• Histologically confirmed adenocarcinoma of the prostate.
• Metastatic prostate cancer documented by positive bone scan and/or measurable soft tissue metastatic lesions by CT or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
• Progressive disease at study entry demonstrated during continuous androgen-deprivation therapy (ADT)/post orchiectomy defined as one or more of the following:
• PSA progression
• Radiographic progression per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST)1.1 for soft tissue and/or per Prostate Cancer Working Group 3 (PCWG3) for bone, with or without PSA progression
• Be able and willing to undergo mandatory tumor biopsy of at least one metastatic site.
• Have adequate organ function.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS) 0-1.
• Prior therapy with cytochrome P450 (CYP)17 inhibitors.
• Prior treatment with abemaciclib or any cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) 4 & 6 inhibitors.
• Prior cytotoxic chemotherapy for metastatic castration resistant prostate cancer (participants treated with docetaxel in the metastatic hormone-sensitive prostate cancer [mHSPC] are eligible), prior radiopharmaceuticals for prostate cancer, or prior enzalutamide, apalutamide, darolutamide or sipuleucel-T. Participants who had prior radiation or surgery to all target lesions.
• Currently enrolled in a clinical study involving an investigational product.
• Gastrointestinal disorder affecting the absorption or ability to swallow large pills.
• Clinically significant heart disease, active or chronic liver disease, moderate/severe hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh Class B and C).

• Patients with suspected prostate cancer (e.g., abnormal digital rectal exam, elevated and/or rising PSA) as determined by referring physician
• Patients must have had a diagnostic, standard of care mpMRI of the prostate with at least one lesion with a PI-RADS v2.1 score ≥ 4
• In men with PI-RADS v2.1 score 4, PSA should be ≥ 10 ng/mL
• Patients must be scheduled for biopsy or radical prostatectomy
• Patients must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0-3
• Patients should not have had any type of curative or palliative therapy for prostate cancer before enrolling in the study
• Patients must be medically stable as judged by the patient's physician
• Patients must be able to lie still for a total of 60 minutes for the PET/CT scans
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent
• Patients who have had a prior prostatectomy or radiotherapy for prostate cancer cannot participate in the study
• Patients who have had a prior biopsy for prostate cancer cannot participate in the study
• Patients who have been treated for cancers other than skin cancers
• Subjects may not be receiving any other investigational agents for the treatment of the cancer under study
• Patients may not weigh more than the maximum weight limit for the PET/CT scanner table (>200 kilograms or 440 pounds)
• History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to 68Ga PSMA-11 or other agents used in the study such as gadolinium-based intravenous contrast agent used during the mpMRI
• Prior TURP/BPH procedures, including steam/laser therapies

• Women of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test, cannot be breastfeeding and must be willing to use contraception
• Willing to provide written informed consent and to comply with study requirements
• Histologically confirmed locally advanced or metastatic clear cell renal cell carcinoma that has progressed during or after two prior therapeutic regimens which must include vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)-targeted therapy and checkpoint inhibitor therapy or that has otherwise failed such therapies, is measurable disease per RECIST 1.1 criteria, is biopsy accessible
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status 0 or 1
• Estimated life expectancy of longer than 3 months
• Adequate organ function at screening
• History of untreated brain metastasis or leptomeningeal disease or spinal cord compression
• Failure to recover from reversible effects of prior anticancer therapy
• Has received systemic therapy or radiation therapy within 2 weeks prior to screen
• History of solid organ or stem cell transplantation
• Current use of anti-VEGF or mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) agents, or chronic immunosuppressive therapy
• Any prior use of hypoxia inducible factor 2 (HIF2) inhibitors
• Current use of immune checkpoint inhibitors
• Use of an investigational agent or device within 2 weeks prior to dosing, or current participation in an investigational study
• Known HIV, hepatitis B or hepatitis C
• History of other clinically meaningful disease
• Major surgery within 4 weeks of Screening
• Active malignancy requiring therapy other than ccRCC within 3 years of study entry

• Age between 40-89 years
• Biopsy proven, low-risk, localized prostate cancer (minimum of 8 cores)
• May have had biopsy within last 12 months ≤4 cores involved with cancer
• Gleason score ≤6 with no Gleason pattern 4
• Clinical stage T1c-T2a/b
• Serum PSA ≤15 ng/ml
• Life expectancy > 5 years
• Any previous prostate cancer treatment (radiotherapy, chemotherapy, hormonal therapy, oral glucocorticoids, GnRH analogues, prostatectomy)
• Concurrent or previous use within 6 months of screening of any 5α-reductase inhibitor
• Use of anabolic steroids or drugs with antiandrogenic properties
• Prostate volume >150 grams
• Patients who are taking antiplatelet, anticoagulant agents or have a history of a bleeding disorder. Patients taking 81 mg of Aspirin will be allowed to enroll with close observation
• History of gastric or duodenal ulcers or untreated hyperacidity syndromes. Patients on stable doses of GERD medication allowed.
• Patients who are currently taking or plan to take Curcumin during the study
• Patients with a history of gallbladder surgery or gallstones will be excluded

• STEP I REGISTRATION CRITERIA
• Histologically documented renal cell carcinoma with clear cell component, including patients who have sarcomatoid features.
• Any metastatic disease, including visceral, lymph node, other soft tissue and bone, measurable per RECIST 1.1.
• Measurable disease as defined in the protocol.
