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690 Study Matches

Long-term Safety Study of AR101 in Subjects Who Participated in a Prior AR101 Study (ARC008)

The purpose of this study is to assess AR101's safety and tolerability over an extended dosing period.
Call 214-648-5005
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John Bird
108478
All
4 Years to 55 Years old
Phase 3
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03292484
STU 092017-039
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Key
Inclusion Criteria:

• Prior participation in an Aimmune AR101 clinical study or any future clinical study that identifies ARC008 as a follow-on study option in the protocol
• Written informed consent and/or assent from subjects/guardians as appropriate
• Use of effective birth control by sexually active female subjects of childbearing potential Key
Exclusion Criteria:

• Did not complete a minimum of 3 months of AR101 maintenance therapy if the subject was assigned to AR101 in the parent study
• Early discontinuation from the parent study
• In subjects treated with AR101 in the parent study requiring a food challenge, failure to successfully consume at least 300 mg single dose of peanut protein at parent study's exit food challenge
Biological: AR101
Peanut Allergy, Other
AR101, Characterized Peanut Allergen, OIT (oral immunotherapy), Peanut Allergy, Allergy, Peanut-Allergic Children, Peanut-Allergic Adults, Desensitization, CPNA (Characterized Peanut Allergen)
Parkland Health & Hospital System
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Neurocognitive Decline in Patients With Brain Metastases

The phase I component of the study is to identify maximal tolerated dose (MTD). The phase II is to evaluate neurocognitive decline.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Zabihullah Wardak
147951
All
18 Years and over
Phase 1/Phase 2
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03508752
STU 122016-064
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Inclusion Criteria:
1. Age ≥ 18 years. 2. ECOG Performance Score of 2 or better/Karnofsky Performance score of 50-60 or better. 3. Biopsy-proven non-hematopoietic malignancy, except for germ cell cancer. Small cell lung carcinoma is eligible for this study 4. Six or more metastases on diagnostic or treatment planning imaging, which include either CT Brain (with contrast) or MR Brain (with or without contrast) imaging. 5. Largest tumor <4 cm 6. No prior SRS to the lesions which will be treated on protocol. 7. Women of child-bearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and for 90 days following completion of therapy. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. 8. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, marital status, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months). 9 Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
Exclusion Criteria:
1. Prior whole brain radiotherapy 2. Patients with leptomeningeal metastasis. (NOTE: For the purposes of exclusion, LMD is a clinical diagnosis, defined as positive CSF cytology and/or equivocal radiologic or clinical evidence of leptomeningeal involvement. Patients with leptomeningeal symptoms in the setting of leptomeningeal enhancement by imaging (MRI) would be considered to have LMD even in the absence of positive CSF cytology, unless a parenchymal lesion can adequately explain the neurologic symptoms and/or signs. In contrast, an asymptomatic or minimally symptomatic patient with mild or nonspecific leptomeningeal enhancement (MRI) would not be considered to have LMD. In that patient, CSF sampling is not required to formally exclude LMD, but can be performed at the investigator's discretion based on level of clinical suspicion.) 3. Patients with life expectancy < 4 months 4. Psychiatric illness/social situations that, in the opinion of the investigator, would limit compliance with study requirements. 5. Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants
Radiation: Stereotactic Radiosurgery
Brain Metastases, Brain and Nervous System
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
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Tacrolimus/Everolimus vs. Tacrolimus/MMF in Pediatric Heart Transplant Recipients Using the MATE Score (TEAMMATE)

The TEAMMATE Trial will enroll 210 pediatric heart transplant patients from 25 centers at 6 months post-transplant and follow each patient for 2.5 years. Half of the participants will receive everolimus and low-dose tacrolimus and the other half will receive tacrolimus and mycophenolate mofetil. The trial will determine which treatment is better at reducing the cumulative risk of coronary artery vasculopathy, chronic kidney disease and biopsy proven-acute cellular rejection without an increase in graft loss due to all causes (e.g. infection, PTLD, antibody mediated rejection).
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu
David Sutcliffe
53153
All
up to 21 Years old
Phase 3
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03386539
STU 122017-025
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Inclusion Criteria:
1. Orthotopic heart transplantation 2. Age < 21 years at time of transplant 3. Stable immunosuppression at the time of randomization with no contraindication to everolimus, tacrolimus, or mycophenolate mofetil 4. Planned follow-up at a study site for the 30 month duration of the study. 5. Subject or legal adult representative capable of providing informed consent (in general, assent will be sought for children aged 12 years or older).
Exclusion Criteria:
1. Multi-organ transplant (e.g. heart-lung or heart-liver). 2. Known hypersensitivity to everolimus, sirolimus, tacrolimus or mycophenolate mofetil (MMF), or to components of the drug products. 3. Patients on maintenance corticosteroid therapy exceeding a dose equivalent of prednisone 0.1 mg/kg/day at randomization. 4. High-risk for rejection defined as active rejection, recurrent (≥ 2 episodes of grade 2R rejection) cellular rejection, recurrent rejection (≥ 2 episodes of any grade) with hemodynamic compromise, steroid-resistant rejection or unresolved antibody-mediated rejection during the first 6 months post-heart transplant 5. Graft dysfunction (LVEF <40% or wedge pressure >22 mmHg or cardiac index <2.2 L/min/m2) 6. Stage 4 or 5 CKD (eGFR <30 ml/min/1.73 m2) or moderate proteinuria (urine protein to urine creatinine ratio >0.5 mg/mg). 7. Active infection requiring hospitalization or treatment dose medical therapy. 8. Patients with ongoing wound healing problems, clinically significant wound infection requiring continued therapy or other severe surgical complication in the opinion of the Site Principal Investigator. 9. Fasting Serum Cholesterol ≥300 mg/dL OR greater than or equal to 7.75 mmol/L, AND fasting triglycerides ≥2.5x the upper limit of normal (ULN). Note: In case one or both of these thresholds are exceeded, the patient can only be included after initiation of appropriate lipid lowering medication, and reduction of serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels to below exclusion ranges is confirmed. 10. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. 11. Diagnosis of post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) during the first 6 months post-heart transplant. 12. History of non-adherence to medical regimens. 13. Patients who are treated with drugs that are strong inducers or inhibitors of cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4) and cannot discontinue the treatment 14. Patients who are pregnant or breast-feeding or intend to get pregnant during the study period.
Drug: Everolimus, Drug: Tacrolimus, Drug: Mycophenolate Mofetil
Post-transplant Lymphoproliferative Disorder, Chronic Kidney Diseases, Pediatric Heart Transplantation, Immunosuppression, Cardiac Allograft Vasculopathy, Heart Transplant Failure and Rejection, Heart Transplant Infection
heart transplantation, children, everolimus, tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, randomized clinical trial
Parkland Health & Hospital System
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RelayPro Thoracic Stent-Graft in Subjects With Thoracic Aortic Aneurysms and Penetrating Atherosclerotic Ulcers (RelayPro-A)

Investigate the safety and effectiveness of the RelayPro Thoracic Stent-Grafts in subjects with thoracic aortic aneurysms (TAA) and penetrating atherosclerotic ulcers (PAU) of the descending thoracic aorta.
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Carlos Timaran
68421
All
18 Years and over
N/A
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT02818972
STU 112016-073
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Subject must be ≥ 18 years of age
• Subject has specified disease in his/her descending thoracic aorta.
• Subject have anatomical compliance for the device specified for both access vessels and treatment area.
• Subject must be willing to comply with the follow-up evaluation schedule.
• Subject (or Legally Authorized Representative) agrees an Informed Consent Form prior to treatment.
Exclusion Criteria:

• Subject has specified disease of the thoracic aorta which is not included in the trial, for example: aortic dissection, intramural hematoma, traumatic injury or transection, aortic false aneurysm, ruptured aneurysm.
• Subject anatomy with significant stenosis, calcification, thrombus or tortuosity.
• Subjects with specified compromised circulation.
• Subjects with specified prior procedures.
• Subjects with allergy to contrast media or device components.
• Subjects with disease, for example: suspected connective tissue disorder, specified coagulation disorders, specified coronary artery disease, severe congestive heart failure, stroke and/or Myocardial Infarction (MI) as specified, specified pulmonary disease, specified renal failure.
• Subjects that are pregnant or planning to become pregnant during the course of the study.
Device: RelayPro
Aortic Aneurysm, Thoracic, Cardiovascular
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Prostate Oncologic Therapy While Ensuring Neurovascular Conservation (POTEN-C) (POTEN-C)

Reduction of dose to or 'sparing' of neurovascular structures during stereotactic ablative body radiotherapy (SAbR) for localized prostate cancer will improve retention of sexual potency, while retaining excellent oncologic control and other secondary health-related quality of life (HRQOL) endpoints. Primary Objectives: • To compare the decline in patient health-related quality of life (HRQOL) instrument-defined erectile dysfunction following stereotactic ablative body radiotherapy (SAbR) with or without neurovascular sparing Secondary Objectives: - Assess acute (within 9 months of treatment) and chronic (>9 months after treatment) SAbR related GU and GI toxicities, as well as serial impact on HRQOL metrics over time - Assess biochemical progression free survival, local recurrence, disease-specific survival - Evaluate the impact of neurovascular sparing on neurovascular element dose and the impact of rectal spacer use on neurovascular element sparing - Evaluate quality of spacer placement and its effect on dose to neurovascular structures - Evaluate rate local recurrence in the area of sparing adjacent to the neurovascular elements by biopsy in those with biochemical progression. - Evaluate simplified 'practical' secondary HRQOL sexual potency endpoints that can be compared to prior literature.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Neil Desai
161725
Male
18 Years and over
Phase 2
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03525262
STU 092017-018
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Inclusion Criteria:
1. Age ≥ 18 years. 2. Appropriate staging studies identifying patient as AJCC 7th edition clinical stage T1 (a, b, or c) or T2 (a, b, or c) adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland. The patient should not have direct evidence of regional or distant metastases after appropriate staging studies. See Appendix I for details on AJCC 7th Edition staging criteria. Histologic confirmation of cancer will be required by biopsy performed within 12 months of registration. T-staging may be assessed by multi-parametric imaging alone if digital rectal examination was deferred. 3. The patient's Zubrod performance status must be 0-2 (see Appendix II for definition). 4. The Gleason summary score should be less than or equal to 7 [Grade group 1 (Gleason 3+3=6), group 2 (Gleason 3+4=7), and group 3 (Gleason 4+3=7) are allowed]. See Appendix III for details on definitions. While a template biopsy is recommended, it is not required in the case of MRI fusion biopsy performed on all dominant MR lesions (defined as PIRADS v2 4-5). 5. Baseline AUA symptom score ≤19 (see Appendix IV for questionnaire) without need for maximum medical therapy (specifically, not on tamsulosin 0.8mg daily) 6. EPIC sexual domain composite score 60-100 (see Appendix V) 7. Multi-parametric MRI evaluation of the prostate is required for this study within 12 months of registration. Gross radiographic disease on MRI (defined as PIRADS v2 score 3-5) must be > 5mm at minimum distance from at least one side's neurovascular bundle, which is typically the closest of the neurovascular elements to the prostate. 8. The serum PSA should be less than or equal to 20 ng/ml within 90 days of registration. Study entry PSA must not be obtained during the following time frames: (1) 10-day period following prostate biopsy; (2) following initiation of ADT or anti-androgen therapy; (3) within 30 days after discontinuation of finasteride; (4) within 90 days after discontinuation of dutasteride; (5) within 5 days of a digital rectal examination. 9. Ultrasound or MRI based volume estimation of prostate gland ≤ 80 grams. Cytoreduction therapy (finasteride or dutasteride only) may be considered for those with >60 gram size. 10. All patients must be willing and capable to provide informed consent to participate in the protocol within the 30 days prior to registration
Exclusion Criteria:
1. Subjects with clinical (digital rectal examination) evidence of extraprostatic extension (T3a) or seminal vesicle involvement (T3b). MRI evidence of equivocal/potential but not definite extraprostatic extension is allowed, as long as it is unilateral and not on the side of the gland proposed for neurovascular element sparing. In equivocal cases of potential extracapsular extension on MRI only, discretion is left to the treating physician. 2. MRI evidence of gross disease (defined as PIRADS v2 score 3-5 lesions) ≤5mm of BOTH neurovascular bundles, which are the most proximate of the neurovascular elements planned for sparing on this protocol. 3. Patients with all three intermediate risk factors (PSA >10 and ≤ 20, Gleason 7, clinical stage T2b-T2c) who ALSO have ≥50% of the number of their template biopsy cores positive for cancer are ineligible. 4. Inability to undergo multi-parametric MRI. 5. Evidence of metastatic disease. Note bone scan is not required for this study given the low-intermediate NCCN risk cohort to be enrolled. 6. Evidence of clinical nodal involvement of the pelvis. Biopsy is required for lymph nodes over ≥1.5cm in short-axis measured size. 7. No currently active ADT or anti-androgen therapy at time of registration is allowed. Further, no more than 3 cumulative months of prior ADT or anti-androgen therapy is allowed. If either has been used by the patient, there must be a demonstration of testosterone recovery (>50ng/dL serum blood level), EPIC sexual domain score ≥60, and at least 1 month between demonstration of testosterone recovery and study registration (any one measurement of testosterone recovery suffices). 8. Testosterone ≤ 50 ng/dL (any one measurement >50 ng/dL suffices for inclusion) within 90 days of study entry. 9. Subjects who have had previous pelvic radiotherapy or have had chemotherapy or surgery for prostate cancer. 10. Subjects who have plans to receive other concomitant or post treatment adjuvant antineoplastic therapy while on this protocol including surgery, cryotherapy, conventionally fractionated radiotherapy, hormonal therapy, or chemotherapy given as part of the treatment of prostate cancer. 11. Subjects who have undergone previous transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) or ablative procedures to the prostate for benign prostatic hyperplasia or other conditions (i.e. cryotherapy, HIFU). 12. Subjects who have baseline severe urinary symptoms, as defined by AUA symptom score >19 (alpha-blocker medication allowed except if taking tamsulosin 0.8mg daily at baseline which indicates compensated severe symptoms and also can affect sexual function). 13. Subjects who have a history of significant psychiatric illness that would confound informed consent. 14. Severe, active co-morbidity, defined as follows: 1. Unstable angina and/or congestive heart failure requiring hospitalization within the last 6 months 2. Myocardial infarction within the last 6 months 3. Acute bacterial or fungal infection requiring intravenous antibiotics at time of registration 4. Patients with active inflammatory colitis (including Crohn's Disease and ulcerative colitis) currently requiring systemic steroids and/or systemic immunosuppression are not eligible. 15. Subjects with a known allergy to polyethylene glycol hydrogel (rectal spacer material) or contraindication to spacer products (SpaceOAR) 16. Subjects with uncontrolled coagulation disorder which cannot be controlled with anticoagulants 17. Men of reproductive potential who do not agree that they will use an effective contraceptive method. 18. Men who require erectile function medication or aid to achieve an erection sufficient for intercourse. Ability to achieve erection sufficient for intercourse without medication or aid at least once time in the month prior to registration is sufficient for inclusion. 19. Men who have clinically significant penile malformation (i.e. Peyronie's disease) or history of penile implantation are excluded 20. If DRE is performed, patient may not have palpable disease on side of gland to be planned for neurovascular sparing. Given the poor accuracy of DRE, such a finding should be confirmed by MRI and/or biopsy to harbor actual disease before excluding a patient
Radiation: 30Gy (Gray) planning target volume (PTV)
Prostate Cancer Adenocarcinoma, Prostate
Erectile dysfunction, Neurovascular, Prostate, Rectal spacer, Radiotherapy
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
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SPI-1005 for Prevention and Treatment of Aminoglycoside Induced Ototoxicity

The primary objective of this study is to determine the safety and tolerability of SPI-1005 treatment in CF patients with active pulmonary exacerbation that are receiving an IV course of tobramycin, using histories, physical exams, vital signs (VS), adverse event (AE) reporting, hematology (CBC) chemistry (Chem-20). The secondary objectives of this study are to determine the pharmacokinetics of oral SPI-1005 at 200, 400 and 600 mg BID for 21 days. Peak/trough assessments will be determined for ebselen, its major metabolite and selenium. Clinical assessments of the severity of sensorineural hearing loss, speech discrimination, vertigo severity, tinnitus severity and lung function will be made compared between treatment arms and the placebo arm of this study.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu
Raksha Jain
19733
All
18 Years and over
Phase 1/Phase 2
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT02819856
STU 052017-042
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Cystic fibrosis patients about to receive IV tobramycin for acute pulmonary exacerbation.
• Voluntarily consent to participate in the study.
• Females of childbearing potential should be using and committed to continue using one of the following acceptable birth control methods:
• Sexual abstinence (inactivity) for 14 days prior to screening through study completion; or IUD in place for at least 3 months prior to study through study completion; or Barrier method (condom or diaphragm) with spermicide for at least 14 days prior to screening through study completion; or Stable hormonal contraceptive for at least 3 months prior to study through study completion.
• Ability to perform all behavioral tests as indicated.
Exclusion Criteria:

• Current use or within 60 days prior to study enrollment the following IV ototoxic medications: aminoglycoside antibiotics (gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin, streptomycin); platinum-containing chemotherapies (cisplatin, carboplatin, oxaliplatin); or loop diuretic (furosemide).
• History of idiopathic sensorineural hearing loss, otosclerosis, or vestibular schwannoma.
• History of middle ear or inner ear surgery.
• Current conductive hearing loss or middle ear effusion.
• Significant cardiovascular, hepatic, renal, hematologic, endocrine, immunologic, or psychiatric disease.
• History of hypersensitivity or idiosyncratic reaction to compounds related to ebselen.
• Participation in another investigational drug or device study within 30 days prior to study enrollment.
• Female patients who are pregnant or breastfeeding.
Drug: Placebo, Drug: SPI-1005 Ebselen 200mg Capsule x1, Drug: SPI-1005 Ebselen 200mg Capsule x2, Drug: SPI-1005 Ebselen 200mg Capsule x3
Ototoxicity, Lung/Thoracic
UT Southwestern
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Development of Pregnenolone as a Treatment for Depression R61

