will make a patient ineligible. Patients with lymph nodes >= 1.0 cm in shortest cross-sectional diameter on imaging (computed tomography [CT]/magnetic resonance imaging [MRI] of abdomen and pelvis) must have a biopsy of the enlarged lymph node showing no tumor involvement within 70 days prior to randomization. These patients may be suitable for neoadjuvant chemotherapy and radical cystectomy and are eligible for this trial if they seek out a bladder sparing treatment strategy, however patients who have received prior systemic chemotherapy for bladder cancer are not eligible for the trial.
• Patients must undergo a transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT) within 70 days prior to randomization. In a situation where a patient is referred from outside to the enrolling institution, patient must have a repeat office cystoscopy by the urologist who will be following the patient on the clinical trial to assess the adequacy of the prior TURBT. This cystoscopy can be performed in urologist office without general anesthesia. Patient may then undergo repeat TURBT if deemed necessary as standard of care by the treating urologist. Patients may have either completely or partially resected tumors as long as the treating urologist attempted maximal resection. Patient must not have T4b disease
• Patients must undergo radiological staging within 70 days prior to randomization. Imaging of chest, abdomen, and pelvis must be performed using CT or MRI. Patients must not have evidence of T4bN1-3 disease. Eligibility is based on the local radiology report.
• Patients with hydronephrosis are eligible if they have unilateral hydronephrosis and kidney function meets criteria specified.
• Patient must be planning to receive one of the protocol specified chemotherapy regimens.
• All adverse events associated with any prior surgery and intravesical therapy must have resolved to Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) grade =< 2 prior to randomization.
• Patients must be >= 18 years of age
• Patient may or may not be radical cystectomy candidates.
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >=1,500/microliter (mcL) (within 28 days prior to randomization).
• Platelets >= 100,000/mcL (within 28 days prior to randomization).
• Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL (within 28 days prior to randomization).
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (IULN) (except patients with Gilbert's syndrome, who must have a total bilirubin < 3.0 mg/dL) (within 28 days prior to randomization).
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or alanine aminotransferase (ALT) < 2.5 x IULN (within 28 days prior to randomization).
• Patients must have adequate renal function as evidenced by calculated creatinine clearance >= 25 mL/min. The creatinine used to calculate the clearance result must have been obtained within 28 days prior to randomization.
• Patients must have Zubrod performance status =< 2.
• Patients must have a baseline electrocardiography (ECG) performed within 30 days prior to randomization.
• If patient has a known history of hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV), they must meet the following criteria within 28 days prior to randomization.
• Patients with past or resolved hepatitis B infection (defined as having a negative hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg] test and a positive anti-HBc [antibody to hepatitis B core antigen] antibody test) are eligible.
• Patients positive for hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody are eligible only if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is negative for HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA).
• Patients who are known to be positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are eligible only if they have all of the following:
• A stable regimen of highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART)
• No requirement for concurrent antibiotics or antifungal agents for the prevention of opportunistic infections
• A CD4 count above 250 cells/mcL and an undetectable HIV viral load on standard PCR-based tests within 28 days prior to randomization.
• Female patients of childbearing potential must have a serum pregnancy test prior to randomization. Patients must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential teratogenic side effects of the protocol treatment. Women of child-bearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of protocol treatment, and for 5 months (150 days) after the last dose of all study drugs. A woman is considered to be of "reproductive potential" if she has had a menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months.
• Patients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking for future studies.
• Patients who can complete Patient-Reported Outcome instruments in English or Spanish must agree to complete the EORTC QLQ-C30, the EORTC QLQ-BLM30, the EPIC Bowel Assessment, and the EQ-5D-5L per protocol schedule of assessment.
• As a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system.
• Patients must not have had urothelial carcinoma or histological variant at any site outside of the urinary bladder within the previous 24 months except Ta/T1/carcinoma in situ (CIS) of the upper urinary tract including renal pelvis and ureter if the patient had undergone complete nephroureterectomy.
• Patients must not have diffuse CIS based on cystoscopy and biopsy.
• Patient must not have received any systemic chemotherapy for their bladder cancer.
• Patient must not have had prior pelvic radiation.
• Patients must not have received prior treatment for muscle invasive bladder cancer including neoadjuvant chemotherapy for the current tumor.
• Patients must not have received any systemic therapy (including, but not limited to, interferon alfa-2b, high dose IL-2, pegylated interferon [PEG-IFN], anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1), for non-muscle invasive bladder cancer. Prior intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG), interferon, and intravesical chemotherapy are allowed.
• Patients must not have received any of the following prohibited therapies within 28 days prior to randomization or be planning to receive any of the following prohibited therapies during protocol treatment:
• Anti-cancer systemic chemotherapy or biological therapy not specified in the protocol.
• Immunotherapy not specified in this protocol.
• Systemic or intravesical use of any non-study anti-cancer agent (investigational or non-investigational).
• Investigational agents other than atezolizumab.
• Live vaccines: Examples of live vaccines include, but are not limited to, the following: measles, mumps, rubella, chicken pox, shingles, yellow fever, rabies, BCG, and typhoid (oral) vaccine. Seasonal influenza vaccines for injection are generally killed virus vaccines and are allowed; however, intranasal influenza vaccines (e.g. Flu-Mist) are live attenuated vaccines, and are not allowed. Prior administration of intravesical BCG is allowed.
• Glucocorticoids for any purpose other than to modulate symptoms from an event of suspected immunologic etiology. The use of physiologic doses of corticosteroids (defined as 10 mg prednisone) are acceptable, however site investigators should consult with the study chair for any dose higher than 10 mg prednisone. Dexamethasone 4 mg IV with chemotherapy to prevent nausea is allowed.
• RANKL infusion: Concurrent denosumab (which binds the cytokine RANKL) for any known indication is prohibited due to interaction with study medication.
• Patients must not have a major surgical procedure within 28 days prior to randomization. If patient had any surgical procedure then they should have recovered to full presurgical performance status and surgical adverse events should have resolved to grade =< 2. TURBT is not considered a major surgical procedure.
• Patients must not have received treatment with systemic immunosuppressive medications (including, but not limited to, prednisone, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, thalidomide, and anti-tumor necrosis factor [anti-TNF] agents) within 14 days prior to randomization. Exceptions:
• Patients may have received acute, low dose, systemic immunosuppressant medications (e.g., a one-time dose of dexamethasone for nausea).
• The use of inhaled corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids (e.g., fludrocortisone) for patients with orthostatic hypotension or adrenocortical insufficiency is allowed. Physiological doses equivalent of 10 mg prednisone daily are allowed. Short term steroids given as antiemetic therapy, e.g. 4 mg dexamethasone or equivalent once a week, is allowed.
• Patients must not have received a live, attenuated vaccine within 4 weeks prior to randomization or anticipate that such a live, attenuated vaccine will be required while on protocol treatment and up to 5 months after the last dose of protocol treatment.
• Inactivated influenza vaccination should be given during influenza season only (approximately October to March). Patients must not receive live, attenuated influenza vaccine within 4 weeks prior to randomization or while on protocol treatment and up to 5 months after the last dose of protocol treatment.
• Patients must not have undergone prior allogeneic bone marrow transplantation or prior solid organ transplantation.
• Patients must not have clinically significant liver disease that precludes patient from treatment regimens prescribed on the study (including, but not limited to, active viral, alcoholic or other autoimmune hepatitis, cirrhosis or inherited liver disease).
• Patient must not have history of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonitis (including drug induced), organizing pneumonia (i.e., bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, etc.), or evidence of active pneumonitis.
• Patients must not have an active infection requiring oral or IV antibiotics within 14 days prior to randomization. Patients receiving prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., for prevention of a urinary tract infection or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) are not eligible. If patient develops urinary tract infection after TURBT they must have recovered from the infection prior to registration.
• Patients must not have active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in past two years (i.e., with use of disease modifying agents, corticosteroids or immunosuppressive drugs). Replacement therapy (e.g., thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency, etc.) is not considered a form of systemic treatment. Autoimmune diseases include, but are not limited to, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, vascular thrombosis associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, Wegener's granulomatosis, Sjogren's syndrome, Bell's palsy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune thyroid disease, vasculitis, Graves' disease treated with methimazole or glomerulonephritis.
• Patient must not have a history of active tuberculosis.
• No other prior malignancy is allowed except for the following: adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer, adequately treated Stage I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for two years. Patients with localized prostate cancer who are being followed by an active surveillance program are also eligible.
