• Women age 18 years or older
• Confirmed histologic diagnosis of invasive carcinoma of the breast
• Pathology confirmation of invasive carcinoma (reported or requested and pending)
• ER, PR and HER2 negative on outside or Cedars Sinai biopsy report, where ER and PR negative are defined as staining present in ≤10% of invasive cancer cells by IHC, and HER2-negative is defined as IHC 0-1+ or FISH <2.0. If ER, PR and HER2 status are not reported the results must be requested and pending.
• Operable tumor measuring ≥1.0 cm in maximal diameter
• Any nodal status
• Multifocal and multicentric disease is permitted.
• Synchronous bilateral invasive breast cancer is permitted
• No indication of distant metastases
• Total mastectomy or lumpectomy planned
• Tumor amenable to cryoablation as determined by a study radiologist
• ECOG performance status score of 0 or 1.
• Screening laboratory values must meet the following criteria:
• White blood cells (WBCs) ≥ 2000/μL
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥ 1500/μL
• Platelets ≥ 100 x 103/μL ii. Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL iii. Serum creatinine ≤ 1.5 x ULN or creatinine clearance (CrCl) ≥ 40 mL/min (if using the Cockcroft-Gault formula below): Female CrCl = (140
•age in years) x weight in kg x 0.85 72 x serum creatinine in mg/dL
• AST/ALT ≤ 3 x upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Bilirubin ≤ 1.5 x ULN (except subjects with Gilbert's syndrome, who must have total bilirubin < 3.0 mg/dL)
• No history of known HIV
• No history of known active hepatitis B or hepatitis C
• Women of childbearing potential** (WOCBP) must use appropriate method(s) of contraception. WOCBP should use an adequate method to avoid pregnancy for 23 weeks (30 days plus the time required for nivolumab and ipilimumab to undergo five half-lives) after the last dose of investigational drug
• Women of childbearing potential must have a negative serum or urine pregnancy test (minimum sensitivity 25 IU/L or equivalent units of HCG)
• Women must not be breastfeeding
• Willing to adhere to the study visit schedule and the prohibitions and restrictions specified in this protocol.
• Prior checkpoint blockade administration is permitted with a washout period of 3 weeks
• "Women of childbearing potential" is defined as any female who has experienced menarche and who has not undergone surgical sterilization (hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy) or who is not postmenopausal. Menopause is defined clinically as 12 months of amenorrhea in a woman over 45 in the absence of other biological or physiological causes. Women of childbearing potential (WOCBP) receiving nivolumab and ipilimumab will be instructed to adhere to contraception for a period of 23 weeks after the last dose of investigational product. Men receiving nivolumab and who are sexually active with WOCBP will be instructed to adhere to contraception for a period of 31 weeks after the last dose of investigational product. These durations have been calculated using the upper limit of the half-life for nivolumab (25 days) and are based on the protocol requirement that WOCBP use contraception for 5 half-lives plus 30 days and men who are sexually active with WOCBP use contraception for 5 half-lives plus 90 days.
• Medical history and concurrent diseases
• Has an active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in the past 2 years (i.e., with use of disease modifying agents, corticosteroids, or immunosuppressive drugs). Note: Replacement therapy (eg, thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency) is not considered a form of systemic treatment.
• Any underlying medical or psychiatric condition, which in the opinion of the investigator, will make the administration of study drug hazardous or obscure the interpretation of AEs, such as a condition associated with frequent or poorly controlled diarrhea.
• Prohibited Treatments and/or Therapies
• Chronic use of immunosuppressants and/or systemic corticosteroids (used in the management of cancer or non-cancer-related illnesses). Brief periods of steroid use, for example for the management of chemotherapy-associated toxicities, are allowed. The use of corticosteroids on study is allowed for the treatment of immune related adverse events (irAEs) and other medical conditions including adrenal insufficiency.
• Any non-oncology live vaccine therapy used for prevention of infectious diseases within 3 weeks prior to first dose of ipilimumab.
• Prior investigational agents within 3 weeks prior to ipilimumab/nivolumab

• Male or female.
• Aged 18-64 years (both inclusive) at the time of signing informed consent.
• Diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus greater than equal to (≥) 180 days prior to the day of screening.
• Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) of 7.0
•10.5 percentage (%) [53
•91 millimoles per mole (mmol/mol)] (both inclusive).
• Body Mass Index (BMI) ≥ 27.0 kilograms per meter square (kg/m^2).
• Stable daily dose(s) ≥ 90 days prior to the day of screening of any metformin formulations.
• Treatment with any medication for the indication of diabetes or obesity other than stated in the inclusion criteria within 90 days before screening. However, short term insulin treatment for a maximum of 14 days prior to the day of screening is allowed, as is prior insulin treatment for gestational diabetes.
• Uncontrolled and potentially unstable diabetic retinopathy or maculopathy. Verified by a fundus examination performed within the past 90 days prior to day of screening or in the period between screening and randomisation. Pharmacological pupil-dilation is a requirement unless using a digital fundus photography camera specified for non-dilated examination.
• Renal impairment measured as estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) value of less than (<) 30 milliliters per minute (mL/min)/1.73 meter square (m^2) at screening.

• Male or female participants who are ≥ 6 and ≤ 55 years of age at the time of signing informed consent/assent.
• Documented medical history of allergy to peanuts or peanut-containing foods.
• Positive peanut-specific immunoglobulin E (peanut sIgE), ≥ 0.35 kUA/L at Screening visit 1 (Screening 1).
• Positive skin prick test (SPT) for peanut allergen at Screening 1 defined as an average diameter (Longest diameter and mid-point orthogonal diameter) ≥ 4 mm wheal compared to saline control.
• A positive peanut DBPCFC at baseline (Screening Visit 2, Part 1 and Part 2 DBPCFC) defined as the occurrence of dose-limiting symptoms at a single dose ≤ 100 mg of peanut protein. Eligibility to proceed with the DBPCFC requires fulfillment of all other eligibility criteria.
• Participants must weigh ≥ 20 kg at Screening 1.
• Total IgE >2000 IU/mL at Screening 1.
• History of severe or life-threatening hypersensitivity event needing an ICU admission or intubation within 60 days prior to baseline DBPCFC (Screening visit 2).
• Participants with uncontrolled asthma (according to GINA guidelines, GINA 2020) who meet any of the following criteria:
• FEV1 <80% of subject's predicted normal value at Screening visit 1
• One hospitalization for asthma within 12 months prior to Screening visit 1 Other protocol-defined inclusion/exclusion criteria may apply.

• Patients must be >= 12 months of age at the time of study enrollment. For part A, patients must be <18 years old at enrollment. For part B, there is no upper age limit
• The Part B (phase 2) cohorts will initially open concurrently with the part A but will only enroll patients at least 18 years of age. Patients <18 years of age will be included in the part B cohorts only after the tiragolumab monotherapy dose has been assessed to be safe in the part A portion
• Patients must have SMARCB1 (INI1) or SMARCA4 deficient tumors verified through institutional immunohistochemistry (IHC) or molecular confirmation of a pathologic tumor bi-allelic SMARCB1 (INI1) or SMARCA4 loss or mutation from a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified lab with the following disease histologies:
• Renal medullary carcinoma
• Malignant rhabdoid tumor (extra-CNS)
• Atypical teratoid rhabdoid tumor (CNS)
• Poorly differentiated chordoma
• Epithelioid sarcoma
• Other SMARCB1 or SMARCA4 deficient tumors
• Note: Documentation of the institutional IHC or molecular testing must be uploaded via the RAVE system
• Part A: Patients must have either measurable or evaluable disease Part B: Patients must have either measurable disease per RECIST v1.1 for non-CNS tumors or CNS response criteria for CNS tumors
• Patients must have relapsed, refractory disease or newly diagnosed disease for which there is no known curative therapy or therapy proven to prolong survival with an acceptable quality of life
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1 or 2 (Karnofsky/Lansky score of > 50). Use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age. Note: Neurologic deficits in patients with CNS tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment. Patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anti-cancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anti-cancer directed therapy prior to enrollment. If after the required timeframe, the numerical eligibility criteria are met, e.g., blood count criteria, the patient is considered to have recovered adequately
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anti-cancer agents known to be myelosuppressive: See Developmental Therapeutics (DVL) homepage on the Children's Oncology Group (COG) Members site for commercial and investigational agent classifications. For agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned Research Coordinator prior to enrollment
• >= 21 days after the last dose of myelosuppressive chemotherapy (42 days if prior nitrosourea). Please refer to the table of myelosuppressive/Anticancer Agents on the COG website: https://www.cogmembers.org/uploadedFiles/Site/Disc/DVL/Documents/TableOfMyel osuppressiveAnti-CancerAgents.pdf
• Anti-cancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g., not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil count [ANC] counts): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent. See the DVL homepage on the COG Members site for commercial and investigational agent classifications. For agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned Research Coordinator prior to enrollment
• Antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1
• Hematopoietic growth factors: >= 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g., pegfilgrastim) or 7 days for short acting growth factor. For agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur
• Interleukins, interferons and cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors): >= 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon or cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors)
• Stem cell infusions (with or without total-body irradiation [TBI]):
• Autologous stem cell infusion including boost infusion: >= 30 days
• Cellular therapy: >= 30 days after the completion of any type of cellular therapy (e.g., modified T cells, natural killer [NK] cells, dendritic cells, etc.)
• External radiation therapy (XRT)/external beam irradiation including protons: >= 14 days after local XRT; >= 150 days after TBI, craniospinal XRT or if radiation to >= 50% of the pelvis; >= 42 days if other substantial bone marrow (BM) radiation
• Radiopharmaceutical therapy (e.g., radiolabeled antibody, iodine I 131 metaiodobenzylguanidine [131I MIBG]): >= 42 days after systemically administered radiopharmaceutical therapy
• Patients must not have had prior TIGIT targeting therapy
• Patients must not have received prior therapy with an anti- PD-1, anti-PD-L1, anti-PD-L2, or anti-CTLA4 agent or with an agent directed to another stimulatory or co-inhibitory T cell receptor (i.e. OX-40, CD137)
• Patients must not have received live/attenuated vaccine within 30 days of first dose of treatment
• Patients must not be receiving concomitant systemic steroid medications and > 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of systemic corticosteroid with the following exceptions:
• The use of physiologic doses of corticosteroids (5 mg/m^2/day up to 10 mg/day of prednisone equivalent) is acceptable
• The use of topical, inhaled, or ophthalmic corticosteroids are acceptable
• The use of acute, low-dose systemic immunosuppressant medication or a one-time pulse dose of systemic immunosuppressant medication (e.g., 48 hours of corticosteroids for a contrast allergy) are acceptable
• Treatment with systemic immunosuppressive medication (including, but not limited to, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, thalidomide, and anti-tumor necrosis factor-alpha [TNF-alpha] agents) must have concluded >= 14 days prior to study enrollment
• For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/uL (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement
• Platelet count >= 100,000/uL (transfusion independent, defined as not receiving platelet transfusions for at least 7 days prior to enrollment) (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients with known bone marrow metastatic disease will be eligible for study provided they meet the blood counts above (may receive transfusions provided they are not known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusions). These patients will not be evaluable for hematologic toxicity
• A creatinine based on age/gender as follows (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment):
• Age; Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL)
• 1 to < 2 years; Male: 0.6; Female: 0.6
• 2 to < 6 years; Male: 0.8; Female: 0.8
• 6 to < 10 years; Male: 1; Female: 1
• 10 to < 13 years; Male: 1.2; Female: 1.2
• 13 to < 16 years; Male: 1.5; Female: 1.4
• >= 16 years; Male: 1.7; Female: 1.4 OR- a 24 hour urine creatinine clearance >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment) OR- a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2. GFR must be performed using direct measurement with a nuclear blood sampling method OR direct small molecule clearance method (iothalamate or other molecule per institutional standard) (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Note: Estimated GFR (eGFR) from serum creatinine, cystatin C or other estimates are not acceptable for determining eligibility
• Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated or total) =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients with known Gilbert disease: Total bilirubin < 3 x ULN
• Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment). For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L
• Albumin >= 2 g/dL (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients with seizure disorder may be enrolled if on anticonvulsants and well controlled as evidenced by no increase in seizure frequency in the prior 7 days
• Nervous system disorders (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] v5) resulting from prior therapy must be =< grade 2, with the exception of decreased tendon reflex (DTR). Any grade of DTR is eligible
• International normalized ratio (INR) =< 1.5 (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Serum amylase =< 1.5 x ULN (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Serum lipase =< 1.5 x ULN (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Grade 1 or lower calcium level
• Note: can have history of hypercalcemia as long as controlled and asymptomatic
• Pregnant or breast-feeding women will not be entered on this study due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies, OR because there is yet no available information regarding human fetal or teratogenic toxicities. Pregnancy tests must be obtained in girls who are post-menarchal. Males or females of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use two effective methods of birth control, including a medically accepted barrier or contraceptive method (e.g., male or female condom) for the duration of therapy and at least 90 days after final dose of tiragolumab and 150 days after final dose of atezolizumab, whichever is later. Abstinence is an acceptable method of birth control.
• It is not known if atezolizumab or tiragolumab are present in breast milk; however, IgG immunoglobulins are found in milk. Due to the potential for serious adverse reactions in the breastfed infant, breastfeeding is not recommended during therapy and for at least 150 days after the last dose of atezolizumab and 90 days after the last dose of tiragolumab, whichever is later
• Concomitant medications:
• Corticosteroids:
• Patients must not be receiving concomitant systemic steroid medications and >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of systemic corticosteroid with the following exceptions:
• The use of physiologic doses of corticosteroids (5 mg/m^2/day up to 10 mg/day of prednisone equivalent) is acceptable
• The use of topical, inhaled, or ophthalmic corticosteroids are acceptable
• The use of acute, low-dose systemic immunosuppressant medication or a one-time pulse dose of systemic immunosuppressant medication (e.g. 48 hours of corticosteroids for a contrast allergy) are acceptable
• Investigational drugs: Patients who are currently receiving another investigational drug are not eligible
• Anti-cancer Agents: Patients who are currently receiving other anti-cancer agents are not eligible
• Systemic immunosuppressive medications (including, but not limited to, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, and thalidomide) during study treatment because these agents could potentially alter the efficacy and safety of study treatments would not be eligible
• Patients must not have a known hypersensitivity to any component of tiragolumab or atezolizumab injection
• History of severe allergic anaphylactic reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteins
• Known hypersensitivity to Chinese hamster ovary cell products or to any component of the atezolizumab or tiragolumab formulation
• Patients who have undergone allogeneic bone marrow or stem cell transplant are not eligible
• Patients with known, untreated CNS metastases will be excluded with the following exceptions:
• Patients with a history of CNS metastases that have been previously treated may enroll if sequential imaging shows no evidence for active disease in the CNS
• Patients must not have active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in the past 12 months, or a documented history of clinically severe autoimmune disease, or a syndrome that requires systemic steroids or immunosuppressive agents. Subjects with vitiligo or resolved childhood asthma/atopy are not excluded. Replacement therapy (e.g. thyroxine, insulin, physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency, etc.) is not considered a form of systemic treatment and these patients are eligible
• Patients who have active immune deficiency are not eligible
• Patients who have known active tuberculosis are not eligible
• Hepatitis B or C infection:
• Patients < 18 years old at enrollment, who have known hepatitis B or C
• Patients >= 18 years old at enrollment with:
• Positive hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), OR
• Positive total hepatitis B core antibody (HBcAb) who have a quantitative hepatitis B virus (HBV) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) >= 500 IU/mL, OR
• Positive hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody with a positive HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) test
• Note: For adults (>= 18 years old at enrollment), hepatitis B serology testing is required to determine eligibility. The HBV DNA test is required only for patients who have a negative HBsAg test, a negative HBsAb test, and a positive total HBcAb test. For adults (>= 18 years old at enrollment), hepatitis C serology testing is required to determine eligibility. The HCV RNA test is required only for patients who have a positive HCV antibody test
• Patients who have a known, recent Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection or known history of chronic, active infection are not eligible
• Patients who have history of or active human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are not eligible except patients who are stable on anti-retroviral therapy, have a CD4 count >= 200/uL, and have an undetectable viral load
• Patients who have significant cardiovascular disease (such as New York Heart Association class III or IV congestive heart failure, myocardial infarction, or cerebrovascular accident) within 3 months prior to study enrollment, unstable arrhythmia, or unstable angina are not eligible
• Patients who have a major surgical procedure, other than for diagnosis, within 4 weeks prior to study enrollment, or the anticipation of the need for a major surgical procedure during the study are not eligible
• Patients who have a history of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, organizing pneumonia, drug-induced pneumonitis, idiopathic pneumonitis, or known active pneumonitis are not eligible. History of radiation pneumonitis in the radiation field is permitted
• Patients who have uncontrolled pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, or ascites requiring recurrent drainage procedures (once monthly or more frequently) are not eligible. Patients with indwelling catheters (e.g., PleurX) are allowed
• Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• Patients who have received a prior solid organ transplantation are not eligible
• Patients who in the opinion of the investigator may not be able to comply with the safety monitoring requirements of the study are not eligible