Pregnenolone, an over-the-counter supplement, is a naturally occurring neurosteroid made in the adrenal glands and brain. Preclinical research suggests pregnenolone has antidepressant, cognitive enhancing, and neuroprotective properties, particularly in women. The following hypothesis will be tested in this trial: pregnenolone is associated with improvement in depressive symptom severity in women that is associated with changes in the resting state functional connectivity (rsFC) and GABA.
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Edson Brown
10878
Female
18 Years to 65 Years old
Phase 1
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03645096
STU 052018-030
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Women, ages 18-65 years, with current MDD (mild or moderate severity per DSM-5) based on SCID-CV.
• No psychotropic medications, other than PRN (as needed) hypnotics, within 28 days of randomization (medication free).
• PRN hypnotics allowed up to 3 days prior to study drug administrations but not while receiving study drug.
Exclusion Criteria:

• Severe MDD based on DSM-5 severity criteria and/or a baseline HRSD score > 27 (consistent with severe depressive symptom severity).
• High risk for suicide (active SI with plan/intent or > 2 lifetime attempts in lifetime or any in the past 6 months).
• Treatment resistant depression (fail two adequate antidepressant trials or ECT during current episode).
• Vulnerable populations (e.g. pregnant/nursing, severe cognitive or intellectual impairment, incarcerated).
• Coronary artery disease, atrial fibrillation, stroke, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism or blood clotting disorder, or any severe, life threatening or unstable, medical condition.
• History of allergic reaction or side effects with prior pregnenolone use.
• Current substance use disorder defined as meeting criteria for a use disorder based on the SCID interview and self-reported use within the past 3 months, or a positive baseline urine drug screen.
• Current psychotic features (hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thought processes) or eating disorders.
• Anxiety disorders of sufficient severity to be the primary focus of clinical attention (e.g. severe obsessive compulsive or post-traumatic stress disorders).
• Hormone-sensitive conditions (i.e. breast cancer; uterine/ovarian cancer, endometriosis, uterine fibroids).
• Clinically significant laboratory, physical examination, or electrocardiogram (ECG) findings.
• Currently using oral contraceptives containing progestin (barrier methods allowed).
Drug: Pregnenolone 500 mg, Drug: Pregnenolone 800 mg, Drug: Placebo
Major Depressive Disorder
Depression, Pregnenolone, Women
Children’s Health
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Digital Tomosynthesis Mammography and Digital Mammography in Screening Patients for Breast Cancer

This randomized phase III trial studies digital tomosynthesis mammography and digital mammography in screening patients for breast cancer. Screening for breast cancer with tomosynthesis mammography may be superior to digital mammography for breast cancer screening and may help reduce the need for additional imaging or treatment.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Walter Evans
12114
Female
45 Years to 74 Years old
Phase 3
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03233191
STU 122017-066
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Women of childbearing potential must not be known to be pregnant or lactating
• Patients must be scheduled for, or have intent to schedule, a screening mammogram
• Patients must be able to tolerate digital breast tomosynthesis and full-field digital mammographic imaging required by protocol, to be performed at an American College of Radiology Imaging Network (ACRIN)-qualified facility
• Patients must be willing and able to provide a written informed consent
• Patients must not have symptoms or signs of benign or malignant breast disease (eg, nipple discharge, breast lump) warranting a diagnostic rather than a screening mammogram, and/or other imaging studies (eg, sonogram); patients with breast pain are eligible as long as other criteria are met
• Patients must not have had a screening mammogram within the last 11 months prior to date of randomization
• Patients must not have previous personal history of breast cancer including ductal carcinoma in situ
• Patients must not have breast enhancements (e.g., implants or injections)
• ANNUAL SCREENING REGIMEN ELIGIBILITY CHECK
• To be eligible for inclusion in the annual screening regimen one of the following three conditions must be met in addition to the eligibility criteria above:
• Patients are pre-menopausal; OR
• Post-menopausal aged 45-69 with any of the following three risks factors:
• Dense breasts (BIRADS density categories c-heterogeneously dense or d-extremely dense), or
• Family history of breast cancer (first degree relative with breast cancer), or, positive genetic testing for any deleterious genes that indicate an increased risk for breast cancer, or
• Currently on hormone therapy; OR
• Post-menopausal ages 70-74 with either of the following two risk factors:
• Dense breasts (BIRADS density categories c-heterogeneously dense or d-extremely dense), or
• Currently on hormone therapy
• Postmenopausal women are defined as those with their last menstrual period more than 12 months prior to study entry; for the purpose of defining menopausal status for women who have had surgical cessation of their periods, women who no longer have menses due to hysterectomy and oophorectomy will be considered postmenopausal; women who no longer have menses due to hysterectomy without oophorectomy will be considered premenopausal until age 52 and postmenopausal thereafter
• All other postmenopausal women are eligible for inclusion in the biennial screening regimen
• For those women who cannot be assigned to annual or biennial screening at the time of study entry and randomization because they are postmenopausal, have no family history or known deleterious breast cancer mutation, are not on hormone therapy AND have not had a prior mammogram, breast density will be determined by the radiologist?s recording of it at the time of interpretation of the first study screening examination, either DM or TM; for those who are randomized to TM, radiologists will assign BI-RADS density through review of the DM or synthetic DM portion of the TM examination; such women cannot be part of the planned stratification by screening frequency and are expected to represent far less than 1% of the Tomosynthesis Mammographic Imaging Screening Trial (TMIST) population
• Breast density will be determined by prior mammography reports, when available; all other risk factors used to determine patient eligibility for annual or biennial screening will be determined by subject self-report
Procedure: Digital Mammography, Procedure: Digital Tomosynthesis Mammography, Other: Laboratory Biomarker Analysis
Breast Screening, Breast - Female
Digital Mammography, Breast Tomography, Screening Mammography, TMIST
UT Southwestern
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Pegylated Liposomal Doxorubicin Hydrochloride With Atezolizumab and/or Bevacizumab in Treating Patients With Recurrent Ovarian, Fallopian Tube, or Primary Peritoneal Cancer

This phase II/III trial studies how well pegylated liposomal doxorubicin hydrochloride with atezolizumab and/or bevacizumab work in treating patients with ovarian, fallopian tube, or primary peritoneal cancer that has come back (recurrent). Chemotherapy drugs, such as pegylated liposomal doxorubicin hydrochloride, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as atezolizumab and bevacizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. It is not yet known which combination will work better in treating patients with ovarian, fallopian tube, or primary peritoneal cancer.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
David Miller
14954
Female
18 Years and over
Phase 2/Phase 3
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT02839707
STU-2018-0031
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Patients must have the psychological ability and general health that permits completion of the study requirements and required follow up
• Administration of study drugs (pegylated liposomal doxorubicin, bevacizumab, atezolizumab) may have an adverse effect on pregnancy and poses a risk to the human fetus, including embryo-lethality; women of child-bearing potential (WOCBP) must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and for 5 months (150 days) after the last dose of study agent; should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. (06/29/2017)
• Submission of tumor tissue is required for all patients; investigators should check with their site pathology department regarding release of biospecimens before approaching patients about participation in the trial
• High grade ovarian cancer, including high grade serous; clear cell; endometrioid, grade 3; and others (adenocarcinoma, not otherwise specified [NOS]; mixed epithelial carcinoma; undifferentiated carcinoma); NOTE: low grade serous, mucinous and carcinosarcoma histologies are excluded due to their different underlying genomic features and/or clinical behavior; ovarian cancer = ovarian, fallopian tube or primary peritoneal cancer; required data element: submission of pathology report
• Recurrent, platinum resistant ovarian cancer (defined as progression within < 6 months from completion of platinum based therapy; the date should be calculated from the last administered dose of platinum therapy)
• 1-2 prior regimens (including primary therapy); hormonal therapies (e.g., tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors) will not count toward the prior regimen limit; PARP inhibitors given in the maintenance setting post response to platinum-based therapy will not count as a separate regimen from the preceding platinum-based therapy. (30-OCT-2020)
• Measurable disease (defined by RECIST v1.1) or evaluable disease (defined as solid and/or cystic abnormalities on radiographic imaging that do not meet RECIST 1.1 definitions for target lesions OR ascites and/or pleural effusion that has been pathologically demonstrated to be disease related in the setting of cancer antigen [CA] 125 >= 2 x upper limit of normal [ULN])
• Performance status 0, 1 or 2
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500/mcl (within 14 days prior to registration)
• Platelets >= 100,000/mcl (within 14 days prior to registration)
• Hemoglobin (Hgb) >= 8 g/dl (within 14 days prior to registration)
• Creatinine =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (within 14 days prior to registration)
• Urine protein creatinine (UPC) ratio must be < 1.0 (within 14 days prior to registration); if UPC ratio >= 1, collection of 24-hour urine measurement of urine protein is recommended (24-hour urine protein level must be < 1000 mg for patient enrollment); If UPC ratio cannot be calculated because the urine protein is below the lower limit of detection of the assay this will not exclude the patient (10/22/2018) (30-OCT-2020); UPC ratio of spot urine is an estimation of the 24-hour urine protein excretion
•a UPC ratio of 1 is roughly equivalent to a 24-hour urine protein of 1 gm
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x ULN (patients with known Gilbert disease who have serum bilirubin level =< 3 x ULN may be enrolled) (within 14 days prior to registration)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 3 x ULN (AST and/or ALT =< 5 x ULN for patients with liver involvement) (within 14 days prior to registration)
• International normalized ratio (INR) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) =< 1.5 x ULN (or on stable dose of therapeutic anticoagulation, such as low-molecular-weight heparin, warfarin or rivaroxaban) (10/16/2017)
• Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limits (Euthyroid patients on thyroid replacement therapy allowed provided TSH < ULN) (02/20/2019)
• The patient or legally authorized representative must provide study-specific informed consent prior to study entry and, for patients treated in the United States (U.S.), authorization permitting release of personal health information
Exclusion Criteria:

• Patients with prior allogeneic bone marrow transplantation or prior solid organ transplantation
• Patients who have had systemic anticancer therapy (e.g., chemotherapy, targeted therapy including PARP inhibitors or bevacizumab) within 3 weeks prior to entering the study (30-OCT-2020)
• Patients who have had hormonal therapy (e.g., tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitor) within 1 week prior to entering the study
• Patients with prior treatment with anti-programmed cell death (PD)-1, anti- programmed cell death ligand (PD-L)1 or anti-cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated protein (CTLA)-4 therapeutic antibody or other similar agents (10/16/2017)
• Patients with prior treatment with bevacizumab (or any other anti vascular therapy, e.g., cediranib) for platinum resistant recurrence; (Note: prior bevacizumab in initial therapy and/or platinum sensitive recurrent setting is allowed)
• Patients with prior treatment with PLD
• Prior radiotherapy to the abdomen or pelvis
• Patients who have not recovered from adverse events to =< grade 1 (other than alopecia) due to agents administered more than 3 weeks earlier (10/16/2017); however, the following therapies are allowed:
• Hormone replacement therapy or oral contraceptives
• Herbal therapy > 1 week prior to cycle 1, day 1 (herbal therapy intended as anticancer therapy must be discontinued at least 1 week prior to cycle 1, day 1)
• Palliative radiotherapy for bone metastases > 2 weeks prior to cycle 1, day 1
• Treatment with any other investigational agent within 4 weeks prior to cycle 1, day 1
• Treatment with systemic immunostimulatory agents (including, but not limited to, interferon [IFN]-alpha or interleukin [IL]-2) within 6 weeks prior to cycle 1, day 1
• Treatment with systemic immunosuppressive medications (including, but not limited to, prednisone, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, thalidomide, and anti-tumor necrosis factor [anti-TNF] agents) within 2 weeks prior to cycle 1, day 1
• Patients who have received acute, low dose, systemic immunosuppressant medications (e.g., a one-time dose of dexamethasone for nausea or steroids as computed tomography [CT] scan contrast premedication) may be enrolled
• The use of inhaled corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids (e.g., fludrocortisone) for patients with orthostatic hypotension or adrenocortical insufficiency is allowed
• Patients taking bisphosphonate therapy for symptomatic hypercalcemia within the past 28 days; use of bisphosphonate therapy for other reasons (e.g., bone metastasis or osteoporosis) is allowed
• Patients with known primary central nervous system (CNS) malignancy or symptomatic CNS metastases are excluded, with the following exceptions:
• Patients with asymptomatic untreated CNS disease may be enrolled, provided all of the following criteria are met:
• Evaluable or measurable disease outside the CNS
• No metastases to brain stem, midbrain, pons, medulla, cerebellum, or within 10 mm of the optic apparatus (optic nerves and chiasm)
• No history of intracranial hemorrhage or spinal cord hemorrhage
• No ongoing requirement for dexamethasone for CNS disease; patients on a stable dose of anticonvulsants are permitted
• No neurosurgical resection or brain biopsy within 28 days prior to cycle 1, day 1
• Patients with asymptomatic treated CNS metastases may be enrolled, provided all the criteria listed above are met as well as the following:
• Radiographic demonstration of improvement upon the completion of CNS directed therapy and no evidence of interim progression between the completion of CNS directed therapy and the screening radiographic study
• No stereotactic radiation or whole-brain radiation within 28 days prior to cycle 1, day 1
• Screening CNS radiographic study >= 4 weeks from completion of radiotherapy and >= 2 weeks from discontinuation of corticosteroids
• Known hypersensitivity to Chinese hamster ovary cell products or other recombinant human antibodies
• History of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteins
• Patients requiring treatment with a receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANKL) inhibitor (e.g. denosumab) who cannot discontinue it before treatment with atezolizumab
• Known clinically significant liver disease, including active viral, alcoholic, or other hepatitis; cirrhosis; fatty liver; and inherited liver disease
• Patients with past or resolved hepatitis B infection (defined as having a negative hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg] test and a positive anti-HBc [antibody to hepatitis B core antigen] antibody test) are eligible
• Patients positive for hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody are eligible only if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is negative for HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA)
• History or risk of autoimmune disease, including but not limited to systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, vascular thrombosis associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, Wegener's granulomatosis, Sjogren's syndrome, Guillain-Barre syndrome, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune thyroid disease, vasculitis, or glomerulonephritis (02/20/2019)
• Patients with a history of autoimmune hypothyroidism on a stable dose of thyroid replacement hormone are eligible
• Patients with controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus on a stable insulin regimen, or type 2 diabetes mellitus are eligible
• Patients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus or vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions:
• Patients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestations
• Rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA)
• Disease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, fluocinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%)
• No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)
• History of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonitis (including drug induced), organizing pneumonia (i.e., bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, etc.), or evidence of active pneumonitis on screening chest computed tomography (CT) scan; history of radiation pneumonitis in the radiation field (fibrosis) is permitted
• Patients with active tuberculosis (TB) are excluded
• Severe infections within 4 weeks prior to cycle 1, day 1, including but not limited to hospitalization for complications of infection, bacteremia, or severe pneumonia
• Signs or symptoms of infection within 2 weeks prior to cycle 1, day 1
• Received oral or intravenous (IV) antibiotics within 2 weeks prior to cycle 1, day 1; patients receiving prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., for prevention of a urinary tract infection or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) are eligible
• Major surgical procedure within 28 days prior to cycle 1, day 1 or anticipation of need for a major surgical procedure during the course of the study
• Administration of a live, attenuated vaccine within 4 weeks before cycle 1, day 1 or anticipation that such a live, attenuated vaccine will be required during the study and up to 5 months after the last dose of atezolizumab (06/29/2017)
• Influenza vaccination should be given during influenza season only (approximately October to March); patients must not receive live, attenuated influenza vaccine within 4 weeks prior to cycle 1, day 1 or at any time during the study
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial (08-JAN-2021)
• Prior invasive malignancy (except non-melanomatous skin cancer) unless disease free for a minimum of 3 years, with the exception of those with a negligible risk of metastases or death, such as carcinoma in situ of the breast or cervix
• Severe, active co-morbidity defined as follows:
• Current (within 28 days of cycle 1, day 1) signs and/or symptoms of bowel obstruction
• Patients who require parental hydration and/or nutrition
• Patients who require drainage gastrostomy tube
• Evidence of bleeding diathesis or clinically significant coagulopathy
• Serious, non-healing or dehiscing wound, active ulcer or untreated bone fracture
• History of hemoptysis (>= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month of study enrollment
• Significant cardiovascular or cerebrovascular disease including:
• Uncontrolled hypertension (systolic blood pressure [SBP] >= 150 and/or diastolic blood pressure [DBP] >= 90)
• History of myocardial infarction within 6 months
• Unstable angina
• New York Heart Association functional classification II, III or IV
• Baseline ejection fraction =< 50% as assessed by echocardiogram or multi-gated acquisition (MUGA)
• Cerebral vascular accident (CVA) or transient ischemic attack (TIA) within 6 months
• Significant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm, requiring surgical repair or peripheral arterial thrombosis) within 6 months
• History of abdominal/pelvic or tracheoesophageal fistula or gastrointestinal perforation and/or abdominal/pelvic abscess within 6 months prior to initiation of treatment (02/20/2019)
• Pregnant or lactating patients
Drug: Atezolizumab, Biological: Bevacizumab, Drug: Pegylated Liposomal Doxorubicin Hydrochloride, Other: Quality-of-Life Assessment
Ovarian Seromucinous Carcinoma, Recurrent Fallopian Tube Carcinoma, Recurrent Ovarian Carcinoma, Recurrent Primary Peritoneal Carcinoma, Primary Peritoneal High Grade Serous Adenocarcinoma, Recurrent Ovarian Endometrioid Adenocarcinoma, High Grade Fallopian Tube Serous Adenocarcinoma, High Grade Ovarian Serous Adenocarcinoma, Recurrent Ovarian Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma, Recurrent Fallopian Tube Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma, Recurrent Fallopian Tube Endometrioid Adenocarcinoma, Recurrent Fallopian Tube Undifferentiated Carcinoma, Recurrent Ovarian Undifferentiated Carcinoma, Recurrent Platinum-Resistant Fallopian Tube Carcinoma, Recurrent Platinum-Resistant Ovarian Carcinoma, Recurrent Platinum-Resistant Primary Peritoneal Carcinoma, Recurrent Primary Peritoneal Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma, Recurrent Primary Peritoneal Endometrioid Adenocarcinoma, Recurrent Primary Peritoneal Undifferentiated Carcinoma
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
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Veliparib, Radiation Therapy, and Temozolomide in Treating Patients With Newly Diagnosed Malignant Glioma Without H3 K27M or BRAFV600 Mutations