• Patients must not be known to be allergic to Chinese hamster egg or ovary cell products and must not have any known major allergic reactions to any study drug.
Neoadjuvant Her2-targeted Therapy and Immunotherapy With Pembrolizumab
A phase 2 open-label, randomized, multi-center trial to evaluate the efficacy and safety of neoadjuvant trastuzumab, pertuzumab and weekly paclitaxel (THP) as compared to neoadjuvant trastuzumab, pertuzumab, pembrolizumab and weekly paclitaxel (THP-K), or neoadjuvant trastuzumab, pembrolizumab and weekly paclitaxel (TH-K) in chemo naive patients with invasive human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) positive breast cancer whose primary tumors are > 2 cm and/or clinically lymph node positive. Treatment will be followed by standard of care breast surgery and physician's choice adjuvant therapy per standard of care.
• Male/female patients with histologically confirmed invasive HER2-positive (by American Society of Clinical Oncology (ASCO)/College of American Pathologists (CAP) guidelines) unilateral breast cancer
• Have previously untreated non-metastaic (M0), cT2-4N0 or cT1-4N1-3 (biopsies of clinically suspicious lymph nodes to confirm nodal status is encouraged).
• Multifocal/centric disease is permitted if all suspicious foci have been biopsied and are consistent with HER2-positive (by ASCO/CAP guidelines) invasive breast cancer
• Be a male or female subject 18 years of age on the day of signing informed consent
• Male Participants: A male participant must agree to use a contraception as detailed in Appendix C of this protocol during the treatment period and for at least 6 months after the last dose of study treatment and refrain from donating sperm during this period.
• Female Participants: A female participant is eligible to participate if she is not pregnant (see Appendix C), not breastfeeding, and at least one of the following conditions applies: a.) Not a woman of childbearing potential (WOCBP) as defined in Appendix C OR b.) A WOCBP who agrees to follow the contraceptive guidance in Appendix C during the treatment period and for at least 6 months after the last dose of study treatment.
• The participant (or legally acceptable representative if applicable) provides written informed consent for the trial.
• Provides adequate archival tumor tissue sample or newly obtained core or excisional biopsy of a tumor lesion not previously irradiated. Formalin-fixed, paraffin embedded (FFPE) tissue blocks are preferred to slides. Newly obtained biopsies are preferred to archived tissue. Note: If submitting unstained cut slides, newly cut slides should be submitted to the testing laboratory within 14 days from the date slides are cut.
• Have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 to 1.
• Have adequate organ function as defined by the following parameters. Specimens must be collected within 7 days prior to the start of study treatment.
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥1500/µL
• Platelets ≥100 000/µL
• Hemoglobin ≥9.0 g/dL or ≥5.6 mmol/La
• Renal Creatinine (≤1.5 × ULN OR) OR Measured or calculated(b) creatinine clearance (≥30 mL/min for participant with creatinine levels) (GFR can also be used in place of creatinine or CrCl) (>1.5 × institutional ULN)
• Hepatic Total bilirubin ≤1.5 ×ULN OR direct bilirubin ≤ULN for participants with total bilirubin levels >1.5 × ULN aspartate aminotransferase (AST, SGOT) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT, SGPT) ≤2.5 × ULN (≤5 × ULN for participants with liver metastases)
• Coagulation International normalized ratio (INR) OR prothrombin time (PT) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) ≤1.5 × ULN unless participant is receiving anticoagulant therapy as long as PT or aPTT is within therapeutic range of intended use of anticoagulants
• Cardiac Echocardiogram or MUGA (multigated radionuclide angiography) Baseline LVEF ≥ 55%
• A WOCBP who has a positive urine pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to randomization. If the urine test is positive or cannot be confirmed as negative, a serum pregnancy test will be required. Note: in the event that 72 hours have elapsed between the screening pregnancy test and the first dose of study treatment, another pregnancy test (urine or serum) must be performed and must be negative in order for subject to start receiving study medication.
• Has received prior therapy with an anti-PD-1 (programmed death protein 1), anti-PD-L1 (Programmed death-ligand 1), or anti PD L2 (Programmed death-ligand 2) agent or with an agent directed to another stimulatory or co-inhibitory T-cell receptor (e.g., CTLA-4, OX 40, CD137).
• Has received prior systemic anti-cancer therapy including investigational agents within 4 weeks prior to randomization. Note: If participant received major surgery, they must have recovered adequately from the toxicity and/or complications from the intervention prior to starting study treatment.
• Has received prior radiotherapy within 2 weeks of start of study treatment. Participants must have recovered from all radiation-related toxicities, not require corticosteroids, and not have had radiation pneumonitis.
• Has received a live vaccine within 30 days prior to the first dose of study drug. Examples of live vaccines include, but are not limited to, the following: measles, mumps, rubella, varicella/zoster (chicken pox), yellow fever, rabies, Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG), and typhoid vaccine. Seasonal influenza vaccines for injection are generally killed virus vaccines and are allowed; however, intranasal influenza vaccines (eg, FluMist®) are live attenuated vaccines and are not allowed.
• Is currently participating in or has participated in a study of an investigational agent or has used an investigational device within 4 weeks prior to the first dose of study treatment. Note: Participants who have entered the follow-up phase of an investigational study may participate as long as it has been 4 weeks after the last dose of the previous investigational agent.
• Has a diagnosis of immunodeficiency or is receiving chronic systemic steroid therapy (in dosing exceeding 10 mg daily of prednisone equivalent) or any other form of immunosuppressive therapy within 7 days prior to the first dose of study drug.
• Has a known additional malignancy that is progressing or has required active systemic treatment within the past 3 years. Note: Participants with basal cell carcinoma of the skin, squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, or carcinoma in situ (e.g. breast carcinoma, cervical cancer in situ) that have undergone potentially curative therapy are not excluded.
• Has active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in the past 2 years (i.e. with use of disease modifying agents, corticosteroids or immunosuppressive drugs). Replacement therapy (eg., thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency, etc.) is not considered a form of systemic treatment.
• Has a history of (non-infectious) pneumonitis that required steroids or has current pneumonitis.
• Has an active infection requiring systemic therapy.
• Has a known history of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
• Has a known active Hepatitis B (defined as Hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg] reactive) or Hepatitis C virus (i.d. HCV RNA [qualitative] is detected) infection.
• Has a known history of active TB (Bacillus Tuberculosis).
• Has a history or current evidence of any condition, therapy, or laboratory abnormality that might confound the results of the study, interfere with the subject's participation for the full duration of the study, or is not in the best interest of the subject to participate, in the opinion of the treating investigator.
• Has known psychiatric or substance abuse disorders that would interfere with cooperation with the requirements of the trial.
• Is pregnant or breastfeeding, or expecting to conceive or father children within the projected duration of the study, starting with the screening visit through 120 days after the last dose of trial treatment.
• Has significant cardiovascular disease, such as:
• History of myocardial infarction, acute coronary syndrome or coronary angioplasty/stenting/bypass grafting within the last 6 months
• Congestive heart failure (CHF) New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class II-IV or history of CHF NYHA class III or IV
• Angina pectoris requiring anti-anginal medication, uncontrolled arrhythmias, or uncontrolled hypertension (systolic blood pressure > 180mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure > 100mmHg).
Clazakizumab for the Treatment of Chronic Active Antibody Mediated Rejection in Kidney Transplant Recipients (IMAGINE)
This trial investigates the efficacy and safety of clazakizumab [an anti-interleukin (IL)-6 monoclonal antibody (mAb)] for the treatment of CABMR in recipients of a kidney transplant.
• Inclusion criteria:
• Age 18-75 years.
• Living donor/deceased donor kidney transplant recipients ≥6 months from time of transplant.
• Diagnosis of CABMR determined by kidney biopsy and the presence of HLA DSA using single-antigen bead-based assays. For eligibility, kidney biopsy must not be older than 12 months and DSA analysis must be performed no longer than 6 months prior to the start of Screening. NOTE: • Within 3 months prior to the start of Screening, treatments for ABMR or TCMR, with the exception of steroids*, are not allowed (see Exclusion Criterion 3). • If treatment for ABMR (including CABMR) or TCMR (other than steroids*) was given between 3 to 12 months of Screening, a repeat kidney biopsy and DSA analysis are required at least 6 weeks after the end of treatment to confirm continuing CABMR and presence of HLA DSA and to determine eligibility. * A maximum dose of 2g of methylprednisolone intravenously (or dose equivalent of other steroids), followed by a taper to the original maintenance steroid dose is allowed. The following histopathologic and serologic diagnostic criteria (based on Banff 2015 criteria [Loupy et al, 2017]) must be met for inclusion:
• Morphologic evidence of chronic tissue injury, as demonstrated by transplant glomerulopathy (TG) (cg) > 0). Biopsies without evidence of chronic tissue injury on light microscopy, but with glomerular basement membrane double contours on electron microscopy (cg1a) are eligible.
