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5 Study Matches
Retroperitoneal Lymph Node Dissection in Treating Patients With Testicular Seminoma
This phase II trial studies how well retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (RPLND) works in treating patients with stage I-IIa testicular seminoma. The retroperitoneum is the space in the body behind the intestines that is typically the first place that seminoma spreads. RPLND is a surgery that removes lymph nodes in this area to treat testicular seminoma and may experience fewer long-term toxicities, such as a second cancer, cardiovascular disease, metabolic syndrome (pre-diabetes), or lung disease.
16 Years and over
• Pure seminoma after orchiectomy presenting with isolated retropreritoneal lymphadenopathy OR stage I pure seminoma with isolated retroperitoneal relapse. Relapse should be within 3 years
• Lymphadenopathy in the retroperitoneum: at least one lymph node 1-3 cm in greatest dimension, no lymph node > 3 cm in greatest dimension, no more than 2 lymph nodes 1-3 cm in greatest dimension
• Axial imaging of lymphadenopathy within 6 weeks of the date of RPLND
• Retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy must be within the RPLND template
• If there is borderline lymphadenopathy, defined as the largest retroperitoneal lymph node measuring 0.90
•0.99 cm in the greatest dimension, an abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan should be repeated (recommend interval of 6
•8 weeks); the same lymph node must demonstrate growth to >= 1.0 cm in the greatest dimension
• Biopsy is not required, though if biopsy of the retroperitoneal node(s) was obtained, pathology must be consistent with pure seminoma
• Chest imaging (x-ray, CT or magnetic resonance imaging [MRI]) negative for metastasis no more than 6 weeks prior to the date of RPLND
• Primary tumor excised by radical inguinal orchiectomy and pathology consistent with pure seminoma
• Serum alpha fetoprotein (AFP) not more than 1.5 times upper limit of normal, beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) (per the local laboratory assay) within 14 days of RPLND
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status =< 1
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent
• Serum coagulation studies (INR/PTT) and platelet counts suitable for surgery per surgeon discretion.
• Second primary malignancy
• History of receiving chemotherapy or radiotherapy
• Patients receiving any other investigational agent (s)
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
Other: Laboratory Biomarker Analysis, Procedure: Retroperitoneal Lymph Node Dissection
Lymphadenopathy, Stage I Testicular Seminoma, Stage II Testicular Seminoma, Other Male Genital
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
Active Surveillance, Bleomycin, Carboplatin, Etoposide, or Cisplatin in Treating Pediatric and Adult Patients With Germ Cell Tumors
This phase III trial studies how well active surveillance, bleomycin, carboplatin, etoposide, or cisplatin work in treating pediatric and adult patients with germ cell tumors. Active surveillance may help doctors to monitor subjects with low risk germ cell tumors after their tumor is removed. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as bleomycin, carboplatin, etoposide, and cisplatin, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading.
• There is no age limit for the low risk stratum (stage I ovarian immature teratoma and stage I non-seminoma or seminoma malignant GCT [all sites])
• Standard risk 1: Patient must be < 11 years of age at enrollment
• Standard risk 2: Patients must be >= 11 and < 25 years of age at enrollment
• Patients enrolling on one of the low risk arms must be newly diagnosed with a stage I germ cell tumor; for the standard risk arms, patients must be newly diagnosed with metastatic germ cell tumor (stage II or higher); histologic confirmation of a primary extracranial germ cell tumor in any of the categories outlined below is required of all patients at enrollment except for those who were initially diagnosed with stage I non-seminoma malignant GCT and later recur during observation post surgery off study; for these patients, if elevated tumor markers rise to > 5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) on at least 2 measurements taken at least 1 week apart, a diagnostic biopsy is not required for enrollment
• Low risk stage I immature teratoma (IT); site: ovarian; stage: Children's Oncology Group (COG) stage I, Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stage IA and IB; grade: 2 or 3; histology: pure immature teratoma (may contain microscopic foci of yolk sac tumor), mixed immature and mature teratoma, (no pathological evidence of MGCT); tumor markers: alpha-FP =< 1,000 ng/mL, beta-HCG institutional normal; all ages
• Low risk stage I non-seminoma MGCT; site: ovarian, testicular, or extragonadal; stage: COG stage I, FIGO stage IA and IB, American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) testicular stage IA, IB and IS; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma (pure or mixed); all ages
• Low risk stage I seminoma-MGCT; site: testicular; stage: COG stage I; AJCC testicular stage IA IB, and IS; histology: must contain at least one of the following: may contain immature/mature teratoma; may NOT contain yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; all ages
• Standard risk 1 (SR1); site: ovarian, testicular, or extragonadal; stage: COG stage II-IV, FIGO stage IC, FIGO stage II-IV (International Germ Cell Consensus Classification [IGCCC] criteria DO NOT apply); histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) < 11
• Standard risk 2 (SR2)
• Site: ovarian; stage: COG stage II and III, FIGO stage IC, II and III; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Site: testicular; stage: COG stage II-IV, AJCC stage II, III, IGCCC good risk; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; tumor markers: must be IGCCC good risk; post op: alpha-FP < 1,000 ng/mL, beta-HCG < 5,000 IU/mL and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) < 3.0 x normal; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Site: extragonadal; stage: COG stage II; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• IGCCC criteria only apply to SR2 patients with a testicular primary tumor
• Use post-op tumor marker levels to determine IGCCC risk group
• Stage 1 seminoma patients are not eligible for the standard risk arms of the study
• For the low risk stage I non-seminoma MGCT and the standard risk arms, components of yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma can be mixed with other forms of GCT, such as seminoma or mature or immature teratoma; if yolk sac tumor is the only malignant component present, then it must be deemed by the pathologist to be greater than a "microscopic component" of yolk sac tumor
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, 2 or 3; use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age
• Organ function requirements apply ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy (SR1 and SR2 patients)
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2
• A serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows: (mg/dL)
• 1 month to < 6 months male: 0.4 female: 0.4
• 6 months to < 1 year male: 0.5 female: 0.5
• 1 to < 2 years male: 0.6 female: 0.6
• 2 to < 6 years male: 0.8 female: 0.8
• 6 to < 10 years male: 1 female: 1
• 10 to < 13 years male: 1.2 female: 1.2
• 13 to < 16 years: male: 1.5 female: 1.4