This phase II trial studies how well veliparib, radiation therapy, and temozolomide work in treating patients with newly diagnosed malignant glioma without H3 K27M or BRAFV600 mutations. Poly adenosine diphosphate (ADP) ribose polymerases (PARPs) are proteins that help repair DNA mutations. PARP inhibitors, such as veliparib, can keep PARP from working, so tumor cells can't repair themselves, and they may stop growing. Radiation therapy uses high energy x-rays to kill tumor cells and shrink tumors. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as temozolomide, work in different ways to stop the growth of tumor cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Giving veliparib, radiation therapy, and temozolomide may work better in treating patients with newly diagnosed malignant glioma without H3 K27M or BRAFV600 mutations compared to radiation therapy and temozolomide alone.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Daniel Bowers
10760
All
3 Years to 25 Years old
Phase 2
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03581292
STU-2018-0310
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Stratum 1 (IDH wild-type): Patients must be >= 3 years of age and =< 21 years of age at the time of enrollment
• Stratum 2 (IDH mutant): Patients must be >= 3 years of age and =< 25 years of age at the time of enrollment
• Patients must have eligibility confirmed by rapid central pathology and central molecular screening reviews performed on APEC14B1:
• Newly-diagnosed high-grade glioma such as anaplastic astrocytoma or glioblastoma
• Negative results for H3 K27M by immunohistochemistry (IHC)
• Negative results for BRAFV600 mutation by next-generation sequencing (NGS)
• Patients must have histological verification of diagnosis. Patients with M+ disease (defined as evidence of neuraxis dissemination) are not eligible. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cytology is not required but may be obtained if clinically indicated prior to study enrollment. If cytology is positive, the patient would be considered to have metastatic disease and would, therefore, be ineligible
• Pre-operative and post-operative brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with and without contrast must be obtained. The requirement for a post-operative MRI is waived for patients who undergo biopsy only. A spine MRI is not required, but may be obtained if clinically indicated. If the spine MRI is positive, the patient would be considered to have M+ disease (defined as neuraxis dissemination) and would be ineligible
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2. Use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/uL (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Platelet count >= 100,000/uL (transfusion independent) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 gm/dL (can be transfused) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 OR a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows (within 7 days prior to enrollment):
• 3 to < 6 years: 0.8 (male and female) maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL)
• 6 to < 10 years: 1 (male and female) maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL)
• 10 to < 13 years: 1.2 (male and female) maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL)
• 13 to < 16 years: 1.5 (male), 1.4 (female) maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL)
• >= 16 years: 1.7 (male), 1.4 (female) maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) or serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) < 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients with seizure disorder may be enrolled if seizures are well-controlled (i.e., patients must not have required rescue medications for uncontrolled seizures within 14 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients must be enrolled and protocol therapy must be projected to begin no later than 31 days after definitive diagnostic surgery (Day 0)
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
Exclusion Criteria:

• Patients with the following histologies:
• Diffuse astrocytoma (grade 2)
• Oligodendrogliomas (any grade)
• Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma (PXA, any grade)
• Patients with primary tumor location of brainstem or spinal cord
• Patients with M+ disease (defined as neuraxis dissemination either by imaging or by cytology)
• Patients with treatment-related acute myeloid leukemia (AML) (t-AML)/myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or with features suggestive of AML/MDS
• Prior allogenic bone marrow transplant or double umbilical cord blood transplantation
• Patients must not have received any prior tumor-directed therapy including radiation therapy, chemotherapy (tumor-directed therapy), molecularly targeted agents, or immunotherapy for the treatment of HGG other than surgical intervention and/or corticosteroids
• Lumbar CSF cytology is not required, but may be performed if clinically indicated prior to study enrollment. If lumbar CSF cytology is positive, the patient is considered to have M+ disease and is ineligible
• Note: False positive cytology can occur within 10 days of surgery
• Patients with gliomatosis cerebri type 1 or 2
• Patients who are not able to receive protocol specified radiation therapy
• Patients must not be currently receiving other anti-cancer agents
• Patients with known constitutional mismatch repair deficiency syndrome (CMMR-D)/biallelic mismatch repair deficiency (bMMRD)
• Female patients who are pregnant are ineligible due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies
• Lactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infants
• Female patients of childbearing potential are not eligible unless a negative pregnancy test result has been obtained
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential are not eligible unless they have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation and for 6 months after the last dose of protocol-specified chemotherapy
Radiation: Radiation Therapy, Drug: Temozolomide, Drug: Veliparib
Glioblastoma, Malignant Glioma, Anaplastic Astrocytoma
Parkland Health & Hospital System
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Sleep for Stroke Management and Recovery Trial (Sleep SMART)

The purpose of this study is to determine whether treatment of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) with positive airway pressure starting shortly after acute ischemic stroke or high risk TIA (1) reduces recurrent stroke, acute coronary syndrome, and all-cause mortality 6 months after the event, and (2) improves stroke outcomes at 3 months in patients who experienced an ischemic stroke.
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studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu
Mehari Gebreyohanns
141046
All
18 Years and over
N/A
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03812653
STU-2019-0861
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Inclusion Criteria:
1. TIA with ABCD2 ≥4 or ischemic stroke, within the prior 14 days.
Exclusion Criteria:
1. pre-event inability to perform all of own basic ADLs 2. unable to obtain informed consent from subject or legally authorized representative 3. incarcerated 4. known pregnancy 5. current mechanical ventilation (can enroll later if this resolves) or tracheostomy 6. current use of positive airway pressure, or use within one month prior to stroke 7. anatomical or dermatologic anomaly that makes use of CPAP interface unfeasible 8. severe bullous lung disease 9. history of prior spontaneous pneumothorax or current pneumothorax 10. hypotension requiring current treatment with pressors (can enroll later if this resolves) 11. other specific medical circumstances that conceivably, in the opinion of the site PI, could render the patient at risk of harm from use of CPAP 12. massive epistaxis or previous history of massive epistaxis 13. cranial surgery or head trauma within the past 6 months, with known or possible CSF leak or pneumocephalus 14. recent hemicraniectomy or suboccipital craniectomy (i.e. those whose bone has not yet been replaced), or any other recent bone removal procedure for relief of intracranial pressure 15. current receipt of oxygen supplementation >4 liters per minute 16. current contact, droplet, respiratory/airborne precautions
Device: CPAP
Stroke, Ischemic Stroke, Sleep Apnea, Sleep Apnea, Obstructive, TIA, CPAP, Telemedicine, Home Sleep Apnea Test, Randomized Clinical Trial, Multicenter Trial
UT Southwestern
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Study of Cabozantinib in Combination With Atezolizumab to Subjects With Locally Advanced or Metastatic Solid Tumors

This is a multicenter Phase 1b, open-label study to assess safety, tolerability, preliminary efficacy, and pharmacokinetics (PK) of cabozantinib taken in combination with atezolizumab in subjects with multiple tumor types, including advanced urothelial carcinoma (UC) (including bladder, renal pelvis, ureter, urethra), renal cell carcinoma (RCC), castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC), non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC), triple negative breast cancer (TNBC), ovarian cancer (OC), endometrial cancer (EC), hepatocellular cancer (HCC), gastric cancer and gastroesophageal junction cancer (GC/GEJC), colorectal cancer (CRC), head and neck (H&N) cancer, and differentiated thyroid cancer (DTC). The study consists of two stages: in the Dose Escalation Stage, an appropriate recommended cabozantinib dose for the combination with standard dosing regimen of atezolizumab will be established; in the Expansion Stage, tumor-specific cohorts will be enrolled in order to further evaluate the safety and efficacy of the combination treatment in these tumor indications. Two exploratory single-agent cabozantinib (SAC) cohorts will also be enrolled with UC or NSCLC subjects.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Kevin Courtney
131906
All
18 Years and over
Phase 1/Phase 2
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03170960
STU-2018-0219
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Inclusion Criteria:
1. Cytologically or histologically and radiologically confirmed solid tumor that is inoperable, locally advanced, metastatic, or recurrent:
• Dose-Escalation Stage:
• Subjects with UC (including renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra) after prior platinum-based therapy, or
• Subjects with RCC (clear cell, non-clear cell histology) with or without prior systemic anticancer therapy
• Expansion Stage:
• Inoperable locally advanced or metastatic solid tumor (UC, RCC, CRPC, NSCLC, TNBC, OC, EC, HCC, GC/GEJC, CRC, H&N cancer, and DTC as outlined above) 2. Measurable disease per RECIST 1.1 as determined by the investigator. 3. Tumor tissue material available (archival or recent tumor biopsy) 4. Recovery to baseline or ≤ Grade 1 CTCAE v4 from toxicities related to any prior treatments, unless AE(s) are clinically nonsignificant and/or stable on supportive therapy. 5. Age eighteen years or older on the day of consent. 6. Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status of 0 or 1. 7. Adequate organ and marrow function. 8. Sexually active fertile subjects and their partners must agree to use medically accepted methods of contraception. 9. Female subjects of childbearing potential must not be pregnant at screening.
Exclusion Criteria:
1. Prior treatment with cabozantinib or immune checkpoint inhibitors including anti-CTLA-4, anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1, or anti-PD-L2 therapy except in Expansion Cohorts 5, 7,19 and 20. Other restrictions regarding prior therapy may apply. 2. Known brain metastases or cranial epidural disease unless adequately treated and stable for at least 4 weeks before first dose of study treatment. 3. Concomitant anticoagulation with oral anticoagulants. 4. Subject is receiving systemic steroid therapy or any other form of immunosuppressive therapy within 2 weeks prior to first dose of study treatment. 5. Administration of a live, attenuated vaccine within 30 days before first dose of study treatment. 6. The subject has uncontrolled, significant intercurrent or recent illness, including, but not limited to, an active or history of autoimmune disease or immune deficiency; idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, organizing pneumonia, pneumonitis; active infection requiring systemic treatment, infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), AIDS-related illness, acute or chronic hepatitis B or C infection, positive test for tuberculosis, moderate to severe hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh B or C). 7. Pregnant or lactating females. 8. Previously identified allergy or hypersensitivity to components of the study treatment formulations. 9. Diagnosis of another malignancy within 2 years before first dose of study treatment.
Drug: cabozantinib, Drug: atezolizumab, Drug: cabozantinib, Drug: cabozantinib
Endometrial Cancer, Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer, Gastric Cancer, Hepatocellular Carcinoma, Colorectal Cancer, Head and Neck Cancer, Ovarian Cancer, Renal Cell Carcinoma, Triple Negative Breast Cancer, Urothelial Carcinoma, Gastroesophageal Junction Adenocarcinoma, Castration-Resistant Prostate Cancer, Differentiated Thyroid Cancer, Anus, Breast - Female, Cervix, Colon, Corpus Uteri, Esophagus, Kidney, Larynx, Lip, Oral Cavity and Pharynx, Other Digestive Organ, Other Female Genital, Other Respiratory and Intrathoracic Organs, Other Urinary, Ovary, Pancreas, Prostate, Rectum, Stomach, Thyroid, Urinary Bladder, Small Intestine
Kidney, Bladder, Renal pelvis, Ureter, Urethra, Cancer, Prostate, Castration-resistant, Lung, Breast, Ovarian, Endometrial, Liver, Stomach
UT Southwestern
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Phase II Open Label Trial to Determine Safety & Efficacy of Tisagenlecleucel in Pediatric Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma Patients (BIANCA)

The purpose of the study is to assess the efficacy and safety of tisagenlecleucel in children and adolescents with relapsed/refractory B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma (r/r B-NHL). For pediatric patients who have r/r B-NHL, survival rates are dismal, only ~20-50% subjects are alive at 2 years with overall response rate (ORR) of 20-30% after conventional salvage chemotherapy.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Samuel John
125571
All
up to 25 Years old
Phase 2
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03610724
STU 072018-038
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Histologically confirmed pediatric mature B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma (B-cell NHL) including the following subtypes; Burkitt lymphoma/ Burkitt leukemia (BL), diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL), primary mediastinal B-cell lymphoma (PMBCL), gray zone lymphoma (GZL), and follicular lymphoma (FL) Note: Patients with B-cell NHL associated with Nijmegen breakage syndrome will be allowed.
• Patients <25 years of age and weighing at least 6 kg at the time of screening
• Patients who have relapsed after one or more prior therapies (can include allogeneic and autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplant) or are primary refractory (have not achieved a CR or PR after the first line of therapy)
• Measurable disease by radiological criteria in all patients at the time of screening. Patients with Burkitt leukemia who don't meet radiological criteria must have bone marrow involvement of >25% by local assessment of bone marrow aspirate and/or biopsy.
• Karnofsky (age ≥16 years) or Lansky (age <16 years) performance status ≥60.
• Adequate bone marrow reserve without transfusions (transfusion >2 weeks prior to laboratory assessment is allowed) defined as: 1. Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >1000/mm3 2. Platelets ≥50000//mm3 3. Hemoglobin ≥8.0 g/dl
• Adequate organ function defined as: 1. a serum creatinine (sCR) based on gender/age as follows: Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL) Age Male Female 1 to <2 years 0.6 0.6 2 to <6 years 0.8 0.8 6 to <10 years 1.0 1.0 10 to <13 years 1.2 1.2 13 to <16 years 1.5 1.4 ≥16 years 1.7 1.4 2. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤5 times the upper limit of normal (ULN) for age 3. Total bilirubin <2 mg/dL (for Gilbert's Syndrome patients total bilirubin <4 mg/dL) 4. Adequate pulmonary function i. Oxygen saturation of >91% on room air ii. No or mild dyspnea (≤Grade 1)
• Must have a leukapheresis material of non-mobilized cells accepted for manufacturing.
Exclusion Criteria:

• Prior gene therapy or engineered T cell therapy.
• Prior treatment with any anti-CD19 therapy.
• Allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) <3 months prior to screening and ≤4 months prior to infusion.
• Presence of grade 2 to 4 acute or extensive chronic graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) in patients who received prior allogeneic HSCT.
• Prior diagnosis of malignancy other than study indication, and not disease free for 5 years.
• Clinically significant active infection confirmed by clinical evidence, imaging, or positive laboratory tests (e.g., blood cultures, PCR for DNA/RNA, etc.)
• Presence of active hepatitis B or C as indicated by serology.
• Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) positive test.
• Active neurological autoimmune or inflammatory disorders not related to B cell NHL (eg: Guillain-Barre syndrome, Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis)
• Active central nervous system (CNS) involvement by malignancy.
• Patients with B-cell NHL in the context of post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders (PTLD) associated lymphomas. Other protocol-defined inclusion/exclusion criteria may apply.
Biological: Tisagenlecleucel
Non-hodgkin Lymphoma, Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma
Tisagenlecleucel, relapsed/refractory B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, pediatric patients, Burkitt lymphoma (BL), Burkitt leukemia (BL), diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL), primary mediastinal large B-cell lymphoma (PMBCL), gray zone lymphoma (GZL), follicular lymphoma (FL), leukapheresis, lymphodepleting chemotherapy (LD), NHL
Parkland Health & Hospital System
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Omalizumab as Monotherapy and as Adjunct Therapy to Multi-Allergen OIT in Food Allergic Participants (OUtMATCH)