• Must be intermediate or poor risk patient per International Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma Database (IMDC) criteria (1 or more of the following: Karnofsky performance status [KPS] < 80, < 1 year from diagnosis [including initial nephrectomy] to systemic treatment for metastatic disease, hemoglobin less than lower limit of normal [LLN], corrected calcium concentration greater than upper limit of normal [ULN], absolute neutrophil count greater than ULN, platelet count > ULN).
• Central nervous system (CNS) disease permitted, if stable and not otherwise causing symptoms or needing active treatment.
• Karnofsky performance status >= 70%.
• No prior treatment with PD-1, PD-L1, or CTLA-4 targeting agents (including but not limited to nivolumab, pembrolizumab, pidilizumab, durvalumab, atezolizumab, tremelimumab, and ipilimumab), or any other drug or antibody specifically targeting T-cell co-stimulation or checkpoint pathways. The only exception is for prior treatment with nivolumab or other PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 targeting therapy on pre- or post-operative trials, as long as > 1 year since completion of systemic therapy.
• No prior previous systemic therapy for renal cell carcinoma (prior HD IL-2 [> 28 days] and prior adjuvant sunitinib > 180 days since completion and prior immunotherapy as above are allowed).
• No cancer therapy less than 28 days prior to registration; this includes radiation therapy, except for bone lesions less than 14 days prior to registration. There must be a complete recovery and no ongoing complications from radiotherapy.
• Not pregnant and not nursing, because this study involves an agent that has known genotoxic, mutagenic and teratogenic effects. Therefore, for women of childbearing potential only, a negative serum or urine pregnancy test done =< 14 days prior to registration is required.
• Age >= 18 years
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500/mm^3.
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3.
• Hemoglobin >= 8 g/dL.
• Calculated (Calc.) creatinine clearance >= 30 mL/min.
• Urine protein =< 1+ or urine protein to creatinine (UPC) ratio < 1.
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN).
• Aspartate aminotransferase/alanine aminotransferase (AST/ALT) =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) or < 5 x ULN if hepatic metastases present.
• STEP 2 REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA
• Successful completion of at least 1 cycle of ipilimumab/nivolumab.
• Resolution of any treatment-related adverse events to grade 1 or less per dose modification section (this criteria does not include any adverse events [AEs] not attributable to treatment which are present due to disease). Exceptions for this criteria include patients receiving replacement hormone treatments (such as levothyroxine for treatment-related hypothyroidism or glucocorticoid replacement for adrenal insufficiency). Please contact study chair if further discussion is needed.
• No more than 70 days from last dose of ipilimumab/nivolumab.
• Active autoimmune disease requiring ongoing therapy.
• Ongoing acute toxicity > grade 2 from previous treatment.
• History of severe allergic, anaphylactic or other hypersensitivity reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies.
• History of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or active hepatitis B/C, or active tuberculosis (purified protein derivative [PPD] response without active TB is allowed).
• Concurrent use of immunosuppressive medication including prednisone above 10 mg daily.
• Uncontrolled adrenal insufficiency.
• Uncontrolled hypertension (systolic blood pressure [BP] >150 mmHg or diastolic BP > 90 mmHg).
• Major surgery less than 28 days prior to registration.
• Any serious non-healing wound, ulcer, or bone fracture within 28 days prior to registration.
• Any arterial thrombotic events within 180 days prior to registration.
• Clinically significant hematuria, hematemesis, or hemoptysis within 12 weeks prior to registration.
• Cavitating pulmonary lesions or known endotracheal or endobronchial disease manifestations.
• Lesions encasing or invading any major blood vessels (this does not include tumor thrombus extending into/through renal vein/inferior vena cava [IVC]). Patients with tumor thrombus extending into/through renal vein are considered eligible.
• Moderate of severe hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh B or C).
• Any history of untreated pulmonary embolism or deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the 180 days prior to registration. (Any asymptomatic, treated pulmonary embolism or asymptomatic, treated deep venous thrombosis > 30 days prior to registration allowed).
• Corrected QT interval calculated by the Fridericia formula (QTcF) > 500 ms.
• Unstable cardiac arrhythmia within 6 months prior to registration.
• Any gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding =< 180 days, hemoptysis, or other signs of pulmonary hemorrhage =< 90 days prior to registration.
• History of abdominal fistula, gastrointestinal perforation, intra-abdominal abscess, bowel obstruction, or gastric outlet obstruction within 180 days prior to registration.
• Active peptic ulcer disease, inflammatory bowel disease, or malabsorption syndrome within 28 days prior to registration.
• Untreated hypothyroidism, evidence of pancreatitis, history of organ transplant, or history of congenital QT syndrome.
• Active treatment with coumarin agents (e.g., warfarin), direct thrombin inhibitors (e.g., dabigatran), direct Xa inhibitor betrixaban or platelet inhibitors (e.g., clopidogrel) within 5 days of registration. Allowed anticoagulants include: prophylactic use of low-dose aspirin for cardio-protection (per local applicable guidelines) and low-dose low molecular weight heparins (LMWH), therapeutic doses of LMWH or anticoagulation with direct factor Xa inhibitors rivaroxaban, edoxaban, apixaban. Allowed also in patients with known brain metastases who are on a stable dose of the anticoagulant for at least 1 week prior to registration without clinically significant hemorrhagic complications from the anticoagulation regimen or the tumor.