• Evidence of current/recent antibody interaction with vascular endothelium, including 1 or more of the following: i. Linear C4d staining in peritubular capillaries or medullary vasa recta (Banff scores C4d2 or C4d3 by immunofluorescence on frozen sections, or C4d > 0 by immunohistochemistry on paraffin sections). ii. At least moderate microvascular inflammation ([glomerulitis score, g + peritubular capillaritis score, ptc] ≥ 2) in the absence of recurrent or de novo glomerulonephritis, although in the presence of acute TCMR, borderline infiltrate, or infection, ptc ≥ 2 alone is not sufficient and g must be ≥ 1. NOTE: The local pathologist's diagnosis must be reviewed by a central pathologist to confirm eligibility for entry into the study. Biopsies with other histopathologic changes (eg, BKV nephropathy or recurrent glomerulonephritis) may be eligible if concurrent CABMR changes (as detailed above) are present and determined to be the predominant cause of renal dysfunction. c. Serologic evidence of circulating HLA DSA. NOTE: The local laboratory DSA results must be reviewed and confirmed by the central HLA reviewer during the screening period.
• Written informed consent obtained from subject (or legally acceptable representative) before any trial-related procedures.
• Exclusion criteria:
• Multi-organ transplant recipient (except for simultaneous kidney-pancreas or previous multiple kidney transplants) or cell transplant (islet, bone marrow, stem cell) recipient.
• Treatment for ABMR (including CABMR) or TCMR within 3 months prior to the start of screening with the exception of steroids.
• Received T cell depleting agents (e.g., alemtuzumab, anti-thymocyte globulin) within 3 months prior to the start of screening.
• Pregnant, breastfeeding, or unwillingness to practice adequate contraception.
• Active tuberculosis (TB) or history of active TB.
• History of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection or positive for HIV.
• Seropositive for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
• Hepatitis C virus (HCV) RNA positive.
HOPE in Action Trial of HIV+ Deceased Donor Liver Transplants for HIV+ Recipients
The primary objective of this study is to determine if an HIV-infected donor liver (HIVD+) transplant is safe with regards to major transplant-related and HIV-related complications
• Participant meets the standard criteria for liver transplant at the local center.
• Participants being listed for a simultaneous liver kidney (SLK) are eligible if participants meet the standard criteria for both organs.
• Participant is able to understand and provide informed consent.
• Participant meets with an independent advocate per the HIV Organ Policy Equity (HOPE) Act Safeguards and Research Criteria.
• Documented HIV infection (by any licensed assay or documented history of detectable HIV-1 RNA).*
• Participant is ≥ 18 years old.
• Opportunistic complications: prior history of certain opportunistic infections is not an exclusion if the participant has received appropriate therapy and has no evidence of active disease. Medical record documentation should be provided whenever possible.
• CD4+ T-cell count: ≥ 100/µL within 16 weeks prior to transplant if no history of AIDS-defining infection; or ≥ 200 μL if history of opportunistic infection is present.
• HIV-1 RNA is below 50 RNA/mL.* Viral blips between 50-400 copies will be allowed as long as there are not consecutive measurements > 200 copies/mL. *Organ recipients who are unable to tolerate anti-retroviral therapy (ART) due to organ. failure or recently started ART may be eligible despite a detectable viral load if safe and effective ART to be used by the recipient after transplantation is described.
• Participant must have or be willing to start seeing a primary medical care provider with expertise in HIV management.
• Participant is willing to comply with all medications related to participant's transplant and HIV management.
• For participants with a history of aspergillus colonization or disease, no current clinical evidence of active disease.
• Agreement to use contraception.
• Participant is not suffering from significant wasting (e.g. body mass index < 21) thought to be related to HIV disease.
• Participant has a history of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), or primary central nervous system (CNS) lymphoma.*
• Participant is pregnant or breastfeeding. (Note: Participants who become pregnant post-transplant will continue to be followed in the study and will be managed per local site practice. Women that become pregnant should not breastfeed.)
• Past or current medical problems or findings from medical history, physical examination or laboratory testing that are not listed above, which, in the opinion of the investigator, may pose additional risks from participation in the study, may interfere with the participant's ability to comply with study requirements or that may impact the quality or interpretation of the data obtained from the study.
Efficacy and Safety of Pembrolizumab (MK-3475) in Combination With Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) in High-Risk Non-Muscle Invasive Bladder Cancer (HR NMIBC) (MK-3475-676/KEYNOTE-676)
This study is designed to assess the antitumor efficacy and safety of pembrolizumab in combination with BCG, compared to BCG monotherapy, in participants with HR NMIBC that is either persistent or recurrent following adequate BCG induction (Cohort A), or that is naïve to BCG treatment (Cohort B). The primary hypothesis for Cohort A is that the combination of pembrolizumab plus BCG has a superior complete response rate (CRR) as assessed by central pathology review compared to BCG in participants with carcinoma in situ (CIS). The primary hypothesis for Cohort B is that the combination of pembrolizumab plus BCG (either reduced maintenance or full maintenance) has a superior Event Free Survival (EFS) compared to BCG.
• Have locally and blinded independent central review (BICR)-confirmed histological diagnosis of high-risk non-muscle invasive (T1, high grade Ta and/or CIS) UC of the bladder
• Has undergone cystoscopy/ transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT) to remove all resectable disease
• Has provided tissue for biomarker analysis
• Has Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0, 1 or 2
• Has adequate organ function
• During the treatment period and for ≥7 days after the last dose of BCG, male participants are EITHER abstinent from heterosexual intercourse as their preferred and usual lifestyle and agree to remain abstinent, OR, must agree to use contraception unless confirmed to be azoospermic
• Female participants who are not pregnant, not breastfeeding, and either not a woman of child bearing potential (WOCBP); or are a WOCBP who agrees to use a contraception method that is highly effective or remains abstinent from heterosexual intercourse during the treatment period and for ≥7 days after the last dose of BCG or 120 days after the last dose of pembrolizumab, whichever comes last BCG Post-induction Cohort (Cohort A) Only
• Has been treated with one adequate course of BCG induction therapy for the treatment of HR NMIBC
• Following adequate BCG induction therapy, must have persistent or recurrent HR NMIBC
• Has a history of or concurrent locally advanced (i.e., T2, T3, T4) or metastatic UC
• Has concurrent extra-vesical (i.e, urethra, ureter, renal pelvis) non-muscle invasive urothelial carcinoma or a history of extra-vesical non-muscle invasive UC
• Has received prior therapy with anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1, or anti-PD-L2 agent or with an agent directed to another stimulatory or co-inhibitory T-cell receptor
• Has received prior systemic anti-cancer therapy including investigational agents within 4 weeks of start of study treatment
• Is currently participating in or has participated in a study of an investigational agent or has used an investigational device within 4 weeks of start of study treatment
• Has a diagnosis of immunodeficiency or is receiving chronic systemic steroid therapy or any other form of immunosuppressive therapy within 7 days of start of study treatment
• Has a known additional malignancy that is progressing or requires active treatment within the past 3 years
• Has an active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in past 2 years
• Has a history of (non-infectious) pneumonitis/interstitial lung disease that required steroids or has current pneumonitis/interstitial lung disease
• Has one or more of the following contraindications to BCG: prior BCG sepsis or systemic infection, total bladder incontinence, or an adverse experience to a previous BCG instillation that resulted in treatment discontinuation and precludes retreating with BCG
• Has an active infection or diagnosis requiring systemic antimicrobial therapy
• Has a known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
• Has a known history of Hepatitis B or known active Hepatitis C virus infection
• Has current active tuberculosis
• Has had an allogenic-tissue/solid organ transplant
• Has any contraindication(s) to IV contrast or is otherwise unable to have screening imaging with IV contrast performed BCG Post-induction Cohort (Cohort A) Only - Has persistent T1 disease following an induction course of BCG BCG Naïve Cohort (Cohort B) Only
• Has received any prior treatment with BCG for their NMIBC within the past 2 years prior to study entry
Study Of Palbociclib Combined With Chemotherapy In Pediatric Patients With Recurrent/Refractory Solid Tumors
A study to learn about safety and find out maximum tolerable dose of palbociclib given in combination with chemotherapy (temozolomide with irinotecan or topotecan with cyclophosphamide) in children, adolescents and young adults with recurrent or refractory solid tumors (phase 1). Phase 2 to learn about the efficacy of palbociclib in combination with irinotecan and temozolomide when compared with irinotecan and temozolomide alone in the treatment of children, adolescents, and young adults with recurrent or refractory Ewing sarcoma (EWS).