This study is a multi-center, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study in participants 1 to less than 56 years of age who are allergic to peanut and at least two other foods (including milk, egg, wheat, cashew, hazelnut, or walnut). While each participant may be allergic to more than two other foods, the primary endpoint/outcome in this study will only be assessed in peanut and two other foods for each participant. The primary objective of the study is to compare the ability to consume foods without dose-limiting symptoms during a double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge (DBPCFC), after treatment with either omalizumab or placebo for omalizumab.
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John Bird
108478
All
1 Year to 55 Years old
Phase 3
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03881696
STU-2019-0579
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Inclusion Criteria:
Individuals who meet all of the following criteria are eligible for enrollment as study participants: 1. Participant and/or parent/legal guardian must be able to understand and provide informed consent and/or assent, as applicable; 2. Peanut allergic: participant must meet all of the following criteria to minimize the chance that the participant will develop natural tolerance to peanut over the course of the study: 1. Positive skin prick test (SPT) defined as ≥4 mm wheal greater than saline control) to peanut, 2. Positive peanut immunoglobulin E (IgE), ≥6 kUA/L, at Screening or within three months of Screening, determined by ImmunoCap, and 3. Positive double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge (DBPCFC), defined as experiencing dose-limiting symptoms at a single dose of ≤100 mg of peanut protein. 3. Allergic to at least two of the six other foods (milk, egg, wheat, cashew, hazelnut, walnut): each participant must meet all of the following criteria for at least two of the six other foods to minimize the chance that the participant will develop natural tolerance to at least two of the six other foods over the course of the study: 1. Positive SPT (≥4 mm wheal) to food, 2. Positive food specific IgE (≥6 kUA/L) at Screening or within three months of Screening, determined by ImmunoCap, and 3. Positive DBPCFC, defined as experiencing dose-limiting symptoms at a single dose of ≤300 mg of food protein. 4. With body weight (as measured at Screening) and total serum IgE level (as measured within three months of Screening) suitable for omalizumab dosing; 5. If female of child-bearing potential, must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test; 6. For women of childbearing potential, must agree to,during the treatment period and for 60 days after the last dose of study drug:
• remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse), or
• use acceptable contraceptive methods (barrier methods, or
• oral, injected, or implanted hormonal methods of contraception, or
• other forms of hormonal contraception that have comparable efficacy). 7. Plan to remain in the study area of an OUtMATCH clinical research unit (CRU) during the trial; and 8. Be willing to be trained on the proper use of an epinephrine autoinjector for the duration of the study.
Exclusion Criteria:
Individuals who meet any of the following criteria are not eligible for enrollment as study participants: 1. Inability or unwillingness of a participant and/or parent/legal guardian to give written informed consent and/or assent or comply with the study protocol; 2. Clinically significant laboratory abnormalities at Screening; 3. Dose-limiting symptoms to the placebo portion of the Screening DBPCFC; 4. Sensitivity or suspected/known allergy to any ingredients (including excipients) of the
• active or placebo oral food challenge (OFC) material,
• multi-allergen oral immunotherapy (OIT), or
• drugs related to omalizumab (e.g., monoclonal antibodies, polyclonal gamma globulin).
• Note: Guidance for determination of sensitivity to excipients will be detailed in the study's Manual of Procedures (MOP). 5. Poorly controlled atopic dermatitis (AD) at Screening, per the Principal Investigator's PI's) discretion; 6. Poorly controlled or severe asthma/wheezing at Screening, defined by at least one of the following criteria: 1. Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) criteria regarding asthma control latest guidelines, 2. History of two or more systemic corticosteroid courses within six months of Screening or one course of systemic corticosteroids within three months of Screening to treat asthma/wheezing, 3. Prior intubation/mechanical ventilation for asthma/wheezing, 4. One hospitalization or Emergency Department (ED) visit for asthma/wheezing within six months of Screening, 5. Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) <80 percent of predicted or FEV1/forced vital capacity (FVC) <75 percent, with or without controller medications (only for participants who are aged seven years or older and are able to perform spirometry), or 6. Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) dosing of >500 mcg daily fluticasone (or equivalent ICS based on the National Institutes of Health, National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) dosing chart). 7. History of severe anaphylaxis to participant-specific foods that will be used in this study, defined as neurological compromise or requiring intubation; 8. Treatment with a burst of oral, intramuscular (IM), or intravenous (IV) steroids of more than two days for an indication other than asthma/wheezing within 30 days of Screening; 9. Currently receiving oral, intramuscular, or intravenous corticosteroids, tricyclic antidepressants, or beta-blockers (oral or topical); 10. Past or current history of eosinophilic gastrointestinal (GI) disease within three years of Screening; 11. Past or current history of cancer, or currently being investigated for possible cancer; 12. Previous adverse reaction to omalizumab; 13. Past or current history of any immunotherapy to any of the foods being treated in this study (e.g., OIT, sublingual immunotherapy [SLIT], EPIT) within 6 months of Screening; 14. Treatment with monoclonal antibody therapy, such as omalizumab (Xolair®), dupilumab (Dupixent®), benralizumab (Fasenra™), mepolizumab (Nucala®), reslizumab (Cinqair®), or other immunomodulatory therapy within six months of Screening; 15. Currently on "build-up phase" of inhalant allergen immunotherapy (i.e., has not reached maintenance dosing). Note: Individuals tolerating maintenance allergen immunotherapy can be enrolled; 16. Inability to discontinue antihistamines for the minimum wash-out periods required for SPTs,or OFCs; 17. Current participation in another therapeutic or interventional clinical trial or participation within 90 days of Screening; 18. Use of investigational drugs within 24 weeks of Screening; 19. Pregnant or breastfeeding, or intending to become pregnant during the study or within 60 days after the last dose of omalizumab or placebo for omalizumab; 20. Has a first-degree relative already enrolled in the study; or 21. Past or current medical problems (e.g., severe latex allergy), history of other chronic diseases (other than asthma/wheezing, AD, or rhinitis) requiring therapy (e.g., heart disease, diabetes), findings from physical assessment, or abnormalities in clinical laboratory testing that are not listed above, which, in the opinion of the PI, may:
• pose additional risks from participation in the study,
• may interfere with the participant's ability to comply with study requirements, or
• may impact the quality or interpretation of the data obtained from the study.
Drug: Omalizumab, Drug: Placebo for Omalizumab, Drug: Multi-Allergen Oral Immunotherapy, Drug: Placebo for Multi-Allergen Oral Immunotherapy, Other: Double-Blind Placebo-Controlled Food Challenge Based Treatment
Peanut Allergy, Multi-food Allergy
peanut allergic, multi-food allergic, omalizumab, placebo, multi-allergen oral immunotherapy (OIT), double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge (DBPCFC), oral food challenge (OFC)
Parkland Health & Hospital System
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Testing The Addition of a New Anti-cancer Drug, Venetoclax, to the Usual Treatment (Ibrutinib and Obinutuzumab) in Untreated, Older Patients With Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

This phase III trial compares adding a new anti-cancer drug (venetoclax) to the usual treatment (ibrutinib plus obinutuzumab) in older patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia who have not received previous treatment. The addition of venetoclax to the usual treatment might prevent chronic lymphocytic leukemia from returning. This trial also will investigate whether patients who receive ibrutinib plus obinutuzumab plus venetoclax and have no detectable chronic lymphocytic leukemia after 1 year of treatment, can stop taking ibrutinib. Ibrutinib may stop the growth of cancer cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Immunotherapy with obinutuzumab may induce changes in body's immune system and may interfere with the ability of cancer cells to grow and spread. Venetoclax may stop the growth of cancer cells by blocking Bcl-2, a protein needed for cancer cell survival. Giving ibrutinib and obinutuzumab with venetoclax may work better at treating chronic lymphocytic leukemia compared to ibrutinib and obinutuzumab.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Farrukh Awan
180091
All
70 Years and over
Phase 3
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03737981
STU-2019-0653
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Inclusion Criteria:

• PRE-REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA (STEP 0)
• Patients must have been diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) (> 5000 B-cells per uL of peripheral blood at any point during the course of their disease) or small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL) with < 5000 B-cells per uL of blood but with disease-associated lymphadenopathy
• This blood submission is mandatory prior to registration/randomization to perform fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) centrally that will be used for stratification. It should be obtained as soon after pre-registration as possible
• REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA (STEP 1)
• Patients must be diagnosed with CLL or SLL in accordance with 2018 International Workshop on Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (IWCLL) criteria that includes all of the following:
• >= 5 x10^9 B lymphocytes (5000/uL) in the peripheral blood measured by flow cytometry at any point in the course of the disease or less peripheral blood involvement but disease-associated lymphadenopathy
• On local morphologic review, the leukemic cells must be small mature lymphocytes, and prolymphocytes must not exceed 55% of the blood lymphocytes
• Neoplastic cells on immunophenotype (performed locally) must reveal a clonal B-cell population, which express the B cell surface markers of CD19 and CD20, as well as the T-cell antigen CD5. Patients with bright surface immunoglobulin expression or lack of CD23 expression in >10% of cells must lack t(11;14) translocation by interphase cytogenetics
• Patients must be intermediate or high-risk Rai stage CLL or SLL
• Intermediate risk (formerly stage I/II) is defined by lymphadenopathy and/or hepatomegaly or splenomegaly without anemia or thrombocytopenia
• High risk (formerly stage III/IV) is defined by splenomegaly and/or anemia (hemoglobin < 11g/dL) not attributable to autoimmune hemolytic anemia and/or thrombocytopenia (platelets [plt] < 100 x10^9/L) not attributable to autoimmune thrombocytopenia
• Patients must meet criteria for treatment as defined by 2018 IWCLL guidelines which includes at least one of the following criteria:
• Evidence of marrow failure as manifested by the development or worsening of anemia or thrombocytopenia (not attributable to autoimmune hemolytic anemia or thrombocytopenia)
• Massive (>= 6 cm below the costal margin), progressive or symptomatic splenomegaly
• Massive nodes (>= 10 cm) or progressive or symptomatic lymphadenopathy
• Progressive lymphocytosis with a lymphocyte doubling time < 6 months or an increase of >= 50% over a 2 month period
• Autoimmune anemia and/or thrombocytopenia that is poorly responsive to standard therapy
• Symptomatic or functional extranodal involvement (e.g. skin, kidney, lung, spine)
• Constitutional symptoms, which include any of the following:
• Unintentional weight loss of 10% or more within 6 months
• Significant fatigue
• Fevers > 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit (F) for 2 weeks or more without evidence of infection
• Night sweats >= 1 month without evidence of infection
• Treatment with rituximab and/or high dose corticosteroids for autoimmune complications of CLL/SLL must be complete at least 4 weeks prior to enrollment. Palliative steroids must be at a dose not higher than 20 mg/day of prednisone or equivalent corticosteroid at the time of registration
• Age >= 70 years or >= 65 years with the presence of del(17p) on fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-2
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mm^3 except if due to bone marrow involvement
• Platelet count (untransfused) >= 30,000/mm^3 except if due to bone marrow involvement
• Calculated (Calc.) creatinine clearance >= 40 mL/min (by Cockcroft-Gault)
• Bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) except if due to liver involvement, hemolysis, or Gilbert's disease
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) except if due to liver involvement
• If evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy if indicated
• Please note: Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy (IVIG) can cause a false positive hepatitis B serology. If patients receiving routine IVIG have core antibody or surface antigen positivity without evidence of active viremia (negative hepatitis B deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA]) they may still participate in the study, must have hepatitis serologies and hepatitis B DNA monitored periodically by the treating physician
• If history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection, must be treated with undetectable HCV viral load
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective antiretroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
• Central fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) blood results are mandatory prior to registration/randomization for it will be used for stratification
• Patients must be able to swallow capsules and not have the following conditions: disease significantly affecting gastrointestinal absorption, resection of the stomach or small bowel, partial or complete bowel obstruction
• Patients must be able to receive either a xanthine oxidase inhibitor or rasburicase for prophylaxis/treatment of tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)
• RE-REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA (STEP 2)
• Completion of treatment through cycle 14 day 28, and remain on ibrutinib therapy
• Receipt of central BM MRD results
• Response assessment completed with CR determination
Exclusion Criteria:

• Patients must not have had prior therapy for CLL/SLL (except palliative steroids or treatment of autoimmune complications of CLL with rituximab or steroids)
• Patients must not have any history of Richter's transformation or prolymphocytic leukemia (prolymphocytes in blood > 55%)
• Patients with class III or class IV heart failure by New York Heart Association, those with unstable angina, and those with uncontrolled arrhythmia are not eligible
• Patients who have had a myocardial infarction, intracranial bleed, or stroke within the past 6 months are not eligible
• Patients must not be receiving active systemic anticoagulation with heparin or warfarin. Patients on warfarin must discontinue the drug for at least 10 days prior to registration on the study
• Chronic concomitant treatment with strong inhibitors of CYP3A4/5 is not allowed on this study. Patients on strong CYP3A inhibitors must discontinue the drug for 14 days prior to registration on the study
• Chronic concomitant treatment with strong CYP3A4/5 inducers is not allowed. Patients must discontinue the drug 14 days prior to registration on the study
• Patients must not require more than 20 mg prednisone or equivalent corticosteroid daily
• Patients must not have uncontrolled active systemic infection requiring intravenous antibiotics
• Patients must not have a known allergy to mannitol
• Patients must not have prior significant hypersensitivity to rituximab (not including infusion reactions)
• Patients may not have had major surgery within 10 days prior to registration, or minor surgery within 7 days prior to registration. Examples of minor surgery include dental surgery, insertion of a venous access device, skin biopsy, or aspiration for a joint. The decision about whether a surgery is major or minor can be made at the discretion of the treating physician
Drug: Ibrutinib, Biological: Obinutuzumab, Other: Observation, Drug: Venetoclax
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia, Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma
UT Southwestern
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Early Weight-Bearing After the Lapiplasty Procedure (ALIGN3D)

The objectives of this study are to evaluate the following outcomes of the Lapiplasty® Procedure for patients in need of hallux valgus surgery: - The study will determine the radiographic recurrence of hallux valgus and the timing of failure following hallux valgus correction with the Lapiplasty® Procedure. - The study will determine whether the Lapiplasty® Procedure effectively corrects anatomical alignment of the 1st metatarsal and sesamoids in all three planes. - The study will assess whether early weight-bearing after the Lapiplasty® Procedure affects the union rates or causes loss of 3-plane correction. - The study will evaluate the quality of life and pain scores following the Lapiplasty® Procedure.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu
Dane Wukich
168693
All
14 Years to 58 Years old
N/A
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03740282
STU-2018-0389
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Male and females between the ages 14 and 58 years at the time of consent
• Closed physeal plates at the time of consent
• Intermetatarsal angle is between 10.0 ̊
•22.0 ̊
• Hallux valgus angle is between 16.0 ̊
•40.0 ̊
• Willing and able to adhere to early weight-bearing instructions post-operatively
• Capable of completing self
•administered questionnaires
• Acceptable surgical candidate, including use of general anesthesia
• Female patients must be of non-child bearing potential or have a negative pregnancy test within 7 days prior to index procedure
• Willing and able to schedule index procedure within 3 months of consent and able to return for scheduled follow-up visits
• Willing and able to provide written informed consent
Exclusion Criteria:

• Previous surgery for hallux valgus on operative side
• Previous surgeries on operative foot involving fusion of foot or ankle joints (other than hammertoe or lesser toes/digits)
• Additional arthrodesis outside the first tarsometatarsal joint (other than: arthrodesis between the medial cuneiform and intermediate cuneiform and/or base of 2nd metatarsal; arthrodesis of hammertoe proximal interphalangeal joint or lesser toes/digits)
• Moderate or Severe osteoarthritis of the MTP joint based on radiographic imaging (including lack of evident crista) or positive grind test
• Symptomatic flatfoot or asymptomatic flatfoot (defined as calcaneal inclination <5 ̊and talonavicular subluxation/uncovering >50%)
• BMI >40 kg/m²
• Current nicotine user, including current use of nicotine patch
• Current clinical diagnosis of diabetes with fasting plasma glucose > 126 mg/dL and/or HbA 1c ≥7.0
• Current clinical diagnosis of peripheral neuropathy or by assessment on 4
•point monofilament test
• Current clinical diagnosis of fibromyalgia
• Current clinical diagnosis of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome/Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy (CRPS/RSD)
• Current uncontrolled hypothyroidism
• Previously sensitized to titanium
• Currently taking oral steroids or rheumatoid biologics
• Currently taking immunosuppressant drugs
• Insufficient quantity or quality of bone to permit stabilization, conditions that retard healing (not including pathological fractures) and conditions causing poor blood supply such as peripheral vascular disease
• Active, suspected or latent infection in the affected area
• Use of synthetic or allogenic bone graft substitutes
• Current diagnosis of metatarsus adductus (defined as MAA ≥ 23 ̊)
• Scheduled to undergo a same
•bilateral procedure. Patient agrees to refrain from the Lapiplasty® Procedure (or other hallux valgus procedures) on contralateral foot for minimum of 6 months post index procedure
• Patient has previously been enrolled into this study for a contralateral procedure
• Scheduled for any concomitant procedure that would alter patient's ability to early weight-bear post-procedure
• Patient is actively involved with a workman's compensation case or is currently involved in litigation
• Patient is currently or has participated in a clinical study in the last 30 days prior to signing
• Patient has a condition or finding that, in the opinion of the Investigator, may jeopardize the patient's well-being, the soundness of this clinical study, or could interfere with provision of informed consent, completion of tests, therapy, or follow-up
Device: Lapiplasty
Hallux Valgus, Bunion
arthrodesis, bunion, early weight-bearing, lapidus, hallux valgus
UT Southwestern
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A Study of Daratumumab Plus Lenalidomide Versus Lenalidomide Alone as Maintenance Treatment in Participants With Newly Diagnosed Multiple Myeloma Who Are Minimal Residual Disease Positive After Frontline Autologous Stem Cell Transplant (AURIGA)

The purpose of this study is to evaluate conversion rate to minimal residual disease (MRD) negativity following the addition of daratumumab to lenalidomide relative to lenalidomide alone, when administered as maintenance treatment to anti-cluster of differentiation 38 (CD38) treatment naive participants with newly diagnosed multiple myeloma who are MRD positive as determined by next generation sequencing (NGS) following high-dose therapy (HDT) and autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT), with or without consolidation therapy.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Larry Anderson
102991
All
18 Years to 79 Years old
Phase 3
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03901963
STU-2019-1432
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Have newly diagnosed multiple myeloma with a history of 4 to 8 total cycles of induction with or without consolidation therapy and have received high-dose therapy (HDT) and autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT): (a) for participants who have not received consolidation therapy, the participant must be within 180 days post-transplant at the time of randomization; and (b) for participants treated with consolidation therapy, the participant must be within 90 days of the last dose of consolidation therapy at the time of randomization
• Must have a very good partial response (VGPR) or better response assessed per International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG) 2016 criteria at the time of randomization
• Have archived bone marrow samples collected before induction treatment (that is, at diagnosis) or before transplant (for example, at the end of induction) or have existing results on the index multiple myeloma clone based on Adaptive Biotechnologies' next generation sequencing (NGS)-based minimal residual disease (MRD) assay. Archived bone marrow samples will be used for calibration of myeloma clonal cells to facilitate assessment of primary end point by NGS. If an existing result on index myeloma clone is available from Adaptive Biotechnologies' NGS-based MRD assay, as part of institutional procedures, an archived bone marrow sample is not required as long as Adaptive Biotechnologies is able to retrieve historical results on the index myeloma clone form the clinical database. Any one of the following archived samples are required: (a) Greater than 1 milliliter (mL) viable frozen bone marrow aspirated aliquot (preferred) collected in an ethylenediaminetetra-acetic acid (EDTA) tube, frozen, and stored at a temperature of -80 centigrade (°C), or; (b) Non-decalcified diagnostic bone marrow aspirate clot sections (block or slides) for MRD assessment: (i) A formalin fixed paraffin embedded (FFPE) block of bone marrow aspirate clot, or 5 slides, 5 micrometer each, of non-decalcified bone marrow, or (ii) 5 slides, bone marrow aspirate smear
• Must have residual disease as defined by detectable MRD (Adaptive Biotechnologies' NGS based MRD assay)
• Must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of 0, 1, or 2
Exclusion Criteria:

• A history of malignancy (other than multiple myeloma) unless all treatment of that malignancy was completed at least 2 years before consent and the participant has no evidence of disease before the of date of randomization. Exceptions are squamous and basal cell carcinomas of the skin, carcinoma in situ of the cervix or breast, or other non-invasive lesion that in the opinion of the investigator, with concurrence with the sponsor's medical monitor, is considered cured with minimal risk of recurrence within 3 years
• Have had prior treatment/therapy with: (a) Daratumumab or any other anti-cluster of differentiation 38 (CD38) therapies, (b) Focal radiation therapy within 14 days prior to randomization with the exception of palliative radiotherapy for symptomatic management but not on measurable extramedullary plasmacytoma. Radiotherapy within 14 days prior to randomization on measurable extramedullary plasmacytoma is not permitted even in the setting of palliation for symptomatic management, or (c) Plasmapheresis within 28 days of randomization
• Be exhibiting clinical signs of meningeal or central nervous system involvement due to multiple myeloma
• Have known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with a forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) less than (<) 50 percent (%) of predicted normal
• Have known moderate or severe persistent asthma within the past 2 years or current uncontrolled asthma of any classification
• Have any of the following: (a) Known history of seropositivity for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV); (b) Seropositive for hepatitis B (defined by a positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg]. Participants with resolved infection (that is, participants who are HBsAg negative but positive for antibodies to hepatitis B core antigen [anti-HBc] and/or antibodies to hepatitis B surface antigen [anti-HBs]) must be screened using real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) measurement of hepatitis B virus (HBV) DNA levels. Those who are PCR positive will be excluded. EXCEPTION: Participants with serologic findings suggestive of HBV vaccination (anti-HBs positivity as the only serologic marker) AND a known history of prior HBV vaccination, do not need to be tested for HBV DNA by PCR; (c) Seropositive for hepatitis C (anti-hepatitis C virus [HCV] antibody positive or HCV-RNA quantitation positive), except in the setting of a sustained virologic response, defined as aviremia at least 12 weeks after completion of antiviral therapy)
Drug: Daratumumab, Drug: Lenalidomide
Multiple Myeloma
UT Southwestern
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A Study to Evaluate the Safety and Efficacy of IPX203 in Parkinson's Disease Patients With Motor Fluctuations

To evaluate the safety and efficacy of IPX203 (carbidopa and levodopa) extended-release capsules (IPX203 ER CD-LD) in comparison to immediate release (IR) CD-LD in the treatment of CD-LD-experienced subjects with Parkinson's disease (PD) who have motor fluctuations.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu
Padraig O'Suilleabhain
35895
All
40 Years and over
Phase 3
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03670953
STU-2018-0410
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Male or female subjects diagnosed at age ≥ 40 years with PD, consistent with the United Kingdom Parkinson's Disease Society Brain Bank Diagnostic Criteria and who are being treated with stable regimens of CD-LD but experiencing motor fluctuations.
• Able to provide written informed consent prior to the conduct of any study-specific procedures.
• Female subjects of childbearing potential must have a negative urine pregnancy test at Screening Visit.
• Negative urine screen for drugs of abuse and negative alcohol breath test at Screening.
• Hoehn and Yahr Stages 1, 2, 3, or 4 in the "On" state (part of Movement Disorders Society version of the Unified Parkinson's Disease Rating Scale [MDS-UPDRS] Part III)
• Agrees to use a medically acceptable method of contraception throughout the study and for 6 weeks after completing the study. Medically acceptable methods of contraception that may be used by the subject and/or partner include but are not limited to: abstinence, oral contraception, NuvaRing or transdermal systems, diaphragm with vaginal spermicide, intrauterine device, condom and partner using vaginal spermicide, surgical sterilization (6 months), progestin implant or injection, or postmenopausal female (no menstrual period for ˃ 2 years) or vasectomy (˃ 6 months).
• Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) score ≥ 24 at Screening Visit in "On" state.
• Able to differentiate "On" state from "Off" state as determined by at least 75% concordance with a trained rater in "On/Off" ratings for 8 ratings over a 4-hour training period. The concordance must include at least 1 "On" and 1 "Off" rating and must be achieved within two 4-hour training sessions.
• Able and willing to comply with the protocol, including completion of diaries and availability for all study visits.
• Responsive to CD-LD therapy and currently being treated on a stable regimen with CD-LD for at least 4 weeks prior to Visit 1.
• At Screening, the subject has predictable "Off" periods.
Exclusion Criteria:

• Received any investigational medications within 30 days or 5 times the half-life, whichever is longer, prior to Visit 1.
• Female subjects who are currently breastfeeding or lactating.
• Had prior neurosurgical treatment for PD or if such procedure is planned or anticipated during the study period.
• Allergic to any excipient in the study drugs.
• History of medical conditions or of a prior surgical procedure that would interfere with LD absorption, such as gastrectomy, proximal small-bowel resection, or bariatric surgery.
• History of upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage in patients with peptic ulcer disease within the past 5 years.
• History of glaucoma with intraocular pressures that are elevated despite appropriate medical management.
• History of seizure or epilepsy and experienced at least 1 seizure during the past 12 months or has not been compliant with medically recommended therapy or visits.
• History of myocardial infarction with residual atrial, nodal, or ventricular arrhythmias that are not controlled with medical and/or surgical interventions. A recent (≤ 12 months) history of myocardial infarction with secondary arrhythmias is exclusionary regardless of the therapeutic control.
• History of neuroleptic malignant syndrome or of nontraumatic rhabdomyolysis.
• Liver enzyme values ≥ 2.5 times the upper limit of normal; or history of severe hepatic impairment.
• Serum creatinine level ≥ 1.75 times the upper limit of normal; or requires dialysis at the time of Screening.
• Subject with a history of malignant melanoma or with a suspicious undiagnosed skin lesion which in the opinion of the investigator could be melanoma.
• History of drug or alcohol abuse within the 12 months prior to Screening.
• Received within 4 weeks of Screening or planning to take during participation in the clinical study:
• Any doses of a CR CD-LD apart from a single daily bedtime dose, any doses of Rytary, additional CD (eg, Lodosyn) or benserazide (eg, Serazide), or catechol-O-methyl transferase inhibitors (entacapone or tolcapone) or medications containing these inhibitors (Stalevo),
• Nonselective monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI), apomorphine, or antidopaminergic agents, including antiemetics.
• Employees or family members of the investigator, study site, or sponsor.
• Subjects who have previously participated in an IPX203 study.
• Subjects who, in the opinion of the clinical investigator, should not participate in the study.
• Based on clinical assessment, subject does not adequately comprehend the terminology needed to complete the PD diary.
Drug: IR CD-LD, Drug: IPX203 ER CD-LD, Other: IPX203 placebo, Other: IR CD-LD placebo
Parkinson's Disease (Disorder)
Idiopathic Parkinson's Disease, Lewy Body Parkinson's Disease, Paralysis Agitans, Primary Parkinsonism
UT Southwestern
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Pioglitazone to Reduce Sympathetic Overactivity in CKD Patients

Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is associated with a higher risk of cardiovascular disease and death. An overactive sympathetic nervous system in CKD patients is one of the major mechanisms increasing the cardiovascular risks in this patient population. Recently, some studies have shown that a drug typically used to improve glucose control (pioglitazone) may also reduce sympathetic nerve activity and improve blood vessel function. The goal of this study is to determine whether a short-term treatment with pioglitazone can reduce sympathetic nerve impulses throughout the body in CKD patients.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu
Robert Toto
17371
All
35 Years to 70 Years old
Phase 4
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03471117
STU-2019-0547
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Inclusion Criteria:

• CKD patients classified as Stage 3 and 4 of National Kidney Foundation Classification with estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) between 15 and 59 mL/min/1.73 m2 according to the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) formula based on serum creatinine, age, gender, and race.
• Men and women 35 to 70 years of age
Exclusion Criteria:

• Allergy to Glitazones
• Myocardial infarction
• Heart failure
• Angina
• History of kidney stones
• Liver disease (abnormal liver enzymes)
• Anemia (hemoglobin <8 g/dl)
• Cancer with current treatment
• Previous organ transplantation
• Immunosuppressant therapy
• Human immunodeficiency virus infection
• Pregnancy or lactating
• Current tobacco use
• Dilantin and oral contraceptive usage due to potential drug interaction with glitazones
• Self-identified history of hypoglycemia
Drug: Pioglitazone, Other: Placebo
Chronic Kidney Diseases, Kidney
blood pressure, pioglitazone, hypertension
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
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A Research Study to Look at How Semaglutide Compared to Placebo Affects Diabetic Eye Disease in People With Type 2 Diabetes (FOCUS)

This study will look at the long-term effects of semaglutide (active medicine) on diabetic eye disease when compared to placebo (dummy medicine). The study will be performed in people with type 2 diabetes. Participants will either get semaglutide or placebo in addition to their diabetes medicines - which treatment the participant gets is decided by chance. Participants will inject the study medicine using a pen-injector. The medicine must be injected in a skin fold in the stomach, thigh or upper arm once a week. The study will last for 5 years.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu
Ildiko Lingvay
55880
All
18 Years and over
Phase 3
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03811561
STU-2019-0479
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Male or female, age greater than or equal to 18 years at the time of signing informed consent
• Diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus greater than or equal to 10 years prior to the day of screening
• HbA1c of 7.0-10.0% (53-86 mmol/mol) (both inclusive)
• Eye inclusion criteria (both eyes must meet all criteria):
• Early Treatment Diabetic Retinopathy Study (ETDRS) level of 10-75 (both inclusive) evaluated by fundus photography and confirmed by central reading centre
• No ocular or intraocular treatment for diabetic retinopathy or diabetic macular oedema twelve months prior to the day of screening
• No anticipated need for ocular or intraocular treatment for diabetic retinopathy or diabetic macular oedema within six months after randomisation
• Best-corrected visual acuity greater than or equal to 30 letters using the ETDRS visual acuity protocol
• No previous treatment with pan-retinal laser photocoagulation
• No substantial non-diabetic ocular condition that, in the opinion of the ophthalmologist, would impact diabetic retinopathy or diabetic macular oedema progression during the trial
• No substantial media opacities that would preclude successful imaging
Exclusion Criteria:

• Any of the following: myocardial infarction, stroke, hospitalization for unstable angina pectoris or transient ischaemic attack within the past 60 days prior to the day of screening
• Planned coronary, carotid or peripheral artery revascularisation known on the day of screening
• Subjects presently classified as being in New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class IV
• Renal impairment measured as estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) value of eGFR less than 30 ml/min/1.73 m^2
• Personal or first degree relative(s) history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 or medullary thyroid carcinoma
• Presence or history of malignant neoplasms within the past 5 years prior to the day of screening. Basal and squamous cell skin cancer and any carcinoma in-situ are allowed
• Female who is pregnant, breast-feeding or intends to become pregnant or is of child-bearing potential and not using highly effective contraceptive methods
• Current or previous (within 30 days before screening) treatment with any glucagon like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist or dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor
• Receipt of any investigational medicinal product within 30 days before screening
• Previous participation in this trial. Participation is defined as randomisation
• Known or suspected hypersensitivity to trial products or related products
• Any disorder, which in the investigator's opinion might jeopardise subject's safety or compliance with the protocol
Drug: Semaglutide, Drug: Placebo (semaglutide)
Diabetes Mellitus, Type 2
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
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Study Evaluating Efficacy and Safety of CPI-613 in Combination With HD Cytarabine and Mitoxantrone Compared to HD Cytarabine and Mitoxantrone and Control Sub-groups: MEC and FLAG in Older Patients With R/R AML

A Phase III study to evaluate the safety and efficacy of CPI-613® (devimistat) in combination with High Dose Cytarabine and Mitoxantrone in comparison with high dose Cytarabine and Mitoxantrone and control sub-groups: combination of Mitoxantrone, Etoposide and Cytarabine (MEC) and combination of Fludarabine, Cytarabine, and Filgrastim (FLAG) in older patients with relapsed/refractory Acute Myeloid Leukemia. CPI-613® (devimistat) targets the altered energy metabolism and processes for production of ATP and essential bio-intermediates unique to and characteristic of most cancer cell types. The addition of CPI-613® (devimistat) to high dose cytarabine and mitoxantrone (CHAM) will improve the complete remission (CR) rate in patients 50 years or older with relapsed or refractory AML when compared to HAM alone or other control sub groups.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Prapti Patel
103509
All
50 Years and over
Phase 3
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03504410
STU-2019-0504
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INCLUSION CRITERIA: 1. Patient has provided an informed consent prior to initiation of any study specific activities/procedures 2. Males and females age ≥ 50 years must have histologically documented AML that is relapsed from, or refractory to, prior standard therapies 3. Refractory is defined as failure to achieve CR or CRi following: 1. At least one cycle of any anthracycline, cytarabine or fludarabine containing induction regimen or persistence of disease on a nadir marrow following at least one cycle of any anthracycline, cytarabine or fludarabine containing induction regimen 2. Persistent disease after at least 2 cycles of a hypomethylating agent (azacytidine or decitabine) with or without venetoclax 4. Relapse is defined as development of recurrent AML (as described by Döhner et al, 2017)6 after CR or CRi has been achieved with a prior chemotherapy or after disease progression on a hypomethylating agent with or without venetoclax 5. ECOG PS 0-2 6. Expected survival greater than 3 months 7. Women of child-bearing potential (i.e. women who are pre-menopausal or < 2 years post menopausal or not surgically sterile) must practice a highly effective method of birth control consistent with local regulations regarding the use of birth control methods. Examples: use of oral, injected or implanted hormonal methods of contraception; placement of an intra uterine device (IUD) or intrauterine system (IUS); male partner sterilization (the vasectomized partner should be the sole partner for that subject); true abstinence during and for 6 months after the last administered dose of CHAM or HAM therapy and control sub-groups (MEC and FLAG), and must have a negative serum pregnancy test within 1 week prior to treatment initiation and at 1st day of each cycle and at the end of systemic exposure. (Note: pregnant patients are excluded because the effects of CPI-613® (devimistat) on a fetus are unknown) 8. Fertile men who are sexually active with a woman of childbearing potential and has not had a vasectomy must agree to use a barrier method of birth control eg, either condom with spermicidal foam/gel/film/cream/suppository or partner with occlusive cap (diaphragm or cervical/vault caps) with spermicidal foam/gel/film/cream/suppository during the study period and up to 6 months after completion of the study screening, unless documentation of infertility exists 9. Good state of mental health, ability to understand and willingness to sign the informed consent form (ICF) 10. No radiotherapy, treatment with cytotoxic chemotherapy, treatment with biologic agents or any anti-cancer therapy for R/R AML within the 1 week prior to treatment with CPI-613® (devimistat). Hydroxyurea and/or venetoclax and oral tyrosine kinase (FLT3) or Isocitrate Dehydrogenase 1 and 2 (IDH1/2), BCL-2 or hedgehog inhibitors being used with Grade ≤ 2 toxicity can be taken until the day prior to starting of CHAM or HAM therapy or control sub-groups (MEC and FLAG). Previous exposure to a hypomethylating agent either alone or in combination with Isocitrate Dehydrogenase 1 and 2 (IDH1/2), BCL-2 or hedgehog inhibitors are allowed until the day prior to starting of CHAM or HAM therapy and control sub-groups (MEC and FLAG). Patients must have fully recovered from the acute, non-hematological, non-infectious toxicities of any prior treatment with cytotoxic drugs, radiotherapy or other anti-cancer modalities with the exception of alopecia (returned to baseline status as noted before most recent treatment). Patients with persisting, non-hematologic, non-infectious toxicities from prior treatment Grade ≤ 2 are eligible but must be documented as such 11. Laboratory values ≤ 2 weeks before dosing must be:
• Adequate hepatic function (aspartate aminotransferase/serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase [AST/SGOT] ≤ 5 x upper limit of normal [ULN], alanine aminotransferase/serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase [ALT/SGPT] ≤ 5 × ULN, bilirubin ≤ 1.5 × ULN)
• Adequate renal function (serum creatinine clearance ≥ 60 mL/min per CockCroft Gault formula)
• Adequate coagulation (International Normalized Ratio [INR] must be < 1.7 unless on vitamin k antagonist anticoagulation) 12. Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction (LVEF) by Transthoracic Echocardiogram (TTE) or Multigated Acquisition Scan (MUGA) or cardiac Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), sufficient to safely administer mitoxantrone. Subjects must have an LVEF ≥ 45% 13. No marked baseline prolongation of QT/QTc interval (repeated exhibition of a QTc interval > 480 ms for both male and female patients) 14. No history of additional risk factors for torsade de pointes (e.g. clinically significant heart failure, hypokalemia, immediate family history of Long QT Syndrome) 15. Allow only patients who experienced relapse after 1 year from previous HiDAC treatment or who didn't receive HiDAC previously (Note: This inclusion applies only to South Korea) EXCLUSION CRITERIA: 1. Patients who have received cytotoxic chemotherapy treatment for their current relapsed or refractory AML. (Treatment with hypomethylating agents (decitabine or azacytidine) either alone or in combination with venetoclax are allowed until the day prior to starting of CHAM or HAM therapy and control sub-groups (MEC and FLAG). Targeted therapies including FLT3 or IDH1/2 inhibitors and/or Hydrea and/or venetoclax are allowed. Targeted therapies and Hydrea may be taken until the day prior to starting CHAM or HAM therapy or control sub-groups (MEC and FLAG) 2. Vulnerable adult and patient whose health conditions does not allow them to give their consent 3. History or evidence of any other clinically significant disorder, condition or disease (e.g. symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, symptomatic myocardial infection, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia, pericardial disease or heart failure New York Heart Association Class III or IV), or severe debilitating pulmonary disease, that would potentially increase patients' risk for toxicity and in the opinion of the Investigator, would pose a risk to patient safety or interfere with the study evaluation, procedures or completion 4. Patients with active Central Nervous System (CNS) involvement (leukemic infiltration, blast in the spinal fluid) 5. Any active uncontrolled bleeding, and any patients with a bleeding diathesis (e.g. active peptic ulcer disease) 6. Female patients who are pregnant or breastfeeding or planning to become pregnant or breastfeed during treatment and for an additional 6 months after the last dose of CHAM or HAM therapy or control sub-groups, MEC and FLAG (the teratogenic potential of CPI-613® (devimistat) is unknown). Female patients of childbearing potential with a positive pregnancy test assessed by a serum pregnancy test at Screening 7. Women of childbearing potential (i.e. women who are pre-menopausal or < 2 years postmenopausal or not surgically sterile) unwilling to practice a highly effective method of birth control consistent with local regulations regarding the use of birth control methods during treatment and for 6 months after completion of CHAM or HAM therapy or control sub-groups, MEC and FLAG for AML 8. Male patients with a pregnant partner who are unwilling to practice abstinence or use a condom during treatment and for 6 months after completion of CHAM or HAM therapy or control sub-groups, MEC and FLAG 9. Male patients unwilling to abstain from donating sperm during treatment and for 6 months after completion of CHAM or HAM therapy or control sub-groups, MEC and FLAG with potential highest teratogenic risk 10. Known hypersensitivity to study treatment drugs or any of the excipient(s) contained in the drug formulation 11. Life expectancy less than 3 months 12. Any condition or abnormality which may, in the opinion of the investigator, compromise the safety of patients 13. Unwilling or unable to follow protocol requirements 14. Patients with large and recurrent pleural or peritoneal effusions requiring frequent drainage (e.g. weekly) 15. Patients with any amount of clinically significant pericardial effusion that requires drainage. 16. Evidence of ongoing, uncontrolled bacterial, viral or fungal infection 17. Patients with known human immunodeficiency virus infection 18. History of other malignancy within the past 5 years, with the following exception(s): 1. Malignancy treated with curative intent and with no known active disease present for ≥ 5 years before enrolment and felt to be at low risk for recurrence by the treating physician 2. Adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancer or lentigo maligna without evidence of recurrent or residual disease 3. Adequately treated cervical carcinoma in situ without evidence of disease 4. Prostate cancer Stage 1 19. Patients receiving any other standard or investigational treatment for AML, or any other investigational agent for any indication within the past 1 week prior to initiation of CPI-613® (devimistat) treatment (the use of Hydrea and/or venetoclax, oral tyrosine kinase inhibitors FLT3 or IDH 1/2 inhibitors are allowed until the day prior to starting CHAM or HAM therapy or control sub-groups, MEC and FLAG. Previous exposure to a hypomethylating agent either alone or in combination with venetoclax are allowed until the day prior to starting of CHAM or HAM therapy and control sub-groups (MEC and FLAG)) 20. Patients who have received immunotherapy of any type within the past 1 week prior to initiation of CPI-613® (devimistat) treatment 21. Requirement for immediate palliative treatment of any kind including minor surgery 22. Patients who have received a chemotherapy regimen with autologous stem cell support (bone marrow transplantation) within 6 months of starting CHAM or HAM therapy or control sub-groups (MEC and FLAG) 23. Patients who have had allogenic bone marrow transplantation within the last 6 months. Patients who have had an allogenic transplant more than 6 months ago are eligible provided they have no graft vs host disease. (Note: Exclude only patients with active GVHD requiring therapy with immunosuppressive agents and not patients with stable GVHD not requiring immunosuppression.) 24. Cytarabine contraindications
• Hypersensitivity to the cytarabine or to any of the excipients of cytarabine injection
• Anemia, leucopenia and thrombocytopenia of non-malignant aetiology (e.g bone marrow aplasia); unless the clinician feels that such management offers the most hopeful alternative for the patient
• Degenerative and toxic encephalopathies, especially after the use of methotrexate or treatment with ionizing radiation 25. Mitoxantrone contraindications
• Mitoxantrone Sterile Concentrate is contraindicated in patients who have demonstrated prior hypersensitivity to mitoxantrone hydrochloride, other anthracyclines or any of its components. Use in patients with profound bone marrow suppression is a relative contraindication depending on the clinical circumstances
• Mitoxantrone Sterile Concentrate should not be used during pregnancy or lactation 26. Strong CYP450 inducers should be prohibited 27. Etoposide contraindications •. Contraindicated in patients with a history of a severe hypersensitivity reaction to etoposide products 28. Fludarabine contraindications •. Contraindicated in those patients who are hypersensitive to this drug or its components 29. Filgrastim contraindications •. Contraindicated in patients with known hypersensitivity to E coli-derived proteins, Filgrastim, or any component of the product
Drug: CPI-613 + High Dose Cytarabine and Mitoxantrone, Drug: High Dose Cytarabine and Mitoxantrone, Drug: Mitoxantrone, Etoposide and Cytarabine, Drug: Fludarabine, Cytarabine, Filgrastim
Relapsed/Refractory Acute Myeloid Leukemia, Myeloid and Monocytic Leukemia
UT Southwestern
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Testing the Effectiveness of Two Immunotherapy Drugs (Nivolumab and Ipilimumab) With One Anti-cancer Targeted Drug (Cabozantinib) for Rare Genitourinary Tumors