• Significant cardiac ischemia events (ST elevation myocardial infarction [STEMI] or non-ST elevation myocardial infarction [NSTEMI]) within 6 months or active NY Heart Association class 3-4 heart failure symptoms

• radical prostatectomy for adenocarcinoma of prostate
• pathologically confirmed T1-T3 disease
• no sign of lymph node or metastatic disease
• pT1-pT3pNxMx patients in whom standard NCCN or AUA guidelines would suggest are at low risk for pelvic lymph node or metastatic disease and who would not require confirmatory imaging for metastatic disease. This includes patients with Gleason 6 or 7(T2 disease) and PSA less than 20.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group(ECOG) status 0-2
• adequate renal and liver function as well as bone marrow reserve (measured serum creatinine <2mg/dl, bilirubin ≤ 1.5 mg/dl, ANC ≥ 1.5 x 10 (3) uL, platelets ≥ 50 x K/uLL, and hemoglobin ≥ 10 g/dL)
• 30-80 y/o at time of diagnosis with a life expectancy of >= 3 yrs
• focally positive surgical margins are permitted
• no plan to receive adjuvant hormone or radiation therapy
• PSA at the time of enrollment must be undetectable
• life expectancy of 3 years
• must not have exceeded 3 months from time of surgery to enrollment into study
• T3b or T4 or node positive disease
• macroscopic residual disease after surgery
• hormone therapy before surgery
• history of gallbladder problems or gallstones, or biliary obstruction, unless patient had cholecystectomy
• radiation therapy as primary treatment after surgery
• INR value greater than 1.5
• AST/ALT are equal or greater than 2 times the upper limit of normal
• antiplatelet or anticoagulant agents- patients taking 81mg of Aspirin will be allowed with close observation
• history of gastric or duodenal ulcers or untreated hyperacidity syndromes
• patients who are currently taking or plan to take Curcumin during the study

1. Age ≥ 18 years. 2. Appropriate staging studies identifying patient as AJCC 7th edition clinical stage T1 (a, b, or c) or T2 (a, b, or c) adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland. The patient should not have direct evidence of regional or distant metastases after appropriate staging studies. See Appendix I for details on AJCC 7th Edition staging criteria. Histologic confirmation of cancer will be required by biopsy performed within 12 months of registration. T-staging may be assessed by multi-parametric imaging alone if digital rectal examination was deferred. 3. The patient's Zubrod performance status must be 0-2 (see Appendix II for definition). 4. The Gleason summary score should be less than or equal to 7 [Grade group 1 (Gleason 3+3=6), group 2 (Gleason 3+4=7), and group 3 (Gleason 4+3=7) are allowed]. See Appendix III for details on definitions. While a template biopsy is recommended, it is not required in the case of MRI fusion biopsy performed on all dominant MR lesions (defined as PIRADS v2 4-5). 5. Baseline AUA symptom score ≤19 (see Appendix IV for questionnaire) without need for maximum medical therapy (specifically, not on tamsulosin 0.8mg daily) 6. EPIC sexual domain composite score 60-100 (see Appendix V) 7. Multi-parametric MRI evaluation of the prostate is required for this study within 12 months of registration. Gross radiographic disease on MRI (defined as PIRADS v2 score 3-5) must be > 5mm at minimum distance from at least one side's neurovascular bundle, which is typically the closest of the neurovascular elements to the prostate. 8. The serum PSA should be less than or equal to 20 ng/ml within 90 days of registration. Study entry PSA must not be obtained during the following time frames: (1) 10-day period following prostate biopsy; (2) following initiation of ADT or anti-androgen therapy; (3) within 30 days after discontinuation of finasteride; (4) within 90 days after discontinuation of dutasteride; (5) within 5 days of a digital rectal examination. 9. Ultrasound or MRI based volume estimation of prostate gland ≤ 80 grams. Cytoreduction therapy (finasteride or dutasteride only) may be considered for those with >60 gram size. 10. All patients must be willing and capable to provide informed consent to participate in the protocol within the 30 days prior to registration 1. Subjects with clinical (digital rectal examination) evidence of extraprostatic extension (T3a) or seminal vesicle involvement (T3b). MRI evidence of equivocal/potential but not definite extraprostatic extension is allowed, as long as it is unilateral and not on the side of the gland proposed for neurovascular element sparing. In equivocal cases of potential extracapsular extension on MRI only, discretion is left to the treating physician. 2. MRI evidence of gross disease (defined as PIRADS v2 score 3-5 lesions) ≤5mm of BOTH neurovascular bundles, which are the most proximate of the neurovascular elements planned for sparing on this protocol. 3. Patients with all three intermediate risk factors (PSA >10 and ≤ 20, Gleason 7, clinical stage T2b-T2c) who ALSO have ≥50% of the number of their template biopsy cores positive for cancer are ineligible. 4. Inability to undergo multi-parametric MRI. 5. Evidence of metastatic disease. Note bone scan is not required for this study given the low-intermediate NCCN risk cohort to be enrolled. 6. Evidence of clinical nodal involvement of the pelvis. Biopsy is required for lymph nodes over ≥1.5cm in short-axis measured size. 7. No currently active ADT or anti-androgen therapy at time of registration is allowed. Further, no more than 3 cumulative months of prior ADT or anti-androgen therapy is allowed. If either has been used by the patient, there must be a demonstration of testosterone recovery (>50ng/dL serum blood level), EPIC sexual domain score ≥60, and at least 1 month between demonstration of testosterone recovery and study registration (any one measurement of testosterone recovery suffices). 