• Subject has a clinical diagnosis of epilepsy and, in the opinion of the Investigator, may need benzodiazepine intervention for seizure control.
• Subjects having either partial or generalized epilepsy with motor seizures or seizures with clear alteration of awareness, for which rescue medications have been used at least once in the last 3 months or in the opinion of the investigator, may need a benzodiazepine intervention for seizure control 1-2 times every 3 months on average.
• Subjects whose body weight are < 6 kg or > 33 kg.
• Subject is undergoing intracranial electroencephalogram (EEG) monitoring.
• In the opinion of the investigator, a history of clinically significant medical history that would jeopardize the safety of the subject or impact the validity of the study results (such as significant gastrointestinal, renal, nasal polyps or any nasal passage abnormality that could interfere with nasal spray administration.
• Subject has had significant traumatic injury, major surgery or open biopsy within 30 days prior to study screening.
• Participation in a clinical trial within 30 days prior to the first dose of study drug.
• Inadequate or difficult venous access that may jeopardize the quality or timing of the PK samples.

• Have a diagnosis of stable heart failure (NYHA class II-IV) and left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≥50%
• Elevated NT-proBNP (N-terminal pro B-type natriuretic peptide) > 200 pg/ml for participants without atrial fibrillation (AF), or >600 picogram/milliliter (pg/ml) for participants with AF, Structural heart disease (Left atrial enlargement) or Elevated left ventricular filling pressure
• Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) <70 milliliter (ml)/minute (min)/1.73m² at screening, or HF decompensation within 12 months of screening,
• Stable dose of heart failure medications within 4 weeks of screening
• Body mass index (BMI) ≥30 kilograms per meter squared (kg/m²)
• 6MWD 100-425m
• KCCQ CSS ≤80
• Have had a major cardiovascular event within the last 90 days of screening
• Have had acute decompensated heart failure within 4 weeks of screening
• Have non cardiac causes of functional impairment such as pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), anemia, thyroid disease, musculoskeletal disease or orthopedic conditions
• Presence of cardiac amyloidosis, cardiac accumulation disease, cardiomyopathy and severe valvular hear disease
• HbA1c ≥9.5% or uncontrolled diabetes
• History of proliferative diabetic retinopathy or diabetic maculopathy
• Have a history of pancreatitis
• eGFR <15 mL/min/1.73 m² or requiring dialysis at screening

• Male or female
• Age above or equal to 18 years at the time of signing informed consent
• Body mass index (BMI) greater than or equal to 30.0 kilograms per square meter (kg/m^2) or b) BMI greater than or equal to 27.0 kg/m^2 with the presence of at least one weight-related comorbidity including, but not limited to hypertension, dyslipidaemia, obstructive sleep apnoea or cardiovascular disease
•Glycaemia related: a) Glycated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) greater than or equal to 6.5 percent (48 millimoles per mole [mmol/mol]) as measured by the central laboratory at screening b) History of type 1 or type 2 diabetes mellitus

Type of Subject and Disease Characteristics 1. Subjects must have completed a prior GB002 PAH study and, in the opinion of the Investigator and Sponsor, have been compliant with study procedures and have completed treatment with IP through parent study end-of-treatment (EOT) visit. 2. Treatment with standard of care PAH disease-specific background therapies (stable dose). Informed Consent 3. Review and signature of an IRB-approved informed consent form. Medical Conditions 1. Persistent and clinically significant systemic hypertension or hypotension. 2. Interval history of newly developed left-sided heart disease. 3. Potentially life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia with an ongoing risk. 4. Uncontrolled bacterial, viral, or fungal infections which require systemic therapy. 5. Other severe acute or chronic medical or laboratory abnormality that may increase the risk associated with study participation or GB002 administration or may interfere with the interpretation of study results and, in the judgment of the Investigator, would make the subject inappropriate for entry into this study. 6. History of portopulmonary hypertension or portal hypertension due to cirrhosis classified as Child-Pugh Class A or higher. 7. Subjects with a history of severe milk protein allergy. In addition, subjects with known intolerance or hypersensitivity to lactose who, in the opinion of the investigator, may experience severe symptoms following the ingestion of lactose. 8. Current use of inhaled tobacco and/or inhaled marijuana. Ingestible or topical marijuana is allowed, per local restrictions and regulations. 9. Current alcohol use disorder as defined by DSM-5, and/or history of current utilization of drugs of abuse (amphetamines, methamphetamines, cocaine, phencyclidine [PCP]). 10. Have any other condition or reason that, in the opinion of the Investigator and/or the Sponsor's Medical Monitor (or designee), would prohibit the subject from participating in the study. Diagnostic Assessments 11. Chronic renal insufficiency 12. Hemoglobin (Hgb) concentration <8.5 g/dL. 13. Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) < 1x 10^9/L. 14. Platelet count <50 x 10^9/L. Prior Therapy 15. Use of inhaled prostanoids. 16. Chronic use of oral anticoagulants (ie, vitamin K antagonist such as warfarin or novel oral anticoagulant [NOAC]/direct oral anticoagulant [DOAC]). 17. Chronic use of any prohibited medication. NOTE: Additional inclusion/exclusion criteria may apply, per protocol.

Key
• Participants must have a diagnosis of APL characterized by the presence of the t(15;17) translocation or PML/RARA gene expression via reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), or cytogenetics. Participants with low-risk APL may be eligible for all parts of this study; participants with high-risk APL are only eligible for the single-dose modules if they have completed a treatment regimen that included ATO within 6 months prior to the Screening Visit.
• Participants must have received ATO plus ATRA induction therapy and must have received or be eligible and planning to receive consolidation therapy with ATO plus ATRA in alignment with National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) guidelines for low-risk APL prior to their enrollment in the study; or participants must have completed a treatment regimen that included ATO within 6 months prior to the Screening Visit.
• Participants must be able to tolerate full dose ATO per NCCN guidelines.
• Participants must be in morphological complete remission (CR) at the end of induction.
• Participants must have a serum or high-sensitivity urine pregnancy test (for females of childbearing potential) that is negative at the Screening Visit and immediately prior to initiation of study treatment (first dose of study drug). Key
• Participants who have demonstrated relapse and therefore are not eligible for further consolidation.
• Participants currently receiving treatment for a non-APL malignancy (not including basal cell carcinoma, non-melanoma skin cancer, cervical carcinoma in situ, or localized prostate cancer treated with hormone therapy). Participants with history of other cancers should be free of disease for at least 2 years prior to the Screening Visit.
• Participants with an active, life-threatening, or clinically-significant uncontrolled systemic infection requiring hospitalization.
• Immunocompromised participants with increased risk of opportunistic infections, including known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive participants with cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) counts ≤350 cells/millimeters (mm^3) or history of opportunistic infection in the last 12 months.
• Participants with a known active or chronic hepatitis B or active hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection. Participants with a history of HCV infection who have completed curative therapy for HCV at least 12 weeks before the Screening Visit and have a documented undetectable viral load at the Screening Visit are eligible for enrollment.
• Participants who have not adequately recovered from a major surgery within 4 weeks of starting study drug administration.
• Participants who received any other investigational agents within 4 weeks of the Screening Visit or <5 half-lives since completion of previous investigational therapy have elapsed, whichever is shorter.
• Participants who have a hypersensitivity to arsenic.
• Participants who have experienced the following Grade ≥3 non-hematologic toxicities associated with ATO administration: QT prolongation, hepatotoxicity, neurotoxicity, cardiac function abnormalities. Participants who experienced other severe and life-threatening clinically-significant ATO-related AEs that are considered, in the judgement of the investigator, to increase participant risk with continued ATO treatment are also excluded. Other inclusion/exclusion criteria may apply.