• Histologically confirmed relapsed or refractory solid tumor as follows:
• For dose escalation and dose determination parts: Histologically confirmed relapsed or refractory solid tumor (including CNS tumors but not lymphomas). Patients with Diffuse Intrinsic Pontine Glioma do not require histological only radiographic confirmed relapse to enroll.
• For dose expansion and tumor specific cohorts: Histologically confirmed relapsed or refractory solid tumor including but not limited to EWS, rhabdoid tumor, rhabdomyosarcoma, neuroblastoma, and medulloblastoma. Patients with Diffuse Intrinsic Pontine Glioma do not require histological only radiographic confirmed relapse to enroll. EWS is not eligible for TOPO and CTX tumor-specific cohorts.
• For randomized Phase 2 part: Histologically confirmed Ewing sarcoma at diagnosis or at relapse, with presence of EWSR1-ETS or FUS-ETS rearrangement. Histopathology confirmation of both EWSR1-ETS or FUS-ETS rearrangement partners is required OR availability of formalin fixed paraffin embedded (FFPE) tumor tissue sample for central testing. Patient must have relapsed or have refractory disease and at least evaluable disease in at least one site other than bone marrow that can be followed by imaging.
• Age ≥2 and <21 years at the time of study entry.
• Lansky performance status ≥50% for patients ≤16 years of age, or Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) 0, 1 or 2 for patients >16 years of age.
• Adequate bone marrow function.
• Absolute neutrophil count ≥1000/mm3;
• Platelet count ≥100,000/mm3 (transfusion independent, no platelet transfusion in past 7 days prior study entry);
• Hemoglobin ≥8.5 g/dL (transfusion allowed).
• Adequate renal function: Serum creatinine level based on age/gender must within protocol specified limits.
• Adequate liver function, including:
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤2.5 × upper limit of normal (ULN) or ≤5 × ULN for age, if attributable to disease involvement of the liver;
• Total bilirubin ≤1.5 × ULN for age, unless the patient has documented Gilbert's syndrome.
• Patients enrolled to Phase 1 portion of the study and tumor specific cohorts must have measurable disease as defined by RECIST version 1.1 or modified RANO criteria for CNS disease or INRC for neuroblastoma. Patients with EWS enrolled to Phase 2 portion of the study are eligible with evaluable disease (eg, bone only disease with no soft tissue component).
• Recovered to CTCAE Grade ≤1, or to baseline, from any non-hematological acute toxicities of prior surgery, chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiotherapy, differentiation therapy or biologic therapy, with the exception of alopecia.
• Serum/urine pregnancy test (for all girls ≥8 years of age) negative at screening and at the baseline visit. Exclusion:
• Phase 1 and tumor specific cohorts: For palbociclib with IRN and TMZ combination, prior treatment with a CDK4/6 inhibitor or progression while on treatment with an IRN-containing regimen that includes TMZ. Patients who have received the combination of IRN and TMZ and did not progress while on these medications are eligible. For patients enrolling in the palbociclib with TOPO and CTX combination, prior treatment with a CDK4/6 inhibitor or progression while on treatment with a TOPO-containing regimen that includes CTX. Patients who have received the combination of TOPO and CTX and did not progress while on these medications are eligible. Phase 2 portion: prior treatment with a CDK4/6 inhibitor or progression while on treatment with an IRN-containing or TMZ-containing regimen. Patients who have received IRN and/or TMZ and did not progress while on these medications are eligible.
• Prior intolerability to IRN and/or TMZ plus/minus palbociclib with IRN and TMZ combination and prior intolerability to TOPO and/or CTX for TOPO and CTX combination.
• Use of strong cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A inhibitors or inducers. Patients who are receiving strong uridine diphosphate-glucuronosyl transferase 1A1 (UGT1A1) inhibitors within 12 days of Cycle 1 Day 1 (C1D1) are not eligible for the palbociclib with IRN and TMZ combination. Patients who are receiving strong UGT1A1 inhibitors within 12 days of C1D1 are eligible for the palbociclib with TOPO and CTX combination (See Section 5.7.1 for list of products.)
• Systemic anti cancer therapy within 2 weeks prior to study entry and 6 weeks for nitrosoureas.
• Prior irradiation to >50% of the bone marrow (see Appendix 9).
• Participation in other studies involving investigational drug(s) within 2 weeks or 5 half lives, whichever is longer, prior to study entry.
• Major surgery within 4 weeks prior to study entry. Surgical biopsies or central line placement are not considered major surgeries.
• For IRN and TMZ with/without palbociclib combinations: known or suspected hypersensitivity to palbociclib, IRN and/or TMZ. For combination of palbociclib with TOPO and CTX: known or suspected hypersensitivity to palbociclib, TOPO and/or CTX.
• Patients with known symptomatic brain tumors or brain metastases and require steroids, unless they have been on a stable or on a decreasing steroid dose for >14 days.
• Patients with previously diagnosed brain metastases are eligible if they have completed their prior treatment and have recovered from the acute effects of radiation therapy or surgery prior to study entry for these metastases for at least 14 days post radiation and 4 weeks post-surgery and are neurologically stable.
• Hereditary bone marrow failure disorder.
• QTc >470 msec.
• History of clinically significant or uncontrolled cardiac disease, including:
• History of or active congestive heart failure; if patient had congestive heart failure resolve and >1 year from resolution, patient will be considered eligible;
• Clinically significant ventricular arrhythmia (such as ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation or Torsades de Pointes);
• Diagnosed or suspected congenital or acquired prolonged QT syndrome;
• Need for medications known to prolong the QT interval;
• Uncorrected hypomagnesemia or hypokalemia because of potential effects on the QT interval;
• Left ventricular ejection fraction <50% or shortening fraction <28%.
• Recent or ongoing clinically significant gastrointestinal disorder that may interfere with absorption of orally administered drugs (eg, gastrectomy).
• Severe acute or chronic medical or laboratory test abnormality that may increase the risk associated with study participation or investigational product administration or may interfere with the interpretation of study results, and in the judgment of the Investigator, would make the patient inappropriate for entry into this study.
• Investigator site staff members directly involved in the conduct of the study and their family members, site staff members otherwise supervised by the investigator, or patients who are Pfizer employees, including their family members, directly involved in the conduct of the study.
Multiparametric MRI in Evaluating Cancer Stage and Helping Treatment Planning in Patients With Prostate Cancer
This phase II trial studies how well multiparametric magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) works in evaluating cancer stage and helping treatment planning in patients with prostate cancer. Multiparametric MRI may be useful for evaluating the type of cancer in finding aggressive disease.
• Recently diagnosed with prostate cancer for whom definitive surgical treatment is indicated
• Not suitable to undergo MRI or receive gadolinium-based contrast agent (severe, untreatable claustrophobia; MRI-incompatible metallic objects or implanted medical devices; renal failure; weight greater than allowable by scanner per institutional standard practice)
• Prior surgical and/or non-surgical treatment for prostate cancer
• Prior hip replacement or other major pelvic surgery
An Observational Study of Patients With Chronic Hepatitis B (CHB) Infection
The TARGET-HBV study engages an observational research design to conduct a comprehensive review of outcomes for patients with CHB infection. The initial phase of the study that enrolled patients treated with tenofovir alafenamide (TAF) was successfully completed. The current protocol (Amendment 1) describes the second phase of the study that will engage research activities for patients being managed for CHB in usual clinical practice in the US and Canada. The study addresses important clinical questions regarding the management of CHB by collecting and analyzing data from patients at academic and community medical centers. TARGET-HBV creates a robust database of real-world data regarding the natural history, management, and health outcomes related to antiviral treatments used in clinical practice.