8. Testosterone ≤ 50 ng/dL (any one measurement >50 ng/dL suffices for inclusion) within 90 days of study entry. 9. Subjects who have had previous pelvic radiotherapy or have had chemotherapy or surgery for prostate cancer. 10. Subjects who have plans to receive other concomitant or post treatment adjuvant antineoplastic therapy while on this protocol including surgery, cryotherapy, conventionally fractionated radiotherapy, hormonal therapy, or chemotherapy given as part of the treatment of prostate cancer. 11. Subjects who have undergone previous transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) or ablative procedures to the prostate for benign prostatic hyperplasia or other conditions (i.e. cryotherapy, HIFU). 12. Subjects who have baseline severe urinary symptoms, as defined by AUA symptom score >19 (alpha-blocker medication allowed except if taking tamsulosin 0.8mg daily at baseline which indicates compensated severe symptoms and also can affect sexual function). 13. Subjects who have a history of significant psychiatric illness that would confound informed consent. 14. Severe, active co-morbidity, defined as follows: 1. Unstable angina and/or congestive heart failure requiring hospitalization within the last 6 months 2. Myocardial infarction within the last 6 months 3. Acute bacterial or fungal infection requiring intravenous antibiotics at time of registration 4. Patients with active inflammatory colitis (including Crohn's Disease and ulcerative colitis) currently requiring systemic steroids and/or systemic immunosuppression are not eligible. 15. Subjects with a known allergy to polyethylene glycol hydrogel (rectal spacer material) or contraindication to spacer products (SpaceOAR) 16. Subjects with uncontrolled coagulation disorder which cannot be controlled with anticoagulants 17. Men of reproductive potential who do not agree that they will use an effective contraceptive method. 18. Men who require erectile function medication or aid to achieve an erection sufficient for intercourse. Ability to achieve erection sufficient for intercourse without medication or aid at least once time in the month prior to registration is sufficient for inclusion. 19. Men who have clinically significant penile malformation (i.e. Peyronie's disease) or history of penile implantation are excluded 20. If DRE is performed, patient may not have palpable disease on side of gland to be planned for neurovascular sparing. Given the poor accuracy of DRE, such a finding should be confirmed by MRI and/or biopsy to harbor actual disease before excluding a patient

• Pathologically (histologically) proven adenocarcinoma confirmed by prostatectomy performed within 10 years prior to registration and any type of radical prostatectomy is permitted, including retropubic, perineal, laparoscopic or robotically assisted.
• PSA level (≥ 0.2 ng/mL) within 90 days prior to registration. GnRH analog may be started no more than 42 days prior study entry, but patients must have a PSA ≥ 0.2 ng/mL prior to starting ADT.
• Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL, independent of transfusion and/or growth factors within 90 days prior to registration.
• Platelet count ≥ 75,000 x 10^9/µL independent of transfusion and/or growth factors within 90 days prior to registration.
• At least 1 of the following aggressive features:
• Gleason score of 8-10 (note any Gleason score is eligible)
• Seminal vesicle invasion (SVI) (note any pT stage [AJCC v8.0] is eligible but a pT stage ≥ pT3b is considered aggressive)
• Locoregional node involvement at radical prostatectomy (pN1)
• Persistently elevated PSA post-RP nadir (PEPP) defined as PSA > 0.1 ng/mL after radical prostatectomy
• Serum albumin ≥ 3.0 g/dL within 90 days prior to registration
• GFR ≥35 mL/min estimated by Cockcroft-Gault or measured directly by 24 hour urine creatinine within 90 days prior to registration.
• Serum total bilirubin ≤1.5 × ULN (Note: In subjects with Gilbert's syndrome, if total bilirubin is >1.5 × ULN, measure direct and indirect bilirubin and if direct bilirubin is ≤1.5 × ULN, subject is eligible) within 90 days prior to registration.
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or alanine aminotransferase (ALT) <2.5 × ULN within 90 days prior to registration.
• Testosterone >50 ng/dL within 90 days prior to registration. Prior androgen deprivation (GnRH analog and/or non-steroidal antiandrogen) therapy is allowed provided that serum testosterone concentration must be ≥ 50 ng/dL prior to registration or starting ADT, whichever occurs first; 5-alpha reductase inhibitors will not impact eligibility, but must be discontinued prior to starting protocol treatment.
• History and physical with ECOG Performance Status 0-1 or within 90 days prior to registration.
• Definitive clinical or radiologic evidence of metastatic disease with the exception of locoregional lymph nodes.
• Prior invasive malignancy (except non-melanomatous skin cancer carcinoma in situ of the male breast, penis, oral cavity, or stage Ta of the bladder, or stage I completely resected melanoma) unless disease free for a minimum of 2 years).
• Prior systemic chemotherapy for the study cancer. Note: prior chemotherapy for a different cancer is allowable.
• Prior radiotherapy to the region of the study cancer that would result in overlap of radiation therapy fields.
• History of any of the following:
• Documented inflammatory bowel disease
• Transmural myocardial infarction within the last 4 months prior to registration.
• New York Heart Association Functional Classification III/IV within 4 months prior to registration.