• >= 16 years male: 1.7 female: 1.4
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) or serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) < 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L)
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mm^3
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3
• Patients enrolling on the standard risk arms must be medically fit to receive protocol treatment and with no contraindications to protocol treatment
• Eligibility criteria to participate in the pilot study of the AYA-Hears instrument (patient reported outcomes [PROs] of ototoxicity) Note: participants in group 1 will not receive AGCT1531 protocol-directed therapy; all other AYA-HEARS patients must be enrolled on the AGCT1531 SR2 arm in order to participate
• >= 11 and < 25 years old at enrollment
• Able to fluently speak and read English
• Has received prior cisplatin- or carboplatin-based chemotherapy regimen for malignancy including diagnoses other than germ cell tumor
• Followed for cancer or survivorship care at one of the following institutions:
• Baylor College of Medicine/Dan L Duncan Comprehensive Cancer Center
• Dana Farber/Harvard Cancer Center
• Hospital for Sick Children
• Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario
• Oregon Health and Science University
• Seattle Children's Hospital
• Yale University
• Patients with any diagnoses not listed including:
• Stage I testicular cancer patients who have undergone primary RPLND (retroperitoneal lymph node dissection)
• Pure dysgerminoma
• Pure mature teratoma
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage I, grade I
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage I, grade 2,3 with alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) >= 1000 ng/mL
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage II
•IV or FIGO stage IC to IV
• "Poor risk" GCT (age >= 11 years old and COG stage IV ovarian, COG stage III or IV EG, or IGCCC intermediate or poor risk testicular), or
• Primary central nervous system (CNS) germ cell tumor
• Germ cell tumor with somatic malignant transformation
• Spermatocytic seminoma
• Patients must have had no prior systemic therapy for the current cancer diagnosis
• Patients must have had no prior radiation therapy with the exception of CNS irradiation of brain metastases; (this exception only applies to SR1 patients; any patients over age 11 with distant metastases to brain [stage IV disease] would be considered poor risk and therefore not eligible for this trial)
• Patients with significant, pre-existing co-morbid respiratory disease that contraindicate the use of bleomycin, are ineligible for the standard risk arms of the trial
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
Other: Best Practice, Drug: Bleomycin, Biological: Bleomycin Sulfate, Drug: Carboplatin, Drug: Cisplatin, Drug: Etoposide, Drug: Etoposide Phosphate, Other: Laboratory Biomarker Analysis, Other: Pharmacogenomic Study, Other: Quality-of-Life Assessment, Other: Questionnaire Administration
Childhood Extracranial Germ Cell Tumor, Malignant Germ Cell Tumor, Germ Cell Tumor, Extragonadal Embryonal Carcinoma, Stage I Ovarian Choriocarcinoma, Stage II Ovarian Choriocarcinoma, Stage III Ovarian Choriocarcinoma, Stage IV Ovarian Choriocarcinoma, Testicular Mixed Choriocarcinoma and Embryonal Carcinoma, Testicular Mixed Choriocarcinoma and Teratoma, Testicular Mixed Choriocarcinoma and Yolk Sac Tumor, Stage I Testicular Choriocarcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage I Testicular Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage I Testicular Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Stage II Testicular Choriocarcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage II Testicular Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage II Testicular Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Stage III Testicular Choriocarcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage III Testicular Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage III Testicular Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Malignant Ovarian Teratoma, Stage I Ovarian Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage I Ovarian Teratoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage I Ovarian Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Stage II Ovarian Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage II Ovarian Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Stage III Ovarian Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage III Ovarian Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Stage IV Ovarian Embryonal Carcinoma AJCC v6 and v7, Stage IV Ovarian Yolk Sac Tumor AJCC v6 and v7, Other Female Genital, Other Male Genital, Ovary, Unknown Sites, Stage I Testicular Seminoma AJCC v6 and v7
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health; Parkland Health & Hospital System
Inotuzumab Ozogamicin and Post-Induction Chemotherapy in Treating Patients With High-Risk B-ALL, Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia, and B-LLy
This phase III trial studies whether inotuzumab ozogamicin added to post-induction chemotherapy for patients with High-Risk B-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (B-ALL) improves outcomes. This trial also studies the outcomes of patients with mixed phenotype acute leukemia (MPAL), and B-lymphoblastic lymphoma (B-LLy) when treated with ALL therapy without inotuzumab ozogamicin. Inotuzumab ozogamicin is a monoclonal antibody, called inotuzumab, linked to a type of chemotherapy called calicheamicin. Inotuzumab attaches to cancer cells in a targeted way and delivers calicheamicin to kill them. Other drugs used in the chemotherapy regimen, such as cyclophosphamide, cytarabine, dexamethasone, doxorubicin, daunorubicin, methotrexate, leucovorin, mercaptopurine, prednisone, thioguanine, vincristine, and pegaspargase work in different ways to stop the growth of cancer cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. This trial will also study the outcomes of patients with mixed phenotype acute leukemia (MPAL) and disseminated B lymphoblastic lymphoma (B-LLy) when treated with high-risk ALL chemotherapy. The overall goal of this study is to understand if adding inotuzumab ozogamicin to standard of care chemotherapy maintains or improves outcomes in High Risk B-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (HR B-ALL). The first part of the study includes the first two phases of therapy: Induction and Consolidation. This part will collect information on the leukemia, as well as the effects of the initial treatment, in order to classify patients into post-consolidation treatment groups. On the second part of this study, patients will receive the remainder of the chemotherapy cycles (interim maintenance I, delayed intensification, interim maintenance II, maintenance), with some patients randomized to receive inotuzumab. Other aims of this study include investigating whether treating both males and females with the same duration of chemotherapy maintains outcomes for males who have previously been treated for an additional year compared to girls, as well as to evaluate the best ways to help patients adhere to oral chemotherapy regimens. Finally, this study will be the first to track the outcomes of subjects with disseminated B-cell Lymphoblastic Leukemia (B LLy) or Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia (MPAL) when treated with B-ALL chemotherapy.