• Written informed consent from the participant, or the participant's legally authorized representative, parent(s), or legal guardian, and the participant's assent, where applicable (informed consent/assent) must be obtained before any study-related procedures are conducted, and participants must be willing to comply with all study procedures for the duration of the study;
• Aged 1 to <18 years. Participants between 12 and 24 months of age must weigh a minimum of 7 kilograms (kg);
• Clinical laboratory confirmation of pyruvate kinase deficiency (PKD), defined as documented presence of at least 2 mutant alleles in the pyruvate kinase L/R (PKLR) gene, of which at least 1 is a missense mutation, as determined per the genotyping performed by the study central genotyping laboratory;
• No more than 5 red blood cell (RBC) transfusions in the 52-week period before providing informed consent/assent and no RBC transfusions ≤12 weeks before administration of the first dose of study drug;
• Hemoglobin concentration ≤10 grams per deciliter (g/dL) for participants 12 to <18 years of age or ≤9 g/dL for participants 1 to <12 years of age during the screening period. Hb concentration must be based on an average of at least 2 Hb concentration measurements (separated by ≥7 days) collected during the screening period;
• Receiving folic acid supplementation as part of routine clinical care for at least 21 days before administration of the first dose of study drug, to be continued during study participation;
• Female participants who have attained menarche and/or breast development in Tanner Stage 2, as well as male participants with partners who have attained menarche, must be abstinent of sexual activities that may induce pregnancy as part of their usual lifestyle, or agree to use 2 forms of contraception, 1 of which must be considered highly effective, from the time of informed consent/assent, throughout the study, and for 28 days after the last dose of study drug (including the time required to dose taper) for female participants who have attained menarche and 90 days after the last dose of study drug (including the time required to dose taper) for male participants . The second form of contraception can include an acceptable barrier method.
• Pregnant or breastfeeding;
• Homozygous for the R479H mutation or have 2 nonmissense mutations, without the presence of another missense mutation, in the PKLR gene as determined per the genotyping performed by the study central genotyping laboratory;
• History of malignancy;
• History of active and/or uncontrolled cardiac or pulmonary disease or clinically relevant QT prolongation within 6 months before providing informed consent/assent;
• Hepatobiliary disorders including, but not limited to:
• Liver disease with histopathological evidence of cirrhosis or severe fibrosis;
• Clinically symptomatic cholelithiasis or cholecystitis (participants with prior cholecystectomy are eligible);
• History of drug-induced cholestatic hepatitis;
• Aspartate aminotransferase >2.5×upper limit of normal (ULN) (unless due to hemolysis and/or hepatic iron deposition) and alanine aminotransferase >2.5×ULN (unless due to hepatic iron deposition);
• Renal dysfunction as defined by an estimated glomerular filtration rate <60 milliliters per minute (mL/min)/1.73 m^2;
• Nonfasting triglycerides >440 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL) (5 millimoles per liter [mmol/L]);
• Active uncontrolled infection requiring systemic antimicrobial therapy;
• Participants with a high likelihood of exposure to, or parental history of, hepatitis B or hepatitis C who subsequently test positive for hepatitis B antigen or hepatitis C virus antibody with signs of active hepatitis B or hepatitis C virus infection;
• Participants with a high likelihood of exposure to, or parental history of, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who subsequently test positive for HIV-1 or -2 antibodies;
• History of major surgery (including splenectomy) ≤6 months before providing informed consent/assent and/or planning on undergoing a major surgical procedure during the screening or double-blind period;
• Current enrollment or past participation (within 90 days before the first dose of study drug or a time frame equivalent to 5 half-lives of the investigational study drug, whichever is longer) in any other clinical study involving an investigational study drug or device;
• Prior bone marrow or stem cell transplantation;
• Currently receiving hematopoietic stimulating agents; the last dose must have been administered at least 28 days or a time frame equivalent to 5 half-lives (whichever is longer) before randomization;
• Receiving products that are strong inhibitors of CYP3A4/5 that have not been stopped for ≥5 days or a time frame equivalent to 5 half-lives (whichever is longer), or strong inducers of CYP3A4 that have not been stopped for ≥28 days or a time frame equivalent to 5 half-lives (whichever is longer), before randomization;
• Receiving anabolic steroids, including testosterone preparations, that have not been stopped for at least 28 days before randomization;
• Known allergy to mitapivat or its excipients (microcrystalline cellulose, croscarmellose sodium, sodium stearyl fumarate, mannitol, and magnesium stearate);
• Any medical, hematologic, psychological, or behavioral condition(s) or prior or current therapy that, in the opinion of the Investigator, may confer an unacceptable risk to participating in the study and/or could confound the interpretation of the study data.

• Male or female participants must be aged 16 years or older at the time of signing the informed consent/assent.
• In participants aged <18 years, height velocity must be less than 2 cm/year in the last year and puberty must be completed (Tanner stage V).
• Participants with known classic CAH due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency diagnosed in childhood with documented (at any time) elevated 17-OHP and with or without elevated A4 and currently treated with hydrocortisone, prednisone, prednisolone or dexamethasone (or a combination of the aforementioned glucocorticoids) and on stable glucocorticoid therapy for a minimum of 3 months.
• Participants who are receiving fludrocortisone must be on a documented stable dose for a minimum of 3 months prior to enrollment and must have stable renin levels at screening.
• Female participants of childbearing potential and all male participants must agree to the use of an accepted method of contraception during the study.
• A female participant is eligible to participate if she is not pregnant, not breastfeeding, and she is either not a woman of childbearing potential (WOCBP) or has a negative pregnancy test at entry into the study. Note: females presenting with oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea who are aged ≤55 years should be considered potentially fertile and therefore should undergo pregnancy testing like all other female participants.
• Capable of giving signed informed consent/assent which includes compliance with requirements and restrictions listed in the informed consent form (ICF) and in this protocol.
• Clinical or biochemical evidence of hepatic or renal disease e.g. creatinine >2 times the upper limit of normal (ULN) or elevated liver function tests (alanine aminotransferase [ALT] or aspartate aminotransferase [AST] >2 times the ULN).
• History of bilateral adrenalectomy.
• History of malignancy (other than basal cell carcinoma successfully treated >26 weeks prior to entry into the study).
• Participants who have type 1 diabetes or receive regular insulin, have uncontrolled diabetes, or have a screening HbA1c greater than 8%..
• Persistent signs of adrenal insufficiency or the participant does not tolerate treatment at the end of the 4-week run-in period.
• Participants with any other significant medical or psychiatric conditions that in the opinion of the Investigator would preclude participation in the study.
• Participants on regular daily inhaled, topical, nasal or oral steroids for any indication other than CAH.
• Co-morbid condition requiring daily administration of a medication or consumption of any material that interferes with the metabolism of glucocorticoids.
• Participants who are receiving <10 mg hydrocortisone dose at screening or the hydrocortisone dose equivalent.
• Participants anticipating regular prophylactic use of additional steroids e.g. for strenuous exercise.
• Participation in another clinical study of an investigational or licensed drug or device within the 12 weeks prior to screening.
• Inclusion in any natural history or translational research study that would require evaluation of androgen levels during the study period outside of this protocol's assessments.
• Participants who have previously been exposed to Chronocort in any Diurnal study.
• Participants who routinely work night shifts and so do not sleep during the usual night-time hours.
• Participants, who in the opinion of the Investigator, will be unable to comply with the requirements of the protocol.
• Participants with a known hypersensitivity to any of the components of the Chronocort capsules, the Cortef tablets, or the placebo capsules.
• Participants with congenital galactosemia, malabsorption of glucose and galactose, or who are lactase deficient.
• Participants with a body weight of 45 kg or less.

• Male or female
• Age above or equal to 18 years at the time of signing informed consent
• BMI greather than or equal to 27.0 kg/m^2
• Diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus greater than or equal to 180 days before screening
• Treatment with either lifestyle intervention, or treatment with 1-3 marketed oral antidiabetic drugs (OAD)s (metformin, α-glucosidase inhibitors (AGI), glinides, sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor (SGLT2i), thiazolidinediones, or sulphonylureas (SU)s as a single agent or in combination) according to local label
• Treatment with oral antidiabetic drugs should be stable (same drug(s), dose and dosing frequency) for at least 90 days before screening
• HbA1c 7%-10% (53-86 mmol/mol) (both inclusive) as measured by the central laboratory at screening
• Clinically significant or severe hypoglycaemia within 6 months before screening or history of hypoglycaemia unawareness
• Renal impairment with estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) below 30 mL/min/1.73 m^2, as measured by the central laboratory at screening
• Uncontrolled and potentially unstable diabetic retinopathy or maculopathy. Verified by a fundus examination performed within 90 days before screening or in the period between screening and randomisation. Pharmacological pupil-dilation is a requirement unless using a digital fundus photography camera specified for non-dilated examination.

• Outpatient men and women age 18-70 years old with bipolar I or II disorder or schizoaffective disorder (bipolar type)
• English or Spanish speaking
• Current diagnosis of alcohol use disorder with at least moderate severity (DSM-5 terminology)
• Alcohol use of at least an average of 28 drinks a week if male or an average of 21 drinks per week if female and an average of 3 drinking days a week in the 28 days prior to intake
• Current mood stabilizer therapy (defined as lithium, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine or an atypical antipsychotic) with stable dose for ≥ 28 days prior to randomization or valproate/divalproex at a stable dose for ≥ 90 days (longer period due to data suggesting valproate may decrease alcohol use in BPD)
• Diagnosis of substance use disorder other than alcohol, caffeine or nicotine is allowed if 1) alcohol is the self-identified substance of choice and 2) severity of other substance use disorder is ≤ moderate
• Mood disorders other than bipolar I or II disorders or schizoaffective disorder bipolar type (e.g. bipolar NOS, cyclothymic disorders, schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder depressive type, or unipolar depression based on the SCID); other disorders (e.g. anxiety, will be allowed)
• Baseline HRSD17 or YMRS scores ≥ 35 to exclude those with very severe mood symptoms at baseline
• Evidence of clinically significant alcohol withdrawal symptoms defined as a CIWA-Ar score of ≥ 10
• Current (last 28 days) treatment with naltrexone, acamprosate, disulfiram, or topiramate as these may also decrease alcohol use
• Oral contraceptives and hormone replacement therapy. This exclusion is due to a possible interaction with pregnenolone.
• Women with hormone sensitive conditions such as breast cancer, uterine cancer, ovarian cancer, endometriosis, uterine fibroids. These persons are excluded because pregnenolone is converted to estrogens.
• Vulnerable populations (e.g. pregnant, nursing, cognitively impaired, incarcerated)
• High risk for suicide defined as > 1 attempt in past 12 months that required medical attention, any attempt in the past 3 months or current suicidal ideation with plan and intent such that outpatient care is precluded
• Intensive outpatient treatment (defined as ≥3 visits each week) for substance abuse (AA, NA meetings, or less intensive counseling at baseline will be allowed)
• Severe/unstable condition (e.g. cirrhosis, poorly controlled hypertension) or laboratory/physical exam findings consistent with serious illness (e.g. abnormal electrolytes) or AST or ALT >3 times normal