• Unstable angina and/or congestive heart failure requiring hospitalization within the last 4 months prior to registration
• History of loss of consciousness or transient ischemic attack within 12 months prior to randomization
• History of seizure disorder or condition that may predispose to seizure (e.g. prior cortical stroke or significant brain trauma)
• History of uncontrolled hypertension defined as a sustained systolic blood pressure in excess of 150 mmHg or a sustained diastolic blood pressure in excess of 90 mmHg despite optimized antihypertensive therapy.
• History of repeated falls and fractures over the past 12 months that in the opinion of the treating investigator would put the patient at risk for poor bone outcomes from androgen receptor targeted therapy
• Known gastrointestinal disorder affecting absorption of oral medications.
• Active uncontrolled infection defined as an identified infectious condition that requires active therapy that has not yet been completed.
• HIV positive patients with CD4 count < 200 cells/microliter within 30 days prior to registration OR HIV patients under treatment with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) within 30 days prior to registration regardless of CD4 count. Note: HIV testing is not required for eligibility for this protocol as it is self-reported. This exclusion criterion is necessary because the treatments involved in this protocol may be immunosuppressive and/or interact with HAART.

• Patient must have at least one and up to three asymptomatic metastatic tumor(s) of the bone or soft tissue (with at least one bone metastasis) develop within the past 6-months that are ≤ 5.0 cm or <250 cm3
• Patient must have had their primary tumor treated with surgery and/or radiation.
• Histologic confirmation of malignancy (primary or metastatic tumor).
• PSADT <15 months. PSA doubling time (PSADT) will be calculated using as many PSA values that are available from time of relapse (PSA > 0.2). To calculate PSADT, the Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center Prostate Cancer Prediction Tool will be used. It can be found at the following web site: https://www.mskcc.org/nomograms/prostate/psa-doubling-time.
• Patient may have had prior systemic therapy and/or ADT associated with treatment of their primary prostate cancer. Patient may have had ADT associated with salvage radiation therapy (to the primary prostate cancer or pelvis is allowed).
• PSA > 0.5 but <50.
• Testosterone > 125 ng/dL.
• Patient must be ≥ 18 years of age.
• Patient must have a life expectancy ≥ 12 months.
• Patient must have an ECOG performance status ≤ 2.
• Patient must have normal organ and marrow function as defined as: Before the first administration of Xofigo, the absolute neutrophil count (ANC) should be ≥ 1.5 x 109/L, the platelet count ≥ 100 x 109/L and hemoglobin ≥ 10 g/dL. * Patient must have the ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document.
• No more than 3 years of ADT is allowed, with the most recent ADT treatment having occurred greater than 6 months prior to enrollment.
• PSMA-PET/MRI or PSMA-PET/CT scan within the past 6 months with results that demonstrate more disease lesions than baseline CT/Bone Scan
• Castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC).
• Spinal cord compression or impending spinal cord compression.
• Suspected pulmonary and/or liver metastases (greater >10 mm in largest axis).
• Patient receiving any other investigational agents.
• Patient receiving abiraterone and prednisone.
• Patient is participating in a concurrent treatment protocol.
• Serum creatinine > 3 times the upper limit of normal.
• Total bilirubin > 3 times the upper limit of normal.
• Liver Transaminases > 5-times the upper limit of normal.
• Unable to lie flat during or tolerate PET/MRI, PET/CT or SBRT.
• Prior salvage treatment to the primary prostate cancer or pelvis is allowed.
• Refusal to sign informed consent.

1. Patients must have the ability to understand and sign an approved ICF. 2. Patients must have the ability to understand and comply with all protocol requirements. 3. Patients must be ≥18 years of age. 4. Patients must have an ECOG performance status of 0 to 2. 5. Patients must have a life expectancy >6 months. 6. Patients must have histological, pathological, and/or cytological confirmation of prostate cancer. 7. Patients must be 68Ga-PSMA-11 PET/CT scan positive, and eligible as determined by the sponsor's central reader. 8. Patients must have a castrate level of serum/plasma testosterone (<50 ng/dL or <1.7 nmol/L). 9. Patients must have received at least one NAAD (such as enzalutamide and/or abiraterone). 10. Patients must have been previously treated with at least 1, but no more than 2 previous taxane regimens. A taxane regimen is defined as a minimum exposure of 2 cycles of a taxane. If a patient has received only 1 taxane regimen, the patient is eligible if: a. The patient's physician deems him unsuitable to receive a second taxane regimen (e.g. frailty assessed by geriatric or health status evaluation, intolerance, etc.). 