1 Year to 24 Years old
• B-ALL and MPAL patients must be enrolled on APEC14B1 and consented to eligibility studies (Part A) prior to treatment and enrollment on AALL1732. Note that central confirmation of MPAL diagnosis must occur within 7 business days after enrollment for MPAL patients. If not performed within this time frame, patients will be taken off protocol.
• APEC14B1 is not a requirement for B-LLy patients but for institutional compliance every patient should be offered participation in APEC14B1. B-LLy patients may directly enroll on AALL1732.
• White blood cell count (WBC) criteria for patients with B-ALL (within 7 days prior to the start of protocol-directed systemic therapy):
• Age 1-9.99 years: WBC >= 50,000/uL
• Age 10-24.99 years: Any WBC
• Age 1-9.99 years: WBC < 50,000/uL with:
• Testicular leukemia
• CNS leukemia (CNS3)
• Steroid pretreatment.
• White blood cell count (WBC) criteria for patients with MPAL (within 7 days prior to the start of protocol-directed systemic therapy):
• Age 1-24.99 years: any WBC.
• Patient has newly diagnosed B-ALL or MPAL (by World Health Organization [WHO] 2016 criteria) with > 25% blasts on a bone marrow (BM) aspirate;
• OR If a BM aspirate is not obtained or is not diagnostic of acute leukemia, the diagnosis can be established by a pathologic diagnosis of acute leukemia on a BM biopsy;
• OR A complete blood count (CBC) documenting the presence of at least 1,000/uL circulating leukemic cells if a bone marrow aspirate or biopsy cannot be performed.
• Patient has newly diagnosed B-LLy Murphy stages III or IV.
• Patient has newly diagnosed B-LLy Murphy stages I or II with steroid pretreatment.
• Note: For B-LLy patients with tissue available for flow cytometry, the criterion for diagnosis should be analogous to B-ALL. For tissue processed by other means (i.e., paraffin blocks), the methodology and criteria for immunophenotypic analysis to establish the diagnosis of B-LLy defined by the submitting institution will be accepted.
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent.
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and NCI requirements for human studies must be met.
• Patients with Down syndrome are not eligible (patients with Down syndrome and B-ALL are eligible for AALL1731, regardless of NCI risk group).
• With the exception of steroid pretreatment or the administration of intrathecal cytarabine, patients must not have received any prior cytotoxic chemotherapy for the current diagnosis of B-ALL, MPAL, or B-LLy or for any cancer diagnosed prior to initiation of protocol therapy on AALL1732.
• Patients who have received > 72 hours of hydroxyurea within one week prior to start of systemic protocol therapy.
• Patients with B-ALL or MPAL who do not have sufficient diagnostic bone marrow submitted for APEC14B1 testing and who do not have a peripheral blood sample submitted containing > 1,000/uL circulating leukemia cells.
• Patients with acute undifferentiated leukemia (AUL) are not eligible.
• For Murphy stage III/IV B-LLy patients, or stage I/II patients with steroid pretreatment, the following additional exclusion criteria apply:
• T-lymphoblastic lymphoma.
• Morphologically unclassifiable lymphoma.
• Absence of both B-cell and T-cell phenotype markers in a case submitted as lymphoblastic lymphoma.
• Patients with known Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease.
• Patients with known MYC translocation associated with mature (Burkitt) B-cell ALL, regardless of blast immunophenotype.
• Patients requiring radiation at diagnosis.
• Female patients who are pregnant, since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential.
• Lactating women who plan to breastfeed their infants while on study and for 2 months after the last dose of inotuzumab ozogamicin.
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of study participation. For those patients randomized to inotuzumab ozogamicin, there is a minimum of 8 months after the last dose of inotuzumab ozogamicin for females and 5 months after the last dose of inotuzumab ozogamicin for males.
Drug: Cyclophosphamide, Drug: Cytarabine, Drug: Daunorubicin Hydrochloride, Drug: Dexamethasone, Drug: Doxorubicin Hydrochloride, Biological: Inotuzumab Ozogamicin, Drug: Leucovorin Calcium, Drug: Mercaptopurine, Drug: Methotrexate, Drug: Pegaspargase, Drug: Prednisolone, Other: Questionnaire Administration, Radiation: Radiation Therapy, Radiation: Radiation Therapy, Drug: Thioguanine, Drug: Vincristine Sulfate
B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, Central Nervous System Leukemia, Testicular Leukemia, Mixed Phenotype Acute Leukemia, B Lymphoblastic Lymphoma, Leukemia, Other
Parkland Health & Hospital System
Testing the Effectiveness of Two Immunotherapy Drugs (Nivolumab and Ipilimumab) With One Anti-cancer Targeted Drug (Cabozantinib) for Rare Genitourinary Tumors
This phase II trial studies how well cabozantinib works in combination with nivolumab and ipilimumab in treating patients with rare genitourinary (GU) tumors that have spread to other places in the body. Cabozantinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as nivolumab and ipilimumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Giving cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab may work better in treating patients with genitourinary tumors that have no treatment options compared to giving cabozantinib, nivolumab, or ipilimumab alone.
18 Years and over
• Metastatic disease defined as new or progressive lesions on cross-sectional imaging or bone scan. Patients must have at least:
• One measurable site of disease as per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) version (v) 1.1
• One bone lesion on bone scan (tec99 or sodium fluoride [NaF] positron emission tomography [PET]/computed tomography [CT], CT, or magnetic resonance imaging [MRI]) for the bone-only cohort
• Histologically confirmed diagnosis of one of the following metastatic cohorts:
• Small cell/ neuroendocrine carcinoma of the bladder
•All urothelial carcinomas with any amount of neuroendocrine differentiation (including small cell differentiation) will be included. If the tumor is purely neuroendocrine, metastasis from another site of origin should be clinically excluded.
• Adenocarcinoma of the bladder, or urachal adenocarcinoma, or bladder/urethra clear cell adenocarcinoma
•must be pure (per World Health Organization [WHO] definition), (i.e. urothelial carcinoma with glandular differentiation is not considered a pure adenocarcinoma.
• Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder
•must be pure (i.e. urothelial carcinoma with squamous differentiation is not considered a pure squamous cell carcinoma).
• Plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma
•Tumor should show predominantly > or equal ~50% plasmacytoid histology (including all types of discohesive growth, such as tumors with signet-ring and/or rhabdoid features as well).
• Any penile cancer
• Sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma
•Tumor should be predominantly sarcomatoid ~50% (including rhabdoid differentiation) is also unclassified renal cell carcinomas (RCCs): all (assuming they are high grade with metastasis) malignant angiomyolipomas are allowed.
• Sarcomatoid urothelial carcinoma
•Tumor should show predominantly ~ 50% sarcomatoid differentiation.
• Renal medullary carcinoma
•Per WHO definition, ideally confirmed with immunostains.
• Renal collecting duct carcinoma
•Per WHO definition (medullary involvement, predominant tubular morphology, desmoplastic stromal reaction, high grade cytology, infiltrative growth pattern, and absence of other renal cell carcinoma subtype or urothelial carcinoma).
• Bone only urothelial carcinoma or other non-prostate GU tumor
• Urethra carcinoma
•May be of any histology but if urothelial carcinoma then must be isolated to the urethra and not have metachronous or synchronous urothelial carcinoma of the bladder.
• Other miscellaneous histologic variants of the urothelial carcinoma, such as, but not limited to: micropapillary (Tumor should show predominantly > or equal 50% micropapillary architecture), giant cell, lipid-rich, clear cell and nested variants (Tumor should predominantly > or equal 50% show these features), large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma, lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma and mixed patterns will be considered, as well as small cell neuroendocrine prostate cancer (Only treatment-naïve primary small cell of prostate with any amount of small cell component allowed. Post-treatment small cell prostatic carcinomas are not allowed), Malignant testicular Sertoli or Leydig cell tumors, and papillary and chromophobe RCC.
• Note: Translocation positive renal cell carcinoma patients are eligible. However, AREN1721 should be considered before this trial.
• Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) slides from diagnostic tumor tissue for retrospective central pathology review
• Patients may have received up to 2 systemic anti-cancer treatments or be treatment naive. Patients with small cell carcinoma should have received a platinum-based combination regimen either as neoadjuvant, adjuvant or first-line treatment). Patients in the bone-only cohort may be urothelial carcinoma histology but must receive standard cisplatin-based chemotherapy (if cisplatin-eligible).
• Patients must be able to swallow oral formulation of the tablets
• Karnofsky performance status >= 80%
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mcL
• Platelet count >= 75,000/mcL
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN). For subjects with known Gilbert's disease or similar syndrome with slow conjugation of bilirubin, total bilirubin =< 3.0 mg/dL
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 3.0 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (or =< 5 x ULN for patients with liver metastases or Gilbert's disease)
• Creatinine =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) OR creatinine clearance >= 40 mL/min/1.73 m^2 (calculated using the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology [CKD-EPI] equation or Cockcroft-Gault formula) for patients with creatinine levels above institutional normal
• Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL (transfusion of packed red blood cells [PRBCs] allowed)
• Serum albumin >= 3.2 g/dL
• Lipase and amylase =< 2.0 x ULN and no radiologic (on baseline anatomical imaging) or clinical evidence of pancreatitis
• Prior treatment with MET or VEGFR inhibitors is allowed. However, prior cabozantinib will not be allowed. Also, patients that have received both prior MET or VEGF and prior PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 (sequentially or in combination) are also not allowed
• Prior treatment with any therapy on the PD-1/PD-L1 axis or anti- CTLA-4/CTLA-4 inhibitors is allowed, either in the perioperative or in the metastatic setting. However, patients that have received both prior MET or VEGF and prior PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 (sequentially or in combination) are not allowed
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients are eligible if on stable dose of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART), no clinically significant drug-drug interactions are anticipated with the current HAART regimen, CD4 counts are greater than 350 and viral load is undetectable
• Patients with rheumatoid arthritis and other rheumatologic arthropathies, Sjogren's syndrome and psoriasis controlled with topical medication only and patients with positive serology, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-thyroid antibodies etc. are eligible but should be considered for rheumatologic evaluation for the presence of target organ involvement and potential need for systemic treatment
• Patients with vitiligo, endocrine deficiencies including thyroiditis managed with replacement hormones or medications (e.g. thyroiditis managed with propylthiouracil [PTU] or methimazole) including physiologic oral corticosteroids are eligible
• Patients who have evidence of active or acute diverticulitis, intra-abdominal abscess, and gastrointestinal (GI) obstruction, within 12 months are not eligible
• Women of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test =< 7 days prior to registration
• Women of childbearing potential include women who have experienced menarche and who have not undergone successful surgical sterilization (hysterectomy, bilateral tubal ligation, or bilateral oophorectomy) or are not postmenopausal. Post menopause is defined as amenorrhea >= 12 consecutive months. Note: women who have been amenorrheic for 12 or more months are still considered to be of childbearing potential if the amenorrhea is possibly due to prior chemotherapy, antiestrogens, ovarian suppression or any other reversible reason
• Pregnant women may not participate in this study because with cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab have potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with these agents
• The patient has received no cytotoxic chemotherapy (including investigational cytotoxic chemotherapy) or biologic agents (e.g., cytokines or antibodies) within 2 weeks before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no radiation therapy:
• To the lungs and mediastinum or abdomen within 4 weeks before the first dose of study treatment, or has ongoing complications, or is healing from prior radiation therapy
• To brain metastasis within 3 weeks for whole-brain radiotherapy (WBXRT), and 2 weeks for stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT) before the first dose of study treatment
• To the abdomen within 4 weeks before the first dose of study treatment, or has ongoing complications, or is healing from prior radiation therapy
• To any other site(s) within 2 weeks before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no radionuclide treatment within 6 weeks of the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no prior treatment with a small molecule kinase inhibitor within 14 days or five half-lives of the compound or active metabolites, whichever is longer, before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no prior treatment with hormonal therapy within 14 days or five half-lives of the compound or active metabolites, whichever is longer, before the first dose of study treatment. Subjects receiving gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists and antagonists are allowed to participate
• The patient has not received any other type of investigational agent within 14 days before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient must have recovered to baseline or Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) =< grade 1 from toxicity due to all prior therapies except alopecia, neuropathy and other non-clinically significant adverse events (AEs) defined as lab elevation with no associated symptoms or sequelae
• The patient may not have active brain metastases or epidural disease. Patients with brain metastases previously treated with whole brain radiation or radiosurgery who are asymptomatic and do not require steroid treatment for at least 2 weeks before starting study treatment are eligible. Neurosurgical resection of brain metastases or brain biopsy is permitted if completed at least 3 months before starting study treatment. Baseline brain imaging with contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans for subjects with known brain metastases is required to confirm eligibility
• No concomitant treatment with warfarin. Aspirin (up to 325 mg/day), thrombin or factor Xa inhibitors, low-dose warfarin (=< 1 mg/day), prophylactic and therapeutic low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) are permitted
• No chronic concomitant treatment with strong CYP3A4 inducers (e.g., dexamethasone, phenytoin, carbamazepine, rifampin, rifabutin, rifapentine, phenobarbital, and St. John's wort) or strong CYP3A4 inhibitors
• Because the lists of these agents are constantly changing, it is important to regularly consult medical reference texts such as the Physicians' Desk Reference may also provide this information. As part of the enrollment/informed consent procedures, the patient will be counseled on the risk of interactions with other agents, and what to do if new medications need to be prescribed or if the patient is considering a new over-the-counter medicine or herbal product
• The patient has not experienced any of the following:
• Clinically-significant gastrointestinal bleeding within 6 months before the first dose of study treatment
• Hemoptysis of >= 0.5 teaspoon (2.5 mL) of red blood per day within 1 months before the first dose of study treatment
• Any other signs indicative of pulmonary hemorrhage within 3 months before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has no tumor invading any major blood vessels
• The patient has no evidence of tumor invading the GI tract (esophagus, stomach, small or large bowel, rectum or anus), or any evidence of endotracheal or endobronchial tumor within 28 days before the first dose of cabozantinib. Patients with rectal tumor masses are not eligible.