• Male or female patients, age ≥18 years
• Being managed for chronic hepatitis B (CHB), including patients who have achieved functional cure and patients with concurrent delta hepatitis Exclusion
• Inability to provide written informed consent
• Known history of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
• History of liver transplantation
Standard Systemic Therapy With or Without Definitive Treatment in Treating Participants With Metastatic Prostate Cancer
This phase III trial studies how well standard systemic therapy with or without definitive treatment (prostate removal surgery or radiation therapy) works in treating participants with prostate cancer that has spread to other places in the body. Addition of prostate removal surgery or radiation therapy to standard systemic therapy for prostate cancer may lower the chance of the cancer growing or spreading.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: All patients must have a histologically or cytologically proven diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the prostate. Patients with pure small cell carcinoma* (SCC), sarcomatoid, or squamous cell carcinoma are not eligible. (*morphology must be consistent with SCC; synaptophysin or chromogranin positive by immunohistochemical staining is insufficient to diagnose SCC).
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have an intact prostate. No prior local therapy for prostate adenocarcinoma is allowed (e.g., brachytherapy, high-intensity focused ultrasound [HIFU], cryotherapy, laser ablative therapies). Any prior therapy for benign conditions, such as obstruction, are acceptable (e.g., transurethral resection of the prostate, greenlight laser ablation, microwave ablation).
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have evidence of metastatic disease on technetium bone scan and computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) within 42 days prior to starting standard systemic therapy. Metastatic disease that is detected by positron emission tomography (PET) scan only (sodium fluoride [NaF], prostate-specific membrane antigen [PSMA], anti-1-amino-3-18F-fluorocyclobutane-1-carboxylic acid [FACBC], carbon [C]11) but not conventional imaging (technetium [Tc]99 bone scan, CT or MRI) or solitary metastases by conventional imaging, must be confirmed histologically or cytologically.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients with known brain metastases are not eligible. Brain imaging studies are not required for eligibility if the patient has no neurologic signs or symptoms suggestive of brain metastasis. If brain imaging studies are performed, they must be negative for disease.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must have received no more than 28 weeks of standard systemic therapy (SST). SST is defined as current National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) guidelines for metastatic prostate cancer.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must not have progressed while on SST.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients with oligometastatic prostate cancer may receive metastasis directed therapy to up to four sites of disease prior to randomization.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a complete physical examination and medical history within 28 days prior to registration.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a PSA documented prior to initiation of SST and within 28 days prior to registration. Any additional PSAs measured while receiving SST should be recorded.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a testosterone lab documented within 28 days prior to randomization. Any additional testosterone labs measured while receiving SST should be recorded as well as pretreatment initiation if available.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: No other prior malignancy is allowed except for the following: adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, adequately treated stage 0, I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for three years.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: SPECIMEN SUBMISSION CRITERIA: Patients must be offered the opportunity to participate in translational medicine studies and specimen banking for future studies.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: QUALITY OF LIFE CRITERIA: Patients who can complete Patient-Reported Outcome instruments in English, Spanish or French, must participate in the quality of life studies.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: REGULATORY CRITERIA: Patients must be informed of the investigational nature of this study and must sign and give written informed consent in accordance with institutional and federal guidelines.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: As a part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have no evidence of disease progression during the 28 weeks of SST by PSA measure, bone scan and CT or MRI or symptomatic deterioration (as defined by physician discretion) within 28 days prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have consultation with a urologist and have surgically resectable disease regardless of definitive treatment intent or randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must have received between 22 and 28 weeks of SST as measured from the date of first hormonal therapy or surgical castration. SST is defined by current NCCN guidelines for metastatic prostate cancer.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must not be planning to receive docetaxel after randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Any toxicities from SST must have resolved to =< grade 1 (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] version 5.0) prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients may have received elective metastasis directed therapy to oligometastatic sites (=< 4 sites). All treatment must be completed prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a PSA performed within 28 days prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a testosterone < 50 ng/dL within 28 days prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a Zubrod performance status of 0 ? 1 within 28 days prior to randomization.
A Study Evaluating the Efficacy and Safety of Ralinepag to Improve Treatment Outcomes in PAH Patients
Study ROR-PH-301, ADVANCE OUTCOMES, is designed to assess the efficacy and safety of ralinepag when added to pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) standard of care or PAH-specific background therapy in subjects with World Health Organization (WHO) Group 1 PAH.
• At least 18 years of age.
• Evidence of a personally signed and dated informed consent form indicating that the subject has been informed of all pertinent aspects of the study prior to initiation of any study-related procedures.
• Subjects who are willing and able to comply with scheduled visits, treatment plan, laboratory tests, and other study procedures
• Primary diagnosis of symptomatic PAH.
• Has had a right heart catheterization (RHC) performed at or within 3 years prior to Screening (RHC will be performed during Screening if not available) that is consistent with the diagnosis of PAH.
• Has WHO/ NYHA functional class II to IV symptoms.
• If on PAH-specific background oral therapy, subject is on stable therapy with either an endothelin receptor antagonist (ERA) and/or a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor (PDE5-I) or a soluble guanylate cyclase (sGC) stimulator.
• Has a 6MWD of ≥150 meters.
• If taking concomitant medications that may affect the clinical manifestations of PAH (eg, calcium channel blockers, diuretics, digoxin, or L arginine supplementation, beta blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, or angiotensin II receptor blockers), must be on a stable dose for at least 30 days prior to the Baseline Visit and the dosage maintained throughout the study. The exception is that the dose of diuretics must be stable for at least the 10 days prior to Baseline.
• Both male and female subjects agree to use a highly effective method of birth control throughout the entire study period from informed consent through to the 30-Day Follow-up Visit, if the possibility of conception exists. Eligible male and female subjects must also agree not to participate in a conception process during the study and for 30 days after the last dose of IMP. Eligible male subjects must agree not to participate in sperm donation for 90 days after the last dose of IMP.
• For subjects with known HIV-associated PAH, a cluster designation 4 (CD4+) T-cell count <200/mm3 within 90 days of Baseline.
• Must not have 3 or more left ventricular dysfunction risk factors as defined in the study protocol.
• Has evidence of more than mild lung disease on pulmonary function tests performed within 180 days prior to, or during Screening.
• Has evidence of thromboembolic disease as determined by a V/Q lung scan or local standard of care diagnostic evaluation at or after diagnosis of PAH.
• Current diagnosis of ongoing and clinically significant sleep apnea as defined by the Investigator.
• Male subjects with a corrected QT interval using Fridericia's formula (QTcF) >450 msec and female subjects with a QTcF >470 msec on ECG recorded at Screening and analyzed by the central ECG laboratory. Subjects with evidence of intraventricular conduction delay, defined as a QRS interval greater than 110 msec, will be excluded if the QTcF is >500 msec for both males and females.
• Severe chronic liver disease (ie, Child-Pugh Class C), portal hypertension, cirrhosis or complications of cirrhosis/portal hypertension (eg, history of variceal hemorrhage, encephalopathy).
• Confirmed active infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV).
• Subjects with alanine aminotransferase or aspartate aminotransferase ≥3 times the upper limit of normal (ULN) or total bilirubin ≥2 × ULN at Screening.
• Chronic renal insufficiency as defined by serum creatinine >2.5 mg/dL or requiring dialysis at Screening.
• Hemoglobin concentration <9 g/dL at Screening.
• Subjects treated with an IV or SC prostacyclin pathway agent (eg, epoprostenol, treprostinil, or iloprost) for PAH at any time prior to Baseline (use in vasoreactive testing is permitted).
• Subjects currently on or who were treated with an inhaled or oral prostacyclin pathway agent (iloprost, treprostinil, beraprost, or selexipag) for >6 months or within 90 days prior to Baseline.
• Subject has pulmonary veno-occlusive disease.
• Malignancy diagnosed and/or treated within 5 years prior to Screening, with the exception of localized non-metastatic basal cell or squamous cell carcinoma of the skin or in-situ carcinoma of the cervix excised with curative intent.
• Subject tests positive for amphetamine, cocaine, methamphetamine, methylenedioxymethamphetamine or phencyclidine in urine drug screen performed at Screening, or has a recent history (6 months) of alcohol or drug abuse. A subject will not be excluded due to a positive drug screen caused by prescribed medications.
• Initiation or discontinuation of a cardio-pulmonary rehabilitation program based upon exercise within 90 days prior to Screening and/or planned during study participation.