11. Patients must have progressive mCRPC. Documented progressive mCRPC will be based on at least 1 of the following criteria: 1. Serum/plasma PSA progression defined as 2 consecutive increases in PSA over a previous reference value measured at least 1 week prior. The minimal start value is 2.0 ng/mL. 2. Soft-tissue progression defined as an increase ≥20% in the sum of the diameter (SOD) (short axis for nodal lesions and long axis for non-nodal lesions) of all target lesions based on the smallest SOD since treatment started or the appearance of one or more new lesions. 3. Progression of bone disease: evaluable disease or new bone lesions(s) by bone scan (2+2 PCWG3 criteria, Scher et al 2016). 12. Patients must have ≥1 metastatic lesion that is present on baseline CT, MRI, or bone scan imaging obtained ≤28 days prior to beginning study therapy. 13. Patients must have recovered to ≤ Grade 2 from all clinically significant toxicities related to prior therapies (i.e. prior chemotherapy, radiation, immunotherapy, etc.). 14. Patients must have adequate organ function: a. Bone marrow reserve:
• White blood cell (WBC) count ≥2.5 x 10^9/L (2.5 x 10^9/L is equivalent to 2.5 x 10^3/μL and 2.5 x K/μL and 2.5 x 10^3/cumm and 2500/μL) OR absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥1.5 x 10^9/L (1.5 x 10^9/L is equivalent to 1.5 x 10^3/μL and 1.5 x K/μL and 1.5 x 10^3/cumm and 1500/μL)
• Platelets ≥100 x 10^9/L (100 x 10^9/L is equivalent to 100 x 10^3/μL and 100 x K/μL and 100 x 10^3/cumm and 100,000/μL)
• Hemoglobin ≥9 g/dL (9 g/dL is equivalent to 90 g/L and 5.59 mmol/L) b. Hepatic:
• Total bilirubin ≤1.5 x the institutional upper limit of normal (ULN). For patients with known Gilbert's Syndrome ≤3 x ULN is permitted
• Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) or aspartate aminotransferase (AST) ≤3.0 x ULN OR ≤5.0 x ULN for patients with liver metastases c. Renal:
• Serum/plasma creatinine ≤1.5 x ULN or creatinine clearance ≥50 mL/min 15. Albumin >3.0 g/dL (3.0 g/dL is equivalent to 30 g/L) [Inclusion #16 has been removed] 17. HIV-infected patients who are healthy and have a low risk of AIDS-related outcomes are included in this trial. 18. For patients who have partners of childbearing potential: Partner and/or patient must use a method of birth control with adequate barrier protection, deemed acceptable by the principle investigator during the study and for 6 months after last study drug administration. 19. The best standard of care/ best supportive care options planned for this patient: 1. Are allowed by the protocol 2. Have been agreed to by the treating investigator and patient 3. Allow for the management of the patient without 177Lu-PSMA-617 1. Previous treatment with any of the following within 6 months of randomization: Strontium-89, Samarium-153, Rhenium-186, Rhenium-188, Radium-223, hemi-body irradiation. Previous PSMA-targeted radioligand therapy is not allowed. 2. Any systemic anti-cancer therapy (e.g. chemotherapy, immunotherapy or biological therapy [including monoclonal antibodies]) within 28 days prior to day of randomization. 3. Any investigational agents within 28 days prior to day of randomization. 4. Known hypersensitivity to the components of the study therapy or its analogs. 5. Other concurrent cytotoxic chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radioligand therapy, or investigational therapy. 6. Transfusion for the sole purpose of making a subject eligible for study inclusion. 7. Patients with a history of CNS metastases must have received therapy (surgery, radiotherapy, gamma knife) and be neurologically stable, asymptomatic, and not receiving corticosteroids for the purposes of maintaining neurologic integrity. Patients with epidural disease, canal disease and prior cord involvement are eligible if those areas have been treated, are stable, and not neurologically impaired. For patients with parenchymal CNS metastasis (or a history of CNS metastasis), baseline and subsequent radiological imaging must include evaluation of the brain (MRI preferred or CT with contrast). 8. A superscan as seen in the baseline bone scan. 9. Symptomatic cord compression, or clinical or radiologic findings indicative of impending cord compression. 10. Concurrent serious (as determined by the Principal Investigator) medical conditions, including, but not limited to, New York Heart Association class III or IV congestive heart failure, history of congenital prolonged QT syndrome, uncontrolled infection, known active hepatitis B or C, or other significant co-morbid conditions that in the opinion of the investigator would impair study participation or cooperation. 11. Diagnosed with other malignancies that are expected to alter life expectancy or may interfere with disease assessment. However, patients with a prior history of malignancy that has been adequately treated and who have been disease free for more than 3 years are eligible, as are patients with adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancer, superficial bladder cancer.

• Biopsy-confirmed diagnosis of primary or recurrent respective tumor type and scheduled to undergo surgical resection
• Part 1: Biopsy-confirmed diagnosis of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) or breast cancer
• Part 2: Biopsy-confirmed diagnosis of HNSCC, breast cancer, colorectal cancer, prostate cancer, ovarian cancer, urothelial carcinoma and non-small cell lung cancer.