This phase II trial studies how well cabozantinib works in combination with nivolumab and ipilimumab in treating patients with rare genitourinary (GU) tumors that have spread to other places in the body. Cabozantinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as nivolumab and ipilimumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Giving cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab may work better in treating patients with genitourinary tumors that have no treatment options compared to giving cabozantinib, nivolumab, or ipilimumab alone.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Suzanne Cole
42296
All
18 Years and over
Phase 2
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03866382
STU-2019-1012
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Metastatic disease defined as new or progressive lesions on cross-sectional imaging or bone scan. Patients must have at least:
• One measurable site of disease as per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) version (v) 1.1
• One bone lesion on bone scan (tec99 or sodium fluoride [NaF] positron emission tomography [PET]/computed tomography [CT], CT, or magnetic resonance imaging [MRI]) for the bone-only cohort
• Histologically confirmed diagnosis of one of the following metastatic cohorts:
• Small cell/ neuroendocrine carcinoma of the bladder
•All urothelial carcinomas with any amount of neuroendocrine differentiation (including small cell differentiation) will be included. If the tumor is purely neuroendocrine, metastasis from another site of origin should be clinically excluded.
• Adenocarcinoma of the bladder, or urachal adenocarcinoma, or bladder/urethra clear cell adenocarcinoma
•must be pure (per World Health Organization [WHO] definition), (i.e. urothelial carcinoma with glandular differentiation is not considered a pure adenocarcinoma.
• Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder
•must be pure (i.e. urothelial carcinoma with squamous differentiation is not considered a pure squamous cell carcinoma).
• Plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma
•Tumor should show predominantly > or equal ~50% plasmacytoid histology (including all types of discohesive growth, such as tumors with signet-ring and/or rhabdoid features as well).
• Any penile cancer
• Sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma
•Tumor should be predominantly sarcomatoid ~50% (including rhabdoid differentiation) is also unclassified renal cell carcinomas (RCCs): all (assuming they are high grade with metastasis) malignant angiomyolipomas are allowed.
• Sarcomatoid urothelial carcinoma
•Tumor should show predominantly ~ 50% sarcomatoid differentiation.
• Renal medullary carcinoma
•Per WHO definition, ideally confirmed with immunostains.
• Renal collecting duct carcinoma
•Per WHO definition (medullary involvement, predominant tubular morphology, desmoplastic stromal reaction, high grade cytology, infiltrative growth pattern, and absence of other renal cell carcinoma subtype or urothelial carcinoma).
• Bone only urothelial carcinoma or other non-prostate GU tumor
• Urethra carcinoma
•May be of any histology but if urothelial carcinoma then must be isolated to the urethra and not have metachronous or synchronous urothelial carcinoma of the bladder.
• Other miscellaneous histologic variants of the urothelial carcinoma, such as, but not limited to: micropapillary (Tumor should show predominantly > or equal 50% micropapillary architecture), giant cell, lipid-rich, clear cell and nested variants (Tumor should predominantly > or equal 50% show these features), large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma, lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma and mixed patterns will be considered, as well as small cell neuroendocrine prostate cancer (Only treatment-naïve primary small cell of prostate with any amount of small cell component allowed. Post-treatment small cell prostatic carcinomas are not allowed), Malignant testicular Sertoli or Leydig cell tumors, and papillary and chromophobe RCC.
• Note: Translocation positive renal cell carcinoma patients are eligible. However, AREN1721 should be considered before this trial.
• Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) slides from diagnostic tumor tissue for retrospective central pathology review
• Patients may have received up to 2 systemic anti-cancer treatments or be treatment naive. Patients with small cell carcinoma should have received a platinum-based combination regimen either as neoadjuvant, adjuvant or first-line treatment). Patients in the bone-only cohort may be urothelial carcinoma histology but must receive standard cisplatin-based chemotherapy (if cisplatin-eligible).
• Patients must be able to swallow oral formulation of the tablets
• Karnofsky performance status >= 80%
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mcL
• Platelet count >= 75,000/mcL
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN). For subjects with known Gilbert's disease or similar syndrome with slow conjugation of bilirubin, total bilirubin =< 3.0 mg/dL
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 3.0 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (or =< 5 x ULN for patients with liver metastases or Gilbert's disease)
• Creatinine =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) OR creatinine clearance >= 40 mL/min/1.73 m^2 (calculated using the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology [CKD-EPI] equation or Cockcroft-Gault formula) for patients with creatinine levels above institutional normal
• Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL (transfusion of packed red blood cells [PRBCs] allowed)
• Serum albumin >= 3.2 g/dL
• Lipase and amylase =< 2.0 x ULN and no radiologic (on baseline anatomical imaging) or clinical evidence of pancreatitis
• Prior treatment with MET or VEGFR inhibitors is allowed. However, prior cabozantinib will not be allowed. Also, patients that have received both prior MET or VEGF and prior PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 (sequentially or in combination) are also not allowed
• Prior treatment with any therapy on the PD-1/PD-L1 axis or anti- CTLA-4/CTLA-4 inhibitors is allowed, either in the perioperative or in the metastatic setting. However, patients that have received both prior MET or VEGF and prior PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 (sequentially or in combination) are not allowed
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients are eligible if on stable dose of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART), no clinically significant drug-drug interactions are anticipated with the current HAART regimen, CD4 counts are greater than 350 and viral load is undetectable
• Patients with rheumatoid arthritis and other rheumatologic arthropathies, Sjogren's syndrome and psoriasis controlled with topical medication only and patients with positive serology, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-thyroid antibodies etc. are eligible but should be considered for rheumatologic evaluation for the presence of target organ involvement and potential need for systemic treatment
• Patients with vitiligo, endocrine deficiencies including thyroiditis managed with replacement hormones or medications (e.g. thyroiditis managed with propylthiouracil [PTU] or methimazole) including physiologic oral corticosteroids are eligible
• Patients who have evidence of active or acute diverticulitis, intra-abdominal abscess, and gastrointestinal (GI) obstruction, within 12 months are not eligible
• Women of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test =< 7 days prior to registration
• Women of childbearing potential include women who have experienced menarche and who have not undergone successful surgical sterilization (hysterectomy, bilateral tubal ligation, or bilateral oophorectomy) or are not postmenopausal. Post menopause is defined as amenorrhea >= 12 consecutive months. Note: women who have been amenorrheic for 12 or more months are still considered to be of childbearing potential if the amenorrhea is possibly due to prior chemotherapy, antiestrogens, ovarian suppression or any other reversible reason
• Pregnant women may not participate in this study because with cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab have potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with these agents
• The patient has received no cytotoxic chemotherapy (including investigational cytotoxic chemotherapy) or biologic agents (e.g., cytokines or antibodies) within 2 weeks before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no radiation therapy:
• To the lungs and mediastinum or abdomen within 4 weeks before the first dose of study treatment, or has ongoing complications, or is healing from prior radiation therapy
• To brain metastasis within 3 weeks for whole-brain radiotherapy (WBXRT), and 2 weeks for stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT) before the first dose of study treatment
• To the abdomen within 4 weeks before the first dose of study treatment, or has ongoing complications, or is healing from prior radiation therapy
• To any other site(s) within 2 weeks before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no radionuclide treatment within 6 weeks of the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no prior treatment with a small molecule kinase inhibitor within 14 days or five half-lives of the compound or active metabolites, whichever is longer, before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no prior treatment with hormonal therapy within 14 days or five half-lives of the compound or active metabolites, whichever is longer, before the first dose of study treatment. Subjects receiving gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists and antagonists are allowed to participate
• The patient has not received any other type of investigational agent within 14 days before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient must have recovered to baseline or Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) =< grade 1 from toxicity due to all prior therapies except alopecia, neuropathy and other non-clinically significant adverse events (AEs) defined as lab elevation with no associated symptoms or sequelae
• The patient may not have active brain metastases or epidural disease. Patients with brain metastases previously treated with whole brain radiation or radiosurgery who are asymptomatic and do not require steroid treatment for at least 2 weeks before starting study treatment are eligible. Neurosurgical resection of brain metastases or brain biopsy is permitted if completed at least 3 months before starting study treatment. Baseline brain imaging with contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans for subjects with known brain metastases is required to confirm eligibility
• No concomitant treatment with warfarin. Aspirin (up to 325 mg/day), thrombin or factor Xa inhibitors, low-dose warfarin (=< 1 mg/day), prophylactic and therapeutic low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) are permitted
• No chronic concomitant treatment with strong CYP3A4 inducers (e.g., dexamethasone, phenytoin, carbamazepine, rifampin, rifabutin, rifapentine, phenobarbital, and St. John's wort) or strong CYP3A4 inhibitors
• Because the lists of these agents are constantly changing, it is important to regularly consult medical reference texts such as the Physicians' Desk Reference may also provide this information. As part of the enrollment/informed consent procedures, the patient will be counseled on the risk of interactions with other agents, and what to do if new medications need to be prescribed or if the patient is considering a new over-the-counter medicine or herbal product
• The patient has not experienced any of the following:
• Clinically-significant gastrointestinal bleeding within 6 months before the first dose of study treatment
• Hemoptysis of >= 0.5 teaspoon (2.5 mL) of red blood per day within 1 months before the first dose of study treatment
• Any other signs indicative of pulmonary hemorrhage within 3 months before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has no tumor invading any major blood vessels
• The patient has no evidence of tumor invading the GI tract (esophagus, stomach, small or large bowel, rectum or anus), or any evidence of endotracheal or endobronchial tumor within 28 days before the first dose of cabozantinib. Patients with rectal tumor masses are not eligible.
• The patient has no uncontrolled, significant intercurrent or recent illness including, but not limited to, the following conditions:
• Cardiovascular disorders including:
• Congestive heart failure (CHF): New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III (moderate) or class IV (severe) at the time of screening.
• Concurrent uncontrolled hypertension defined as sustained blood pressure (BP) > 150 mm Hg systolic, or > 90 mm Hg diastolic despite optimal antihypertensive treatment within 7 days of the first dose of study treatment
• The subject has a corrected QT interval calculated by the Fridericia formula (QTcF) > 500 ms within 28 days before randomization. Note: if initial QTcF is found to be > 500 ms, two additional electrocardiograms (EKGs) separated by at least 3 minutes should be performed. If the average of these three consecutive results for QTcF is =< 500 ms, the subject meets eligibility in this regard
• Any history of congenital long QT syndrome
• Any of the following within 6 months before registration of study treatment:
• Unstable angina pectoris
• Clinically-significant cardiac arrhythmias (patients with atrial fibrillation are eligible)
• Stroke (including transient ischemic attack [TIA], or other ischemic event)
• Myocardial infarction
• Cardiomyopathy
• No significant gastrointestinal disorders particularly those associated with a high risk of perforation or fistula formation including:
• Any of the following that have not resolved within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment:
• Active peptic ulcer disease
• Acute diverticulitis, cholecystitis, symptomatic cholangitis or appendicitis, or malabsorption syndrome
• None of the following within 2 years before the first dose of study treatment:
• Abdominal fistula or genitourinary fistula
• Gastrointestinal perforation
• Bowel obstruction or gastric outlet obstruction
• Intra-abdominal abscess. Note: Complete resolution of an intra-abdominal abscess must be confirmed prior to initiating treatment with cabozantinib even if the abscess occurred more than 2 years before the first dose of study treatment
• Disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement are not eligible
• No other clinically significant disorders such as:
• Severe active infection requiring IV systemic treatment within 14 days before the first dose of study treatment
• Serious non-healing wound/ulcer/bone fracture within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment
• History of organ or allogeneic stem cell transplant
• Concurrent uncompensated hypothyroidism or thyroid dysfunction within 7 days before the first dose of study treatment (for asymptomatic patients with an elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], thyroid replacement may be initiated if clinically indicated without delaying the start of study treatment)
• No history of major surgery as follows:
• Major surgery within 3 months of the first dose of ca
Drug: Cabozantinib S-malate, Biological: Ipilimumab, Biological: Nivolumab
Bladder Adenocarcinoma, Papillary Renal Cell Carcinoma, Sarcomatoid Renal Cell Carcinoma, Bladder Mixed Adenocarcinoma, Bladder Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Chromophobe Renal Cell Carcinoma, Infiltrating Bladder Lymphoepithelioma-Like Carcinoma, Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma With Giant Cells, Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Nested Variant, Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Plasmacytoid Variant, Kidney Medullary Carcinoma, Large Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Metastatic Bladder Carcinoma, Metastatic Bladder Large Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Metastatic Bladder Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Metastatic Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Clear Cell Variant, Metastatic Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Lipid-Rich Variant, Metastatic Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Micropapillary Variant, Metastatic Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Plasmacytoid Variant, Metastatic Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Sarcomatoid Variant, Metastatic Kidney Medullary Carcinoma, Metastatic Malignant Genitourinary System Neoplasm, Metastatic Penile Carcinoma, Metastatic Sarcomatoid Renal Cell Carcinoma, Stage IV Bladder Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IV Penile Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IV Prostate Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IV Renal Cell Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IVA Bladder Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IVA Prostate Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IVB Bladder Cancer AJCC v8, Stage IVB Prostate Cancer AJCC v8, Testicular Leydig Cell Tumor, Testicular Sertoli Cell Tumor, Infiltrating Bladder Urothelial Carcinoma, Sarcomatoid Variant, Bladder Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma, Bladder Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Bladder Urachal Adenocarcinoma, Collecting Duct Carcinoma, Metastatic Urethral Carcinoma, Stage IV Urethral Cancer AJCC v8, Urethral Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma, Bladder Small Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Metastatic Bladder Small Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma, Metastatic Prostate Small Cell Neuroendocrine Carcinoma
UT Southwestern
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Regional Radiotherapy in Biomarker Low-Risk Node Positive and T3N0 Breast Cancer (TAILOR RT)