• Prior participation in any study of ralinepag or participation in another interventional clinical study with medicinal products within 30 days prior to Screening. Concurrent participation in registry or observational studies is allowed, as long as the subject can fulfill all other entry criteria and comply with all study procedures.
• Any reason that, in the opinion of the Investigator or Medical Monitor, precludes the subject from participating in the study (eg, any previous or intercurrent medical condition) that may increase the risk associated with study participation or that would confound study analysis or impair study participation or cooperation.
• Known hypersensitivity to ralinepag or any of the excipients.
• Life expectancy <12 months based on the Investigator's opinion.
• Women who are pregnant, lactating or breast-feeding.
First-in-Human (FIH) Trial in Patients With Relapsed, Progressive or Refractory B-Cell Lymphoma (EPCORE™ NHL-1)
The trial is a global, multi-center safety and efficacy trial of epcoritamab, an antibody also known as EPKINLY™ and GEN3013 (DuoBody®-CD3xCD20). The trial consists of 3 parts: - a dose-escalation part (Phase 1, first-in-human (FIH)) - an expansion part (Phase 2a) - a dose-optimization part (Phase 2a)
• Documented CD20+ mature B-cell neoplasm
• DLBCL - de novo or transformed
• MZL (nodal, extranodal or mucosa associated)
• Relapsed, progressive and/or refractory disease following treatment with an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody (e.g. rituximab) potentially in combination with chemotherapy and/or relapsed after autologous stem cell rescue.
• ECOG performance status 0,1 or 2
• Patients must have measurable disease by CT, MRI or PET-CT scan
• Acceptable renal function
• Acceptable liver function Main Inclusion Criteria - Expansion & Optimization Parts
• Documented CD20 positive mature B cell neoplasm or CD20+ MCL
• DLBCL, de novo or transformed (including double hit or triple hit)
• FL grade 3B
• Histologic confirmed FL
• MCL (prior BTKi or intolerant to BTKi)
• At least 2 therapies including an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody containing chemotherapy combination regimen
• Either failed prior autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation or ineligible for autologous stem cell transplantation due to age or comorbidities
• At least 1 measurable site of disease based on CT, MRI or PET-CT scan with involvement of 2 or more clearly demarcated lesions and or nodes Main Exclusion Criteria - All Parts
• Primary central nervous system (CNS) lymphoma or CNS involvement by lymphoma at screening
• Known past or current malignancy other than inclusion diagnosis
• AST, and/or ALT >3 × upper limit of normal
• Total bilirubin >1.5 × upper limit of normal, unless bilirubin rise is due to Gilbert's syndrome or of non-hepatic origin
• Estimated CrCl <45 mL/min
• Known clinically significant cardiovascular disease
• Ongoing active bacterial, viral, fungal, mycobacterial, parasitic, or other infection requiring systemic treatment (excluding prophylactic treatment). Past COVID-19 infection may be a risk factor
• Confirmed history or current autoimmune disease or other diseases resulting in permanent immunosuppression or requiring permanent immunosuppressive therapy
• Seizure disorder requiring therapy (such as steroids or anti-epileptics)
• Any prior therapy with an investigational bispecific antibody targeting CD3 and CD20
• Prior treatment with chimeric antigen receptor T-cell (CAR-T) therapy within 30 days prior to first epcoritamab administration
• Eligible for curative intensive salvage therapy followed by high dose chemotherapy with HSCT rescue
• Autologous HSCT within 100 days prior to first epcoritamab administration, or any prior allogeneic HSCT or solid organ transplantation
• Active hepatitis B (DNA PCR-positive) or hepatitis C (RNA PCR-positive infection). Subjects with evidence of prior HBV but who are PCR-negative are permitted in
• Known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
• Exposed to live or live attenuated vaccine within 4 weeks prior to signing ICF
• Pregnancy or breast feeding
• Patient is known or suspected of not being able to comply with the study protocol or has any condition for which, participation would not be in the best interest of the patient
• Contraindication to all uric acid lowering agents NOTE: Other protocol defined Inclusion/Exclusion criteria may apply.
Gemcitabine and Cisplatin Without Cystectomy for Patients With Muscle Invasive Bladder Urothelial Cancer and Select Genetic Alterations
This phase II trial studies how well gemcitabine hydrochloride and cisplatin work in treating participants with invasive bladder urothelial cancer. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as gemcitabine hydrochloride and cisplatin, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading.
• Step 1 Patient Registration Eligibility Criteria
• Histologically confirmed muscle-invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder. Urothelial carcinoma invading into the prostatic stroma with no histologic muscle invasion is allowed, provided the extent of disease is confirmed via imaging and/or examination under anesthesia (EUA). The diagnostic TURBT sample must have been obtained within 60 days prior to registration
• 20 unstained slides (10 micron thickness) of formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) pre-treatment diagnostic transurethral resection (TUR) specimen available (for sequencing), with 2 (5 micron) slides at the start and end of the 20 slides, for a total of 22 unstained slides. An FFPE block is also acceptable
• Clinical stage T2-T4aN0/xM0 disease
• Medically appropriate candidate for radical cystectomy as assessed by surgeon
• No concomitant multifocal carcinoma in situ; a single focus is allowed
• A single muscle-invasive bladder tumor measuring ≤5 cm in size as defined by the surgeons at cystoscopic evaluation. When documented, pathologic size at cystoscopy and TURBT will take precedence over radiographic measurements of tumor size.
• No clinical or radiographic evidence for locally advanced or metastatic disease
• No prior anti-PD-1 or anti PD-L1 therapies, or systemic chemotherapy within the past 5 years (prior intravesical induction immunotherapy for non-muscle invasive disease is allowed, defined as BCG x6 doses and maintenance therapy); BCG refractory disease, defined as disease recurrence within 3 months of BCG therapy, is not allowed. Intravesical chemotherapy is allowed.
• No prior radiation therapy to the bladder or prostate
• No major surgery or radiation therapy =< 4 weeks of registration (TURBT is allowed).
• Not pregnant and not nursing. This study involves an agent that has known genotoxic, mutagenic and teratogenic effects. For women of childbearing potential only, a negative pregnancy test done =< 14 days prior to registration is required
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-1
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mm^3
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3
• Calculated creatinine clearance ≥ 55 mL/min using formula per institutional standard or investigator's discretion. The same formula should be used to calculate all subsequent creatinine clearances.
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) * (For patients with documented Gilbert's syndrome Total Bilirubin =< 3 x ULN)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x ULN
• Alkaline phosphatase =< 2.5 x ULN
• No evidence of New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional class III or IV heart disease
• No ongoing cardiac dysrhythmias of National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version 5.0 grade >= 2
• No pre-existing sensory grade >= 2 neuropathy
• No pre-existing grade >= 2 hearing loss
• No serious intercurrent medical or psychiatric illness, including serious active infection
• None of the following within the 6 months prior to study drug administration: myocardial infarction, severe/unstable angina, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft, symptomatic congestive heart failure, cerebrovascular accident, or transient ischemic attack
• No known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)-related illness or other active infection. HIV-positive patients on combination antiretroviral therapy are ineligible because of the potential for pharmacokinetic interactions with the drugs used in this trial. In addition, these patients are at increased risk of lethal infections when treated with marrow-suppressive therapy. Appropriate studies will be undertaken in patients receiving combination antiretroviral therapy, when indicated
• No history of allergic reaction attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to the agents used in this study
• No concurrent treatment on another clinical trial; supportive care trials or non-therapeutic trials (e.g., quality of life) are allowed
• No prior malignancy except for: adequately treated basal or squamous cell skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer, adequately treated stage I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for five years. Patients with localized prostate cancer who are being followed by an active surveillance program are also eligible
• Step 2 Patient Registration Eligibility Criteria
• Patients must have completed 4 or more cycles of protocol-directed chemotherapy and DDR gene results must be available
• Step 3 Patient Registration Eligibility Criteria (only patients with a DDR gene alteration)
• Deleterious alteration within 1 or more of 9 pre-defined DDR genes within the pre-treatment TURBT deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
• Cystoscopy and imaging performed to determine stage/treatment assignment
Cisplatin and Combination Chemotherapy in Treating Children and Young Adults With Hepatoblastoma or Liver Cancer After Surgery
This partially randomized phase II/III trial studies how well, in combination with surgery, cisplatin and combination chemotherapy works in treating children and young adults with hepatoblastoma or hepatocellular carcinoma. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as cisplatin, doxorubicin, fluorouracil, vincristine sulfate, carboplatin, etoposide, irinotecan, sorafenib, gemcitabine and oxaliplatin, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Giving combination chemotherapy may kill more tumor cells than one type of chemotherapy alone.