• Part 3: Stage 2 to 4 HNSCC Including T0 or Tx unknown Primary cancers
• Histologically diagnosed by an excisional biopsy procedure
• Tumors at sites of which the surgeon would assess that in vivo intraoperative imaging would not be feasible
• Life expectancy <12 weeks
• Hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh score >5) or significant liver disease including active hepatitis or cirrhosis

• Documented histologic or cytologic diagnosis of renal cell cancer (RCC). All subtypes of RCC are eligible including but not limited to clear cell, papillary, chromophobe, translocation, collecting duct carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, and unclassified categories. Enrollment of non-clear cell patients will be limited to 20% of the total sample size (~ 42 patients). Once this goal is met, accrual of non-clear cell patients will be discontinued (a notice will be sent out 2 weeks in advance). Sarcomatoid and rhabdoid differentiation are allowed
• Presence of at least 2 metastatic bone lesions not treated with prior radiation is required
• The presence of bone metastases can be detected by computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), Tc-99m bone scan or positron emission tomography (PET) (fludeoxyglucose F-18 [FDG] or sodium fluoride [NaF]) imaging. Patients with non-measurable bone-only disease are allowed. Patients may have received prior radiation therapy for bone metastases or other external radiation >= 14 days prior to registration, as long as they still have at least 2 metastatic bone lesions that were not treated with radiation. Patients with visceral metastases are allowed, as long as they have at least two untreated bone metastases
• No more than 2 prior lines of systemic therapy including but not limited to anti-angiogenic therapy, checkpoint inhibitors, mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors, clinical trial compounds or cytokine-based therapy. Prior radiation therapy does not count as a prior systemic therapy
• No prior treatment with cabozantinb
• No treatment with any type of small molecular kinase inhibitor (including investigational kinase inhibitors) within 2 weeks or 5 half-lives (whichever is shorter) of registration or receipt of any anti-cancer therapy (including investigational therapy, monoclonal antibodies, cytokine therapy) within 3 weeks of registration
• No prior hemibody external radiotherapy
• No prior therapy with radium-223 dichloride or systemic radiotherapy (such as samarium, strontium)
• No major surgery within 6 weeks of randomization. Procedures such as thoracentesis, paracentesis, percutaneous biopsy, Moh's or other topical skin surgery, Lasik eye surgery are not considered major surgery. Patients who have had a nephrectomy may be registered >= 3 weeks after surgery, providing there are no wound-healing complications. Subjects with clinically relevant ongoing complications from prior surgery are not eligible
• Recovery to baseline or =< grade 1 CTCAE version 5.0 from toxicity related to any prior treatment, unless adverse events are clinically nonsignificant and/or stable on supportive therapy
• The use of osteoclast targeted therapy including either bisphosphonates or denosumab is mandated on this study except in patients with contraindications as determined by the treating investigator, including:
• Hypocalcemia
• Hypophosphatemia
• Renal impairment including those with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) < 35 mL/min using the Cockcroft-Gault equation or acute renal impairment
• Hypersensitivity to drug formulation
• Dental condition or need for dental intervention that per the investigator would increase the risk of osteonecrosis of jaw (ONJ).
• Use of osteoclast targeted therapy or reason against use needs to be recorded in the electronic case report form (eCRF). Additionally, reason for discontinuation of osteoclast targeted therapy need to be appropriately documented in the eCRF
• Not pregnant and not nursing, because this study involves an investigational agent whose genotoxic, mutagenic and teratogenic effects on the developing fetus and newborn are unknown.
• Therefore, for women of childbearing potential only, a negative urine pregnancy test done =< 28 days prior to registration is required. A female of childbearing potential is a sexually mature female who: 1) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or 2) has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months)
• Karnofsky performance status >= 60%
• Symptomatic bone pain defined as either regular use of analgesic medication for cancer related bone pain (>= level 1; World Health Organization [WHO] ladder for cancer pain) or prior SSE defined as bone pain requiring radiation, bone pain secondary to a pathologic fracture related to a bone metastasis, symptomatic spinal cord compression related to a bone metastasis, surgery to bone secondary to symptomatic bone metastasis or radiographic progression of bone metastases as defined by the presence of bone metastases on radiographic imaging
• No brain metastases or cranial epidural disease unless adequately treated with radiotherapy, radiosurgery, or surgery and stable for at least 4 weeks prior to registration as documented by MRI or CT imaging or deemed stable by clinical investigator. Treated brain metastases are defined as having no ongoing requirement for steroids and no evidence of progression or hemorrhage after treatment for at least 4 weeks prior to registration as documented by MRI or CT imaging or deemed stable by clinical investigator
• No imminent or established spinal cord compression based on clinical symptoms and/or imaging. In patients with untreated imminent or established spinal cord compression, treatment with standard of care as clinically indicated should be completed at least 2 weeks before registration
• No imminent or impending pathologic fracture based on clinical symptoms and/or imaging. In patients with untreated imminent or impending pathologic fracture, treatment with standard of care as clinically indicated should be completed at least 2 weeks before registration
• No significant, uncontrolled intercurrent or recent illness, including but not limited to the following conditions:
• Cardiovascular disorders: Symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, serious cardiac arrhythmia; uncontrolled hypertension defined as sustained blood pressure > 150 mm Hg systolic or > 100 mm Hg diastolic despite optimal antihypertensive treatment; stroke (including transient ischemic attack), myocardial infarction, or other ischemic event, within 6 months before randomization; thromboembolic event (e.g., deep venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism) within 1 month before randomization; screening Fridericia's correction formula (QTcF) =< 500 msec
• Gastrointestinal disorders: Disorders associated with a high risk of perforation or fistula formation: active inflammatory bowel disease, active diverticulitis, active cholecystitis, active symptomatic cholangitis or active appendicitis, active acute pancreatitis or active acute obstruction of the pancreatic or biliary duct, or active gastric outlet obstruction; abdominal fistula, gastrointestinal perforation, bowel obstruction, or intra-abdominal abscess within 3 months before randomization. Note: Complete healing of an intra-abdominal abscess must be confirmed before randomization
• No clinically significant hematuria, hematemesis, or hemoptysis, or other history of significant bleeding (e.g., pulmonary hemorrhage) within 3 months before randomization
• No lesions invading major pulmonary blood vessels
• No other clinically significant disorders:
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy (with no medications prohibited by this protocol [e.g. drug-drug interactions]) with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
• For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy (with no medications prohibited by this protocol [e.g. drug-drug interactions]), if indicated
• Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load (with no medications prohibited by this protocol [e.g. drug-drug interactions])
• No serious non-healing wound or ulcer
• No malabsorption syndrome
• No uncompensated/symptomatic hypothyroidism
• No moderate to severe hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh B or C)
• No requirements for hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis
• No history of solid organ transplantation
• No chronic concomitant treatment with strong CYP3A4 inducers or inhibitors. Because the list of these agents is constantly changing, it is important to regularly consult a frequently updated medical reference. Patients may not have received a strong CYP3A4 inducer within 12 days prior to registration nor a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor within 7 days prior to registration
• No concomitant anticoagulation with coumarin agents (e.g., warfarin), direct thrombin inhibitors (e.g., dabigatran), direct factor Xa inhibitor betrixaban, or platelet inhibitors (e.g., clopidogrel). Allowed anticoagulants include:
• Prophylactic use of low-dose aspirin for cardio-protection (per local applicable guidelines) and low-dose low molecular weight heparins (LMWH).