• The patient has no uncontrolled, significant intercurrent or recent illness including, but not limited to, the following conditions:
• Cardiovascular disorders including:
• Congestive heart failure (CHF): New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III (moderate) or class IV (severe) at the time of screening.
• Concurrent uncontrolled hypertension defined as sustained blood pressure (BP) > 150 mm Hg systolic, or > 90 mm Hg diastolic despite optimal antihypertensive treatment within 7 days of the first dose of study treatment
• The subject has a corrected QT interval calculated by the Fridericia formula (QTcF) > 500 ms within 28 days before randomization. Note: if initial QTcF is found to be > 500 ms, two additional electrocardiograms (EKGs) separated by at least 3 minutes should be performed. If the average of these three consecutive results for QTcF is =< 500 ms, the subject meets eligibility in this regard
• Any history of congenital long QT syndrome
• Any of the following within 6 months before registration of study treatment:
• Unstable angina pectoris
• Clinically-significant cardiac arrhythmias (patients with atrial fibrillation are eligible)
• Stroke (including transient ischemic attack [TIA], or other ischemic event)
• Myocardial infarction
• No significant gastrointestinal disorders particularly those associated with a high risk of perforation or fistula formation including:
• Any of the following that have not resolved within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment:
• Active peptic ulcer disease
• Acute diverticulitis, cholecystitis, symptomatic cholangitis or appendicitis, or malabsorption syndrome
• None of the following within 2 years before the first dose of study treatment:
• Abdominal fistula or genitourinary fistula
• Gastrointestinal perforation
• Bowel obstruction or gastric outlet obstruction
• Intra-abdominal abscess. Note: Complete resolution of an intra-abdominal abscess must be confirmed prior to initiating treatment with cabozantinib even if the abscess occurred more than 2 years before the first dose of study treatment
• Disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement are not eligible
• No other clinically significant disorders such as:
• Severe active infection requiring IV systemic treatment within 14 days before the first dose of study treatment
• Serious non-healing wound/ulcer/bone fracture within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment
• History of organ or allogeneic stem cell transplant
• Concurrent uncompensated hypothyroidism or thyroid dysfunction within 7 days before the first dose of study treatment (for asymptomatic patients with an elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], thyroid replacement may be initiated if clinically indicated without delaying the start of study treatment)
• No history of major surgery as follows:
• Major surgery within 3 months of the first dose of ca
Drug: Cabozantinib S-malate, Biological: Ipilimumab, Biological: Nivolumab
Bladder Adenocarcinoma, Papillary Renal Cell Carcinoma, Sarcomatoid Renal Cell Carcinoma, Bladder Mixed Adenocarcinoma, Bladder Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Chromophobe Renal Cell Carcinoma, Infiltrating Bladder Lymphoepithelioma-Like Carcinoma, Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma With Giant Cells, Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Nested Variant, Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Plasmacytoid Variant, Kidney Medullary Carcinoma, Large Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Metastatic Bladder Carcinoma, Metastatic Bladder Large Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Metastatic Bladder Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Metastatic Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Clear Cell Variant, Metastatic Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Lipid-Rich Variant, Metastatic Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Micropapillary Variant, Metastatic Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Plasmacytoid Variant, Metastatic Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Sarcomatoid Variant, Metastatic Kidney Medullary Carcinoma, Metastatic Malignant Genitourinary System Neoplasm, Metastatic Penile Carcinoma, Metastatic Sarcomatoid Renal Cell Carcinoma, Stage IV Bladder Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IV Penile Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IV Prostate Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IV Renal Cell Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IVA Bladder Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IVA Prostate Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IVB Bladder Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IVB Prostate Cancer AJCC v8, Testicular Leydig Cell Tumor, Testicular Sertoli Cell Tumor, Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Sarcomatoid Variant, Bladder Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma, Bladder Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Bladder Urachal Adenocarcinoma, Collecting Duct Carcinoma, Metastatic Urethral Carcinoma, Stage IV Urethral Cancer AJCC v8, Urethral Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma, Bladder Small Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Metastatic Bladder Small Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Metastatic Prostate Small Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma
Nivolumab and Ipilimumab in Treating Patients With Rare Tumors
This phase II trial studies nivolumab and ipilimumab in treating patients with rare tumors. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as nivolumab and ipilimumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. This trial enrolls participants for the following cohorts based on condition: 1. Epithelial tumors of nasal cavity, sinuses, nasopharynx: A) Squamous cell carcinoma with variants of nasal cavity, sinuses, and nasopharynx and trachea (excluding laryngeal, nasopharyngeal cancer [NPC], and squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck [SCCHN]) B) Adenocarcinoma and variants of nasal cavity, sinuses, and nasopharynx (closed to accrual 07/27/2018) 2. Epithelial tumors of major salivary glands (closed to accrual 03/20/2018) 3. Salivary gland type tumors of head and neck, lip, esophagus, stomach, trachea and lung, breast and other location (closed to accrual) 4. Undifferentiated carcinoma of gastrointestinal (GI) tract 5. Adenocarcinoma with variants of small intestine (closed to accrual 05/10/2018) 6. Squamous cell carcinoma with variants of GI tract (stomach small intestine, colon, rectum, pancreas) (closed to accrual 10/17/2018) 7. Fibromixoma and low grade mucinous adenocarcinoma (pseudomixoma peritonei) of the appendix and ovary (closed to accrual 03/20/2018) 8. Rare pancreatic tumors including acinar cell carcinoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinoma or serous cystadenocarcinoma. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma is not eligible (closed to accrual) 9. Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (closed to accrual 03/20/2018) 10. Extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma and bile duct tumors (closed to accrual 03/20/2018) 11. Sarcomatoid carcinoma of lung 12. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma lung. This condition is now also referred to as adenocarcinoma in situ, minimally invasive adenocarcinoma, lepidic predominant adenocarcinoma, or invasive mucinous adenocarcinoma 13. Non-epithelial tumors of the ovary: A) Germ cell tumor of ovary B) Mullerian mixed tumor and adenosarcoma (closed to accrual 03/30/2018) 14. Trophoblastic tumor: A) Choriocarcinoma (closed to accrual) 15. Transitional cell carcinoma other than that of the renal, pelvis, ureter, or bladder (closed to accrual) 16. Cell tumor of the testes and extragonadal germ tumors: A) Seminoma and testicular sex cord cancer B) Non seminomatous tumor C) Teratoma with malignant transformation (closed to accrual) 17. Epithelial tumors of penis - squamous adenocarcinoma cell carcinoma with variants of penis (closed to accrual) 18. Squamous cell carcinoma variants of the genitourinary (GU) system 19. Spindle cell carcinoma of kidney, pelvis, ureter 20. Adenocarcinoma with variants of GU system (excluding prostate cancer) (closed to accrual 07/27/2018) 21. Odontogenic malignant tumors 22. Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor (PNET) (formerly named: Endocrine carcinoma of pancreas and digestive tract.) (closed to accrual) 23. Neuroendocrine carcinoma including carcinoid of the lung (closed to accrual 12/19/2017) 24. Pheochromocytoma, malignant (closed to accrual) 25. Paraganglioma (closed to accrual 11/29/2018) 26. Carcinomas of pituitary gland, thyroid gland parathyroid gland and adrenal cortex (closed to accrual) 27. Desmoid tumors 28. Peripheral nerve sheath tumors and NF1-related tumors (closed to accrual 09/19/2018) 29. Malignant giant cell tumors 30. Chordoma (closed to accrual 11/29/2018)
18 Years and over
• Patients are eligible under ONE of the following criteria:
• For all cohorts except the gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) (Cohort #47), patients must have histologically and/or biochemically confirmed rare cancer and must be able to submit specimens; to be eligible for the GTD cohort: patients must have disease confirmed by quantitative serum beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) within 28 days prior to registration and must be able to submit blood specimens (tissue submission is not required for patients who will be registered to the GTD cohort [Cohort #47]); NOTE: Subsequent to site's Institutional Review Board (IRB) approval of revision 3, patients are NOT required to participate in EAY131 "National Cancer Institute (NCI)-Molecular Analysis for Therapy Choice (MATCH)" to register to S1609 OR
• FOR PATIENTS WITH PD-L1 AMPLIFICATION (COHORT #50) ONLY: All solid tumors (excluding lymphoma) are allowed for the PD-L1 amplified cohort if they have PD-L1 amplification; patients may be considered for registration to the PD-L1 amplified cohort (Cohort #50) with the confirmation of at least one of the study chairs; PD-L1 amplification is defined as having deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) copy number of equal to or greater than six by any of the following Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-approved lab; (Immunohisochemistry [IHC] and fluorescence in situ hybridization [FISH] are not allowed); the assay must be done at or after the diagnosis of advanced disease, but PRIOR TO REGISTRATION; NOTE: patients with PD-L1 overexpression by IHC or PD-L1 amplification by FISH do not quality for this cohort; OR
• FOR PATIENTS ENROLLED IN EAY131 "NCI-MATCH" PRIOR TO EAY131 ADDENDUM 10 ONLY: Patients must have histologically confirmed rare cancer that did not have a match to a molecularly-guided therapy on EAY131 "NCI-MATCH" protocol or who are off protocol treatment on EAY131, "NCI-MATCH" and have no further molecularly-matched treatment recommendations per EAY131, "NCI-MATCH" or who are otherwise unable to receive EAY131, "NCI-MATCH" therapy
• Patients who do not qualify for one of the histologic cohorts and are not on the ineligible histology list may be considered for registration in the "Not Otherwise Categorized" Rare Tumors cohort with confirmation of at least one of the study chairs via email
• NOTE: The "Not Otherwise Categorized" Rare Tumors cohort was permanently closed to accrual on 3/15/2019
• Patients who are determined to have a rare cancer with unknown primary site are eligible under cohort #32 (tumor of unknown primary [cancer of unknown primary; CuP]), provided that there is histologic documentation of metastatic malignancy with no discernible primary site identified from histopathologic review, physical exam and associated cross-sectional imaging of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
• NOTE: The "Tumor of unknown primary (Cancer of Unknown Primary; CuP" cohort was permanently closed to accrual on 12/22/2017
• Patients must also meet one of the following:
• Patients must have progressed following at least one line of standard systemic therapy and there must not be other approved/standard therapy available that has been shown to prolong overall survival (i.e. in a randomized trial against another standard treatment or by comparison to historical controls); patients who cannot receive other standard therapy that has been shown to prolonged survival due to medical issues will be eligible, if other eligibility criteria are met; OR
• Patients for whose disease no standard treatment exists that has been shown to prolong overall survival
• For all cohorts except the GTD cohort (Cohort #47): Patients must have a diagnostic quality computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), performed within 28 days prior to registration, which demonstrates measurable disease, as defined in RECIST v. 1.1; scans must include imaging of the chest, abdomen and pelvis, with the exception of patients with head/neck cancer, who must have imaging of the chest, abdomen, pelvis and neck; if there is clinical suspicion for bone metastases at the time of enrollment (in the judgement of the treating investigator) bone scan should be performed; bone scans done within 42 days prior to registration may be used to establish baseline condition at registration
• No other prior malignancy is allowed except for the following:
• Adequately managed stage I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission
• Any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for one year
