Eligibility criteria for study enrollment:
• Signed Informed Consent Form (ICF) by parent(s)/guardian(s) of subjects and informed assent form (IAF) for subjects ≥7 years, or as per local or country specific guidelines or regulations.
• Male or female subjects 2 to 17 years old at Visit 1.
• Documented medical history or physician-confirmed diagnosis of IgE-mediated CMA with systemic symptoms related to ingestion of milk or dairy products.
• Subjects currently following a strict cow's milk-free diet, with no consumption of dairy or baked milk products.
• Cow's milk-specific IgE level at screening ≥10 kU/L
• Positive Skin Prick Test (SPT) to cow's milk with a largest wheal diameter ≥6 mm.
• Positive DBPCFC at screening with an eliciting dose ≤300 mg cow's milk proteins (approximately ≤9.4 mL of cow's milk).
• Negative urine pregnancy test for female subjects of childbearing potential. Female subjects of childbearing potential must agree and commit to use effective medical methods of contraception for the entire duration of their participation in the study. Sexual abstinence will be accepted as an effective method of contraception for girls below 15 years of age.
• Ability to perform spirometry procedures in accordance with the American Thoracic Society guidelines (2005) for subjects ≥6 years old. Ability to perform peak expiratory flow (PEF) measurements for subjects ≥5 years old. Subjects <8 years of age who have documented inability to adequately perform spirometry can perform only the PEF evaluation. Subjects <5 years of age may be enrolled if they had no clinical features of moderate or severe persistent asthma severity (as defined by the 2007 National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute [NHLBI] Guidelines) within 1 year before Visit 1.
• Subjects and/or parents/guardians willing to comply with all study requirements during participation in the study.
• History of severe anaphylaxis to cow's milk resulting in hypotension, hypoxia or neurological compromise (collapse, loss of consciousness or incontinence) or requiring mechanical ventilation.
• Pregnancy or lactation.
• Spirometry forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) <80% of the predicted value at Visit 1 for subjects ≥6 years and able to perform the spirometry, or PEF <80% of predicted value at Visit 1 for subjects performing only the PEF measurements.
• Any clinical features of moderate or severe persistent asthma severity (as defined by the 2007 NHLBI guidelines) and high daily doses of inhaled corticosteroids.
• Known allergy to the Viaskin patch materials or excipients, or to any of the components of the food challenge formulas other than the cow's milk proteins.
• Allergy or known history of reaction to Tegaderm® medical dressing with no possibility to use an alternative adhesive dressing authorized by the sponsor in replacement.
• Subjects having objective symptoms to the placebo formula leading to stopping the challenge during the screening DBPCFC.
• Severe reaction during the screening DBPCFC defined as need for intubation, and/or hypotension persisting after epinephrine administration, and/or the need for >2 doses of epinephrine.
• Symptomatic allergy to pollens with symptoms during the pollen season that might interfere with the symptoms observed during the DBPCFC, if the DBPCFC is performed during the pollen season. Screening of such subjects should be made out of the pollen season.
• Inability to discontinue short-acting antihistamines for 3 days or long-acting antihistamines for 5 to 7 days (depending on the half-life) before the DBPCFC.
• Use of systemic long-acting corticosteroids within 12 weeks before Visit 1 and/or use of systemic short-acting corticosteroids within 4 weeks before Visit 1 or use of systemic long-acting or short-acting corticosteroids during screening (unless used to treat symptoms triggered by the DBPCFC or triggered by accidental allergen consumption; in the latter case DBPCFC must then be scheduled after a minimum of 7 wash-out days).
• Subjects with asthma conditions meeting 1 or several criteria below:
• Uncontrolled persistent asthma (as defined by the 2007 NHLBI guidelines) or subject being treated with a combination therapy of medium or high daily dose of inhaled corticosteroid with a long acting inhaled β2-agonist. Intermittent asthmatic subjects who require intermittent use of inhaled corticosteroids for rescue are permitted.
• At least 2 systemic corticosteroid courses for asthma within 1 year before Visit 1 or 1 oral corticosteroid course for asthma within 3 months before Visit 1, or during screening (unless used to treat symptoms triggered by the DBPCFC).
• Prior intubation/mechanical ventilation due to asthma within 2 years before Visit 1, or during screening.
• Upper respiratory infection or gastroenteritis within 7 days of DBPCFC (DBPCFC must then be rescheduled at least 7 days after resolution of these conditions).
• Any history of milk immunotherapy (eg, oral immunotherapy, sublingual immunotherapy or specific oral tolerance induction).
• Prior history of any other food allergen immunotherapy (eg, oral immunotherapy, sublingual immunotherapy or specific oral tolerance induction) within 5 years before Visit 1.
• Subjects currently under aeroallergen immunotherapy and unwilling or unable to discontinue at the time of Visit 1. Aeroallergen Immunotherapy must be discontinued at the time of Visit 1.
• Use of any anti-IgE drug (eg, omalizumab), any immunomodulatory therapy, or any biological agent therapy (eg, anti-tumor necrosis factor drugs) within 1 year before Visit 1, or during screening.
• Generalized dermatologic diseases (eg, severe atopic dermatitis, uncontrolled generalized eczema, icthyosis vulgaris) with no intact zones to apply the Viaskin patch, or urticarial and mast cells disorders such as chronic idiopathic urticaria.
• Subject and/or subject's parents/guardians with obvious excessive anxiety and unlikely to cope with the conditions of a food challenge.
• Past or current disease, including but not limited to active eosinophilic gastrointestinal disorders, autoimmune disorders, immunodeficiency, malignancy, uncontrolled disease (hypertension, diabetes, psychiatric disorder, cardiac disease), or other disorders (eg, liver, gastrointestinal, kidney, cardiovascular, pulmonary disease or blood disorder) which in the opinion of the Investigator or the sponsor may affect the subject's participation in the study or place the subject at increased risk.
• Subjects and/or parents/guardians unable to use the epinephrine auto-injector properly in spite of being adequately trained.
• Contraindicated condition for the use of epinephrine.
• Use of any investigational drug or device, or participation in another interventional clinical study within 3 months before Visit 1.
• Subjects receiving beta-blockers or Angiotensin converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.
• Subjects unable to follow the protocol requirements.

• Completion of the ARC003 study
• Written informed consent and/or assent from subjects/guardians as appropriate
• Use of effective birth control by sexually active female subjects of child-bearing potential
• Early discontinuation from the ARC003 study
• Meets any longitudinally applicable ARC003 study exclusion criteria
• (Group 2 only) Failure to tolerate ≥ 443 mg cumulative of peanut protein with no or mild symptoms in the ARC003 study Exit DBPCFC
• Any other condition that, in the opinion of the Investigator, precludes participation for reasons of safety

• Pure seminoma after orchiectomy presenting with isolated retropreritoneal lymphadenopathy OR stage I pure seminoma with isolated retroperitoneal relapse. Relapse should be within 3 years
• Lymphadenopathy in the retroperitoneum: at least one lymph node 1-3 cm in greatest dimension, no lymph node > 3 cm in greatest dimension, no more than 2 lymph nodes 1-3 cm in greatest dimension
• Axial imaging of lymphadenopathy within 6 weeks of the date of RPLND
• Retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy must be within the RPLND template
• If there is borderline lymphadenopathy, defined as the largest retroperitoneal lymph node measuring 0.90
•0.99 cm in the greatest dimension, an abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan should be repeated (recommend interval of 6
•8 weeks); the same lymph node must demonstrate growth to >= 1.0 cm in the greatest dimension
• Biopsy is not required, though if biopsy of the retroperitoneal node(s) was obtained, pathology must be consistent with pure seminoma
• Chest imaging (x-ray, CT or magnetic resonance imaging [MRI]) negative for metastasis no more than 6 weeks prior to the date of RPLND
• Primary tumor excised by radical inguinal orchiectomy and pathology consistent with pure seminoma
• Serum alpha fetoprotein (AFP) not more than 1.5 times upper limit of normal, beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) (per the local laboratory assay) within 14 days of RPLND
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status =< 1
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent
• Serum coagulation studies (INR/PTT) and platelet counts suitable for surgery per surgeon discretion.
• Second primary malignancy
• History of receiving chemotherapy or radiotherapy
• Patients receiving any other investigational agent (s)
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements

For more information regarding Bristol-Myers Squibb Clinical Trial participation, please visit www.BMSStudyConnect.com
• Meets the Systemic Lupus International Collaborating Clinics (SLICC) classification criteria for SLE and diagnosed ≥ 24 weeks before the screening visit
• One of the following: antinuclear antibody (ANA) ≥ 1:80 or positive anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) or positive anti-Smith (Sm)
• Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Disease Activity Index 2000 (SLEDAI-2K) score ≥ 6 points and clinical SLEDAI-2K score ≥ 4 points
• Subjects with drug-induced SLE, certain other autoimmune diseases, and active, severe lupus nephritis
• SLE overlap syndromes such as scleroderma and mixed connective tissue disease
• Clinically significant abnormalities on chest x-ray or ECG
• History of any significant drug allergy Other protocol defined inclusion/exclusion criteria could apply

1. Between 15 and 49 years of age, inclusive, at Visit 1. 2. Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) titer of 1:80, or greater, as determined by immunofluorescence assay (IFA). 3. Participants must have at least one (but not three or more) additional clinical or laboratory criterion from the 2012 Systemic Lupus International Collaborating Clinics (SLICC) classification criteria. 4. Written informed consent (and assent when applicable) obtained from subject or subject's legal representative and ability for subject to comply with the requirements of the study. 1. The subject meets the 2012 SLICC classification criteria for SLE at Visit 1 (i.e., ANA plus 3 other criteria, or ANA plus biopsy-proven lupus nephritis). 2. The subject has been diagnosed with another autoimmune disorder, other than autoimmune thyroid conditions. 3. The subject has fibromyalgia, based on clinical history and exam. 4. The subject has previously been or is currently being treated with oral antimalarial agents including hydroxychloroquine, chloroquine, or quinacrine. 5. The subject is currently or has been treated with immunosuppressive, immune modifying, or cytotoxic medications as listed in Section 7.2. 6. Use of any investigational agent within the preceding 12 months. 7. History of primary immunodeficiency. 8. Active bacterial, viral, fungal, or opportunistic infection. 9. Evidence of infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), Hepatitis B, or Hepatitis C. 10. Concomitant malignancy or history of malignancy with the exception of adequately treated basal or squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, or carcinoma in situ of the cervix. 11. The subject has significant findings on ophthalmological examination that, in the opinion of the examining Ophthalmologist, prevent safe use of hydroxychloroquine. 12. The subject has other contraindications to treatment with hydroxychloroquine including pre-existing ocular disease, hepatic impairment, psoriasis, porphyria, or allergy to the drug or class. 13. Co-morbidities requiring systemic corticosteroid therapy greater than 10 mg of prednisone per day, or equivalent, or a change in corticosteroid dose within the 3 months prior to Visit 1. 14. Starting, stopping, or changing the dose of over the counter or prescription non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in the three months prior to Visit 1. 15. Pregnant, breastfeeding, or unwilling to practice birth control during participation in the study. 16. Presence of a condition or abnormality that in the opinion of the Investigator would compromise the safety of the patient or the quality of the data. 17. Inability to comply with the study visit schedule and procedures.