• Therapeutic doses of LMWH or anticoagulation with direct factor Xa inhibitors rivaroxaban, edoxaban, or apixaban in subjects without known brain metastases who are on a stable dose of the anticoagulant for at least 1 week before first dose of study treatment without clinically significant hemorrhagic complications from the anticoagulation regimen or the tumor.
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500/mm^3
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3
• Hemoglobin >= 10 g/dl (transfusions allowed)
• Calculated (calc.) creatinine clearance >= 30 mL/min using the Cockcroft-Gault equation
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN), for patients with Gilberts disease =< 3.0 x ULN
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 3.0 x ULN
• Urine protein to creatinine (UPC) ratio =< 1 mg/mg OR 24-hr urine protein < 1g

All Parts
• Subject has provided informed consent prior to initiation of any study-specific activities/procedures
• Subjects with histologically or cytologically confirmed mCRPC who are refractory to a novel antiandrogen therapy (abiraterone, enzalutamide, and/or apalutamide) and have failed at least 1 (but not more than 2) taxane regimens (or who are deemed medically unsuitable to be treated with a taxane regimen or have actively refused treatment with a taxane regimen). Progression on novel antiandrogen therapy may have occurred in the non-metastatic CRPC setting
• Subject should have undergone bilateral orchiectomy or should be on continuous androgen-deprivation therapy (ADT) with a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist or antagonist
• Total serum testosterone • Evidence of progressive disease, defined as 1 or more PCWG3 criteria: PSA level >/=1 ng/mL that has increased on at least 2 successive occasions at least 1 week apart, nodal or visceral progression as defined by RECIST 1.1 with PCGW3 modifications, and/or appearance of 2 or more new lesions in bone scan
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0
•1
• Life expectancy >/=6 months
• Any anticancer therapy or immunotherapy within 4 weeks of start of first dose, not including luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonist (LHRH)/GnRH analogue (agonist/antagonist). Subjects on a stable bisophosphonate or denosumab regimen for >/= 30 days prior to randomization are eligible
• Prior PSMA-targeted therapy (subjects on prior therapy may be eligible if discussed with Amgen medical monitor prior to enrollment)
• Central nervous system (CNS) metastases, leptomeningeal disease, or spinal cord compression
• Active autoimmune disease or any other diseases requiring immunosuppressive therapy while on study
• Needing chronic systemic corticosteroid therapy (prednisone > 10 mg per day or equivalent) or any other immunosuppressive therapies (including anti-tumor necrosis factor alpha [TNF alpha] therapies) unless stopped 7 days prior to start of first dose
• Myocardial infarction, unstable angina, cardiac arrhythmia requiring medication, and/or symptomatic congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association > class II) within 12 months of first dose of AMG 160 Part 2 only:
• Subjects on a prior PD-1 or PD-L1 inhibitor who experienced a Grade 3 or higher immune-related adverse event prior to first day of dosing
• History or evidence of interstitial lung disease or active, non-infectious pneumonitis Part 3 only: -Evidence of active tuberculosis on chest radiograph within 3 months prior to the first dose of investigational product Part 6 only: Subjects are excluded from this cohort if any of the following additional criteria apply:
• Subjects taking strong OAT3 inhibitors (eg, probenecid) or adjust the dosing to 1 mg PO QD.
• Subjects with latent or active tuberculosis at screening

• Non-obese (body mass index less than 30 kg/m2) *alternatively, individuals will be permitted to participate if they have a body mass index value below 35 kg/m2 but a waist circumference below 88 cm for females and 102 cm for males
• Systolic blood pressure <140 mmHg
• Diastolic blood pressure <90 mmHg
• Participants who have cardiac, respiratory, neurological, and/or metabolic illnesses
• Current or previous use of anti-hypertensive medications
• Any known history of renal or hepatic insufficiency/disease
• Pregnancy or breast feeding
• Current smokers, as well as individuals who regularly smoked within the past 3 years
• Individuals with a history of drug abuse
• Individuals who have an unexplained positive urine drug screen (e.g., some agents cause false-positive results, but when the agent is abstained for hours/days/weeks, the repeated drug screen is negative. One example could be an over-the-counter supplement)

• Healthy
• Non-obese (body mass index less than 30 kg/m2)
• Body mass greater than or equal to 65 kg
• Subjects who have cardiac, respiratory, neurological and/or metabolic illnesses
• Any known history of renal or hepatic insufficiency/disease
• Pregnancy or breast feeding
• Current smokers, as well as individuals who regularly smoked within the past 3 years
• Positive urine drug screen
• Currently taking pain modifying medication(s)