1. Radiographic evidence of renal cancer with IVC tumor thrombus 2. Tumor thrombus must be ≥ level II (As per Mayo classification, it would be ≥ level I [Refer to NEVES, R. and ZINCKE, H. (1987), Surgical Treatment of Renal Cancer with Vena Cava Extension. British Journal of Urology, 59: 390-395. doi:10.1111/j.1464-410X.1987.tb04832.x]) 3. Patient eligible for SABR to the IVC tumor thrombus as decided by the treating radiation oncologist 4. Patient eligible for IVC tumor thrombectomy as decided by the treating urologist 5. Any number of metastatic disease is allowed in the Pilot phase of the trial • For Phase II, metastatic patients will be allowed only if all sites of metastasis has been treated either surgically or radio-surgically (If limited sites of metastasis are present, all of which can be resected during the nephrectomy, then the patient can be eligible) 6. Age ≥ 18 years. 7. Performance status ECOG 0-2 8. Any serum Albumin is allowed, but ≥ 3.4 g/dL is strongly encouraged • Serum albumin <3.4 is a significant predictor of peri-operative mortality(12) 9. Any serum AST is allowed but serum AST ≤ 34 IU/L is strongly encouraged • Significant predictor of mortality in univariate but not multivariate analysis(12) 10. Women of childbearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal such as birth control pills, patch or ring; Depo-Provera, Implanon or barrier method, such as condom or diaphragm used with a spermicide of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study treatment, and for 90 days following completion of radiation therapy. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. 10.1 A female of childbearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, marital status, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months). 11. Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent. 12. Subjects must be able to undergo either MRI or CT. 1. Subjects who have had radiotherapy to a target within 3 cm of the IVC tumor thrombus. 2. Subjects may have received any other investigational agents or chemotherapy as long as they are eligible for SABR and surgery 3. Subjects with brain metastases should be excluded from this clinical trial unless all the metastasis are treated surgically or radio-surgically 4. Subjects with a history of pulmonary embolism is excluded 5. Subjects with a history of pulmonary hypertension is excluded 6. Subjects must not be pregnant due to the potential for congenital abnormalities. 7. Contraindication for contrast-enhanced MRI as defined by the standard operating procedures of the Department of Radiology at UT Southwestern. Briefly, these include medically unstable; cardiac pacemaker; intracranial clips, metal implants; metal in the eyes; pregnant or nursing; claustrophobia; and impairment of the renal function with estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) < 30 mL/min/1.73m2. Patients with one or more of these contraindications but eligible to undergo contrast-enhanced CT can participate in this study and will not receive an MRI

• Between 6 months and <18 years of age (or between 3 years and <18 years of age for rrcHL participants) on day of signing informed consent/assent (the first 3 participants dosed in Part 1 are to be ≥ 6 years of age)
• Histologically- or cytologically-documented, locally-advanced, or metastatic solid malignancy or lymphoma that is incurable and has failed prior standard therapy, or for which no standard therapy exists, or for which no standard therapy is considered appropriate
• Any number of prior treatment regimens
• Tissue (or lymph node biopsy for rrcHL participants) available from an archival tissue sample or, if appropriate, a newly obtained core or excisional biopsy of a tumor lesion not previously irradiated
• Advanced melanoma or PD-L1-positive advanced, relapsed, or refractory solid tumor or lymphoma
• Measurable disease based on RECIST 1.1 (Or based on IWG [Cheson, 2007] [i.e., measurement must be >15 mm in longest diameter or >10 mm in short axis] for rrcHL participants)
• Participants with neuroblastoma with only metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG)-positive evaluable disease may be enrolled
• Lansky Play Scale ≥50 for participants from 6 months up to and including 16 years of age; or Karnofsky score ≥50 for participants >16 years of age
• Adequate organ function
• Female participants of childbearing potential should have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to receiving the first dose of study medication
• Female participants of childbearing potential must be willing to use 2 methods of contraception or be surgically sterile, or abstain from heterosexual activity for the course of the study through 120 days after the last dose of study medication
• Male participants of reproductive potential must agree to use an adequate method of contraception starting with the first dose of study medication through 120 days after the last dose of study medication
• Currently participating and receiving study therapy in, or has participated in a study of an investigational agent and received study therapy or used an investigational device within 4 weeks of the date of allocation/randomization
• Diagnosis of immunodeficiency or receiving systemic steroid therapy or any other form of immunosuppressive therapy within 7 days prior to the date of allocation/randomization
• Prior systemic anti-cancer therapy including investigational agent within 2 weeks prior to study Day 1 or not recovered from adverse events due to a previously administered agent
• Prior radiotherapy within 2 weeks of start of study treatment
• Known additional malignancy that is progressing or requires active treatment with the exception of basal cell carcinoma of the skin, squamous cell carcinoma of the skin or carcinoma in situ (eg, breast carcinoma, cervical carcinoma in situ) with potentially curative therapy, or in situ cervical cancer
• Known active central nervous system (CNS) metastases and/or carcinomatous meningitis
• Tumor(s) involving the brain stem
• Severe hypersensitivity (≥ Grade 3) to pembrolizumab and/or any of its excipients
• Active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in past 2 years; replacement therapy (such as thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency) is acceptable
• Has a history of (non-infectious) pneumonitis that required steroids or current pneumonitis.
• Active infection requiring systemic therapy
• Pregnant or breastfeeding, or expecting to conceive or father children within the projected duration of the trial through 120 days after the last dose of study medication
• Prior therapy with an anti-programmed cell death (PD)-1, anti-PD-ligand 1 (anti-PD-L1), anti-PD-L2 agent, or any agent directed to another stimulatory or inhibitory T-cell receptor (eg, cytotoxic lymphocyte associated protein-4 [CTLA-4], OX-40, CD137)
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
• Hepatitis B or C
• Known history of active tuberculosis (TB; Bacillus tuberculosis)
• Received a live vaccine within 30 days of planned start of study medication
• Has undergone solid organ transplant at any time, or prior allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation within the last 5 years. (Participants who have had an allogeneic hematopoietic transplant >5 years ago are eligible as long as there are no symptoms of Graft Versus Host Disease [GVHD].)
• History or current evidence of any condition, therapy, or laboratory abnormality, or known severe hypersensitivity to any component or analog of the trial treatment, that might confound the results of the trial, or interfere with the participant's participation for the full duration of the study
• Known psychiatric or substance abuse disorders that would interfere with the requirements of the study

• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients must be >= 12 months and =< 21 years of age at the time of study enrollment
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients with recurrent or refractory solid tumors, including non-Hodgkin lymphomas, histiocytoses (e.g. langerhans cell histiocytosis [LCH], juvenile xanthogranuloma [JXG], histiocytic sarcoma), and central nervous system (CNS) tumors are eligible; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse except in patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors, optic pathway gliomas, or patients with pineal tumors and elevations of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or serum tumor markers including alpha-fetoprotein or beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG); in cases where patient enrolls prior to histologic confirmation of recurrent disease, patient is ineligible and should be withdrawn from study if histology fails to confirm recurrence; please note: Patients with Hodgkin lymphoma and plexiform neurofibroma are not eligible
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Tumor Testing Requirement: Tumor sample availability requirement for stage 1 of Pediatric MATCH (patients enrolled from start of study in July 2017 through 12/31/21); Patients must have an formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tumor sample available for MATCH study testing from a biopsy or surgery that was performed at any point after initial tumor recurrence/progression, or be planned to have a procedure to obtain such a sample that is considered to be of potential benefit by the treating clinicians; a tumor sample from a clinically performed diagnostic (pre-treatment) biopsy will be acceptable for enrollment onto Pediatric MATCH only for children with high-grade gliomas of the brainstem (diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas) or thalamus
• Please note: Samples that have been decalcified using standardly utilized acid-based decalcification methods are not generally suitable for MATCH study testing; the nucleic acids will have been degraded in the decalcification process
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Tumor molecular profiling report availability requirement for Stage 2 of Pediatric MATCH (patients enrolled starting 2022): In stage 2 of the study, no tumor samples will be submitted for centralized clinical tumor profiling; instead, a tumor molecular profiling report from a College of American Pathologists (CAP)/ Clinical Laboratory Improvements Amendments (CLIA)-approved testing laboratory must be submitted for review by the Molecular Review Committee (MRC)
• This molecular profiling must have been performed on a tumor sample that was obtained at any point after initial tumor recurrence/progression and must be accompanied by a pathology report for the same tumor specimen; a molecular profiling report for a diagnostic (pre-treatment) tumor sample will be acceptable for enrollment onto Pediatric MATCH only for children with high-grade gliomas of the brainstem (diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas) or thalamus. In the event that molecular profiling reports are available from multiple timepoints, the most recent report should be prioritized for study submission
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age); note: neurologic deficits in patients with central nervous system (CNS) tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients must have radiographically measurable disease; measurable disease based on imaging obtained less than or equal to 56 days prior to enrollment; patients with neuroblastoma who do not have measurable disease but have metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) positive (+) evaluable disease are eligible; measurable disease in patients with CNS involvement is defined as any lesion that is at minimum 10 mm in one dimension on standard magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT)
• Note: The following do not qualify as measurable disease:
• Malignant fluid collections (e.g., ascites, pleural effusions)
• Bone marrow infiltration except that detected by MIBG scan for neuroblastoma
• Lesions only detected by nuclear medicine studies (e.g., bone, gallium or positron emission tomography [PET] scans) except as noted for neuroblastoma
• Elevated tumor markers in plasma or CSF
• Previously radiated lesions that have not demonstrated clear progression post radiation
• Leptomeningeal lesions that do not meet the measurement requirements for Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: NOTE: patient does not need to meet all subprotocol criteria at time of enrollment onto the APEC1621SC screening protocol, but will need to meet all criteria prior to enrollment on any assigned treatment subprotocol. Patients must be enrolled onto a subprotocol within 2 weeks (14 days) of treatment assignment
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age); Note: neurologic deficits in patients with CNS tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: At the time of treatment with subprotocol specified therapy, the patients must have radiographically measurable disease; patients with neuroblastoma who do not have measurable disease but have MIBG+ evaluable are eligible; measurable disease in patients with CNS involvement is defined as any lesion that is at minimum 10 mm in one dimension on standard MRI or CT
• Note: The following do not qualify as measurable disease:
• Malignant fluid collections (e.g., ascites, pleural effusions)
• Bone marrow infiltration except that detected by MIBG scan for neuroblastoma
• Lesions only detected by nuclear medicine studies (e.g., bone, gallium or positron emission tomography [PET] scans) except as noted for neuroblastoma
• Elevated tumor markers in plasma or CSF
• Previously radiated lesions that have not demonstrated clear progression post radiation
• Leptomeningeal lesions that do not meet the measurement requirements for RECIST 1.1
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: At the time of enrollment onto a subprotocol, the following general criteria for initiation of therapy will be required:
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anticancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anticancer directed therapy prior to enrollment to the subprotocol; if after the required timeframe, the numerical eligibility criteria are met, e.g. blood count criteria, the patient is considered to have recovered adequately
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anticancer agents known to be myelosuppressive: for agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment >= 21 days after the last dose of cytotoxic or myelosuppressive chemotherapy (42 days if prior nitrosourea)
• Anticancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g. not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil counts [ANC]): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent; for agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment
• Antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1
• Corticosteroids: If used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Hematopoietic growth factors: >= 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g. Neulasta) or 7 days for short-acting growth factor; for agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur; the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator
• Interleukins, interferons and cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors): >= 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon or cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors)
• Stem cell infusions (with or without total-body irradiation [TBI]):
• Allogeneic (non-autologous) bone marrow or stem cell transplant, or any stem cell infusion including donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI) or boost infusion: >= 84 days after infusion and no evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD)
• Autologous stem cell infusion including boost infusion: >= 42 days
• Cellular therapy: >= 42 days after the completion of any type of cellular therapy (e.g. modified T cells, natural killer (NK) cells, dendritic cells, etc.)
• X-ray therapy (XRT)/External Beam Irradiation including Protons: >= 14 days after local XRT; >= 150 days after TBI, craniospinal XRT or if radiation to >= 50% of the pelvis; >= 42 days if other substantial bone marrow (BM) radiation; note: radiation may not be delivered to "measurable disease" tumor site(s) being used to follow response to subprotocol treatment
• Radiopharmaceutical therapy (e.g., radiolabeled antibody, 131I-MIBG): >= 42 days after systemically administered radiopharmaceutical therapy
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement:
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/mm^3
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (transfusion independent, defined as not receiving platelet transfusions for at least 7 days prior to enrollment)
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients with known bone marrow metastatic disease will be eligible for study provided they meet the blood counts (may receive transfusions provided they are not known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusions); these patients will not be evaluable for hematologic toxicity
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 ml/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• Age: 1 to < 2 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 0.6; female 0.6
• Age: 2 to < 6 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 0.8; female 0.8
• Age: 6 to < 10 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1; female 1
• Age: 10 to < 13 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.2; female 1.2
• Age: 13 to < 16 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.5; female 1.4
• Age: >= 16 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.7; female 1.4
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated) =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine transferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L)
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients must be able to swallow intact capsules/tablets, unless otherwise specified in the subprotocol to which they are assigned
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Agent specific limitations on prior therapy will be included with specific treatment subprotocols
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Pregnant or breast-feeding women will not be entered on this study due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies, or because there is currently no available information regarding human fetal or teratogenic toxicities; pregnancy tests must be obtained in females who are post-menarchal; males or females of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Concomitant medications
• Corticosteroids: at the time of consent and enrollment to regimen specific subprotocols, patients receiving corticosteroids who have not been on a stable or decreasing dose of corticosteroid for at least 7 days prior to enrollment to the subprotocol will not be eligible; if used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Investigational drugs: patients must meet criteria for prior therapy at the time of consent and enrollment to a subprotocol; other investigational agents may not be administered to patients while they are receiving study drug as part of a subprotocol
• Anticancer agents: patients must meet criteria for prior therapy at the time of consent and enrollment to a subprotocol; other investigational agents may not be administered to patients while they are receiving study drug as part of a subprotocol
• Anti-GVHD agents post-transplant: patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to prevent graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients who have had a prior solid organ transplant are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Additional agent specific criteria will be included with specific treatment subprotocols