• Physician-diagnosed peanut allergy;
• A peanut Skin Prick Test (SPT) with a wheal largest diameter ≥8 mm;
• A specific-peanut Immunoglobulin E (IgE) ≥14 kU/L;
• Subjects following a strict peanut-free diet.
• Generalized dermatologic disease
• Spirometry forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) <80% of the predicted value, or peak expiratory flow (PEF) <80% of predicted value;
• Receiving β-blocking agents, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers, calcium channel blockers or tricyclic antidepressant therapy; anti-tumor necrosis factor drugs or anti-IgE drugs (such as omalizumab) or any biologic immunomodulatory therapy;
• Prior or concomitant history of any immunotherapy to any food allergy (for example EPIT, OIT, SLIT, or specific oral tolerance induction).

Key
• Prior participation in an Aimmune AR101 clinical study or any future clinical study that identifies ARC008 as a follow-on study option in the protocol
• Written informed consent and/or assent from subjects/guardians as appropriate
• Use of effective birth control by sexually active female subjects of childbearing potential Key
• Did not complete a minimum of 3 months of AR101 maintenance therapy if the subject was assigned to AR101 in the parent study
• Early discontinuation from the parent study
• In subjects treated with AR101 in the parent study requiring a food challenge, failure to successfully consume at least 300 mg single dose of peanut protein at parent study's exit food challenge

1. Orthotopic heart transplantation 2. Age < 21 years at time of transplant 3. Stable immunosuppression at the time of randomization with no contraindication to everolimus, tacrolimus, or mycophenolate mofetil 4. Planned follow-up at a study site for the 30 month duration of the study. 5. Subject or legal adult representative capable of providing informed consent (in general, assent will be sought for children aged 12 years or older). 1. Multi-organ transplant (e.g. heart-lung or heart-liver). 2. Known hypersensitivity to everolimus, sirolimus, tacrolimus or mycophenolate mofetil (MMF), or to components of the drug products. 3. Patients on maintenance corticosteroid therapy exceeding a dose equivalent of prednisone 0.1 mg/kg/day at randomization. 4. High-risk for rejection defined as active rejection, recurrent (≥ 2 episodes of grade 2R rejection) cellular rejection, recurrent rejection (≥ 2 episodes of any grade) with hemodynamic compromise, steroid-resistant rejection or unresolved antibody-mediated rejection during the first 6 months post-heart transplant 5. Graft dysfunction (LVEF <40% or wedge pressure >22 mmHg or cardiac index <2.2 L/min/m2) 6. Stage 4 or 5 CKD (eGFR <30 ml/min/1.73 m2) or moderate proteinuria (urine protein to urine creatinine ratio >0.5 mg/mg). 7. Active infection requiring hospitalization or treatment dose medical therapy. 8. Patients with ongoing wound healing problems, clinically significant wound infection requiring continued therapy or other severe surgical complication in the opinion of the Site Principal Investigator. 9. Fasting Serum Cholesterol ≥300 mg/dL OR greater than or equal to 7.75 mmol/L, AND fasting triglycerides ≥2.5x the upper limit of normal (ULN). Note: In case one or both of these thresholds are exceeded, the patient can only be included after initiation of appropriate lipid lowering medication, and reduction of serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels to below exclusion ranges is confirmed. 10. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. 11. Diagnosis of post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) during the first 6 months post-heart transplant. 12. History of non-adherence to medical regimens. 13. Patients who are treated with drugs that are strong inducers or inhibitors of cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4) and cannot discontinue the treatment 14. Patients who are pregnant or breast-feeding or intend to get pregnant during the study period.

• Written informed consent from participant's parent/guardian.
• Age 12-48 months of either sex, any race, any ethnicity.
• A peanut allergy diagnosis with a convincing clinical history of peanut allergy and a serum peanut-specific IgE [UniCAP] > 0.35 kUA/L AND a positive skin prick test to peanut (>3 mm than the negative control) OR are sensitized to peanut (based on a serum IgE [UniCAP] to peanut of > 5 kUA/L) AND a positive skin prick test to peanut (> 3 mm than the negative control) and no known history of ingestion of peanut.
• A positive DBPCFC to 1000 mg of peanut at enrollment.
• History of severe anaphylaxis to peanut, defined as hypoxia, hypotension, or neurologic compromise (cyanosis or SpO2 < 92% at any stage, hypotension, confusion, collapse or loss of consciousness).
• Participation in any interventional study for the treatment of food allergy in the past 6 months.
• Known oat, wheat, or glycerin allergy.
• Eosinophilic or other inflammatory (e.g. celiac) gastrointestinal disease.
• Severe asthma (2007 NHLBI Criteria Steps 5 or 6
•Appendix 2).
• Inability to discontinue antihistamines for skin testing and DBPCFCs.
• Use of omalizumab or other non-traditional forms of allergen immunotherapy (e.g., oral or sublingual) or immunomodulator therapy (not including corticosteroids) or biologic therapy within the past year.
• Use of beta-blockers (oral), angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARB) or calcium channel blockers.
• Significant medical condition (e.g., liver, kidney, gastrointestinal, cardiovascular, hematologic, or pulmonary disease) which would make the subject unsuitable for induction of food reactions.

Accrual Objective: N=10 adults, 25 children) STUDY INCLUSION CRITERIA:
• Subjects fulfilling all of the following criteria are eligible for enrollment as study participants for Phase 1a and Phase 2: 1. Subject and/or parent guardian must be able to understand and provide informed consent. 2. Male or female adults, 18 through 55 years of age at recruitment (Phase 1) or male or female children, 8‐14 years of age at recruitment (Phase 2). 3. Have a history of asthma for a minimum of 1 year before study entry: 1. A diagnosis of asthma for this study is defined as a reported clinical diagnosis of asthma made by a physician over a year ago. 2. The subject must have persistent asthma defined by the current need for at least 100 microgram (mcg) fluticasone per day or the equivalent of another inhaled corticosteroid. 3. The subject's asthma must be well controlled as defined by:
• A Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 Second (FEV1) ≥ 80% predicted.
• An Asthma Control Test (ACT) score ≥ 20. 4. Are sensitive to German Cockroach as documented by a positive (≥ 3 mm greater than negative control) skin prick test result and a positive German Cockroach specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) (≥0.35 kUA/L). 5. Have no known contraindications to the allergenic extracts or diluents.
• Subjects who meet the following criteria are eligible for enrollment as study participants in Phase 1b after completion of Phase 1a: 1. Their asthma must be well controlled as defined by: 1. A FEV1 ≥ 80% predicted. 2. An Asthma Control Test (ACT) score ≥ 20. 2. The subject tolerated the Nasal Allergen Challenge (NAC) during Phase 1a with no adverse events grade 2 or higher as determined by "Guidance for Industry: Toxicity Grading Scale for Healthy Adult and Adolescent Volunteers Enrolled in Preventive Vaccine Clinical Trials (published September 2007) for local reactions to study procedures."
• Subjects not eligible for enrollment as study participants in Phase 1b after completion of Phase 1a if any of the following criteria are met: 1. Are pregnant or lactating. 2. Have an asthma severity classification of severe persistent, using the NAEPP classification, as evidenced by at least one of the following: 1. Require a dose of greater than 500 mcg of fluticasone per day or the equivalent of another inhaled corticosteroid. 2. Have received more than 2 courses of oral or parenteral corticosteroids within the last 12 months or one course within the last 3 months. 3. Have been treated with depot corticosteroids within the last 12 months. 4. Have been hospitalized for asthma within the 12 months prior to their participation in Phase1b. 5. Have had an emergency room visit for asthma within the 3 months prior to their participation in Phase 1b. 6. Have had a life‐threatening asthma exacerbation that required intubation, mechanical ventilation, or that resulted in a hypoxic seizure within 2 years prior to their participation in Phase 1b. 3. Have received allergen immunotherapy (SLIT or SCIT) in the last 12 months prior to their participation in Phase 1b. 4. Have previously been treated with anti‐IgE therapy in the 12 months prior to their participation in Phase 1b. 5. Are currently receiving oral or nasal antihistamines, nasal corticosteroids, nasal decongestants, nasal anticholinergics or cromolyn, which cannot be suspended for the required washout periods prior to the nasal allergen challenge in Phase 1b. 6. Have received an investigational drug in the 30 days prior to their participation in Phase 1b. 7. Have past or current medical problems or findings from physical examination or laboratory testing that are not listed above, which, in the opinion of the investigator, may pose additional risks from participation in the study, may interfere with the subject's ability to comply with study requirements or that may impact the quality or interpretation of the data obtained from the study. 8. Meet any of the Participant Stopping Rules and Withdrawal Criteria during Phase 1a
• The participant elected to withdraw consent from all future study activities, including followup.
• The Investigator no longer believes participation is in the best interest of the participant.
• Serious Adverse Event (SAE) related to investigational product.
• Anaphylactic reaction grade 2 or 3.
• Inability to tolerate the NAC prior to reaching a TNSS ≥8 due to excessive discomfort or symptoms.
• Epistaxis occurring during the Challenge Visit.
• The need to start immunotherapy or any chronic immunosuppressive medications in the period between Phase 1a and Phase 1b.
• Require a dose of greater than 500 mcg of fluticasone per day or the equivalent of another inhaled corticosteroid to maintain asthma control in the period between Phase 1a and Phase 1b.
• Inability to restrict use of antihistamines, nasal steroids, nasal decongestants, nasal anticholinergics or cromolyn prior to the NAC.
• Development of any serious medical illness whose natural history, sequela, or treatment would be worsened or impaired by continuation in the protocol.
• Subject is "lost to follow‐up" 9. The subject's initial TNSS at the Repeat Challenge Visit must be within 1 point of the initial TNSS at the Challenge Visit in Phase 1a. If the participant's initial TNSS is outside the 1 point range, then the participant may be reevaluated for the Repeat Challenge Visit up to 3 additional times. STUDY EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Subjects fulfilling any of the following criteria are not eligible for enrollment in any portion of the study and may not be reassessed. Participants are ineligible if they: 1. Plan to move from the area during the study period. 2. Have a history of idiopathic anaphylaxis or anaphylaxis grade 2 or higher as defined by the grading scale of Brown et al. for anaphylaxis and systemic reactions to study procedures. 3. Have unstable angina, significant arrhythmia, uncontrolled hypertension, history of autoimmune disease, or other chronic or immunological diseases that in the opinion of the investigator might interfere with the evaluation of the investigational agent or pose additional risk to the participant. 4. Are using tricyclic antidepressants or beta‐adrenergic blocker drugs (both oral and topical). EXCLUSION CRITERIA SPECIFIC TO STUDY PHASE 1A AND -2:
• Subjects who meet any of these criteria are not eligible for enrollment as study participants in Phase1a and Phase 2: 1. Are pregnant or lactating. Post‐menarcheal females must be abstinent or use a medically acceptable birth control method throughout the study (e.g. oral, subcutaneous, mechanical, or surgical contraception). 2. Cannot perform spirometry at Screening. 3. Have an asthma severity classification at Recruitment of severe persistent, using the The National Asthma Education and Prevention Program (NAEPP) classification, as evidenced by at least one of the following: 1. Require a dose of greater than 500mcg of fluticasone per day or the equivalent of another inhaled corticosteroid. 2. Have received more than 2 courses of oral or parenteral corticosteroids within the last 12 months or one course within the last 3 months. 3. Have been treated with depot corticosteroids within the last 12 months. 4. Have been hospitalized for asthma within the 12 months prior to recruitment. 5. Have had an emergency room visit for asthma within the 3 months prior to recruitment. 6. Have had a life‐threatening asthma exacerbation that required intubation, mechanical ventilation, or that resulted in a hypoxic seizure within 2 years prior to recruitment. 4. Have nasal polyps or other major structural abnormalities in their nasal cavities as assessed by anterior rhinoscopy. 5. Have active rhinitis symptoms prior to the nasal allergen challenge, defined as a Baseline Total Nasal Symptom Score(TNSS) >3,with no individual symptom score >1. 6. Do not have access to a phone (needed for scheduling appointments). 7. Have received allergen immunotherapy (Sublingual [SLIT] or Subcutaneous [SCIT]) in the last 12 months prior to recruitment or who plan to initiate or resume allergen immunotherapy during the study. 8. Have previously been treated with anti‐IgE therapy in the 12 months prior to recruitment. 9. Are currently receiving oral or nasal antihistamines, nasal corticosteroids, nasal decongestants,nasal anticholinergics or cromolyn, which cannot be suspended for the required washout periods prior to skin prick testing and the nasal allergen challenge. 10. Have received an investigational drug in the 30 days prior to recruitment or who plan to use an investigational drug during the study. 11. Past or current medical problems or findings from physical examination or laboratory testing that are not listed above, which, in the opinion of the investigator, may pose additional risks from participation in the study, may interfere with the participant's ability to comply with study requirements or that may impact the quality or interpretation of the data obtained from the study.