• Adequately managed stage I or II follicular thyroid or prostate cancer is also eligible, wherein patient is not required to be in complete remission
• Note: Second primary tumors are not allowed concurrent with any of the eligible rare cancers
• For all cohorts except the PD-L1 amplified tumors cohort (Cohort # 50): Patients may have received either prior anti-CTLA4 or other prior anti-PD-1/anti-PD-L1 therapy, but not both, provided that it is completed >= 4 weeks prior to registration. To be eligible for the PD-L1 amplified tumors cohort (Cohort #50): Patients must not have received anti-PD-1/anti-PD-L1 therapy; prior anti-CTLA-4 is allowed provided that it is completed >= 4 weeks prior to registration
• Patients with clinically controlled thyroiditis or pituitary disorders on stable replacement therapy are eligible
• Patients with autoimmune disease who are otherwise eligible must not have received steroid and immunosuppressive therapy within 28 days prior to registration
• Patients with brain metastases or primary brain tumors must have completed treatment, surgery or radiation therapy >= 28 days prior to registration and have stable disease at time of registration; these patients must also have a CT or MRI of the brain to evaluate for CNS disease within 42 days prior to registration to S1609; metastatic brain parenchymal disease must have been treated and patient must be off steroids for 7 days prior to registration
• Hormonal or endocrine blockade is permitted as long as patient has demonstrated progression on prior therapy (e.g. gonadotrophin releasing hormone [GnRH], somatostatin); long-acting somatostatin analogs (including octreotide) and androgen deprivation treatment (including long-acting leuprolide) are permitted while on protocol therapy
• Patients must have a Zubrod performance status of 0-2
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mcL (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Platelets >= 75,000/mcL (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Hemoglobin >= 8 g/dL (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Total bilirubin =< 2.0 x institutional upper limit of normal (IULN) or for documented/suspected Gilbert's disease, total bilirubin =< 3.0 x IULN (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) both =< 3 x IULN (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Serum creatinine =< 2.0 x IULN (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Creatinine clearance (CrCl) >= 50 mL/min., as estimated by the Cockcroft and Gault formula; estimated creatinine clearance is based on actual body weight (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Patients must have adequate thyroid function, as evidenced by either thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) or, free thyroxine (T4) serum tests demonstrating values within the normal range, within 28 days prior to registration; at pre-registration, if TSH is not within normal limits, then free T4 must be performed and must be within normal range for patient to be eligible; Note: TSH, with reflex T4 (if TSH is abnormal) is allowable if per institutional standard, provided that free T4 is within normal range; patients who have undergone thyroidectomy or who are on thyroid suppression for their cancer are not required to have normal TSH and free T4
• Patients must have adequate adrenal axis function, as evidenced by cortisol levels within institutional normal ranges (ante meridiem [AM] cortisol preferred), OR adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) values within the institutional normal ranges within 28 days prior to registration; if cortisol levels are not within normal limits prior to registration, then ACTH must be performed and must be within normal ranges for patient to be eligible; Note: Neither cortisol nor ACTH levels are required for patients with primary adrenal tumors (e.g. adrenocortical carcinoma)
• For women of childbearing potential, the local investigator must rule out pregnancy; Except for Cohorts 13 and 47, where tumor types may express beta-hCG, women of childbearing potential must have a serum or urine pregnancy test within 7 days prior to registration; for Cohorts 13 and 47, where tumor types may produce hCG (e.g. germ cell tumors or trophoblastic disease), other pregnancy exclusion methods should be used to rule out pregnancy, such as ultrasound examination, documented history of effective contraception, or documented infertility; all females of childbearing potential must have been demonstrated not to be pregnant within 7 days prior to registration and agree to use birth control throughout study and for 23 weeks after completion of protocol therapy; patients must not be pregnant or nursing due to risk of fetal or nursing infant harm; women of childbearing potential must have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method; a woman is considered to be of "childbearing potential" if she has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months; in addition to routine contraceptive methods, "effective contraception" also includes heterosexual celibacy and surgery intended to prevent pregnancy (or with a side-effect of pregnancy prevention) defined as a hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy or bilateral tubal ligation; however, if at any point a previously celibate patient chooses to become heterosexually active during the time period for use of contraceptive measures outlined in the protocol, she is responsible for beginning contraceptive measures
• Men of reproductive potential must have agreed to use birth control throughout the study and for 31 weeks after completion of protocol therapy; in addition to routine contraceptive methods, "effective contraception" also includes heterosexual celibacy and surgery intended to prevent pregnancy (vasectomy); however, if at any point a previously celibate patient chooses to become heterosexually active during the time period for use of contraceptive measures outlined in the protocol, he is responsible for beginning contraceptive measures
• Patients who are known to be human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive at registration are eligible at the time of registration:
• CD4+ cell count greater or equal to 250 cells/mm^3
• No history of non-malignancy acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)-defining conditions other than historical low CD4+ cell counts
• Patients must have amylase or lipase within =< 1.5 x IULN without symptoms of pancreatitis at registration, within 28 days prior to registration
• Patients must have fully recovered from any adverse effects of major surgery (to =< grade 1) at least 14 days prior to registration
• Patients who had prior grade 3 or higher immune-related adverse event (e.g. pneumonitis, hepatitis, colitis, endocrinopathy) with prior immunotherapy (e.g. cancer vaccine, cytokine, etc.) are not eligible