The purpose of this study is to compare the effects on low risk breast cancer receiving usual care that includes regional radiation therapy, with receiving no regional radiation therapy. Researchers want to see if not giving this type of radiation treatment works as well at preventing breast cancer from coming back.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Ann Leitch
14231
Female
35 Years and over
Phase 3
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03488693
STU-2018-0236
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Patients must be women with newly diagnosed histologically proven invasive carcinoma of the breast with no evidence of metastases, staged as per site standard of care.
• Patients must have been treated by BCS or mastectomy with clear margins of excision. Post-mastectomy positive margins for invasive disease and/or DCIS is not allowed. Multifocal disease (i.e. the presence of two or more foci or breast cancer within the same breast quadrant) and multicentric disease (i.e. the presence of two or more foci of breast cancer in different quadrants of the same breast) are allowed.
• Patients with T3N0 disease are eligible.
• Patients with disease limited to nodal micrometastases are not eligible
• Patients with nodal macrometastases (>2mm) treated by axillary dissection must have 1-3 positive axillary nodes (macrometastases, > 2 mm).
• Patients treated by mastectomy and SLNB alone must have only 1 positive axillary node (macrometastases, > 2 mm).
• Patients must be ER ≥ 1% and HER2 negative on local testing
• Patients must have an Oncotype DX recurrence score • Patient must consent to provision of, and investigator(s) must agree to submit to the CCTG Central Tumour Bank, a representative formalin fixed paraffin block of tumour tissue in order that the specific correlative marker assays described in the protocol may be conducted
• Patient must consent to provision of samples of blood in order that the specific correlative marker assays described in the protocol may be conducted.
• Patients must have had endocrine therapy initiated or planned for ≥ 5 years. Premenopausal women will receive ovarian ablation plus aromatase inhibitor therapy or tamoxifen if adjuvant chemotherapy was not administered. For all patients, endocrine therapy can be given concurrently or following RT.
• Patients may or may not have had adjuvant chemotherapy.
• RT must be administered within 16 weeks of definitive surgery if the patient is not treated with chemotherapy. If adjuvant chemotherapy is given, RT must begin within 12 weeks after the last dose. (Note: adjuvant chemotherapy may be ongoing at the time of randomization). Definitive surgery is defined as the last breast cancer-related surgery.
• Patient's ECOG performance status must be 0, 1 or 2.
• Patient's age must be ≥ 35 years.
• For the first 736 eligible English or French-speaking subjects who have agreed to optional questionnaire completion: Patient is able (i.e. sufficiently fluent) and willing to complete the quality of life, health utilities and lost productivity questionnaires in either English or French
• Patient consent must be appropriately obtained in accordance with applicable local and regulatory requirements
• Patients must be accessible for treatment and follow-up. Investigators must assure themselves the patients randomized on this trial will be available for complete documentation of the treatment, adverse events, and follow-up.
• In accordance with CCTG policy, protocol treatment is to begin within 3 weeks of patient randomization.
• Women of childbearing potential must have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method. A woman is considered to be of "childbearing potential" if she has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months.
Exclusion Criteria:

• Patients with nodal disease limited to isolated tumour cells (pN0i+ < 0.2 mm).
• Patients with pT3N1 and pT4 disease (Note: patients with T3N0) are eligible.
• Any prior history, not including the index cancer, of ipsilateral invasive breast cancer or ipsilateral DCIS treated with radiation therapy. (Patients with synchronous or previous ipsilateral LCIS are eligible.)
• Synchronous or previous contralateral invasive breast cancer. (Patients with contralateral DCIS are eligible unless previously treated with radiation.)
• History of non-breast malignancies except adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancers, in situ cancers treated by local excision or other cancers curatively treated with no evidence of disease for ≥ 5 years.
• Patients who are pregnant.
• Patients that have had prior ipsilateral chestwall/thoracic radiation.
• Patients treated with chemo or endocrine therapy administered in the neoadjuvant setting for breast cancer. Endocrine therapy exposure 12 weeks or less prior to surgery is permitted.
• Patients with serious non-malignant disease (e.g. cardiovascular, scleroderma etc.) which would preclude RT.
• Patients with any serious active or co-morbid medical conditions, laboratory abnormality, psychiatric illness, active or uncontrolled infections, or serious illnesses or medical conditions that would prevent the patient from participating or to be managed according to the protocol (according to investigator's decision).
Radiation: Radiation, Other: No Radiation
Breast Cancer
UT Southwestern; Children’s Health
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Pembrolizumab With or Without Anetumab Ravtansine in Treating Patients With Mesothelin-Positive Pleural Mesothelioma

This phase I/II trial studies the side effects and how well pembrolizumab with or without anetumab ravtansine works in treating patients with mesothelin-positive pleural mesothelioma. Anetumab ravtansine is a monoclonal antibody, called anetumab, linked to a chemotherapy drug, called ravtansine. Anetumab is a form of targeted therapy because it attaches to specific molecules (receptors) on the surface of cancer cells, known as mesothelin receptors, and delivers ravtansine to kill them. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as pembrolizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Jonathan Dowell
11902
All
18 Years and over
Phase 1/Phase 2
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03126630
STU-2019-1133
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Inclusion Criteria:

• PRE-REGISTRATION
• Patients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed malignant pleural mesothelioma
• Patient is willing to submit a tissue sample to test for expression of mesothelin
• Note: Tissue sample for mesothelin assay may have been collected prior to, during or after receipt of the frontline chemotherapy; patients will not be required to submit another tissue sample after receipt of the chemotherapy
• Patients must have received platinum based chemotherapy
• REGISTRATION
• For phase 2 only:
• Patient has measurable disease per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1 for non-pleural disease or modified RECIST 1.1 (mRECIST) for pleural disease
• Note: For pleural disease, this is defined as at least one lesion that can be accurately measured perpendicular to the chest wall or mediastinum that is >= 10 mm (>= 1 cm); for extra pleural disease, measurable disease is defined as at least one lesion that can be accurately measured in at least one dimension (longest diameter to be recorded for non-nodal lesions and short axis for nodal lesions) as >= 10 mm (>= 1 cm) for non-nodal lesions and >= 15 mm (>= 1.5 cm) for nodal lesions with spiral computed tomography (CT) scan, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), or calipers by clinical exam as per RECIST 1.1
• Tissue submitted for testing at pre-registration shows moderate or stronger mesothelin expression in >= 30% of the tumor cells
• For phase 1 and 2:
• Patients must have received platinum-based therapy with or without bevacizumab
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status < 2 (Karnofsky >= 70%)
• Leukocytes >= 3,000/mcL
• Absolute neutrophil count >= 1,500/mcL
• Platelets >= 100,000/mcL
• Total bilirubin within normal institutional limits
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase [SGOT])/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) (serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase [SGPT]) =< 2.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Creatinine within normal institutional limits OR creatinine clearance >= 60 mL/min/1.73 m^2 for patients with creatinine levels above institutional normal
• International normalized ratio (INR) or prothrombin time (PT) =< 1.5 x ULN AND partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or activated PTT (aPTT) =< 1.5 x ULN, unless patient is on stable dose of anti-coagulation therapy in which case patients will be allowed to participate if they have no signs of bleeding or clotting and the INR/PT and PTT/aPTT results are compatible with an acceptable risk-benefit ratio as per the investigator's discretion
• Negative serum pregnancy test for females of child bearing potential
• Note: Females are considered to not be of child bearing potential if any of the following apply:
• Postmenopausal (defined as at least 12 months with no menses without an alternative medical cause; in women < 45 years of age, a high follicle stimulating hormone [FSH] level in the postmenopausal range may be used to confirm a postmenopausal state in women not using hormonal contraception or hormonal replacement therapy; in the absence of 12 months of amenorrhea, a single FSH measurement is insufficient);
• Have had a hysterectomy and/or bilateral oophorectomy, bilateral salpingectomy or bilateral tubal ligation/occlusion, at least 6 weeks prior to screening;
• Has a congenital or acquired condition that prevents childbearing
• Patient agrees to use one of the following acceptable methods of contraception prior to study entry, during study participation, and for at least six months after receiving the last dose of study treatment:
• Acceptable methods of contraception are:
• Single method (1 of the following is acceptable):
• Abstinence, if consistently employed as the patient's preferred and usual lifestyle and if considered acceptable by local regulatory agencies and Institutional Review Boards (IRBs)
• Intrauterine device (IUD)
• Vasectomy of a female patient's male partner
• Contraceptive rod implanted into the skin
• Combination method (requires use of 2 of the following):
• Diaphragm with spermicide (cannot be used in conjunction with cervical cap/spermicide)
• Cervical cap with spermicide (nulliparous women only)
• Contraceptive sponge (nulliparous women only)
• Male condom or female condom (cannot be used together)
• Hormonal contraceptive: oral contraceptive pill (estrogen/progestin pill or progestin-only pill), contraceptive skin patch, vaginal contraceptive ring, or subcutaneous contraceptive injection
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document, unless patient is of impaired decision making capacity in which case patient may be eligible if they have a legal authorized representative or caretaker available
Exclusion Criteria:

• Patients who have received any monoclonal antibody therapy within 4 weeks prior to entering the study
• Patients who have not recovered from adverse events due to prior anti-cancer therapy (i.e., have residual toxicities > grade 1)
• Note: Patients with =< grade 2 neuropathy or =< grade 2 alopecia are an exception to this criterion and may qualify for the study
• Note: If patients received major surgery, they must have recovered adequately from the toxicity and/or complications from the intervention prior to starting therapy
• Patients who are receiving any other investigational agents
• Patients with known brain metastases with progressive neurologic dysfunction, requirement of steroids and lack of improvement on head imaging obtained prior to consent to this clinical trial should be excluded because of their poor prognosis and because they would confound the evaluation of neurologic and other adverse events
• Note: Patients with previously treated brain metastases may participate provided they are stable (without evidence of progression by imaging using the identical imaging modality for each assessment, either magnetic resonance imaging [MRI] or computed tomography [CT] scan, for at least 4 weeks prior to the first dose of trial treatment and any neurologic symptoms have returned to baseline), have no evidence of new or enlarging brain metastases, and are not using steroids for at least 7 days prior to trial treatment
• Note: Patients with carcinomatosis meningitis should also be excluded
• History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to anetumab ravtansine or pembrolizumab
• Patients receiving any medications or substances that are strong inhibitors or inducers of CYP3A4, including herbal preparation containing CYP3A4 inducers (e.g., St. John's Wort), grapefruit and grapefruit juice (CYP3A4 inhibitor), within 2 weeks before the start of study treatment
• Patients are prohibited from receiving the following therapies during the screening and treatment phases (including retreatment for post-complete response relapse) of this trial:
• Antineoplastic systemic chemotherapy or biological therapy
• Immunotherapy not specified in this protocol
• Chemotherapy not specified in this protocol
• Investigational agents other than anetumab ravtansine and pembrolizumab
• Radiation therapy (Note: Radiation therapy to a symptomatic solitary lesion or to the brain may be considered on an exceptional case by case basis after consultation with Cancer Therapy Evaluation Program (CTEP); the patient must have clear measurable disease outside the radiated field; administration of palliative radiation therapy will be considered clinical progression for the purposes of determining progression free survival [PFS])
• Live vaccines within 30 days prior to the first dose of trial treatment and while participating in the trial; examples of live vaccines include, but are not limited to, the following: measles, mumps, rubella, chicken pox, yellow fever, rabies, Bacillus Chalmette-Guerin (BCG), and typhoid (oral) vaccine; seasonal influenza vaccines for injection are generally killed virus vaccines and are allowed; however, intranasal influenza vaccines (e.g., Flu-Mist) are live attenuated vaccines, and are not allowed
• Systemic glucocorticoids for any purpose other than to modulate symptoms from an event of suspected immunologic etiology; the use of physiologic doses of corticosteroids may be approved after consultation with the study principal investigator (PI) and CTEP
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• Women who are pregnant or breastfeeding.
• Note: Pregnant women are excluded from this study because anetumab ravtansine and pembrolizumab are agents with the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects; because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with anetumab ravtansine and pembrolizumab, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with anetumab ravtansine or pembrolizumab
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients who do not meet all of the following and/or are on HIV medications considered to be strong inhibitors or inducers of CYP3A4:
• Undetectable HIV viral load by standard clinical assay within 6 months of registration
• Willing to adhere to antiretroviral therapy that has minimal overlapping toxicity or pharmacokinetic interactions with protocol therapy
• No acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)-defining events other within the past 12 months
• Near normal life expectancy if not for the presence of the cancer
• Has a known history of hepatitis B (defined as hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg] reactive) or known active hepatitis C virus (defined as HCV ribonucleic acid [RNA] [qualitative] is detected) infection
• Note: No testing for hepatitis B and hepatitis C is required unless mandated by local health authority
• Patients who are known to have a history of or a finding of corneal epitheliopathy at pre-study are excluded because anetumab ravtansine may worsen this condition and reduce vision
• Known additional malignancy that is progressing or requires active treatment; exceptions include basal cell carcinoma of the skin, squamous cell carcinoma of the skin that has undergone potentially curative therapy, or in situ cervical cancer
• Receipt of transfusion of blood products (including platelets or red blood cells) or administration of colony stimulating factors (including granulocyte colony-stimulating factor [G-CSF], granulocyte macrophage colony-stimulating factor [GM-CSF], or recombinant erythropoietin) within 4 weeks prior to study treatment
• Patient with active interstitial lung disease (ILD)/pneumonitis or a prior history of ILD/pneumonitis requiring treatment with steroids
• Patient has received prior treatment with PD-1, PD-L1 or PD-L2 inhibitor
Biological: Anetumab Ravtansine, Other: Laboratory Biomarker Analysis, Biological: Pembrolizumab, Other: Pharmacological Study
Pleural Malignant Mesothelioma
UT Southwestern
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89Zr-DFO-Atezolizumab ImmunoPET/CT in Patients With Locally Advanced or Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma

This is an exploratory clinical trial to assess the potential of 89Zr-DFO-Atezolizumab Positron Emission Tomography/Computed Tomography (PET/CT) scans in patients with locally advanced or metastatic renal cell carcinoma (RCC). This open label, nontherapeutic trial will test the correlation of 89Zr-DFO-Atezolizumab immunoPET/CT with programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) expression and the response to immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy in patients with RCC. There will be two cohorts, one made up of patients with localized RCC who will undergo 89Zr-DFO-Atezolizumab PET/CT prior to nephrectomy and a second cohort of patients with metastatic RCC who will undergo 89Zr-DFO-Atezolizumab PET/CT prior to treatment with an immune checkpoint inhibitor.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
James Brugarolas
80679
All
18 Years and over
Early Phase 1
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT04006522
STU-2019-0714
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Patients with suspected renal cell carcinoma with planned surgery or patients with metastatic RCC and a tissue diagnosis.
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
• Patient must be able to lie still for a 30 to 60 minute PET/CT scan.
• One of the following: 1. Patients with locally advanced RCC planned for nephrectomy determined to be a high risk of recurrence, defined by presence of at least clinical T2 or thioredoxin 1 (TxN1), OR patients with metastatic RCC for whom treatment with metastasectomy is planned by the treating physician. 2. Patients with metastatic RCC for whom checkpoint inhibitor therapy including an anti-PD1/PD-L1 agent is planned.
• Women of child-bearing potential must agree to undergo and have documented a negative pregnancy test on the day of 89Zr-DFO-Atezolizumab administration.
Exclusion Criteria:

• History of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to atezolizumab or any other chimeric or humanized antibodies.
• Concurrent use of an immune checkpoint inhibitor.
• Uncontrolled severe and irreversible intercurrent illness or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements.
• Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.
• Significant autoimmune disease requiring treatment with either prednisone (or steroid equivalent) at a dose > 10 mg/day or other immunosuppressive agents. (Replacement steroid therapy is acceptable).
• Any patient for whom immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy would be contraindicated for other reasons.
• Subjects unable to provide informed consent.
• Subjects who are claustrophobic or have other contraindications to PET/CT.
• Subjects must not weigh more than the maximum weight limit for the table for the PET/CT scanner where the study is being performed. (>200 kg or 440 lbs).
Drug: 89Zr-DFO-Atezolizumab, Procedure: Positron Emission Tomography/Computed Tomography
Renal Cell Carcinoma, Kidney
renal cell carcinoma, atezolizumab, PET/CT
UT Southwestern
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A Study of Salvage Radiotherapy With or Without Enzalutamide in Recurrent Prostate Cancer Following Surgery (STEEL)