• Diagnosis of gMG [Myasthenia Gravis Foundation of America (MGFA) Class II-IVa] at Screening
• Positive serology for acetylcholine receptor (AChR) autoantibodies
• QMG score ≥ 12 at Screening and Randomization
• No change in corticosteroid dose for at least 30 days prior to Randomization or anticipated to occur during the 12-week Treatment Period
• No change in immunosuppressive therapy, including dose, for at least 30 days prior to Randomization or anticipated to occur during the 12-week Treatment Period
• Thymectomy within 6 months prior to Randomization or scheduled to occur during the 12 week Treatment Period
• History of meningococcal disease
• Current or recent systemic infection within 2 weeks prior to Randomization or infection requiring intravenous (IV) antibiotics within 4 weeks prior to Randomization

Inclusion Criteria 1. Subjects ≥ 6 years of age at time of Informed Consent Form (ICF) or Assent Form signing. 2. Confirmed diagnosis of CF, determined by having clinical features consistent with the CF phenotype, plus one of the following: 1. Positive sweat chloride test (value ≥ 60 mEq/L), 2. Genotype with 2 mutations consistent with CF (i.e., a mutation in each of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator [CFTR] genes). 3. Positive sputum culture or a throat swab culture for MRSA at Screening. 4. In addition to the Screening sample, have at least 2 prior sputum or throat swab cultures positive for MRSA, of which at least 1 sample is more than 6 months prior to Screening. At least 50% of all MRSA cultures (sputum or throat swab culture) collected from the time of the first positive culture (in the previous 1 year) must have tested positive for MRSA. (Note: Screening sample may count towards 50% positive count) 5. Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) ≥ 30% and ≤ 90% of predicted that is normal for age, gender, race, and height, using the Global Lung Function Initiative (GLI) equation. 6. At least 1 episode of acute pulmonary infection treated with non-maintenance antibiotics within 12 months prior to the Baseline visit. (Initiation of treatment with intermittent inhaled anti-Pseudomonal therapy will not qualify as treatment with non-maintenance antibiotics). 7. If female of childbearing potential, an acceptable method of contraception must be used during the study and must be combined with a negative pregnancy test obtained during Screening; sexually active male subjects of reproductive potential who are non-sterile (i.e., male who has not been sterilized by vasectomy for at least 6 months, and were not diagnosed with infertility through demonstration of azoospermia in a semen sample and/or absence of vas deferens through ultrasound) must be willing to use a barrier method of contraception, or their female partner must use an acceptable method of contraception, during the study. For purposes of this study, the Sponsor defines "acceptable methods of contraception" as: 1. Oral birth control pills administered for at least 1 monthly cycle prior to administration of the study drug. 2. A synthetic progestin implanted rod (eg, Implanon®) for at least 1 monthly cycle prior to the study drug administration but not beyond the 4th successive year following insertion. 3. Intrauterine devices (IUDs), inserted by a qualified clinician for at least 1 monthly cycle prior to study drug administration. 4. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (eg, Depo-Provera®) administered for a minimum of 1 monthly cycle prior to administration of the study drug and continuing through 1 month following study completion. 5. Hysterectomy or surgical sterilization. 6. Abstinence. 7. Double barrier method (diaphragm with spermicidal gel or condoms with contraceptive foam). NOTE: For subjects prescribed Orkambi: Orkambi may substantially decrease hormonal contraceptive exposure, reducing the effectiveness and increasing the incidence of menstruation-associated adverse reactions. Hormonal contraceptives, including oral, injectable, transdermal, and implantable, should not be relied upon as an effective method of contraception when co-administered with Orkambi. 8. Able and willing to comply with the protocol, including availability for all scheduled study visits and able to perform all techniques necessary to use the AeroVanc inhaler and measure lung function. 9. Agree not to smoke during any part of the clinical trial (Screening visit through end of study). 10. Subjects with a P. aeruginosa co-infection must either be stable on a regular suppression regimen of inhaled antibiotics or must be, in the opinion of the Investigator, stable despite the lack of such treatment. Exclusion Criteria 1. Use of anti-MRSA treatments prescribed as maintenance therapy (intravenous [IV] or inhaled treatment within 28 days; oral treatment within 14 days) prior to the Baseline visit. 2. Use of non-maintenance antibiotic for pulmonary infection or extrapulmonary MRSA infection (IV or inhaled antibiotic within 28 days; oral antibiotic within 14 days) prior to the Baseline visit. 3. History of previous allergies or sensitivity to vancomycin, or other component(s) of the study drug or placebo except for a history of red-man syndrome. 4. Inability to tolerate inhaled products. 5. First time sputum culture or throat swab culture yielding B. cepacia, or nontuberculous Mycobacteria in the previous 6 months to Screening. 6. History of lung or other solid organ transplantation or currently on the list to receive lung or other solid organ transplantation. 7. Resistance to vancomycin at Screening (vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus [VRSA], or vancomycin intermediate resistant Staphylococcus aureus [VISA], with minimum inhibitory concentration [MIC] ≥ 8 μg/mL). 8. Oral corticosteroids in doses exceeding 10 mg prednisone per day or 20 mg prednisone every other day, or equipotent doses of other corticosteroids. 9. Changes in antimicrobial, bronchodilator, anti-inflammatory or corticosteroid medications within 14 days, or changes in CFTR modulators within 28 days, prior to the Baseline visit. 10. Abnormal laboratory findings or other findings or medical history at Screening that, in the Investigator's opinion, would compromise the safety of the subject or the quality of the study data. 11. Inability to tolerate inhalation of a short acting beta2 agonist 12. SpO2 <90% at Screening. 13. Changes in physiotherapy technique or physiotherapy scheduled within 1 week of the Baseline visit. 14. Administration of any investigational drug or device within 4 weeks prior to the Screening visit and during the study 15. Female with positive pregnancy test result during Screening, pregnant (or intends to become pregnant), lactating or intends to breastfeed during the study. 16. Renal insufficiency, defined as creatinine clearance < 50 mL/min using the Cockcroft-Gault equation for adults or Schwartz equation for children at the Screening visit. 17. Abnormal liver function, defined as ≥ 4x upper limit of normal (ULN), of serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT), or known cirrhosis at Screening. 18. Diagnosed with clinically significant hearing loss. 19. History of positive result for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV). 20. Planned hospitalizations for prophylaxis antibiotic treatment within 28 days prior to Baseline visit or during the double-blind period (Period 1).

• Subjects who completed the PEPITES study.
• Generalized dermatologic disease (for example, active atopic dermatitis, uncontrolled generalized active eczema, ichthyosis vulgaris) extending widely on the skin and especially on the back or arms with no intact zones to apply the Viaskin patches.
• Diagnosis of asthma that evolved to severe, unstable or uncontrolled asthma.