• Age ≥ 45 years.
• Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke + brain imaging to rule out hemorrhagic stroke.
• Modified Rankin Scale (MRS) score ≤ 4.
• Ability to be randomized within 3 to 180 days after stroke onset.
• ESUS, defined as all of the following:
• Stroke detected by CT or MRI that is not lacunar. Lacunar is defined as a subcortical (this includes pons and midbrain) infarct in the distribution of the small, penetrating cerebral arteries whose largest dimension is ≤1.5 cm on CT or ≤2.0 cm on MRI diffusion images/<1.5 cm on T2 weighted MR images. The following are not considered lacunes: multiple simultaneous small deep infarcts, lateral medullary infarcts, and cerebellar infarcts. Patients with a clinical lacunar stroke syndrome and no infarct on imaging are excluded.
• Absence of extracranial or intracranial atherosclerosis causing ≥50 percent luminal stenosis of the artery supplying the area of ischemia. Patients must undergo vascular imaging of the extracranial and intracranial vessels using either catheter angiography, CT angiogram (CTA), MR angiogram (MRA), or ultrasound, as considered appropriate by the treating physician and local principal investigator.
• No major-risk cardioembolic source of embolism, including intracardiac thrombus, mechanical prosthetic cardiac valve, atrial myxoma or other cardiac tumors, moderate or severe mitral stenosis, myocardial infarction within the last 4 weeks, left ventricular ejection fraction <30 percent, valvular vegetations, or infective endocarditis). Patent foramen ovale is not an exclusion. All patients must undergo electrocardiogram, transthoracic or transesophageal echocardiography (TTE or TEE) and at least 24 hours of cardiac rhythm monitoring (Holter monitor or telemetry or equivalent). Additional cardiac imaging, such as cardiac MRI, or cardiac CT will be performed at the discretion of the local treating physician and principal investigator. Additional cardiac rhythm monitoring, such as monitored cardiac outpatient telemetry (MCOT) or an implanted cardiac monitor, will be at the discretion of the treating physician and local principal investigator.
• No other specific cause of stroke identified, such as arteritis, dissection, migraine, vasospasm, drug abuse, or hypercoagulability. Special testing, such as toxicological screens, serological testing for syphilis, and tests for hypercoagulability, will be performed at the discretion of the treating physician and local principal investigator.
• History of atrial fibrillation (AF), AF on 12-lead ECG, or any AF of any duration during heart-rhythm monitoring prior to randomization.
• Clear indication for treatment-dose anticoagulant therapy, such as venous thromboembolism or a mechanical heart valve.
• Need for antiplatelet agent, such as aspirin or clopidogrel
• History of spontaneous intracranial hemorrhage.
• Chronic kidney disease with serum creatinine ≥2.5 mg/dL.For Canadian sites only, estimated creatinine clearance (eCrCl) <15 mL/min is also an exclusion criterion.
• Active hepatitis or hepatic insufficiency with Child-Pugh score B or C.
• Clinically significant bleeding diathesis.
• Unresolved anemia (hemoglobin <9 g/dL) or thrombocytopenia (<100 x 10E9/L).
• Clinically significant gastrointestinal bleeding within the past year (e.g., not due to external hemorrhoids).
• At risk for pregnancy: premenopausal or postmenopausal woman within 12 months of last menses without a negative pregnancy test or not committing to adequate birth control, which includes an oral contraceptive, two methods of barrier birth control such as condom with or without spermicidal lubricant + diaphragm, or abstinence.
• Known allergy or intolerance to aspirin or apixaban.
• Concomitant participation in another clinical trial involving a drug or acute stroke intervention.
• Considered by the investigator to have a condition that precludes follow-up or safe participation in the trial.
• Inability of either participant or surrogate to provide written, informed consent for trial participation.

• For patients enrolled on APEC14B1 prior to enrollment on AALL1631, the required diagnostic bone marrow sample has been fulfilled
• For patients who have not previously enrolled on APEC14B1 prior to enrollment on AALL1631, a baseline diagnostic sample (or peripheral blood sample with blasts if marrow sample unavailable) must be available to develop an MRD probe
• In addition, laboratory reports detailing evidence of BCR-ABL1 fusion or ABL-class fusion must be submitted for rapid central review within 72 hours of study enrollment
• >= 1 year (365 days) and =< 21 years at ALL diagnosis
• Ph+ (BCR-ABL1 fusion): newly diagnosed de novo ALL (B-ALL or T-ALL) or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia (MPAL meeting 2016 World Health Organization [WHO] definition) with definitive evidence of BCR-ABL1 fusion by karyotype, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and/or molecular methodologies
• ABL-class fusion: newly diagnosed B-ALL with definitive evidence of ABL-class fusions. ABL-class fusions are defined as those involving the following genes: ABL1, ABL2, CSF1R, PDGFRB, PDGFRA. Methods of detection include fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH, e.g. using break-apart or colocalization signals probes), multiplex or singleplex reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), whole transcriptome or panel-based ribonucleic acid (RNA)-sequencing (e.g. TruSight RNA Pan-Cancer Panel; Illumina, San Diego, CA, USA or similar)
• Ph+ patients must have previously started Induction therapy, which includes vincristine, a corticosteroid, pegaspargase, with or without anthracycline, and/or other standard cytotoxic chemotherapy
• Ph+ patients have not received more than 14 days of multiagent Induction therapy beginning with the first dose of vinCRIStine
• Ph+ patients may have started imatinib prior to study entry but have not received more than 14 days of imatinib
• ABL-class fusion patients must have previously completed the 4 or 5 weeks of multiagent Induction chemotherapy (Induction IA phase)
• ABL-class fusion patients may have started imatinib during Induction IA, at the same time of or after the first vinCRIStine dose
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2
• Direct bilirubin =< 2.0 mg/dL
• Shortening fraction of >= 27% by echocardiogram
• Ejection fraction of >= 50% by radionuclide angiogram or echocardiogram
• Corrected QT interval, QTc < 480 msec
• Note: Repeat echocardiogram and electrocardiogram are not required if they were performed at or after initial ALL diagnosis, before study enrollment
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or serum creatinine within normal limits based on age/gender, as follows:
• 1 to < 2 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.6 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 2 to < 6 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 6 to < 10 years: maximum serum creatinine 1 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 10 to < 13 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 13 to < 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• >= 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.7 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• Known history of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
• ALL developing after a previous cancer treated with cytotoxic chemotherapy
• Active, uncontrolled infection, or active systemic illness that requires ongoing vasopressor support or mechanical ventilation
• Down syndrome
• Pregnancy and breast feeding
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of treatment according to protocol
• Patients with congenital long QT syndrome, history of ventricular arrhythmias or heart block
• Prior treatment with dasatinib, or any TKI other than imatinib

• There is no age limit for the low risk stratum (stage I ovarian immature teratoma and stage I non-seminoma or seminoma malignant GCT [all sites])
• Standard risk 1: Patient must be < 11 years of age at enrollment
• Standard risk 2: Patients must be >= 11 and < 25 years of age at enrollment
• Patients enrolling on one of the low risk arms must be newly diagnosed with a stage I germ cell tumor; for the standard risk arms, patients must be newly diagnosed with metastatic germ cell tumor (stage II or higher); histologic confirmation of a primary extracranial germ cell tumor in any of the categories outlined below is required of all patients at enrollment except for those who were initially diagnosed with stage I non-seminoma malignant GCT and later recur during observation post surgery off study; for these patients, if elevated tumor markers rise to > 5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) on at least 2 measurements taken at least 1 week apart, a diagnostic biopsy is not required for enrollment
• Low risk stage I immature teratoma (IT); site: ovarian; stage: Children's Oncology Group (COG) stage I, Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stage IA and IB; grade: 2 or 3; histology: pure immature teratoma (may contain microscopic foci of yolk sac tumor), mixed immature and mature teratoma, (no pathological evidence of MGCT); tumor markers: alpha-FP =< 1,000 ng/mL, beta-HCG institutional normal; all ages
• Low risk stage I non-seminoma MGCT; site: ovarian, testicular, or extragonadal; stage: COG stage I, FIGO stage IA and IB, American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) testicular stage IA, IB and IS; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma (pure or mixed); all ages
• Low risk stage I seminoma-MGCT; site: testicular; stage: COG stage I; AJCC testicular stage IA IB, and IS; histology: must contain at least one of the following: may contain immature/mature teratoma; may NOT contain yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; all ages
• Standard risk 1 (SR1); site: ovarian, testicular, or extragonadal; stage: COG stage II-IV, FIGO stage IC, FIGO stage II-IV (International Germ Cell Consensus Classification [IGCCC] criteria DO NOT apply); histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) < 11
• Standard risk 2 (SR2)
• Site: ovarian; stage: COG stage II and III, FIGO stage IC, II and III; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Site: testicular; stage: COG stage II-IV, AJCC stage II, III, IGCCC good risk; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; tumor markers: must be IGCCC good risk; post op: alpha-FP < 1,000 ng/mL, beta-HCG < 5,000 IU/mL and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) < 3.0 x normal; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Site: extragonadal; stage: COG stage II; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Notes:
• IGCCC criteria only apply to SR2 patients with a testicular primary tumor
• Use post-op tumor marker levels to determine IGCCC risk group
• Stage 1 seminoma patients are not eligible for the standard risk arms of the study
• For the low risk stage I non-seminoma MGCT and the standard risk arms, components of yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma can be mixed with other forms of GCT, such as seminoma or mature or immature teratoma; if yolk sac tumor is the only malignant component present, then it must be deemed by the pathologist to be greater than a "microscopic component" of yolk sac tumor
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, 2 or 3; use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age
• Organ function requirements apply ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy (SR1 and SR2 patients)
• Adequate renal function defined as:
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) OR
• A serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows (within 7 days prior to enrollment): (mg/dL)
• 1 month to < 6 months male: 0.4 female: 0.4
• 6 months to < 1 year male: 0.5 female: 0.5
• 1 to < 2 years male: 0.6 female: 0.6
• 2 to < 6 years male: 0.8 female: 0.8
• 6 to < 10 years male: 1 female: 1
• 10 to < 13 years male: 1.2 female: 1.2
• 13 to < 16 years: male: 1.5 female: 1.4
• >= 16 years male: 1.7 female: 1.4
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) or serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) < 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mm^3 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) AND
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients enrolling on the standard risk arms must be medically fit to receive protocol treatment and with no contraindications to protocol treatment
• Eligibility criteria to participate in the pilot study of the AYA-Hears instrument (patient reported outcomes [PROs] of ototoxicity) Note: participants in group 1 will not receive AGCT1531 protocol-directed therapy; all other AYA-HEARS patients must be enrolled on the AGCT1531 SR2 arm in order to participate
• >= 11 and < 25 years old at enrollment
• Able to fluently speak and read English
• Has received prior cisplatin- or carboplatin-based chemotherapy regimen for malignancy including diagnoses other than germ cell tumor
• Followed for cancer or survivorship care at one of the following institutions:
• Baylor College of Medicine/Dan L Duncan Comprehensive Cancer Center
• Dana Farber/Harvard Cancer Center
• Hospital for Sick Children
• Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario
• Oregon Health and Science University
• Seattle Children's Hospital
• Yale University
• Patients with any diagnoses not listed including:
• Stage I testicular cancer patients who have undergone primary RPLND (retroperitoneal lymph node dissection)
• Pure dysgerminoma
• Pure mature teratoma
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage I, grade I
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage I, grade 2,3 with alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) >= 1000 ng/mL
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage II
•IV or FIGO stage IC to IV
• "Poor risk" GCT (age >= 11 years old and COG stage IV ovarian, COG stage III or IV EG, or IGCCC intermediate or poor risk testicular), or
• Primary central nervous system (CNS) germ cell tumor
• Germ cell tumor with somatic malignant transformation
• Spermatocytic seminoma
• Patients must have had no prior systemic therapy for the current cancer diagnosis
• Patients must have had no prior radiation therapy with the exception of CNS irradiation of brain metastases; (this exception only applies to SR1 patients; any patients over age 11 with distant metastases to brain [stage IV disease] would be considered poor risk and therefore not eligible for this trial)
• Patients with significant, pre-existing co-morbid respiratory disease that contraindicate the use of bleomycin are ineligible for the standard risk arms of the trial
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])