• Patients in Group F must have a body surface area (BSA) >= 0.6 m^2
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2; use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• Patients must be newly diagnosed with histologically-proven primary pediatric hepatic malignancies including hepatoblastoma or hepatocellular carcinoma, except as noted below; patients with a diagnosis of hepatocellular neoplasm, not otherwise specified, should be classified and treated per hepatoblastoma treatment arms; note that rapid central pathology review is required in some cases; please note: all patients with histology as assessed by the institutional pathologist consistent with pure small cell undifferentiated (SCU) HB will be required to have testing for INI1/SMARCB1 by immunohistochemistry (IHC) according to the practices at the institution
• Patients with histology consistent with pure SCU must have positive INI1/SMARCB1 staining
• For all Group A patients, WDF status as determined by rapid review will be used to further stratify patients to Group A1 or A2
• For Groups B, C and D, rapid review is required if patients are either >= 8 years of age or have an alphafetoprotein (AFP) =< 100 at diagnosis
• For all Groups E and F patients, rapid central pathology review is required
• In emergency situations when a patient meets all other eligibility criteria and has had baseline required observations, but is too ill to undergo a biopsy safely, the patient may be enrolled without a biopsy
• Clinical situations in which emergent treatment may be indicated include, but are not limited to, the following circumstances:
• Anatomic or mechanical compromise of critical organ function by tumor (e.g., respiratory distress/failure, abdominal compartment syndrome, urinary obstruction, etc.)
• Uncorrectable coagulopathy
• For a patient to maintain eligibility for AHEP1531 when emergent treatment is given, the following must occur:
• The patient must have a clinical diagnosis of hepatoblastoma, including an elevated alphafetoprotein (AFP), and must meet all AHEP1531 eligibility criteria at the time of emergent treatment
• Patient must be enrolled on AHEP1531 prior to initiating protocol therapy; a patient will be ineligible if any chemotherapy is administered prior to AHEP1531 enrollment
• Note: If the patient receives AHEP1531 chemotherapy emergently PRIOR to undergoing a diagnostic biopsy, pathologic review of material obtained in the future during either biopsy or surgical resection must either confirm the diagnosis of hepatoblastoma or not reveal another pathological diagnosis to be included in the analysis of the study aims
• Patients may have had surgical resection of the hepatic malignancy prior to enrollment; all other anti-cancer therapy for the current liver lesion is prohibited
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 60 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or
• A serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• Age: maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL)
• 1 month to < 6 months: 0.4 (male and female)
• 6 months to < 1 year: 0.5 (male and female)
• 1 to < 2 years: 06 (male and female)
• 2 to < 6 years: 0.8 (male and female)
• 6 to < 10 years: 1 (male and female)
• 10 to < 13 years: 1.2 (male and female)
• 13 to < 16 years: 1.5 (male), 1.4 (female)
• >= 16 years: 1.7 (male), 1.4 (female)
• Total bilirubin =< 5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase [SGOT])/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) (serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase [SGPT]) < 10 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• Shortening fraction of >= 28% by echocardiogram (for patients on doxorubicin-containing regimens [Groups C, D, E2, and F] assessed within 8 weeks prior to study enrollment) or
• Ejection fraction of >= 47% by echocardiogram or radionuclide angiogram (for patients on doxorubicin-containing regimens [Groups C, D, E2, and F] assessed within 8 weeks prior to study enrollment)
• Group F patients only: QT/corrected QT (QTc) interval =< 450 milliseconds for males and =< 470 milliseconds for females (assessed within 8 weeks prior to study enrollment)
• Normal pulmonary function tests (including diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide [DLCO]) if there is clinical indication for determination (e.g. dyspnea at rest, known requirement for supplemental oxygen) (for patients receiving chemotherapy [Groups A, B, C, D, E2, F]); for patients who do not have respiratory symptoms or requirement for supplemental oxygen, pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are NOT required
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
• Prior chemotherapy or tumor directed therapy (i.e. radiation therapy, biologic agents, local therapy (embolization, radiofrequency ablation, and laser); therefore, patients with a pre-disposition syndrome who have a prior malignancy are not eligible
• Patients who are currently receiving another investigational drug
• Patients who are currently receiving other anticancer agents
• Patients with uncontrolled infection
• Patients who previously received a solid organ transplant, other than those who previously received an orthotopic liver transplantation (OLT) as primary treatment of their hepatocellular carcinoma
• Patients with hypersensitivity to any drugs on their expected treatment arm
• Group C: Patients who have known deficiency of dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD)
• Group D:
• Patients with chronic inflammatory bowel disease and/or bowel obstruction
• Patients with concomitant use of St. John's wort, which cannot be stopped prior to the start of trial treatment
• Group F:
• Patients with peripheral sensitive neuropathy with functional impairment
• Patients with a personal or family history of congenital long QT syndrome
• These criteria apply ONLY to patients who may receive chemotherapy (all groups other than Group E1):
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation
• Note for Group F: patients of childbearing potential should use effective birth control during treatment with sorafenib and for at least 2 weeks after stopping treatment
Prostate Oncologic Therapy While Ensuring Neurovascular Conservation (POTEN-C) (POTEN-C)
Reduction of dose to or 'sparing' of neurovascular structures during stereotactic ablative body radiotherapy (SAbR) for localized prostate cancer will improve retention of sexual potency, while retaining excellent oncologic control and other secondary health-related quality of life (HRQOL) endpoints. Primary Objectives: • To compare the decline in patient health-related quality of life (HRQOL) instrument-defined erectile dysfunction following stereotactic ablative body radiotherapy (SAbR) with or without neurovascular sparing Secondary Objectives: - Assess acute (within 3 months of treatment) and chronic (>3 months after treatment) SAbR related GU and GI toxicities, as well as serial impact on HRQOL metrics over time - Assess biochemical progression free survival, local recurrence, distant recurrence, and survival - Evaluate simplified 'practical' secondary HRQOL sexual potency endpoints that can be compared to prior literature. Exploratory Objectives: - Evaluate feasibility of MRI BOLD/TOLD to be integrated as hypoxia monitoring sequences to standard already planned diagnostic and/or treatment planning MRI on the study in five patient pilot. - Evaluate quality of spacer placement and its effect on dose to neurovascular structures - Evaluate rate local recurrence in the area of sparing adjacent to the neurovascular elements by biopsy in those with biochemical progression.
• Age ≥ 18 years.
• Appropriate staging studies identifying patient as AJCC 7th edition clinical stage T1 (a, b, or c) or T2 (a, b, or c) adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland. The patient should not have direct evidence of regional or distant metastases after appropriate staging studies. See Appendix I for details on AJCC 7th Edition staging criteria. Histologic confirmation of cancer will be required by biopsy performed within 12 months of registration. T-staging may be assessed by multi-parametric imaging alone if digital rectal examination was deferred.
• The patient's Zubrod performance status must be 0-2 (see Appendix II for definition).
• The Gleason summary score should be less than or equal to 7 [Grade group 1 (Gleason 3+3=6), group 2 (Gleason 3+4=7), and group 3 (Gleason 4+3=7) are allowed]. See Appendix III for details on definitions. While a template biopsy is recommended, it is not required in the case of MRI fusion biopsy performed on all dominant MR lesions (defined as PIRADS v2 4-5).
• Baseline AUA symptom score ≤19 (see Appendix IV for questionnaire) without need for maximum medical therapy (specifically, not on tamsulosin 0.8mg daily).
• EPIC sexual domain composite score 60-100 (see Appendix V).
• Multi-parametric MRI evaluation of the prostate is required for this study within 12 months of registration. Gross radiographic disease on MRI (defined as PIRADS v2 score 3-5) must be > 5mm at minimum distance from at least one side's neurovascular bundle, which is typically the closest of the neurovascular elements to the prostate.
• The serum PSA should be less than or equal to 20 ng/ml within 90 days of registration. -Study entry PSA must not be obtained during the following time frames: (1) 10-day period following prostate biopsy; (2) following initiation of ADT or anti-androgen therapy; (3) within 30 days after discontinuation of finasteride; (4) within 90 days after discontinuation of dutasteride; (5) within 5 days of a digital rectal examination (which is not a required exam on the protocol).