1. Provide written informed consent agreeing to all study procedures, before any study- specific procedures are done. 2. Male and female subjects 18 to 65 years of age, inclusive. 3. Subjects currently being evaluated for new or recurrent LN with a SOC kidney biopsy planned OR being evaluated for IgA nephropathy and with a SOC kidney biopsy planned. 4. Patients with LN must meet American College of Rheumatology (ACR) or Systemic Lupus Collaborating Clinics (SLICC) criteria for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE). 5. Subjects with a life expectancy >6 months. 1. Participation in another investigational study during same time period. 2. Contraindication to receiving a GBCA. 3. More than 2 previous lifetime exposures to a GBCA. 4. Any contraindication to MRI, including metal implants, claustrophobia or morbid obesity. 5. Acute or chronic severe renal insufficiency (glomerular filtration rate [GFR] <40 mL per minute per 1.73 m2). 6. Subject requiring dialysis. 7. Presence of pre-existing renal disease unrelated to SLE or IgA nephropathy, respectively. 8. Acute renal insufficiency of any severity caused by the hepato-renal syndrome. 9. Previous or pre-existing nephrogenic systemic fibrosis. 10. History of clinically significant anti-phospholipid syndrome. 11. Chronic liver function impairment, indicated by liver function tests (aspartate aminotransferase [AST], alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) >2-fold upper limit of normal. 12. Platelet count <50,000/μL. 13. Hemoglobin <8.0 g/dL. 14. History of or presence of central nervous system (CNS) disease such as active lupus cerebritis or multiple sclerosis that might compromise blood brain barrier function. 15. Infection that is clinically relevant, particularly hepatitis B virus (HBV), hepatitis C virus (HCV) and/or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). 16. Pregnant or nursing females, or females not using effective contraception. 17. Inability or unwillingness to return to the research site clinic for study visits at baseline and at 6 months.

• Upper age limit of =< 18 years of age for medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC), renal cell carcinoma (RCC) and hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
• Patients must have a body surface area >= 0.35 m^2
• Patients must have recurrent or refractory disease, or newly diagnosed disease with no known curative therapy or therapy proven to prolong survival with an acceptable quality of life; patients must have had histologic verification of one of the malignancies listed below at original diagnosis or at relapse:
• Ewing sarcoma
• Rhabdomyosarcoma (RMS)
• Non-rhabdomyosarcoma soft tissue sarcomas (STS) including microphthalmia transcription factor associated STS (alveolar soft part sarcoma [ASPS] and clear cell sarcoma [CCS])
• Osteosarcoma
• Wilms tumor
• Rare tumors
• Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)
• Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
• Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
• Hepatoblastoma
• Adrenocortical carcinoma
• Pediatric solid tumors (including central nervous system [CNS] tumors) with known molecular alterations in the targets of XL184 (i.e., MET amplification, overexpression, activating mutation, MET translocation, MET exon skipping mutations, activating RET mutations, RET rearrangement, overexpression or activation of AXL); documentation of the alteration from a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified laboratory will be required
• Note: Documentation of any known tumor molecular alterations and RET mutation status for patients with MTC (germline) must be uploaded via the RAVE system
• Patients must have radiographically measurable disease; measurable disease is defined as the presence of at least one lesion on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) scan that can be accurately measured with the longest diameter a minimum of 10 mm in at least one dimension (CT scan slice thickness no greater than 5 mm)
• Note: The following do NOT qualify as measurable disease:
• Malignant fluid collections (e.g., ascites, pleural effusions)
• Bone marrow infiltration
• Lesions only detected by nuclear medicine studies (e.g., bone, gallium or positron emission tomography [PET] scans)
• Elevated tumor markers in plasma or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
• Previously radiated lesions that have not demonstrated clear progression post radiation
• Leptomeningeal lesions that do not meet the measurement parameters noted above
• Patients must have a Lansky or Karnofsky performance status score of >= 50, corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) categories 0, 1 or 2; use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy prior to entering this study
• Patients with solid tumors must not have received myelosuppressive chemotherapy within 3 weeks of enrollment onto this study (6 weeks if prior nitrosourea)
• At least 7 days must have elapsed since the completion of therapy with a growth factor. At least 14 days must have elapsed after receiving pegfilgrastim
• Anti-cancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g. not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil count [ANC] counts): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent
• Antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1
• >= 2 weeks must have elapsed since local palliative radiation therapy (XRT) (small port); >= 6 weeks must have elapsed since treatment with therapeutic doses of M-Iodobenzylguanidine (MIBG); >= 3 months must have elapsed if prior craniospinal XRT was received, if >= 50% of the pelvis was irradiated, or if total-body irradiation (TBI) was received; >= 6 weeks must have elapsed if other substantial bone marrow irradiation was given
• Subjects should not have any clinically relevant ongoing complications from prior radiation therapy (i.e., radiation esophagitis or other inflammation of the viscera)
• No evidence of active graft versus (vs.) host disease and >= 2 months must have elapsed since transplant
• Not previously received XL184 or another MET/HGF inhibitor (tivantinib or crizotinib); there are no limits on number of prior therapeutic regimens; patients who have been treated with prior VEGF pathway, or RET inhibitors (except XL184) may be eligible
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/uL for patients with solid tumors without bone marrow involvement
• Platelet count >= 100,000/uL (transfusion independent, defined as not receiving platelet transfusions within a 7 day period prior to enrollment) for patients with solid tumors without bone marrow involvement
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL (may receive red blood cell [RBC] transfusions) for patients with solid tumors without bone marrow involvement
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 750/uL for patients with solid tumors and known bone marrow metastatic disease
• Platelet count >= 50,000/uL for patients with solid tumors and known bone marrow metastatic disease
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL for patients with solid tumors and known bone marrow metastatic disease
• Transfusions are permitted to meet both the platelet and hemoglobin criteria; patients must not be known to be refractory to red blood cell or platelet transfusions
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• 2 to < 6 years of age
• Male and female: 0.8 (maximum serum creatinine [mg/dL])
• 6 to < 10 years of age
• Male and female: 1 (maximum serum creatinine [mg/dL])
• 10 to < 13 years of age
• Male and female: 1.2 (maximum serum creatinine [mg/dL])
• 13 to < 16 years of age
• Male 1.5 (maximum serum creatinine [mg/dL])
• Female: 1.4 (maximum serum creatinine [mg/dL])
• >= 16 years of age
• Male: 1.7 (maximum serum creatinine [mg/dL])
• Female: 1.4 (maximum serum creatinine [mg/dL])
• Urine protein: =< 30 mg/dl in urinalysis or =< 1+ on dipstick, unless quantitative protein is < 1000 mg in a 24 hour (h) urine sample
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (3 x ULN) (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L)
• Serum albumin >= 2.8 g/dL
• No history of congenital prolonged corrected QT (QTc) syndrome, New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV congestive heart failure (CHF)
• No clinically significant cardiac arrhythmias, stroke or myocardial infarction within 6 months prior to enrollment
• QTc =< 480 msec; Note: Patients with grade 1 prolonged QTc (450- 480 msec) at the time of study enrollment should have correctable causes of prolonged QTc addressed if possible (i.e., electrolytes, medications)
• Patients with a known seizure disorder who are receiving non-enzyme inducing anticonvulsants and have well-controlled seizures may be enrolled
• CNS toxicity =< grade 2 with the exception of decreased tendon reflex (DTR); any grade of DTR is eligible
• A blood pressure (BP) =< the 95th percentile for age, height, and gender for pediatric patients < 18 years old and =< 140/90 mmHg for patients >= 18 years old; patients should not be receiving medication for treatment of hypertension (except patients with Wilms tumor and RCC who may be eligible if on stable doses of no more than one anti-hypertensive medication with a baseline BP =< ULN for pediatric patients and =< 140/90 for adult patients); please note that 3 serial blood pressures should be obtained and averaged to determine baseline BP
• International normalized ratio (INR) =< 1.5
• Serum amylase =< 1.5 ULN
• Serum lipase =< 1.5 ULN
• Pregnant or breast-feeding women will not be entered on this study due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies; pregnancy tests must be obtained in girls who are post-menarchal; males or females of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use two methods of birth control- a medically accepted barrier method of contraceptive method (e.g., male or female condom) and a second effective method of birth control-during protocol therapy and for at least 4 months after the last dose of XL184; abstinence is an acceptable method of birth control
• Growth factors that support platelet or white cell number or function must not have been administered within the 7 days prior to enrollment (14 days if pegfilgrastim)
• Patients requiring corticosteroids who have not been on a stable or decreasing dose of corticosteroid for the 7 days prior to enrollment are not eligible; if used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Previous treatment with XL184 (cabozantinib) or another MET/HGF inhibitor (tivantinib, crizotinib)
• Patients who are currently receiving another investigational drug are not eligible
• Patients who are currently receiving other anti-cancer agents are not eligible
• Patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to prevent either graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant or organ rejection post-transplant are not eligible for this trial
• Patients must not be receiving any of the following potent CYP3A4 inducers or inhibitors: erythromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole, azithromycin, itraconazole, grapefruit juice or St. John's wort
• Concomitant anticoagulation with oral anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin, direct thrombin, and Factor Xa inhibitors) or platelet inhibitors (e.g., clopidogrel) are prohibited
• Note: Low-dose aspirin for cardioprotection (per local applicable guidelines) and low dose, low molecular weight heparins (LMWH) are permitted; anticoagulation with therapeutic doses of LMWH is allowed in subjects without radiographic evidence of brain metastasis, who are on a stable dose of LMWH for at least 6 weeks before first dose of study treatment, and who have had no complications from a thromboembolic event or the anticoagulation regimen
• Patients must not have received enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants within 14 days prior to enrollment
• Patients who are receiving drugs that prolong QTc are not eligible
• Patients who are unable to swallow intact tablets are not eligible
• Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• Patients who in the opinion of the investigator may not be able to comply with the safety monitoring requirements of the study are not eligible
• Patients with active bleeding are not eligible; specifically, no clinically significant gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding, GI perforation, intra-abdominal abscess or fistula for 6 months prior to enrollment, no hemoptysis or other signs of pulmonary hemorrhage for 3 months prior to enrollment; patients with evidence of an acute intracranial or intratumoral hemorrhage on CT or MRI are not eligible (patients with evidence of resolving hemorrhage will be eligible); in patients with CNS tumors, an MRI with ECHO gradient sequences would be required to exclude presence of petechial hemorrhages
• Patients who have had or are planning to have the following invasive procedures are not eligible:
• Major surgical procedure, laparoscopic procedure, or open biopsy within 28 days prior to enrollment
• Central line placement or subcutaneous port placement is not considered major surgery but must be placed at least 3 days prior to enrollment for external lines (e.g., Hickman or Broviac catheter, peripherally inserted central catheter [PICC]) and at least 7 days prior to enrollment for a subcutaneous port
• Core biopsy within 7 days prior to enrollment
• Fine needle aspirate within 7 days prior to enrollment
• Surgical or other wounds must be adequately healed prior to enrollment
• NOTE: For purposes of this study, bone marrow aspirate and biopsy are not considered surgical procedures and therefore are permitted within 14 days prior to start of protocol therapy
• Patients who have had significant traumatic injury within 28 days prior to enrollment are not eligible
• Patients with any medical or surgical conditions that would interfere with gastrointestinal absorption of the study drug are not eligible

• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients with recurrent or refractory solid tumors, including non-Hodgkin lymphomas, histiocytoses (e.g. langerhans cell histiocytosis [LCH], juvenile xanthogranuloma [JXG], histiocytic sarcoma), and central nervous system (CNS) tumors are eligible; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse except in patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors, optic pathway gliomas, or patients with pineal tumors and elevations of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or serum tumor markers including alpha-fetoprotein or beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG); please note: Patients with Hodgkin lymphoma are not eligible
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients must have an formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tumor sample available for MATCH study testing from a biopsy or surgery that was performed at any point after initial tumor recurrence/progression, or be planned to have a procedure to obtain such a sample that is considered to be of potential benefit by the treating clinicians; a tumor sample from a clinically performed diagnostic (pre-treatment) biopsy will be acceptable for enrollment onto Pediatric MATCH only for children with high-grade gliomas of the brainstem (diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas) or thalamus
• Please note: Samples that have been decalcified using standardly utilized acid-based decalcification methods are not generally suitable for MATCH study testing; the nucleic acids will have been degraded in the decalcification process
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age); note: neurologic deficits in patients with CNS tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: NOTE: patient does not need to meet all subprotocol criteria at time of enrollment onto the APEC1621SC screening protocol, but will need to meet all criteria prior to enrollment on any assigned treatment subprotocol. Patients must be enrolled onto a subprotocol within 12 weeks (84 days) of treatment assignment
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age); Note: neurologic deficits in patients with CNS tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: At the time of treatment with subprotocol specified therapy, the patients must have radiographically measurable disease; patients with neuroblastoma who do not have measurable disease but have iobenguane (MIBG) positive (+) evaluable are eligible; measurable disease in patients with CNS involvement is defined as tumor that is measurable in two perpendicular diameters on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and visible on more than one slice
• Note: The following do not qualify as measurable disease:
• Malignant fluid collections (e.g., ascites, pleural effusions)
• Bone marrow infiltration except that detected by MIBG scan for neuroblastoma
• Lesions only detected by nuclear medicine studies (e.g., bone, gallium or positron emission tomography [PET] scans) except as noted for neuroblastoma
• Elevated tumor markers in plasma or CSF
• Previously radiated lesions that have not demonstrated clear progression post radiation
• Leptomeningeal lesions that do not meet the measurement requirements for Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: At the time of enrollment onto a subprotocol, the following general criteria for initiation of therapy will be required:
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anticancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anticancer directed therapy prior to enrollment to the subprotocol; if after the required timeframe, the numerical eligibility criteria are met, e.g. blood count criteria, the patient is considered to have recovered adequately
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anticancer agents known to be myelosuppressive: for agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment >= 21 days after the last dose of cytotoxic or myelosuppressive chemotherapy (42 days if prior nitrosourea)
• Anticancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g. not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil counts [ANC]): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent; for agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment
• Antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1
• Corticosteroids: If used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Hematopoietic growth factors: >= 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g. Neulasta) or 7 days for short-acting growth factor; for agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur; the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator
• Interleukins, interferons and cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors): >= 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon or cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors)
• Stem cell infusions (with or without total-body irradiation [TBI]):
• Allogeneic (non-autologous) bone marrow or stem cell transplant, or any stem cell infusion including donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI) or boost infusion: >= 84 days after infusion and no evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD)
• Autologous stem cell infusion including boost infusion: >= 42 days
• Cellular therapy: >= 42 days after the completion of any type of cellular therapy (e.g. modified T cells, NK cells, dendritic cells, etc.)
• X-ray therapy (XRT)/External Beam Irradiation including Protons: >= 14 days after local XRT; >= 150 days after TBI, craniospinal XRT or if radiation to >= 50% of the pelvis; >= 42 days if other substantial bone marrow (BM) radiation; note: radiation may not be delivered to "measurable disease" tumor site(s) being used to follow response to subprotocol treatment
• Radiopharmaceutical therapy (e.g., radiolabeled antibody, 131I-MIBG): >= 42 days after systemically administered radiopharmaceutical therapy
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement:
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/mm^3
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (transfusion independent, defined as not receiving platelet transfusions for at least 7 days prior to enrollment
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients with known bone marrow metastatic disease will be eligible for study provided they meet the blood counts (may receive transfusions provided they are not known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusions); these patients will not be evaluable for hematologic toxicity
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70ml/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• Age: 1 to < 2 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 0.6; female 0.6
• Age: 2 to < 6 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 0.8; female 0.8
• Age: 6 to < 10 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1; female 1
• Age: 10 to < 13 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.2; female 1.2
• Age: 13 to < 16 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.5; female 1.4
• Age: >= 16 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.7; female 1.4
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated) =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine transferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L)
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients must be able to swallow intact capsules/tablets, unless otherwise specified in the subprotocol to which they are assigned
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Agent specific limitations on prior therapy will be included with specific treatment subprotocols
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Pregnant or breast-feeding women will not be entered on this study; pregnancy tests must be obtained in females who are post-menarchal; males or females of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Concomitant medications
• Corticosteroids: at the time of consent and enrollment to regimen specific subprotocols, patients receiving corticosteroids who have not been on a stable or decreasing dose of corticosteroid for at least 7 days prior to enrollment to the subprotocol will not be eligible; if used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Investigational drugs: patients must meet criteria for prior therapy at the time of consent and enrollment to a subprotocol; other investigational agents may not be administered to patients while they are receiving study drug as part of a subprotocol
• Anticancer agents: patients must meet criteria for prior therapy at the time of consent and enrollment to a subprotocol; other investigational agents may not be administered to patients while they are receiving study drug as part of a subprotocol
• Anti-GVHD agents post-transplant: patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to prevent graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients who have had a prior solid organ transplant are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Additional agent specific criteria will be included with specific treatment subprotocols

Key
• Received AR101 in study ARC007
• Completed the ARC007 study
• Use of effective birth control by sexually active female subjects of childbearing potential Key
• Developed a clinically significant change in health status during the ARC007 study which in the opinion of the investigator would make the subject unsuitable for participation in this study.
• Receiving a prohibited medication or anticipated use of a prohibited medication [e.g., angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers or calcium channel blockers], any monoclonal antibody, any investigational peanut immunotherapy, or any other immunomodulatory therapy.
• Currently in the build-up phase of immunotherapy for any nonfood allergen.
• Currently participating in any other interventional clinical study outside of the ARC007 study that was just completed.

Key
• Male or female from 1-3 years of age;
• Physician-diagnosed peanut allergy;
• Peanut-specific IgE level > 0.7 kU/L;
• Positive peanut SPT with a largest wheal diameter ≥ 6 mm;
• Positive DBPCFC at ≤ 300 mg peanut protein; Key
• Uncontrolled asthma;
• History of severe anaphylaxis to peanut;
• Prior immunotherapy to any food or other immunotherapy;
• Generalized severe dermatologic disease;

• Diagnosed with cutaneous lupus erythematosus and/or systemic lupus erythematosus by clinical, laboratory, and histopathological findings
• Ability to speak and read English or Spanish at a 6th grade reading level (a translator will be available with additional consent forms in Spanish)
• Ability to give written informed consent
• Less than 18 years of age, since the characteristics of the disease in these subjects could be very different
• Due to a medication, in which its discontinuation results in the resolution of cutaneous lupus, since the characteristics of the disease in these subjects could be very different
• Medical conditions who do not warrant a skin biopsy
• Unable to give written, informed consent or undergo a skin biopsy and/or venipuncture for any other reason

• Presence of at least one active morphea lesion (linear, plaque, generalized, or mixed subtypes) confirmed by the primary investigator and/or by histopathological examination. Morphea lesions are clinically distinctive and therefore biopsy will only be performed if the diagnosis is in doubt.
• Age > 6 years at enrollment
• Male or female
• Patient or legal guardian must be able to speak and read English or Spanish at a 6th grade reading level. A translator will be available with additional consent forms in Spanish.
• Both male and female patients will be eligible
• All races and ethnic backgrounds will be included
• Ability to give informed consent: Patients must be able to give informed consent or they will give assent with parent or guardian consent as a minor to be a part of the study (if > 10 -17 years).
• Age < 6 years at enrollment. (Patients under the age of 6 years will be excluded because study participants must be able to comply with the use of protective goggles and lie still during UVA1 phototherapy.)
• Presence of morphea profunda or eosinophilic fasciitis
• Contraindication to UVA1 phototherapy, including personal history of melanoma or non-melanoma skin cancer, history of photosensitive disorders (systemic lupus erythematosus, porphyrias, polymorphic light eruption, xeroderma pigmentosum, and the like), history of any type of organ transplant (solid organ or bone marrow).
• Current or <2 months prior use of systemic immunosuppressive therapy (methotrexate, prednisone mycophenolate mofetil, etc) or UVA1 phototherapy <2 months prior to enrollment.
• Prior failed UVA1 phototherapy (defined as requiring initiation of systemic therapy during or within 1 month of completion of prior course of UVA1 phototherapy).
• Presence of the following related to diagnosis of morphea: systemic manifestations (arthritis, uveitis, CNS changes, and the like), limited range of motion, contracture, limb length discrepancy requiring oral systemic therapy.