• Patients are not eligible if they have had or are planned for solid organ transplant
• Patients must not currently be receiving any other investigational agents or any other systemic anti-cancer therapy (including radiation, excluding RANKL inhibitors and bisphosphonates); in event patient recently received any other systemic anti-cancer therapy, patient must be off therapy at least 7 days prior to registration and any therapy-induced toxicity must have recovered to =< grade 1, except alopecia and =< grade 2 neuropathy which are allowed; any planned radiation therapy must be completed before registration to S1609
• Patients must not have prior history of allergy or known hypersensitivity to nivolumab or ipilimumab
• Patients must not have known active hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis virus (HCV) infection at time of registration; patients with HBV or HCV that have an undetectable viral load and no residual hepatic impairment are eligible
• Patients must not have active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in past 2 years (i.e., with use of disease modifying agents, immunosuppressive drugs, or corticosteroids with prednisone dose >= 10 mg); replacement therapy (e.g., thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency, etc.) is not considered a form of systemic treatment; autoimmune diseases include but are not limited to autoimmune hepatitis, inflammatory bowel disease (including ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease), as well as symptomatic disease (e.g.: rheumatoid arthritis, systemic progressive sclerosis [scleroderma], systemic lupus erythematosus, autoimmune vasculitis [e.g., Wegener's granulomatosis]); central nervous system (CNS) or motor neuropathy considered of autoimmune origin (e.g., Guillain-Barre syndrome and Myasthenia gravis, multiple sclerosis or glomerulonephritis); vitiligo, alopecia, hypothyroidism on stable doses of thyroid replacement therapy, psoriasis not requiring systemic therapy within the past 2 years is permitted; short-term steroid premedication for contrast allergy is permitted
• Patients must not have any uncontrolled intercurrent illness including (not limited to): symptomatic congestive heart failure (CHF) (New York Heart Association [NYHA] III/IV), unstable angina pectoris or coronary angioplasty, or stenting within 24 weeks prior to registration, unstable cardiac arrhythmia (ongoing cardiac dysrhythmias of NCI Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] version [v] 4 grade >= 2), known psychiatric illness that would limit study compliance, intra-cardiac defibrillators, known cardiac metastases, or abnormal cardiac valve morphology (>= grade 3)
• Note: Patients with history of CHF or patients who are deemed at risk because of underlying cardiovascular disease or exposure to cardiotoxic drugs should have an electrocardiogram (EKG) and echocardiogram (ECHO), as clinically indicated, at baseline and at the start of each cycle; patients who have evidence at baseline (or subsequently) of CHF, myocardial infarction (MI), cardiomyopathy, or myositis cardiac evaluation (NYHA I/II) should have additional consult by a cardiologist, including review of EKG, creatine phosphokinase (CPK), troponin, echocardiogram, as clinically indicated
• Patients must not have symptomatic interstitial lung disease or pneumonitis
Procedure: Biospecimen Collection, Biological: Ipilimumab, Biological: Nivolumab
Chordoma, Mucinous Adenocarcinoma, Cervical Adenocarcinoma, Gestational Trophoblastic Tumor, Cholangiocarcinoma, Pancreatic Acinar Cell Carcinoma, Lung Carcinoid Tumor, Acinar Cell Carcinoma, Adrenal Cortex Carcinoma, Adrenal Gland Pheochromocytoma, Anal Canal Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Anal Canal Undifferentiated Carcinoma, Appendix Mucinous Adenocarcinoma, Bladder Adenocarcinoma, Colorectal Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Endometrioid Adenocarcinoma, Esophageal Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Esophageal Undifferentiated Carcinoma, Extrahepatic Bile Duct Carcinoma, Fallopian Tube Adenocarcinoma, Fibromyxoid Tumor, Gastric Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Gastric Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Giant Cell Carcinoma, Intestinal Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Intrahepatic Cholangiocarcinoma, Lung Sarcomatoid Carcinoma, Major Salivary Gland Carcinoma, Malignant Odontogenic Neoplasm, Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor, Malignant Testicular Sex Cord-Stromal Tumor, Mixed Mesodermal (Mullerian) Tumor, Mucinous Cystadenocarcinoma, Nasal Cavity Adenocarcinoma, Nasal Cavity Carcinoma, Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma, Nasopharyngeal Papillary Adenocarcinoma, Nasopharyngeal Undifferentiated Carcinoma, Oral Cavity Carcinoma, Oropharyngeal Undifferentiated Carcinoma, Ovarian Adenocarcinoma, Ovarian Germ Cell Tumor, Ovarian Mucinous Adenocarcinoma, Ovarian Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Pancreatic Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Paraganglioma, Paranasal Sinus Adenocarcinoma, Paranasal Sinus Carcinoma, Parathyroid Gland Carcinoma, Pituitary Gland Carcinoma, Placental Choriocarcinoma, Primary Peritoneal High Grade Serous Adenocarcinoma, Pseudomyxoma Peritonei, Scrotal Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Seminal Vesicle Adenocarcinoma, Seminoma, Serous Cystadenocarcinoma, Small Intestinal Adenocarcinoma, Small Intestinal Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Spindle Cell Neoplasm, Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Penis, Testicular Non-Seminomatous Germ Cell Tumor, Thyroid Gland Carcinoma, Tracheal Carcinoma, Transitional Cell Carcinoma, Ureter Adenocarcinoma, Ureter Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Urethral Adenocarcinoma, Urethral Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Vaginal Adenocarcinoma, Vaginal Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Not Otherwise Specified, PEComa, Fallopian Tube Transitional Cell Carcinoma, Ovarian Transitional Cell Carcinoma, Bartholin Gland Transitional Cell Carcinoma, Endometrial Transitional Cell Carcinoma, Minimally Invasive Lung Adenocarcinoma, Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma, Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor, Rare Disorder, Vulvar Carcinoma, Gastric Undifferentiated Carcinoma, Angiosarcoma, Apocrine Neoplasm, Basal Cell Carcinoma, Cervical Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma, Extramammary Paget Disease, Gallbladder Carcinoma, Metastatic Malignant Neoplasm of Unknown Primary, Peritoneal Mesothelioma, Teratoma With Somatic-type Malignancy, Malignant Solid Neoplasm, Breast Metaplastic Carcinoma, Desmoid Fibromatosis
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health