• PHASE II INCLUSION CRITERIA (COMPLETE AS OF 20-MAR-2020)
• Pathologically (histologically or cytologically) proven diagnosis of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) involving the oral cavity (excluding lips), oropharynx (p16 negative), larynx, or hypopharynx
• Patients must have undergone gross total surgical resection of high-risk oral cavity, oropharynx (p16 negative), larynx, or hypopharynx within 63 days prior to registration; Note: patients may have biopsy under general anesthesia in an operating room followed by definitive ablative cancer surgery representing gross total resection; the gross total resection has to be done within 63 days prior to registration; if, however, patients have ablative resection but shortly recur or are determined to have persisting disease requiring re-resection to achieve gross total resection, then the patient is not eligible
• Patients must have at least 1 of the following high-risk pathologic features: extracapsular nodal extension or invasive cancer at the primary tumor resection margin (tumor on ink)
• Pathologic stage III or IV HNSCC, including no distant metastases, based upon the following minimum diagnostic workup:
• General history and physical examination by a radiation oncologist and/or medical oncologist within 84 days prior to registration;
• Examination by an ear nose throat (ENT) or head & neck surgeon prior to surgery; a laryngopharyngoscopy (mirror and/or fiber optic and/or direct procedure), if appropriate, is recommended but not required; intra-operative examination is acceptable documentation
• Pre-operative (op) Imaging of the head and neck: A neck computed tomography (CT) (with contrast) or CT/positron emission tomography (PET) (with contrast) and/or an magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the neck (T1 with gadolinium and T2) within 84 days prior to surgery; Note: this imaging data (diagnostic pre-operative scan showing gross disease) is to be submitted in Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM) format via TRIAD; the report is to be uploaded into Rave
• Chest CT scan (with or without contrast) or CT/PET that includes the chest (with or without contrast) either within 84 days prior to surgery or within 120 days prior to registration; Note: if the CT/PET with or without contrast is done within 84 days prior to surgery, it fulfills the chest imaging requirement
• Zubrod performance status of 0-1 within 14 days prior to registration
• Age >= 18
• Absolute granulocyte count (AGC) >= 1,500 cells/mm^3 (obtained within 14 days prior to registration on study)
• Platelets >= 100,000 cells/mm^3 (obtained within 14 days prior to registration on study)
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dl (Note: the use of transfusion or other intervention to achieve hemoglobin [Hgb] >= 8.0 g/dl is acceptable)
• Total bilirubin < 2 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) within 14 days prior to registration
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or alanine aminotransferase (ALT) < 3 x institutional ULN within 14 days prior to registration
• Serum creatinine institutional ULN within 14 days prior to registration or; creatinine clearance (CC) >= 50 ml/min within 14 days prior to registration determined by 24-hour collection or estimated by Cockcroft-Gault formula
• Negative urine or serum pregnancy test within 14 days prior to registration for women of childbearing potential
• The following assessments are required within 14 days prior to registration: sodium (Na), potassium (K), chloride (Cl), glucose, calcium (Ca), magnesium (Mg), and albumin; Note: patients with an initial magnesium < 0.5 mmol/L (1.2 mg/dl) may receive corrective magnesium supplementation but should continue to receive either prophylactic weekly infusion of magnesium and/or oral magnesium supplementation (e.g., magnesium oxide) at the investigator's discretion
• Patients with feeding tubes are eligible for the study
• Women of childbearing potential and male participants who are sexually active must agree to use a medically effective means of birth control
• Patient must provide study specific informed consent prior to study entry, including consent for mandatory tissue submission for epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) analysis and for oropharyngeal cancer patients, human papilloma virus (HPV) analysis
• PHASE III: Pathologically (histologically or cytologically) proven diagnosis of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) involving the oral cavity (excluding lips), oropharynx (p16 negative), larynx, or hypopharynx
• PHASE III: Patients with oropharyngeal cancer must have p16-negative based on central review prior to Step 2 registration; all patients with oropharyngeal primary must consent for mandatory tissue submission for central p16 confirmation
• PHASE III: Patients must have undergone gross total surgical resection of high-risk oral cavity, oropharynx (p16 negative), larynx, or hypopharynx within 63 days prior to registration; note: patients may have biopsy under general anesthesia in an operating room followed by definitive ablative cancer surgery representing gross total resection; the gross total resection has to be done within 63 days prior to registration; if, however, patients have ablative resection but shortly recur or are determined to have persisting disease requiring re-resection to achieve gross total resection, then the patient is not eligible
• PHASE III: Patients must have at least 1 of the following high-risk pathologic features: extracapsular nodal extension or invasive cancer at the primary tumor resection margin (tumor on ink or tumor in a final separately submitted margin)
• PHASE III: Pathologic stage III or IV HNSCC (American Joint Committee on Cancer [AJCC] 7th edition), including no distant metastases, based upon the following minimum diagnostic workup:
• General history and physical examination by a radiation oncologist or medical oncologist within 84 days prior to registration;
• Examination by an ENT or head & neck surgeon prior to surgery; a laryngopharyngoscopy (mirror or fiberoptic or direct procedure), if appropriate, is recommended but not required. Intra-operative examination is acceptable documentation.
• Pre-op Imaging of the head and neck: A neck CT (with contrast and of diagnostic quality) or PET/CT (with contrast and of diagnostic quality) and/or an MRI of the neck of diagnostic quality (T1 with gadolinium and T2) within 84 days prior to surgery; Note: this imaging data (diagnostic pre-operative scan showing gross disease) is to be submitted in DICOM format via TRIAD. The report is to be uploaded into Rave.
• Chest CT scan (with or without contrast) or PET/CT that includes the chest (with or without contrast) either within 84 days prior to surgery or within 120 days prior to registration; Note: If the PET/CT with or without contrast is done within 84 days prior to surgery, it fulfills the chest imaging requirement
• PHASE III: Zubrod performance status of 0-1 within 14 days prior to registration
• PHASE III: Leukocytes >= 2,500 cells/mm^3 (obtained within 14 days prior to registration on study)
• PHASE III: Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500 cells/mm^3 (obtained within 14 days prior to registration on study)
• PHASE III: Platelets >= 100,000 cells/mm^3 (obtained within 14 days prior to registration on study)
• PHASE III: Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL (Note: The use of transfusion or other intervention to achieve Hgb >= 8.0 g/dL is acceptable) (obtained within 14 days prior to registration on study)
• PHASE III: Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (however, patients with known Gilbert disease who have serum bilirubin level =< 3 x institutional ULN may be enrolled) (within 14 days prior to registration)
• PHASE III: AST or ALT =< 3 x institutional ULN (within 14 days prior to registration)
• PHASE III: Alkaline phosphatase =< 2.5 x institutional ULN (within 14 days prior to registration)
• PHASE III: Creatinine clearance (CrCl) >= 50 mL/min within 14 days prior to registration determined by 24-hour collection or estimated by Cockcroft-Gault formula
• PHASE III: Patients with feeding tubes are eligible for the study
• PHASE III: Negative urine or serum pregnancy test within 14 days prior to registration for women of childbearing potential
• PHASE III: All patients must provide study specific informed consent prior to study entry
• PHASE III: Patients positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are allowed on study, but HIV-positive patients must have:
• A stable regimen of highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART);
• No requirement for concurrent antibiotics or antifungal agents for the prevention of opportunistic infections;
• A CD4 count above 250 cells/mcL and an undetectable HIV viral load on standard polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-based tests
• PHASE II EXCLUSION CRITERIA (COMPLETE AS OF 20-MAR-2020)
• Prior invasive malignancy (except non-melanomatous skin cancer) unless disease free for a minimum of 1095 days (3 years); noninvasive cancers (for example, carcinoma in situ of the breast, oral cavity, or cervix are all permissible) are permitted even if diagnosed and treated < 3 years ago
• Patients with simultaneous primaries or bilateral tumors are excluded, with the exception of patients with bilateral tonsil cancers or patients with T1-2, N0, M0 resected differentiated thyroid carcinoma, who are eligible
• Prior systemic chemotherapy or anti-epidermal growth factor (EGF) therapy for the study cancer; note that prior chemotherapy for a different cancer is allowable
• Prior radiotherapy to the region of the study cancer that would result in overlap of radiation therapy fields
• Severe, active co-morbidity, defined as follows:
• Unstable angina and/or congestive heart failure requiring hospitalization within 6 months prior to registration
• Transmural myocardial infarction within 6 months prior to registration
• Acute bacterial or fungal infection requiring intravenous antibiotics at the time of registration
• Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation or other respiratory illness requiring hospitalization or precluding study therapy at the time of registration
• Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis or other severe interstitial lung disease that requires oxygen therapy or is thought to require oxygen therapy within 1 year prior to registration
• Hepatic insufficiency resulting in clinical jaundice and/or coagulation defects; note, however, that laboratory tests for coagulation parameters are not required for entry into this protocol
• Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) based upon current Centers for Disease and Control and Prevention (CDC) definition; note: human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing is not required for entry into this protocol; the need to exclude patients with AIDS from this protocol is necessary because the treatments involved in this protocol may be significantly immunosuppressive; protocol-specific requirements may also exclude immuno-compromised patients.
• Grade 3-4 electrolyte abnormalities (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE], version [v.] 4):
• Serum calcium (ionized or adjusted for albumin) < 7 mg/dl (1.75 mmol/L) or > 12.5 mg/dl (> 3.1 mmol/L) despite intervention to normalize levels
• Glucose < 40 mg/dl (< 2.2 mmol/L) or > 250 mg/dl (> 14 mmol/L)
• Magnesium < 0.9 mg/dl (< 0.4 mmol/L) or > 3 mg/dl (> 1.23 mmol/L) despite intervention to normalize levels
• Potassium < 3.0 mmol/L or > 6 mmol/L despite intervention to normalize levels
• Sodium < 130 mmol/L or > 155 mmol/L despite intervention to normalize levels
• Pregnancy or women of childbearing potential and men who are sexually active and not willing/able to use medically acceptable forms of contraception; this exclusion is necessary because the treatment involved in this study may be significantly teratogenic
• Prior allergic reaction to cetuximab
• PHASE III: Prior invasive malignancy (except non-melanomatous skin cancer) unless disease free for a minimum of 1095 days (3 years) with the following exceptions: T1-2, N0, M0 resected differentiated thyroid carcinoma; Note that noninvasive cancers (For example, carcinoma in situ of the breast, oral cavity, or cervix) are permitted even if diagnosed and treated < 3 years ago
• PHASE III: Patients with simultaneous primaries or bilateral tumors are excluded, with the exception of patients with bilateral tonsil cancers or patients with T1-2, N0, M0 resected differentiated thyroid carcinoma, who are eligible
• PHASE III: Prior systemic therapy, including cytotoxic chemotherapy, biologic/targeted therapy (such as anti-EGF therapy), or immune therapy for the study cancer; note that prior chemotherapy for a different cancer is allowable, however, a prior anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1, or anti-PD-L2 agent is not permitted
• PHASE III: Prior radiotherapy to the region of the study cancer that would result in overlap of radiation therapy fields
• PHASE III: Severe, active co-morbidity, defined as follows:
• Patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification; to be eligible for this trial, patients should be class 2B or better within 6 months prior to registration
• Transmural myocardial infarction within 6 months prior to registration;
• Severe infections within 4 weeks prior to registration including, but not limited to, hospitalization for complications of infection, bacteremia, or severe pneumonia;
• Acute bacterial or fungal infection requiring intravenous antibiotics at the time of registration; Note: Patients receiving prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., for prevention of a urinary tract infection or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation) are eligible.
• Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation or other respiratory illness requiring hospitalization or precluding study therapy at the time of registration;
• History of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonitis (including drug induced), organizing pneumonia (i.e., bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, etc.), or evidence of active pneumonitis on screening chest computed tomography (CT) scan. History of radiation pneumonitis in a prior radiation field (fibrosis) is permitted, provided that field does not overlap with the planned radiation field for the study cancer;
• Patients with active tuberculosis (TB) are excluded;
• Known clinically significant liver disease, including active viral, alcoholic, or other hepatitis; cirrhosis; fatty liver; and inherited liver disease;
• Patients with past or resolved hepatitis B infection (defined as having a negative hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg] test and a positive anti-HBc [antibody to hepatitis B core antigen] antibody test) are eligible.
• Patients positive for hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody are eligible only if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is negative for HCV RNA.
• History of allogeneic bone marrow transplantation or solid organ transplantation.
• A diagnosis of immunodeficiency:
• Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) based upon current CDC definition; note: HIV testing is not required for entry into this protocol; the need to exclude patients with AIDS from this protocol is necessary because the treatments involved in this protocol may be significantly immunosuppressive.
• Is receiving treatment with systemic immunosuppressive medications (including, but not limited to, prednisone, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, thalidomide, and anti-tumor necrosis factor [anti-TNF] agents) within 2 weeks prior to registration.
• Note: Patients who have received acute, low dose, systemic immunosuppressant medications (e.g., a one-time dose of dexamethasone for nausea) may be enrolled.
• Note: The use of inhaled corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids (e.g., fludrocortisone) for patients with orthostatic hypotension or adrenocortical insufficiency is allowed.
• History or risk of autoimmune disease, including, but not limited to, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, vascular thrombosis associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, Wegener's granulomatosis, Sjogren's syndrome, Guillain-Barré syndrome, multiple sclerosis, vasculitis, or glomerulonephritis.
• Patients with a history of autoimmune hypothyroidism who are asymptomatic and/or are on a stable dose of thyroid replacement hormone are eligible.
• Patients with controlled Type 1 diabetes mellitus on a stable insulin regimen are eligible.
• Patients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus, or vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions:
• Patients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestations
• Rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA)
• Disease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, flucinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, aclometasone dipropionate 0.05%)
• No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)
• PHASE III: Grade 3-4 electrolyte abnormalities (CTCAE, v. 4) within 14 days prior to registration:
• Serum calcium (ionized or adjusted for albumin) < 7 mg/dL (1.75 mmol/L) or > 12.5 mg/dL (> 3.1 mmol/L) despite intervention to normalize levels;
• Glucose < 40 mg/dL (< 2.2 mmol/L) or > 250 mg/dL (> 14 mmol/L);
• Magnesium < 0.9 mg/dL (< 0.4 mmol/L) or > 3 mg/dL (> 1.23 mmol/L) despite intervention to normalize levels;
• Potassium < 3.0 mmol/L or > 6 mmol/L despite intervention to normalize levels;
• Sodium < 130 mmol/L or > 155 mmol/L despite intervention to normalize levels.
• PHASE III: Pregnancy or women of childbearing potential and men who are sexually active and not willing/able to use medically acceptable forms of contraception for up to 5 months from last study treatment; this exclusion is necessary because the treatment involved in this study may be significantly teratogenic. Women who are breastfeeding and unwilling to discontinue are also excluded
• PHASE III: History of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteins
• PHASE III: Patients taking bisphosphonate therapy for symptomatic hypercalcemia. Use of bisphosphonate therapy for other non-oncologic reasons (e.g., osteoporosis) is allowed
• PHASE III: Patients requiring treatment with a RANKL inhibitor (e.g. denosumab) for non-oncologic reasons who cannot discontinue it before registration
• PHASE III: Patients with known distant metastatic disease are excluded
• PHASE III: Known hypersensitivity to Chinese hamster ovary cell products or other recombinant human antibodies
• PHASE III: Major surgical procedure within 28 days prior to registration or anticipation of need for a major surgical procedure during the course of the study
• PHASE III: Administration of a live, attenuated vaccine within 4 weeks prior to registration or anticipation that such a live, attenuated vaccine will be required during the study and for patients receiving atezolizumab, up to 5 months after the last dose of atezolizumab.
• Influenza vaccination should be given during influenza season only (approximately October to March). Patients must not r