Strata A, B, and C (Part 1
•Retrospective Study)-
• Individuals with Severe Combined Immune Deficiency (SCID) diagnosis who: --were treated at a location participating in this consortium from 1968 until present, and --are not enrolled in RDCRN PIDTC-6901 (ClinicalTrials.gov ID: NCT01186913).
• Subjects who received HCT/GT/ERT prior to the present date are eligible for the retrospective study. The enrollment criteria for subjects who died prior to definitive therapy are the same as for Strata A, B and C. Stratum A, Typical SCID:
• Individuals who meet the following inclusion criteria and who received HCT are eligible for enrollment into Stratum A of the study:
• Absence or very low number of T cells (CD3 T cells < 300/microliter), and no or very low T cell function (< 10% of lower limit of normal) as measured by response to phytohemagglutinin (PHA) or cells of maternal origin present.
• If maternal cells are present but the patient does not meet criteria for very low T cell function as defined, the assigned reviewers for the potential subject, and if necessary, the full PID‐SCID RP will review the laboratory report to determine if criteria of maternal engraftment are met for Protocol 6902.
• Laboratory report of testing for maternal engraftment is required, for evaluation by the PID‐SCID RP. Stratum B, Leaky SCID, Omenn Syndrome, Reticular Dysgenesis: Individuals who meet the following criteria are eligible for enrollment into Stratum B of the study: Leaky SCID-
• Maternal lymphocytes tested for and not detected and,
• Either one or both of the following (a,b): a) < 50% of lower limit of normal T cell function (as measured by response to PHA OR < 50% of lower limit of normal T cell function as measured by response to CD3/CD28 antibody, b) Absent or < 30% lower limit of normal proliferative responses to candida and tetanus toxoid antigens postvaccination or exposure,
• AND at least one of the following (a through e): 1. Reduced number of CD3 T cells, 2. > 80% of CD3+ or CD4 T cells are CD45RO+,
• AND/OR >80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are,CD62L negative,
• AND/OR >50% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells express HLA‐DR (at < 4 years of age),
• AND/OR are oligoclonal T cells. c) Hypomorphic mutation in IL2RG in a male, or homozygous hypomorphic mutation or compound heterozygosity with at least one hypomorphic mutation in an autosomal SCID‐causing gene. d) Low TRECs and/or the percentage of CD4+/45RA+/CD31+ or CD4+/45RA+/CD62L+ cells is below the lower limit of normal. e) Functional testing in vitro supporting impaired, but not absent, activity of the mutant protein,
• AND does not meet criteria for Omenn Syndrome,
• AND does not have known selective loss of lymphocytes, Ataxia‐ Telangiectasia, or congenital heart defect associated with lymphopenia, unless a SCID genotype is also present. Omenn Syndrome (OS):
• Generalized skin rash,
• Maternal engraftment tested for and not detected,
• Absent or low (up to 30% of normal) T cell proliferation to antigens to which the patient has been exposed.
• If the proliferation to antigen was not performed, but at least 4 of the following 10 supportive criteria, at least one of which must be among those marked with an asterisk (*) are present, the patient is eligible: hepatomegaly; splenomegaly; lymphadenopathy; elevated IgE; elevated absolute eosinophil count; *oligoclonal T cells measured by CDR3 length or flow cytometry >80% of CD4+ T cells are CD45RO+ ;*proliferation to PHA is reduced <50% of lower limit of normal or SI <30; *proliferative response in mixed leukocyte reaction is reduced to increment cpm < 20% or SI <20; hypomorphic mutation to SCID causing gene; low TRECs and/or percentage of CD 4+/ RA+/CD31+; or CD4+/RA+/CD62L+ cells below the lower limit of normal. Reticular Dysgenesis (RD):
• Absence or very low number of T cells (CD3 T cells <300/microliter),
• No or very low (<10% of lower limit of normal) T cell function (as measured by response to phytohemagglutinin (PHA),
• Severe congenital neutropenia (absolute neutrophil count <200/microliter),
• AND at least one of the following:
• Sensorineural deafness and/or absence of granulopoiesis at bone marrow examination and/or a deleterious AK2 mutation,
• absence of granulopoiesis on bone marrow examination; a pathogenic mutation in the adenylate kinase 2 (AK2) gene identified. Stratum C, SCID with Non-HCT Treatments: -Individuals who meet the following criteria and were treated with PEG-ADA or gene therapy with autologous modified cells are eligible for enrollment into Stratum C (SCID with non-HCT treatments) of the study-
•Any SCID patient previously treated with a thymus transplant (includes intention to treat with HCT, as well as PEG‐ADA ERT or gene therapy). Strata A, B, and C (Part 2
•Cross-Sectional Study): Patient inclusion criteria for the cross sectional study: Eligibility for Strata A, B and C are the same as for the retrospective study except that all the patients in the cross-sectional study are currently surviving and are at least 2 years post the most recent class of therapy. Parts 1 and 2
•Retrospective and Cross-Sectional Studies -
• Lack of appropriate testing to rule out HIV infection after 1997 (p24 antigen or more sensitive) or other cause of secondary immunodeficiency,
• Presence of DiGeorge syndrome,
• Most patients with other PIDs such as nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency, ZAP70 deficiency, CD40 ligand deficiency, NEMO deficiency, XLP, cartilage hair hypoplasia or ataxia telangiectasia will not meet the inclusion criteria for Stratum A, B, or C above; however, a patient with one of the above may meet the inclusion criteria for Stratum B and if so will be included-
• MHC Class I and MHC Class II antigen deficiency are excluded,
• Metabolic conditions that imitate SCID or related disorders such as folate transporter deficiency, severe zinc deficiency, transcobalamin deficiency.

• Must have MGFA MG grades 2, 3, or 4 generalized MG, according to the MGFA classification system
• Elevated AChR or MuSK Ab
• Patient's signs and symptoms should not be better explained by another disease process
• IVIg maintenance dose of 0.2 to 2 gm/kg/4 weeks or equivalent dose administered every 2-4 weeks
• Stable IVIg for at least 3 cycles
• Able to complete the study and return for follow-up visits
• Able to give written informed consent before participating in the study
• History of chronic degenerative, psychiatric, or neurologic disorder other than MG that can produce weakness or fatigue
• Other major chronic or debilitating illnesses within six months prior to study entry
• Female patients who are premenopausal and are (a) pregnant, (b) breastfeeding, or (c) not using an effective method of double barrier birth control
• Altered levels of consciousness, dementia, or abnormal mental status
• Thymectomy in the previous three months
• History of renal insufficiency or liver disease
• Skin disease that would interfere with assessment of injection site reaction
• History of severe reactions to IVIg or SCIg
• Participation in a research study within the last 3 months
• Treatment with rituximab or other biologics within 12 months of study entry
• Unable to provide informed consent

• Participant Inclusion Criteria (Part 1
•Longitudinal Analysis)
• CGD Patients Undergoing Transplant 1995 to Present with Birth Year In or After 1988 1. CGD Patients will be Defined by both Defective Neutrophil NADPH Oxidase Function and by Clinical History Consistent with CGD Patients must have both of: A functional assay demonstrating abnormal NADPH oxidase function (see A below); AND Clinical history consistent with CGD (see B below). ************************************************************************* Patients must have both "A" and "B": A. Function: Assays of NADPH Oxidase Function I. Dihydrorhodamine (DHR) Assay:
• Blood sample was obtained at a time when patient was clinically stable and not critically ill, with control samples performed simultaneously indicating a qualified assay; and
• Assay unequivocally demonstrates CGD with an stimulation index (SI) SI < 35 or equivalent. Assay report, including mean fluorescence intensity (MFI) from unstimulated and stimulated samples and gating strategy, must be de-identified and provided. OR II. Nitroblue Tetrazolium Oxidation Test (NBT): o Diagnostic of CGD (reported as reduced granulocyte oxidative response). Report must be de-identified and provided. AND B. Clinical History: One or More of the Following:
• Severe and/or recurrent infection (liver, perirectal or lung abscess; pneumonia; adenitis; or osteomyelitis) due to, for example, Staphylococcus aureus, Burkholderia sp, Serratia marcescens, non-albicans Candida sp, Aspergillus sp or other mold; or Nocardia sp or other deep tissue infection characteristic of CGD
• Sterile granulomatous disease in respiratory, gastrointestinal or urogenital tracts; or Crohn's disease-like colitis
• A family history consistent with either X-linked or autosomal recessive CGD In cases where either functional assay (A) or history (B) is equivocal, one or more of the following may be used to confirm a diagnosis of CGD: C. Absent or significantly reduced in expression or abnormal size of any of the 5 phox components (gp91 phox, p47 phox, p22 phox, p67phox, and p40phox) of NADPH oxidase, by either:
• Western blot
• Northern blot OR D. Mutation in a gene encoding one of the 5 phox components (gp91 phox, p47 phox, p22 phox, p67 phox, and p40 phox) of NADPH oxidase that is predictive of a decreased or absent oxidative burst. (Nonsense, frameshift, or previously described missense mutation associated with CGD). Molecular Diagnosis is Desirable In addition, molecular diagnosis (gene sequencing and expression analysis) of CGD is desirable and should be performed when possible. 2. Further Characterization of Oxidase Level, Longitudinal Study, Prospective Cohort Patients who are to undergo transplantation during the study period must be further characterized as oxidase-null or oxidase positive by level of oxidase production by either:
• DHR assay stimulation Index: where SI ≤ 2.5 will be classified as oxidase-null CGD. Those with SI > 2.5 will be classified as oxidase positive CGD. A single validated test that is accepted by the PID-CGD Review Panel is adequate, but testing on two occasions for validation is desirable. OR
• Ferricytochrome C reduction assay of granulocytes with O2 < 2.3 nmoles /106 cells/h classified as oxidase-null CGD. A single validated test that is accepted by the PID-CGD Review Panel is adequate, but testing on two occasions for validation is desirable. OR o Genetic sequencing reporting a mutation that is unequivocally associated to absent oxidase production. (e.g. null mutations) will be classified as oxidase-null CGD (See discussion in Appendix I for how family history, genotype and CGD mutation information will be applied to assigning patients lacking any quantitative oxidase activity measurements to residual oxidase-null or residual oxidase-positive groups). 3. Longitudinal Study, Retrospective Cohort Patients who have already been transplanted will be included regardless of whether further characterization by oxidase level (or genotype/mutation data) is possible or not.
• Non-Transplanted CGD Patients with Birth Year In or After 1988 A non-transplant (conventional therapy) group of CGD subjects will be enrolled in the longitudinal study. The non-transplant subjects will be selected from the potentially eligible (retrospective) patient cohort with diagnosis of CGD treated with conventional non-transplant therapy. Participating sites will enter their entire retrospective cohort of CGD patients having birth year in or after 1988 into the registration cohort for this protocol. Baseline for both non-transplant subjects and HCT subjects for the purpose of comparing survival will be the year of birth. However, for non-transplant subjects, many of the detailed analyses such as infection and autoimmune complication rates will be assessed in the year preceding the date of last contact.
• Participant Inclusion Criteria (Part 2
•Cross-Sectional Analysis) To participate in the Cross-Sectional Analysis, patients must have previously been enrolled into the Longitudinal Analysis of Protocol 6903. All transplanted subjects in the Cross-Sectional Analysis are surviving and shall have at least 3 years of follow-up post-transplant to be included. Non-transplanted CGD subjects will become eligible for consideration for the Cross-Sectional Analysis if they were eligible and enrolled in the retrospective cohort of the Longitudinal Analysis, and if/when they are > 3 years post-diagnosis of CGD. Provision of written informed consent will be required for inclusion in the Cross-Sectional Analysis.
• Participant Exclusion Criteria (Longitudinal and Cross- Sectional Analyses)
• Presence of other primary immunodeficiency syndromes that do not meet the clinical and laboratory criteria for CGD.
• Rac2 Deficiency
• Myeloperoxidase Deficiency (MPO Deficiency)
• Glutathione deficiency
• Leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome
• Non-transplant subjects:
• The above exclusions pertain.
• In addition, non-transplant subjects will be excluded if the only assessment of oxidase function available is the nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test (a non-quantitative test).