• Ultrasound or MRI based volume estimation of prostate gland ≤ 80 grams. Cytoreduction therapy (finasteride or dutasteride only) may be considered for those with >60 gram size.
• All patients must be willing and capable to provide informed consent to participate in the protocol within the 30 days prior to registration.
• Subjects with clinical (digital rectal examination) evidence of extraprostatic extension (T3a) or seminal vesicle involvement (T3b). MRI evidence of equivocal/potential but not definite extraprostatic extension is allowed, as long as it is unilateral and not on the side of the gland proposed for neurovascular element sparing. In equivocal cases of potential extracapsular extension on MRI only, discretion is left to the treating physician.
• MRI evidence of gross disease (defined as PIRADS v2 score 3-5 lesions) ≤5mm of BOTH neurovascular bundles, which are the most proximate of the neurovascular elements planned for sparing on this protocol.
• Patients with all three intermediate risk factors (PSA >10 and ≤ 20, Gleason 7, clinical stage T2b-T2c) who ALSO have ≥50% of the number of their template biopsy cores positive for cancer are ineligible.
• Inability to undergo multi-parametric MRI.
• Evidence of metastatic disease. Note bone scan is not required for this study given the low-intermediate NCCN risk cohort to be enrolled.
• Evidence of clinical nodal involvement of the pelvis. Biopsy is required for lymph nodes over ≥1.5cm in short-axis measured size.
• No currently active ADT or anti-androgen therapy at time of registration is allowed. Further, no more than 3 cumulative months of prior ADT or anti-androgen therapy is allowed. If either has been used by the patient, there must be a demonstration of testosterone recovery (>50ng/dL serum blood level), EPIC sexual domain score ≥60, and at least 1 month between demonstration of testosterone recovery and study registration (any one measurement of testosterone recovery suffices).
• Testosterone ≤ 50 ng/dL (any one measurement >50 ng/dL suffices for inclusion) within 90 days of study entry.
• Subjects who have had previous pelvic radiotherapy or have had chemotherapy or surgery for prostate cancer.
• Subjects who have plans to receive other concomitant or post treatment adjuvant antineoplastic therapy while on this protocol including surgery, cryotherapy, conventionally fractionated radiotherapy, hormonal therapy, or chemotherapy given as part of the treatment of prostate cancer.
• Subjects who have undergone previous transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) within 1 year of enrollment or ablative procedures to the prostate for benign prostatic hyperplasia or other conditions (i.e. cryotherapy, HIFU).
• Subjects who have baseline severe urinary symptoms, as defined by AUA symptom score >19 (alpha-blocker medication allowed except if taking tamsulosin 0.8mg daily at baseline which indicates compensated severe symptoms and also can affect sexual function).
• Subjects who have a history of significant psychiatric illness that would confound informed consent.
• Severe, active co-morbidity, defined as follows:
• Unstable angina and/or congestive heart failure requiring hospitalization within the last 6 months
• Myocardial infarction within the last 6 months
• Acute bacterial or fungal infection requiring intravenous antibiotics at time of registration
• Patients with active inflammatory colitis (including Crohn's Disease and ulcerative colitis) currently requiring systemic steroids and/or systemic immunosuppression are not eligible.
• Subjects with a known allergy to polyethylene glycol hydrogel (rectal spacer material) or contraindication to spacer products (SpaceOAR).
• Subjects with uncontrolled coagulation disorder which cannot be controlled with anticoagulants.
• Men active with partners of reproductive potential who do not agree that they will use an effective contraceptive method during treatment and 6 months after treatment.
• Men who require erectile function medication or aid to achieve an erection sufficient for intercourse. Ability to achieve erection sufficient for intercourse without medication or aid at least once time in the month prior to registration is sufficient for inclusion.
• Men who have clinically significant penile malformation (i.e. Peyronie's disease) or history of penile implantation are excluded.
• If DRE is performed, patient may not have palpable disease on side of gland to be planned for neurovascular sparing. Given the poor accuracy of DRE, such a finding should be confirmed by MRI and/or biopsy to harbor actual disease before excluding a patient on this basis.
Regional Radiotherapy in Biomarker Low-Risk Node Positive and T3N0 Breast Cancer (TAILOR RT)
The purpose of this study is to compare the effects on low risk breast cancer receiving usual care that includes regional radiation therapy, with receiving no regional radiation therapy. Researchers want to see if not giving this type of radiation treatment works as well at preventing breast cancer from coming back.
• Patients must be women with newly diagnosed histologically proven invasive carcinoma of the breast with no evidence of metastases, staged as per site standard of care.
• Patients must have been treated by BCS or mastectomy with clear margins of excision. Post-mastectomy positive margins for invasive disease and/or DCIS is not allowed. Multifocal disease (i.e. the presence of two or more foci or breast cancer within the same breast quadrant) and multicentric disease (i.e. the presence of two or more foci of breast cancer in different quadrants of the same breast) are allowed.
• Patients with T3N0 disease are eligible.
• Patients with disease limited to nodal micrometastases are eligible
• Patients with nodal macrometastases (>2mm) treated by axillary dissection must have 1-3 positive axillary nodes (macrometastases, > 2 mm).
• Patients treated by mastectomy and SLNB alone must have only 1-2 positive axillary nodes (macrometastases, > 2 mm).
• Patients must be ER ≥ 1% and HER2 negative on local testing
• Patients must have an Oncotype DX recurrence score ≤25 obtained from testing of breast tumour tissue from a core biopsy or from the surgical specimen.
• Patient must consent to provision of, and investigator(s) must agree to submit to the CCTG Central Tumour Bank, a representative formalin fixed paraffin block of tumour tissue in order that the specific correlative marker assays described in the protocol may be conducted
• Patient must consent to provision of samples of blood in order that the specific correlative marker assays described in the protocol may be conducted.
• Patients must have had endocrine therapy initiated or planned for ≥ 5 years. Premenopausal women will receive ovarian ablation plus aromatase inhibitor therapy or tamoxifen if adjuvant chemotherapy was not administered. For all patients, endocrine therapy can be given concurrently or following RT.
• Patients may or may not have had adjuvant chemotherapy.
• RT must commence within 16 weeks of definitive surgery if the patient is not treated with chemotherapy. If adjuvant chemotherapy is given, RT must begin within 12 weeks after the last dose. (Note: adjuvant chemotherapy may be ongoing at the time of randomization). Definitive surgery is defined as the last breast cancer-related surgery.
• Patient's ECOG performance status must be 0, 1 or 2.
• Patient's age must be ≥ 35 years.
• For the first 736 eligible English or French-speaking subjects who have agreed to optional questionnaire completion: Patient is able (i.e. sufficiently fluent) and willing to complete the quality of life, health utilities and lost productivity questionnaires in either English or French (note: enrollment completed 2022Aug02)
• Patient consent must be appropriately obtained in accordance with applicable local and regulatory requirements
• Patients must be accessible for treatment and follow-up. Investigators must assure themselves the patients randomized on this trial will be available for complete documentation of the treatment, adverse events, and follow-up.
• In accordance with CCTG policy, protocol treatment is to begin within 6 weeks of patient randomization.
• Women of childbearing potential must have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method. A woman is considered to be of "childbearing potential" if she has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months.
• Patients with nodal disease limited to isolated tumour cells (pN0i+ < 0.2 mm).
• Patients with pT3N1 and pT4 disease (Note: patients with T3N0 are eligible).
• Any prior history, not including the index cancer, of ipsilateral invasive breast cancer or ipsilateral DCIS treated with radiation therapy. (Patients with synchronous or previous ipsilateral LCIS are eligible.)
• Synchronous or previous contralateral invasive breast cancer. (Patients with contralateral DCIS are eligible unless previously treated with radiation.)
• History of non-breast malignancies except adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancers, in situ cancers treated by local excision or other cancers curatively treated with no evidence of disease for ≥ 5 years.
• Patients who are pregnant.
• Patients that have had prior ipsilateral chestwall/thoracic radiation.
• Patients treated with chemo or endocrine therapy administered in the neoadjuvant setting for breast cancer. Endocrine therapy exposure 12 weeks or less prior to surgery is permitted.
• Patients with serious non-malignant disease (e.g. cardiovascular, scleroderma etc.) which would preclude RT.
• Patients with any serious active or co-morbid medical conditions, laboratory abnormality, psychiatric illness, active or uncontrolled infections, or serious illnesses or medical conditions that would prevent the patient from participating or to be managed according to the protocol (according to investigator's decision).