1. Age ≥ 11 years and ≤ 45 years on the date of randomisation 2. Histologically or cytologically confirmed germ cell tumour (non-seminoma or seminoma); or Exceptionally raised tumour markers (AFP ≥ 1000ng/mL and/or HCG ≥ 5000 IU/L) without histologic or cytologic confirmation in the rare case where pattern of metastases consistent with GCT, high tumour burden, and a need to start therapy urgently 3. Primary arising in testis, ovary, retro-peritoneum, or mediastinum 4. Metastatic disease or non-testicular primary 5. Intermediate or poor prognosis as defined by IGCCC classification3 (modified with different LDH criteria for intermediate risk non-seminoma, and inclusion of ovarian primaries). (See protocol for more information). 6. Adequate bone marrow function with ANC ≥1.0 x 10^9/L, Platelet count ≥100 x 10^9/L 7. Adequate liver function where bilirubin must be ≤1.5 x ULN, except participants with Gilbert's Syndrome where bilirubin must be ≤2.0 x ULN; ALT and AST must be ≤2.5 x ULN, except if the elevations are due to hepatic metastases, in which case ALT and AST must be ≤ 5 x ULN 8. Adequate renal function with estimated creatinine clearance of ≥60 ml/min according to the Cockcroft-Gault formula, unless calculated to be < 60 ml/min or borderline in which case GFR should be formally measured, eg. with EDTA scan 9. ECOG Performance Status of 0, 1, 2, or 3 10. Study treatment both planned and able to start within 14 days of randomisation. 11. Willing and able to comply with all study requirements, including treatment, timing and nature of required assessments 12. Able to provide signed, written informed consent 1. Other primary malignancy (EXCEPT adequately treated non-melanomatous carcinoma of the skin, germ cell tumour, or other malignancy treated at least 5 years previously with no evidence of recurrence) 2. Previous chemotherapy or radiotherapy, except if patient has pure seminoma relapsing after adjuvant radiotherapy or adjuvant chemotherapy with 1-2 doses of single agent carboplatin or if patient has non-seminoma and poor prognosis by IGCCC criteria in the rare case where low-dose induction chemotherapy is given prior to registration because patient is not fit enough to receive protocol chemotherapy (eg. organ failure, vena cava obstruction, overwhelming burden of disease). In these instances acceptable regimens include cisplatin 20 mg/m^2 days 1-2 and etoposide 100 mg/m^2 days 1-2; carboplatin AUC 3 days 1-2 and etoposide 100 mg/m^2 days 1-2; or baby-BOP. Patients must meet all other inclusion and exclusion criteria at the time of registration. Additionally participants who need to start therapy urgently prior to completing study-specific baseline investigations may commence study chemotherapy prior to registration and randomisation. Such patients must be discussed with the coordinating centre prior to registration, and must be registered within 10 days of commencing study chemotherapy. 3. Significant cardiac disease resulting in inability to tolerate IV fluid hydration for cisplatin 4. Significant co-morbid respiratory disease that contraindicates the use of bleomycin 5. Peripheral neuropathy ≥ grade 2 or clinically significant sensorineural hearing loss or tinnitus 6. Concurrent illness, including severe infection that may jeopardize the ability of the participant to undergo the procedures outlined in this protocol with reasonable safety 7. Inadequate contraception. Men must use 2 effective methods of contraception, including use of a condom, during chemotherapy and for a year after completing chemotherapy. 8. Known allergy or hypersensitivity to any of the study drugs 9. Presence of any psychological, familial, sociological or geographical condition that in the opinion of the investigator would hamper compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule, including alcohol dependence or drug abuse The above inclusion and exclusion criteria will apply to stage 1 (n=150) and stage 2 (n=500 including stage 1) of the study. All sites will participate in both stages of the study with the exception of the Children's Oncology Group who will be participate in stage 1 only.

The participants must meet the following criteria:
• Women aged 40-62 years who are perimenopausal or early postmenopausal (within 5 years of the last menstrual period if not surgically postmenopausal), including:
• Women who have experienced changes in menstrual cycle frequency or duration, and/or physical symptoms indicative of menopausal transition, as determined by clinician
• Women who are using hormonal IUDs (i.e. brands Mirena and Skyla), with FSH level > 20 mIU/m (as menstrual periods are irregular with IUDs that utilize hormones, making irregular/absent periods difficult to assess as related to the menopausal transition).
• Women with significant menopause-related physical symptoms, indicated by any of the following criteria:
• Greene Climacteric Scale total scores > 20
• Greene Climacteric Scale sub-score for vasomotor symptoms >3
• 5 or more bothersome hot flashes per week (self-reported)
• Women meeting DSM-5 criteria for current major depressive disorder (assessed by the SCID)
• Baseline HRSD score of ≥ 18
• Subject agrees to abstain from disallowed medications for the duration of the trial The participants must not meet any of the following criteria:
• Vulnerable populations (e.g. pregnant/nursing, severe cognitive or intellectual impairment, incarcerated)
• Pregnancy (determined by urine pregnancy test), intending pregnancy or breast feeding
• Psychiatric disorder other than MDD that is acute and the primary focus of symptom burden or treatment.
• History of bipolar disorder or psychotic disorder
• Current substance use disorder
• Positive baseline urine drug screen of an illicit substance (in this study: opioids and cocaine,) with the exception of a medication used with a prescription (use of a detected substance that is used with a prescription, such as an opioid pain medication, is not necessarily exclusionary and will be based upon judgment of the PI, particularly in the cases of chronic opioid use). Participants who screen positive for marijuana will be offered a rescreen for eligibility at a later date.
• Current eating disorder
• Treatment resistant depression (failure of 2 adequate antidepressant trials or electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) during current episode; adequate antidepressant trials are defined as within the US FDA approved dosage for the medication and used for at least 6 weeks, with failure described by the patient as <50% improvement based on her subjective experience).
• High risk for suicidal acts including active suicidal ideation with plan and intent or > 2 suicide attempts in lifetime or any attempt in the past 6 months
• Use of selective estrogen-receptor modulators (SERMs), hormone replacement therapy, hormonal contraceptives (hormonal IUDs allowed), episodic sleep medications (chronic, regular, stable-dose benzodiazepines and hypnotics such as zolpidem, Sonata (Zaleplon), and Lunesta (Eszopiclone) OR sleep-seating antihistamines such as Unisom (Doxylamine succinate) or diphenhydramine allowed) within 2 weeks of the baseline visit and randomization. Antidepressants will be allowed for those participants who have been taking the antidepressant for 6 weeks with a stable dose for at least 4 weeks.
• Use of natural menopause and depression supplements, phytoestrogens, soy-based medications, steroids within 2 weeks of baseline visit and randomization.
• Use of any disallowed medications (specified in the Excluded Concomitant Medication section below).
• Women who have received a gonadal hormonal intervention within 1 month prior to study entry (stable thyroid medications are allowed).
• Not using a medically approved method of birth control, if sexually active and not 12 or more months since last menstrual period IUDs, condoms, abstinence are acceptable forms of contraception in this study; due to the possible interactions with the study medication, oral contraceptive pills will be prohibited.
• Uncontrolled hypertension (>160/95mmHg)
• Active coronary artery disease, atrial fibrillation, stroke, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism or blood clotting disorder
• Any severe, life threatening or unstable medical condition that, based on clinician-judgment, would make participation in the study unsafe or inappropriate
• Personal or first degree family history of known hormone sensitive tumors
• History of allergic reaction or side effects with prior pregnenolone use
• Clinically significant laboratory or physical examination findings
• Concurrent enrollment in another clinical trial Exclusion of Concomitant Medications:
• Selective estrogen-receptor modulators (SERMs)
• Hormone replacement therapy
• Hormonal contraceptives, excluding Mirena IUD or other IUD with localized progesterone
• Natural menopause or antidepressant supplements
• Episodic sleep medications (chronic, regular, stable-dose benzodiazepines and hypnotics such as zolpidem, Sonata (Zaleplon), and Lunesta (Eszopiclone) OR sleep-sedating antihistamines such as Unisom (Doxylamine succinate) or diphenhydramine allowed)
• Sub-therapeutic dosages of antidepressants used for other indications will be permissible with the exclusion of SSRIs, SNRIs, and Wellbutrin.
• Phytoestrogens
• Soy-based medications or supplements