1. Age between 18 and 60 years, inclusive. 2. Diagnosis of relapsing forms of MS using revised McDonald Criteria1. 3. Expanded Disability Status Scale (EDSS) 0
•5.5 (note: functional system changes in cerebral (or mental) functions and in bowel and bladder functions not used in determining EDSS for protocol eligibility). 4. Has had a minimum of 12 monthly doses of continuous natalizumab therapy (300 mg/d). 5. Understands English, and gives informed consent. 1. Natalizumab failure based on clinician's discretion. 2. Any prior exposure to alemtuzumab. 3. Progressive MS. 4. A diagnosis of Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML). 5. Known hypersensitivity to alemtuzumab. 6. Initiation of new immunosuppressant treatment after the subject becomes protocol-eligible (except for corticosteroids) or enrollment in a concurrent trial with immuno-active pharmacotherapies. 7. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus defined as HbA1c > 8% and/or requiring intensive management. 8. History of cytopenia consistent with the diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome. 9. Clinically significant autoimmune disease other than MS that may affect the CNS, including neuromyelitis optica (NMO), systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), or Behcet disease. 10. Active hepatitis B or C infection or evidence of cirrhosis. 11. HIV positivity. 12. Uncontrolled viral, fungal, or bacterial infection. 13. Positive pregnancy test or inability or unwillingness to use effective means of birth control. Effective birth control is defined as: 1. Refraining from all acts of vaginal intercourse (abstinence), 2. Consistent use of birth control pills, 3. Tubal sterilization or male partner who has undergone vasectomy 4. Placement of intrauterine device 5. Use, with every act of intercourse, of a diaphragm with contraceptive jelly and/or condoms with contraceptive foam. 14. Presence of metallic objects implanted in the body that would preclude the ability of the subject to safely have MRI exams. 15. Psychiatric illness, mental deficiency, or cognitive dysfunction making compliance with treatment or informed consent impossible.

• Age < 1 year at the time of surgery
• Undergoing heart surgery with CPB as part of standard clinical care
• Availability and willingness of the parent/legally authorized representative to provide written informed consent
• < 37 weeks adjusted gestational age at time of surgery
• Any oral or intravenous steroid treatment within two days of surgery
• Any patient receiving any of the following medications within 2 days of surgery: Amphoteracin B, aminoglutethimide, anticholesterases, warfarin, P450 3A4 inducers including (but not limited to) carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampin, bosentan and nafcillin or P450 3A4 inhibitors including (but not limited to) clarithromycin, voriconazole, itraconazole, ketoconazole, ciprofloxacin, diltiazem, fluconazole, erythromycin and verapamil.
• Infection contraindicating steroid use
• Preoperative mechanical circulatory support or active resuscitation at the time of randomization
• Emergent surgery precluding steroid administration 8-12 hours before surgery

• Disorders affecting the hematopoietic system that are inherited, acquired, or result from myeloablative treatment
• Signed informed consent (and signed assent, if applicable) obtained prior to study enrollment
• Pediatric and adult patients of any age
• Patients who are receiving only licensed CBUs
• Cord blood transplant recipients at international transplant centers
• Patients who are enrolled on another IND protocol to access the unlicensed CBU(s)
• Patients whose selected unlicensed CBU(s) will be more than minimally manipulated

Stratum A: Typical SCID (formerly referred to as Classic SCID)- -Subjects who meet the following inclusion criteria and the intention is to treat with allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplant (HCT) are eligible for enrollment into Stratum A (Typical SCID) of the study:
• Absence or very low number of T cells (CD3 T cells <300/microliter) AND
• No or very low T cell function (<10% of lower limit of normal) as measured by response to phytohemagglutinin (PHA) OR
• T cells of maternal origin present. Stratum B: Leaky SCID, Omenn Syndrome, Reticular Dysgenesis- -Subjects who meet the following criteria and the intention is to treat with HCT are eligible for enrollment into Stratum B: Leaky SCID:
• Maternal lymphocytes tested for and not detected AND
• Either one or both of the following (a,b) :
• a.) <50% of lower limit of normal T cell function as measured by response to PHA, OR response to anti-CD3/CD28 antibody
• b.) Absent or <30% of lower limit of normal proliferative responses to candida and tetanus toxoid antigens
• AND at least two of the following (a through e):
• a.) Reduced number of CD3 T cells
• age ≤2 years: <1500/microliter
• age >2 years and ≤4 years: <800/microliter
• age >4 years: <600/microliter
• b.) ≥80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells that are CD45RO+
• AND/OR >80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are CD62L negative
• AND/OR >50% of CD3+ or CD4+T cells express HLA-DR (at <4 years of age)
• AND/OR are oligoclonal T cells
• c.) Hypomorphic mutation in IL2RG in a male, or homozygous hypomorphic mutation or compound heterozygosity with ≥1 hypomorphic mutation in an autosomal SCID-causing gene
• d.) Low T Cell Receptor Excision Circles (TRECs) and/or the percentage of CD4+/45RA+/CD31+ or CD4+/45RA+/CD62L+ cells is below the lower limit of normal.
• e.) Functional testing in vitro supporting impaired, but not absent, activity of the mutant protein, AND
• Does not meet criteria for Omenn Syndrome. Omenn Syndrome:
• Generalized skin rash
• Maternal lymphocytes tested for and not detected; --Note: If maternal engraftment was not assessed and ruled out, the subject is not eligible as Omenn Syndrome.
• ≥80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are CD45RO+ AND/OR
• 80% of CD3+ or CD4+T cells are CD62L negative AND/OR
• 50% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells express HLA-DR (at <2 years of age);
• Absent or low (< 30% lower limit of normal) T cell proliferation response to antigens (Candida, tetanus) to which the subject has been exposed NOTE: If proliferation to antigen was not performed, but at least 4 of the following 9 supportive criteria, at least one of which must be among those marked with an asterisk (*) below are present, the subject is eligible as Omenn Syndrome:
• Hepatomegaly
• Splenomegaly
• Lymphadenopathy
• Elevated IgE
• Elevated absolute eosinophil count
• *Oligoclonal T cells measured by CDR3 length or flow cytometry
• *Proliferation to PHA is reduced <50% of lower limit of normal or SI <30
• *Hypomorphic mutation in a SCID causing gene
• Low TRECS and/or the percentage of CD4+/45RA+/CD31+ or CD4+/45RA+/CD62L+ cells is below the lower limit of normal. Reticular Dysgenesis:
• Absence or very low number of T cells (CD3 <300/µL
• No or very low (<10% lower limit of normal) T cell response to PHA
• Severe neutropenia (absolute neutrophil count < 200 /µL) AND
• ≥2 of the following (a,b,c):
• a.) Sensori-neural deafness
• b.) Deficiency of marrow granulopoiesis on bone marrow examination
• c.) A pathogenic mutation in the adenylate kinase 2 (AK2) gene identified. Stratum C: Subjects who meet the following criteria and the intention is to treat with therapy other than allogeneic HCT, primarily PEG-ADA ERT or gene therapy with autologous modified (gene transduced) cells, are eligible for enrollment into Stratum C:
• ADA Deficient SCID with intention to treat with PEG-ADA ERT
• ADA Deficient SCID with intention to treat with gene therapy
• X-linked SCID with intention to treat with gene therapy
• Any SCID patient previously treated with a thymus transplant (includes intention to treat with HCT, as well as PEG-ADA ERT or gene therapy)
• Any SCID patient who received therapy for SCID deemed "non-standard" or "investigational", including in utero procedures. -Subjects who meet any of the following exclusion criteria are disqualified from enrollment in Strata A, B, or C of the study:
• Presence of an Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection (by PCR) or other cause of secondary immunodeficiency
• Presence of DiGeorge syndrome
• MHC Class I and MHC Class II antigen deficiency, and
• Metabolic conditions that imitate SCID or related disorders such as folate transporter deficiency, severe zinc deficiency or transcobalamin deficiency.

General
• For women of childbearing potential: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive methods that result in a failure rate of <1 percent (%) per year during the treatment period and for at least 24 weeks after the last dose of study treatment or until their B-cells have repleted, whichever is longer Inclusion Criteria Specific to RMS Participants:
• Diagnosis of RMS in accordance with the 2010 revised McDonald criteria
• Expanded Disability Status Scale (EDSS) score of 0 to 5.5 points, inclusive, at Screening
• Disease duration from the onset of multiple sclerosis symptoms less than (<) 15 years in participants with an EDSS score greater than (>) 5.0 at Screening
• Either treatment-naive or receiving treatment with disease-modifying therapies, including prior use of interferon (IFN)-beta-1a (Avonex®, Rebif®), IFN-beta-1b (Betaseron®/Betaferon), or glatiramer acetate (Copaxone®).
• At least one clinically documented relapse in the past year and/or at least one T1-weighted Gadolinium (Gd)-enhancing lesion in the past year and/or at least one new T2 lesion in the past year at the time of enrollment Inclusion Criteria Specific to RMS Cohort Arm 4 Participants:
• Must meet inclusion criteria for the RMS cohort
• Separate signed Informed Consent Form for the RMS Delayed Time to Start Control Arm (Arm 4)
• Must be willing to remain on the same dose and regimen of current standard of care, or no treatment if treatment-naïve, for 12 weeks after study enrollment The treating and/or study physician must agree that the participant is eligible to remain on the same dose and regimen of their current standard of care at Screening, or to receive no treatment if the participant is treatment-naïve, for 12 weeks after study enrollment Inclusion Criteria Specific to PPMS Participants:
• Diagnosis of PPMS in accordance with the 2010 revised McDonald criteria
• EDSS score of 3.0
•6.5 points, inclusive, at Screening
• Disease duration from the onset of multiple sclerosis symptoms <10 years in participants with an EDSS at Screening less than or equal to ( • Documented history of either elevated immunoglobulin G (IgG) Index or one or more IgG oligoclonal bands (OCBs) detected by isoelectric focusing
• Diagnosis of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis without relapses for at least 1 year
• History or known presence of recurrent or chronic infection (human immunodeficiency virus [HIV], syphilis, tuberculosis)
• History of cancer, including solid tumors and hematological malignancies (except basal cell, in situ squamous cell carcinomas of the skin, and in situ carcinoma of the cervix of the uterus that have been excised and resolved with documented clean margins on pathology)
• Known presence or history of other neurologic disorders
• Contraindications or intolerance to oral or IV corticosteroids, including IV methylprednisolone, according to the country label
• Contraindication for LP
• Previous treatment with B cell-targeted therapies (such as rituximab, ocrelizumab, atacicept, belimumab, or ofatumumab)
• Previous treatment with natalizumab/Tysabri®, alemtuzumab, anti-CD4 agents, cladribine, teriflunomide, cyclophosphamide, mitoxantrone, azathioprine, mycophenolate mofetil, cyclosporine, methotrexate, total body irradiation, or bone marrow transplantation
• Treatment with fingolimod/Gilenya®, dimethyl fumarate/Tecfidera®, or similar treatment within 6 months prior to enrollment
• Systemic corticosteroid therapy within 4 weeks prior to Baseline
• Previous or concurrent treatment with any investigational agent or treatment with any experimental procedure for multiple sclerosis (such as treatment for chronic cerebrospinal venous insufficiency)
• Certain laboratory abnormalities or findings at Screening
• Pregnant or lactating, or intending to become pregnant during the study Exclusion Criteria Specific to RMS Participants: Diagnosis of PPMS or secondary progressive multiple sclerosis without relapses

1. Male or female 18 years of age or older at the time of signing the informed consent. 2. Able and willing to adhere to the visit schedule and other protocol requirements. 3. Have a diagnosis of SLE for at least 6 months prior to the Screening Visit and fulfill the 1997 update of the 1982 American College of Rheumatology (ACR) Classification Criteria for SLE at the Screening Visit. 4. At the Screening Visit a Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Disease Activity Index (2K) (SLEDAI 2K) score of ≥ 6 points, at least four points of which are a "clinical" SLEDAI 2K score. The "clinical" score is the SLEDAI 2K assessment score without the inclusion of points attributable to any urine or blood laboratory results including immunologic measures. Neurologic descriptors of the SLEDAI 2K are not counted towards the SLEDAI study entry criteria. 5. At the Baseline Visit, a clinical SLEDAI 2K score of ≥ 4 points. Positive antibodies associated with SLE, which must include at least one of the following within the Screening Phase:
• Positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test at the central laboratory with a titer of 1:80 or greater, associated with a diagnosis of SLE, Anti-dsDNA antibodies elevated to above normal as per the central laboratory,
• Anti-Smith (anti-Sm) antibody elevated to above normal as per the central laboratory. 6. Females of childbearing potential (FCBP) must:
• Have two negative pregnancy tests as verified by the investigator prior to starting study therapy, one within 10 to 14 days prior to the first dose of CC-220 and again within 24 hours before taking the first dose of CC-220. She must agree to ongoing pregnancy testing during the course of the study, and after end of study treatment. This applies even if the subject practices true abstinence from heterosexual contact.
• Either commit to true abstinence2 from heterosexual contact (which must be reviewed on a monthly basis and source documented) or agree to use two forms of reliable contraception simultaneously. One must be a highly effective method and one additional effective (barrier) method, and both must be practiced without interruption, 28 days prior to starting investigational product, during the study therapy (including dose interruptions), and for 28 days after discontinuation of study therapy.
• Male subjects must: Practice true abstinence or agree to use a barrier contraception (male latex condom or non-latex condom NOT made out of natural [animal] membrane [for example, polyurethane]) during sexual contact with a pregnant female or a female of childbearing potential while participating in the study, during dose interruptions and for at least 90 days following investigational product discontinuation, even if he has undergone a successful vasectomy.
• Male subjects must agree not to donate semen or sperm during therapy and for at least 90 days following the discontinuation of Investigational Product (IP). 7. All subjects must:
• Understand that the IP could have potential teratogenic risk.
• Agree to abstain from donating blood while taking IP and for 28 days following discontinuation of the IP.
• Agree not to share IP with another person.
• Other than the subject, FCBP and males able to father a child should not handle the IP or touch the capsules unless gloves are worn.
• Be counseled about pregnancy precautions and risks of fetal exposure as described in the Pregnancy Prevention Plan. 8. If taking oral corticosteroids, must be on for at least 4 weeks prior to the Screening Visit, and maintained on a stable dose of ≤ 20 mg/d of prednisone or equivalent for at least 2 weeks prior to the Baseline Visit. 9. If taking SLE standard of care treatment (e.g. anti-malarial, mycophenolate mofetil, azathioprine) for 12 weeks prior to and be on a stable dose for at least 4 weeks prior to Baseline. 1. Must be off prohibited medications for a pre-specified period of time. 2. Received intra-articular, intralesional, subcutaneous, intradermal, intramuscular or IV pulse corticosteroids 6 weeks prior to the Baseline Visit. 3. Received an investigational product within 5 pharmacokinetic half-lives or one month, whichever is longer, prior to the Baseline Visit. 4. Severe lupus nephritis defined as: estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of < 45 mL/1.73 m2 or proteinuria > 2000 mg/day if stable for the past 3 months or proteinuria > 500 mg/day if unstable. 5. Proteinuria will be based upon spot urine testing. 6. Active, severe or unstable neuropsychiatric lupus disease within 6 months of the Screening Visit. 7. History or confirmed positive test for hepatitis B History of congenital and/or acquired mmunodeficiencies (eg, common variable immunodeficiency, human immunodeficiency virus [HIV], etc). 8. Active or history of recurrent bacterial, viral, fungal, mycobacterial or other infections, or any major episode of infection requiring hospitalization or treatment with intravenous or oral antibiotics within 4 weeks of the Screening Visit and at any time during the Screening Phase, up through the first dose of IP. 9. Active tuberculosis (TB) or a history of incompletely treated TB, or a positive, QuantiFERON®-TB Gold test. 10. Malignancy or history of malignancy, except for:
• treated (eg, cured) basal cell or squamous cell in situ skin carcinomas
• treated (eg, cured) cervical intraepithelial neoplasia or carcinoma in situ of the cervix with no evidence of recurrence within 5 years of the Screening Visit. 11. Any subject who: a. has a diagnosis or history consistent with Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APS) b. has "triple positivity" (ie, a positive lupus anticoagulant, anticardiolipin, and anti-B2 glycoprotein). Subjects with antiphospholipid antibodies without a diagnosis of APS will be reviewed by the adjudication committee for entry into the study based on the titer, the number of positive antibodies, and other risk factors. c. is unwilling or unable to undergo protocol required thromboprophylaxis. The subject has history of arterial or venous thrombosis, unless the subject is on appropriate anticoagulation for at least 6 months prior to the Baseline Visit and throughout the study. Superficial phlebitis may be discussed with the medical monitor. 12. History or current diagnosis of peripheral neuropathy (sensory or motor) ≥ Grade 2. 13. Presence of active uveitis or any other ophthalmological finding that in the opinion of the Investigator is clinically significant. 14. Other non-SLE driven inflammatory joint or skin disease or overlap syndromes as the primary disease. 15. Clinically significant or unstable or uncontrolled acute or chronic disease not due to SLE 16. Does not meet required laboratory criteria. 17. Pregnant or a breast-feeding female. NOTE: Other protocol defined Inclusion/Exclusion criteria may apply

1. Patient must have a clinical diagnosis of morphea confirmed by the primary investigator and by histopathological examination. 2. Ages 0-90 years old 3. Children must weigh more than 20 lbs. in order to satisfy Children's Medical Center policy for the maximum amount of blood drawn in a 24 hour period. 4. Patient or legal guardian must be able to speak and read at a 6th grade reading level. 5. Both male and female patients will be eligible 6. All races and ethnic backgrounds will be included 7. Relationships to proband: All patients with morphea will be included. A patient's family history will be reviewed and if there is a family history of morphea or systemic sclerosis then we will give the study patient the investigator's contact information and ask the family member to call the study team to answer any questions and enroll them in the study if they choose to do so. 8. Ability to give informed consent: Patients must be able to give informed consent or they will give assent with parent or guardian consent as a minor to be a part of the morphea registry.
•Patients who have been coded as morphea (701.0), but do not have morphea/localized scleroderma (examples: steroid atrophy, acquired keratoderma, keloids, nephrogenic fibrosing dermopathy, systemic sclerosis, lichen sclerosis)