• The patient must have signed and dated an Institutional Review Board (IRB)-approved consent form that conforms to federal and institutional guidelines
• Age >= 18 years
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0, 1 or 2
• Diagnosis of metastatic adenocarcinoma of colon or rectum without previous chemotherapy or any other systemic therapy for metastatic colorectal cancer except for one cycle of FOLFOX or capecitabine and oxaliplatin (CAPOX), either with or without bevacizumab prior to enrollment. Upon enrollment, the preceding single cycle of FOLFOX or FOLFOX + bevacizumab, if the patient received one, will not count towards patients' assessments per protocol. Cycle 1 day 1 (C1D1) of atezolizumab or C1D1 of mFOLFOX6/bevacizumab + atezolizumab will correspond to the first day the patient received therapy on trial
• Tumor determined to be mismatch-repair deficient (dMMR) by Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified immunohistochemical (IHC) assay with a panel of all four IHC markers, including MLH1, MSH2, PMS2, and MSH6; alternatively, MSI-H diagnosed by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-based assessment of microsatellite alterations (either Bethesda markers or Pentaplex panel) or by next-generation sequencing (NGS) are eligible
• Documentation by PET/CT scan, CT scan, or MRI that the patient has measurable metastatic disease per RECIST 1.1
• No immediate need for surgical intervention for the primary tumor or palliative diversion/bypass
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) must be >= 1500/mm^3 (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Platelet count must be >= 100,000/mm^3 (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Hemoglobin must be >= 8 g/dL (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Total bilirubin must be =< 4 x ULN (upper limit of normal) (obtained within 28 days prior randomization); and
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) must be =< 3 x ULN for the lab with the following exception: for patients with documented liver metastases, AST and ALT must be =< 5 x ULN (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Calculated creatinine clearance >= 30 mL/min (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• A urine sample tested for proteinuria by either the dipstick method, urinalysis (UA), or a urine protein creatinine (UPC) ratio:
• The dipstick method must indicate 0-1+ protein; if dipstick reading is >= 2+, a 24-hour urine must be done and it must demonstrate < 1.0 g of protein per 24 hours or a UPC ratio < 1.0
• A urine protein creatinine (UPC) ratio must be < 1.0; if the UPC ratio is >= 1.0 a 24-hour urine must be done and it must demonstrate < 1.0 g of protein per 24 hours
• Urinalysis must indicate < 30 mg/dl. If urinalysis >= 30 mg/dl, a 24-hour urine must be done and it must demonstrate < 1.0 g of protein per 24 hours or a UPC ratio < 1.0
• International normalized ratio of prothrombin time (INR) and prothrombin time (PT) must be =< 1.5 x ULN for the lab within 28 days before randomization; patients who are therapeutically treated with an agent such as warfarin may participate if they are on a stable dose and no underlying abnormality in coagulation parameters exists per medical history, regardless of PT/INR results
• Pregnancy test done within 28 days prior randomization must be negative (for women of childbearing potential only); pregnancy testing should be performed according to institutional standards; administration of atezolizumab or mFOLFOX6/bevacizumab/atezolizumab may have an adverse effect on pregnancy and poses a risk to the human fetus, including embryo-lethality; should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she or her partner is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately
• Women of child-bearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception methods that result in a failure rate of < 1% per year during the treatment period (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and for 5 months (150 days) after the last dose of atezolizumab, 6 months after the last dose of bevacizumab, and 6 months after the last dose of mFOLFOX6; a woman is considered to be of childbearing potential if she is not postmenopausal, has not reached a postmenopausal state (>= 12 continuous months of amenorrhea with no identified cause other than menopause), and has not undergone surgical sterilization (removal of ovaries and/or uterus); examples of contraceptive methods with a failure rate of < 1% per year include: bilateral tubal ligation; male partner sterilization; intrauterine devices; the reliability of sexual abstinence should be evaluated in relation to the duration of the clinical study and the preferred and usual lifestyle of the patient; periodic abstinence (e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, or postovulation methods) and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception; men must refrain from donating sperm during this same period
• Known hypersensitivity to Chinese hamster ovary cell products or other recombinant human antibodies, fluoropyrimidines, folic acid derivatives or oxaliplatin
• Uncontrolled high blood pressure defined as systolic blood pressure (BP) > 150 mmHg or diastolic BP > 100 mmHg with or without anti-hypertensive medication; patients with initial BP elevations are eligible if initiation or adjustment of BP medication lowers pressure to meet entry criteria
• Documented New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV congestive heart failure
• Serious or non-healing wound, skin ulcer, or bone fracture
• History of inherited bleeding diathesis, gastrointestinal (GI) perforation, significant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm requiring surgical repair or recent arterial thrombosis or symptomatic peripheral ischemia, transient ischemic attack [TIA], cerebrovascular accident [CVA] or arterial thrombotic event), abdominal fistula, intra-abdominal abscess, or active GI bleeding (with cause not addressed) within 6 months prior to randomization, or other medical condition in the opinion of the treating oncologist that makes the risk of cardiovascular or bleeding complications with bevacizumab use unacceptably high
• Other malignancies are excluded unless the patient has completed therapy for the malignancy >= 12 months prior to randomization and is considered disease-free; patients with the following cancers are eligible if diagnosed and treated within the past 12 months: in situ carcinomas or basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
• Known DPD (dihydro pyrimidine dehydrogenase) deficiency
• Symptomatic peripheral sensory neuropathy >= grade 2 (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] version [v] 5.0)
• Prior treatment with oxaliplatin chemotherapy within 6 months prior to randomization
• History of grade 2 hemoptysis (defined as 2.5 mL of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to screening
• Prior treatment with anti-PD-1, or anti-PD-L1 therapeutic antibody or pathway-targeting agents; patients who have received prior treatment with anti-CTLA-4 may be enrolled provided the following requirements are met:
• Minimum of 12 weeks from the first dose of anti-CTLA-4 and > 6 weeks from the last dose to randomization
• No history of severe immune-related adverse effects (CTCAE grade 3 and 4) from anti-CTLA-4
• Treatment with systemic immunosuppressive medications (including, but not limited to, prednisone, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, thalidomide, and anti-tumor necrosis factor [anti-TNF] agents) within 14 days prior to randomization; however,
• Patients who have received acute, low dose, systemic immunosuppressant medications (e.g., a one-time dose of dexamethasone for nausea; or chronic daily treatment with corticosteroids with a dose of =< 10 mg/day methylprednisolone equivalent) may be enrolled
• The use of inhaled corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids (e.g., fludrocortisone) for patients with orthostatic hypotension or adrenocortical insufficiency is allowed
• Known clinically significant liver disease, including active viral, alcoholic, or other hepatitis; cirrhosis; fatty liver; and inherited liver disease; however,
• Patients with past or resolved hepatitis B infection (defined as having a negative hepatitis B surface antigen [HbsAg] test and a positive anti-HBc [antibody to hepatitis B core antigen] antibody test) are eligible if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for hepatits B virus (HBV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is negative per local guidelines
• Patients positive for hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody are eligible only if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is negative for HCV RNA per local guidelines
• History or risk of autoimmune disease, including, but not limited to, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, vascular thrombosis associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, Wegener's granulomatosis, Sjogren's syndrome, Bell's palsy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune thyroid disease, vasculitis, or glomerulonephritis; however,
• Patients with a history of autoimmune hypothyroidism on a stable dose of thyroid replacement hormone may be eligible
• Patients with controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus on a stable insulin regimen may be eligible
• Patients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus or vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions:
• Patients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestations
• Rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA)
• Disease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, fluocinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%)
• No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)
• History of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, organizing pneumonia (i.e., bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, etc.), or active or recently active (within 90 days of randomization) pneumonitis (including drug induced) that required systemic immunosuppressive therapy (i.e. corticosteroids, etc.). History of radiation pneumonitis in the radiation field (fibrosis) is permitted
• History of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteins
• Patients with known active tuberculosis (TB) are excluded
• Severe infections within 28 days prior to randomization, including but not limited to, hospitalization for complications of infection, bacteremia, or severe pneumonia
• Signs or symptoms of infection within 14 days prior to randomization
• Received oral or intravenous (IV) antibiotics within 14 days prior to randomization; patients receiving prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., for prevention of a urinary tract infection or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) are eligible
• Major surgical procedure, open biopsy, or significant traumatic injury within 28 days prior to randomization or anticipation of need for a major surgical procedure during the course of the study
• The administration of a live, attenuated vaccine within 28 days prior to randomization
• Pregnant women are excluded from this study because atezolizumab is an agent with the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects; because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with atezolizumab, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with atezolizumab; these potential risks may also apply to other agents used in this study; (Note: pregnancy testing should be performed within 28 days prior to randomization according to institutional standards for women of childbearing potential)
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
• Patients with prior allogeneic bone marrow transplantation or prior solid organ transplantation

Inclusion: 1. Metastatic or advanced stage, histologically or cytologically confirmed NSCLC and molecular identification of oncogenic KRAS mutation.
• KRAS mutant NSCLC must be refractory, relapsed, and/or intolerant (including contraindications to) of combination platinum-doublet chemotherapy and immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy
• Molecular characterization (tissue- or blood-based [ie, cell-free/circulating tumor DNA]) must have been performed and must have demonstrated an oncogenic KRAS mutation (e.g., exon 12, 13, 61, or 117 mutation detected by sequencing) by a CLIA-certified assay (source documentation required). KRAS mutations at other codons require review and approval by Study Chair. 2. Subjects' EGFR mutation and ALK gene rearrangement status must be known prior to study entry. Subjects with EGFR mutation or ALK gene rearrangement must have progressed after appropriate FDA-approved targeted therapy options prior to eligibility. 3. Patient has evidence of disease progression on most recent line of therapy. 4. Patient has measurable disease by RECIST v1.1 (Eisenhauer, 2009). 5. Age ≥ 18 years. 6. ECOG performance status of 0 or 1. 7. Predicted life expectancy of >3 months. 8. Adequate organ and marrow function as defined below:
• absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1,500/mcL
• platelets ≥ 75,000/mcL
• total bilirubin <2X institutional upper limit of normal
• AST and ALT ≤5X institutional upper limit of normal
• serum creatinine <1.5X institutional upper limit of normal
• LVEF >50%
• QTcF <470msec 9. Women of child-bearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and for 90 days following completion of therapy. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately.
• A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months). 10. No significant ischemic heart disease or myocardial infarction within 6 months of first dose of TVB-2640 and with current adequate cardiac function as in 3.1.8. 11. Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent. Exclusion: 1. Patient is unable to swallow oral medications or has impairment of GI function or GI disease that may significantly alter drug absorption such as active inflammatory bowel disease, uncontrolled nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or malabsorption syndrome. 2. Patient has a history of risk factors for torsade de pointes such as uncontrolled heart failure, severe hypokalemia with potassium less than 3mM/L, history of long QT syndrome or require use during study participation of concomitant medications known to prolong QT/QTc interval. 3. Patients who require use of strong CYP3A4/5 agonists or inhibitors during study participation. 4. Patient has uncontrolled or severe intercurrent medical condition including uncontrolled brain metastases. Patients with stable brain metastases either treated or untreated, on a stable dose of steroids/anticonvulsants, with no dose increase within 4 weeks before the first dose of TVB-2640, and no anticipated dose change, are allowed. 5. Patient underwent major surgery within 4 weeks before the first dose of TVB-2640 or received cancer-directed therapy either chemotherapy, radiotherapy, hormonal therapy, biologic or immunotherapy, etc. or an investigational drug or device within 2 weeks (6 weeks for mitomycin C and nitrosoureas) or 5 half-lives of that agent, whichever is shorter before the first dose of TVB-2640. In addition, any drug- related toxicity, with the exception of alopecia, an endocrinopathy controlled with replacement therapy, or a clinically stable toxicity not expected to increase from study therapy (eg, cisplatin-associated ototoxicity) should have recovered to

Interventions:

Drug: TVB-2640

Conditions:

KRAS Gene Mutation, Lung/Thoracic

Sites: UT Southwestern

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