Patients with post-prostatectomy PSA (Prostate Specific Antigen) recurrences with aggressive disease features will receive salvage radiation therapy and standard androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) or enhanced ADT to determine if there is any improvement in progression-free survival when enhanced ADT is used compared to standard ADT.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Neil Desai
161725
Male
18 Years and over
Phase 2
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03809000
STU-2019-1065
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Pathologically (histologically) proven adenocarcinoma confirmed by prostatectomy performed within 10 years prior to registration and any type of radical prostatectomy is permitted, including retropubic, perineal, laparoscopic or robotically assisted.
• PSA level (≥ 0.2 ng/mL) within 90 days prior to registration. GnRH analog may be started no more than 42 days prior study entry, but patients must have a PSA ≥ 0.2 ng/mL prior to starting ADT.
• Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL, independent of transfusion and/or growth factors within 90 days prior to registration.
• Platelet count ≥ 75,000 x 10^9/µL independent of transfusion and/or growth factors within 90 days prior to registration.
• At least 1 of the following aggressive features:
• Gleason score of 8-10 (note any Gleason score is eligible)
• Seminal vesicle invasion (SVI) (note any pT stage [AJCC v8.0] is eligible but a pT stage ≥ pT3b is considered aggressive)
• Locoregional node involvement at radical prostatectomy (pN1)
• Persistently elevated PSA post-RP nadir (PEPP) defined as PSA > 0.1 ng/mL after radical prostatectomy
• Serum albumin ≥ 3.0 g/dL within 90 days prior to registration
• GFR ≥35 mL/min estimated by Cockcroft-Gault or measured directly by 24 hour urine creatinine within 90 days prior to registration.
• Serum total bilirubin ≤1.5 × ULN (Note: In subjects with Gilbert's syndrome, if total bilirubin is >1.5 × ULN, measure direct and indirect bilirubin and if direct bilirubin is ≤1.5 × ULN, subject is eligible) within 90 days prior to registration.
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or alanine aminotransferase (ALT) <2.5 × ULN within 90 days prior to registration.
• Testosterone >50 ng/dL within 90 days prior to registration. Prior androgen deprivation (GnRH analog and/or non-steroidal antiandrogen) therapy is allowed provided that serum testosterone concentration must be ≥ 50 ng/dL prior to registration or starting ADT, whichever occurs first; 5-alpha reductase inhibitors will not impact eligibility, but must be discontinued prior to starting protocol treatment.
• History and physical with ECOG Performance Status 0-1 or within 90 days prior to registration.
Exclusion Criteria:

• Definitive clinical or radiologic evidence of metastatic disease with the exception of locoregional lymph nodes.
• Prior invasive malignancy (except non-melanomatous skin cancer carcinoma in situ of the male breast, penis, oral cavity, or stage Ta of the bladder, or stage I completely resected melanoma) unless disease free for a minimum of 2 years).
• Prior systemic chemotherapy for the study cancer. Note: prior chemotherapy for a different cancer is allowable.
• Prior radiotherapy to the region of the study cancer that would result in overlap of radiation therapy fields.
• History of any of the following:
• Documented inflammatory bowel disease
• Transmural myocardial infarction within the last 4 months prior to registration.
• New York Heart Association Functional Classification III/IV within 4 months prior to registration.
• Unstable angina and/or congestive heart failure requiring hospitalization within the last 4 months prior to registration
• History of loss of consciousness or transient ischemic attack within 12 months prior to randomization
• History of seizure disorder or condition that may predispose to seizure (e.g. prior cortical stroke or significant brain trauma)
• History of uncontrolled hypertension defined as a sustained systolic blood pressure in excess of 150 mmHg or a sustained diastolic blood pressure in excess of 90 mmHg despite optimized antihypertensive therapy.
• History of repeated falls and fractures over the past 12 months that in the opinion of the treating investigator would put the patient at risk for poor bone outcomes from androgen receptor targeted therapy
• Known gastrointestinal disorder affecting absorption of oral medications.
• Active uncontrolled infection defined as an identified infectious condition that requires active therapy that has not yet been completed.
• HIV positive patients with CD4 count < 200 cells/microliter within 30 days prior to registration OR HIV patients under treatment with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) within 30 days prior to registration regardless of CD4 count. Note: HIV testing is not required for eligibility for this protocol as it is self-reported. This exclusion criterion is necessary because the treatments involved in this protocol may be immunosuppressive and/or interact with HAART.
Radiation: Radiation Therapy, Drug: Enzalutamide, Drug: Bicalutamide, Drug: GnRH analog
Prostate Cancer
Post-prostatectomy, Enzalutamide, STEEL
UT Southwestern
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Trial of DFP-10917 vs Non-Intensive or Intensive Reinduction for AML Patients in 2nd/3rd/4th Salvage

Phase III, multicenter, randomized study with two arms (1:1 ratio) enrolling patients with AML relapsed/refractory after 2, 3, or 4 prior induction regimens: Experimental arm: DFP-10917 14-day continuous intravenous (IV) infusion at a dose of 6 mg/m²/day followed by a 14-day resting period per 28-day cycles. Control arm: Non-Intensive Reinduction (LoDAC, Azacitidine, Decitabine, Venetoclax Combination Regimens) or Intensive Reinduction (High and Intermediate Dose Cytarabine Regimens), depending on the patient's prior induction treatment.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Prapti Patel
103509
All
18 Years and over
Phase 3
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03926624
STU-2019-0863
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Inclusion Criteria:
1. Histologically or pathologically confirmed diagnosis of AML based on WHO classification that has relapsed after, or is refractory to, two, three, or four prior induction regimens that may have included intensive chemotherapy (e.g., "7+3" cytarabine and daunorubicin), epigenetic therapy (i.e., azacitidine or decitabine), or targeted therapy (e.g., FLT-3, IDH-1/2, BCL-2, monoclonal antibody). (Relapse is defined as reemergence of ≥5% leukemia blasts in bone marrow or ≥1% blasts in peripheral blood ≥90 days after first CR or CR without complete platelet recovery (CRp). Refractory AML is defined as persistent disease ≥28 days after initiation of intensive induction therapy (up to two induction cycles) or relapse <90 days after first CR or CRp. Refractory disease for patients undergoing hypomethylating agent induction is defined as lack of remission following at least 2 cycles of epigenetic therapy without reduction in bone marrow blast status.) Patients with a history of IPSS-R high or very high risk MDS that transformed to AML during treatment with hypomethylating drugs and then relapse following or are refractory to a subsequent AML induction regimen may be enrolled as Second Salvage AML patients. Additionally, patients with a history of MPN in accelerated phase (MPN-AP) or high-risk primary myelofibrosis (PMF) that transformed to AML during treatment with hypomethylating drugs and then relapse following or are refractory to a subsequent AML induction regimen may be enrolled as Second Salvage AML patients. 2. Aged ≥ 18 years. 3. ECOG Performance Status of 0, 1 or 2. 4. Adequate clinical laboratory values (i.e., plasma creatinine <2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for the institution, bilirubin <2.5 x ULN, alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST) ≤2.5 x ULN). 5. Absence of active central nervous system (CNS) involvement by leukemia. Patients with previously diagnosed CNS leukemia are eligible if the CNS leukemia is under control and intrathecal treatment may continue throughout the study. 6. Absence of uncontrolled intercurrent illnesses, including uncontrolled infections, cardiac conditions, or other organ dysfunctions. 7. Signed informed consent prior to the start of any study specific procedures. 8. Women of child-bearing potential must have a negative serum or urine pregnancy test. 9. Male and female patients must agree to use acceptable contraceptive methods for the duration of the study and for at least one month after the last drug administration.
Exclusion Criteria:
1. The interval from prior treatment to time of study drug administration is < 2 weeks for cytotoxic agents or < 5 half-lives for noncytotoxic agents. Exceptions: Use of hydroxyurea is allowed before the start of study and is to be discontinued prior to the initiation of study treatment. At the investigator's discretion, for patients with significant leukocytosis that develops during the early treatment cycles, hydroxyurea may be administered. The hydroxyurea should be discontinued as soon as clinically appropriate. 2. Any >grade 1 persistent clinically significant toxicities from prior chemotherapy. 3. Inadequate Cardiac (left ventricular ejection fraction ≤40%) function. 4. White blood cell (WBC) count >15,000/μL (Note: Patients considered for possible venetoclax-containing regimen must have WBC ≤10k/μL prior to initiating venetoclax treatment). 5. For patients with prior hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT): 1. Less than 3 months since HSCT 2. Acute Graft versus Host Disease (GvHD) >Grade 1 3. Chronic GvHD >Grade 1 6. Any concomitant condition that in the opinion of the investigator could compromise the objectives of this study and the patient's compliance. 7. A pregnant or lactating woman. 8. Current malignancies of another type. Exceptions: Patients may participate if they have previously treated and currently controlled prostate cancer, or adequately treated in situ cervical cancer or basal cell skin cancer, or other malignancies with no evidence of disease for 2 years or more. 9. Patient has acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL). 10. Patients with known HIV, active HBV or active HCV infection (note: testing for these infections is not required). For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated. Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load. 11. Documented or known clinically significant bleeding disorder.
Drug: DFP-10917, Drug: Cytarabine, Drug: Azacitidine, Drug: Decitabine, Drug: Mitoxantrone, Drug: Etoposide, Drug: Fludarabine, Drug: Idarubicin, Drug: Venetoclax, Drug: Cladribine
Leukemia, Myeloid, Acute
UT Southwestern
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Pharmacodynamic & Safety of Patiromer in Children & Adolescents (2-<18 Yrs) With Chronic Kidney Disease and Hyperkalemia (EMERALD)

The purpose of this study is to evaluate the change in serum (blood) potassium levels from start of treatment to Day 14, when patiromer is administered at different doses, once daily, in children 2 - < 18 years of age with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hyperkalemia (too much potassium in the blood). Another purpose of the study is to evaluate the safety and tolerability of patiromer in children 2 - < 18 years of age with CKD and hyperkalemia.
Call 214-648-5005
studyfinder@utsouthwestern.edu
Mouin Seikaly
16504
All
2 Years to 17 Years old
Phase 2
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03087058
STU 022017-042
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Inclusion Criteria:

• Written assent (when applicable) and written informed consent by a legally authorized representative provided prior to participation in the study
• Age 2
•<18 years old
• CKD defined by eGFR <60 mL/min/1.73m2 including renal transplant, peritoneal dialysis
• Two potassium measurements of 5.1 to < 6.5 mEq/L performed on separate days
• In the opinion of the study doctor, is expected to require treatment for hyperkalemia for at least 6 months
• If taking any renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system inhibitors (RAASi) beta blockers or diuretic medications, must be on a stable dose for at least 28 days prior to Screening
• Negative pregnancy test in females of child-bearing potential
Exclusion Criteria:

• False elevation in blood potassium (pseudohyperkalemia) due to hemolysis (breaking of blood cells) or abnormally high counts of blood cells at Screening
• Evidence of potassium-related electrocardiogram (ECG) changes at Screening
• Any of the following kidney conditions: hemodialysis, renal artery stenosis, and acute kidney injury or a history of acute renal insufficiency in the past 3 months
• Severe disorder of stomach or intestines including surgery
• Increased liver enzymes (ALT, AST > 3 times upper limit of normal) at Screening
• Active cancer, currently on cancer treatment or history of cancer in the past 2 years (except for non-melanoma skin cancer)
• Have had a heart or liver transplant, or anticipated need for transplant during the study treatment period including a scheduled kidney transplant. (Note: patients currently on a kidney transplant wait list are not excluded unless there is an identified donor).
• Alcohol abuse or substance use disorder within 1 year of Screening
• Subjects currently being treated with or having taken any one of the following medications (includes resins) in the 7 days prior to Screening: sodium or calcium polystyrene sulfonate, drospirenone
• Use of certain medications that can affect blood potassium levels if doses have not been stable for at least 14 days prior to Screening or if doses are anticipated to change during the 14-day PD / Dose Finding Phase
• Use of investigational product within 30 days of screening or within 5 half-lives, whichever is longer
• Known hypersensitivity to patiromer or its components
• In the opinion of the Investigator, any medical condition, uncontrolled systemic disease, or serious intercurrent illness that would significantly decrease study compliance or jeopardize the safety of the subject or potentially affect the quality of the data
Drug: Patiromer, Drug: Patiromer, Drug: Patiromer
Hyperkalemia, Kidney
Treatment of Hyperkalemia, Hyperkalemia, Potassium, Chronic Kidney Disease
Parkland Health & Hospital System
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MDM2 Inhibitor AMG-232 (KRT-232) and Radiation Therapy in Treating Patients With Soft Tissue Sarcoma

This phase Ib trial studies the side effects of MDM2 inhibitor AMG-232 (KRT-232) and radiation therapy in treating patients with soft tissue sarcoma. MDM2 inhibitor AMG-232 (KRT-232) may stop the growth of cancer cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Giving MDM2 inhibitor AMG-232 (KRT-232) and radiation therapy before surgery may make the tumor smaller and reduce the amount of normal tissue that needs to be removed.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Michael Folkert
155916
All
18 Years and over
Phase 1
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT03217266
STU 042018-033
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Inclusion Criteria:

• PRIOR TO STEP 1 REGISTRATION INCLUSION CRITERIA
• Patients with pathologically proven diagnosis of grade 2-3 (intermediate or high grade) soft tissue sarcoma with size >= 5 cm are eligible to enroll if the intention to treat is curative. They must have sufficient tissue to submit to central laboratory for review as well as for NGS sequencing (see submission requirement). Biopsy should be obtained within 180 days prior to registration. Availability of tumor tissue is mandatory for study eligibility. The patient must have consented to provide archived formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded tumor tissue for future central pathology review, NGS sequencing and/or translational research
• Appropriate stage for study entry based on the following diagnostic workup:
• History/physical examination within 30 days prior to registration;
• Imaging of the primary tumor by MRI and/or computed tomography (CT) with or without contrast and/or positron emission tomography (PET)/CT within 30 days prior to registration;
• Staging workup evaluated by chest CT and/or PET/CT showing no distant metastasis within 30 days prior to registration
• There is a planned definitive surgical resection of the primary tumor
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) or Zubrod performance status of 0-1 within 30 days prior to registration
• Absolute neutrophil count >= 1500/uL (within 30 days prior to registration)
• Platelet count >= 100,000/uL (within 30 days prior to registration)
• Hemoglobin: >= 10 g/dL (transfuse as necessary to raise levels; no transfusions within 7 days of start) (within 30 days prior to registration)
• Calculated creatinine clearance >= 60 ml/min (by Cockroft-Gault formula) within 30 days prior to registration
• The patient has an adequate coagulation function as defined by international normalized ratio (INR) =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) or prothrombin time (PT) =< 1.5 x ULN, and partial thromboplastin time (PTT or aPTT) =< 1.5 x ULN (those receiving anticoagulation therapy except low molecular weight heparin are excluded) (within 30 days prior to registration)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) appropriate for age (except for patients with Gilbert's syndrome, who must have a total bilirubin < 3 mg/dL) (within 30 days prior to registration)
• Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) aspartate aminotransferase (AST) or serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) alanine aminotransaminase (ALT) < 2.5 upper limit of normal (ULN) appropriate for age (within 30 days prior to registration)
• Females of child-bearing potential must have a negative serum pregnancy test within 7 days prior to registration; exceptions: females not of child-bearing potential due to surgical sterilization (at least 6 weeks following tubal ligation, hysterectomy, or surgical bilateral oophorectomy with or without hysterectomy) confirmed by medical history; or female after menopause
• A "postmenopausal woman" is a woman meeting either of the following criteria:
• Spontaneous amenorrhea for at least 12 months, not induced by a medical condition such as anorexia nervosa and not taking medications during the amenorrhea that induced the amenorrhea (for example, oral contraceptives, hormones, gonadotropin releasing hormone, antiestrogens, selective estrogen receptor modulators [SERMs], or chemotherapy)
• Spontaneous amenorrhea for 6 to 12 months and a follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level > 40 mIU/mL
• Females of child-bearing potential and males must agree to use highly effective contraceptive precautions during the trial and up to 12 months following the last dose of study treatment; a highly effective method of birth control is defined as one that results in a low failure rate (that is, < 1% per year) when used consistently and correctly, such as implants, injectables, combined oral contraceptives, some intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUDs), sexual abstinence, or a vasectomized partner
• The patient or a legally authorized representative must provide study-specific informed consent prior to study entry
• PRIOR TO STEP 2 REGISTRATION INCLUSION CRITERIA
• TP53 sequencing by NGS performed by central pathology lab
Exclusion Criteria:

• PRIOR TO STEP 1 REGISTRATION EXCLUSION CRITERIA
• Well-differentiated liposarcoma or other low grade STS; Kaposi sarcoma, bone sarcomas, cartilage sarcomas and gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
• Definitive clinical or radiologic evidence of metastatic disease; indeterminant lung nodules less than 8 mm are acceptable
• The patient has history of another primary malignancy, with the exception of
• Curatively treated non-melanomatous skin cancer;
• Curatively treated cervical carcinoma in situ;
• Non-metastatic prostate cancer
• Other primary non-hematologic malignancies or solid tumor treated with curative intent, no known active disease, and no treatment administered during the last 3 years prior to registration
• The patient has a serious cardiac condition, such as congestive heart failure; New York Heart Association class II/ III/IV heart disease; unstable angina pectoris, cardiac stenting within 6 months of enrollment; myocardial infarction within the last 3 months; valvulopathy that is severe, moderate, or deemed clinically significant; or arrhythmias that are symptomatic or require treatment
• Females who are pregnant or breastfeeding
• Prior systemic chemotherapy for the study cancer (sarcoma); note that prior chemotherapy for a different cancer is allowable; however, unresolved toxicities from prior anti-tumor therapy, defined as not having resolved to Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version 5.0 grade 0 or 1, or to levels dictated in the eligibility criteria with the exception of alopecia (grade 2 or 3 toxicities from prior anti-tumor therapy that are considered irreversible [defined as having been present and stable for > 6 months], such as ifosfamide-related proteinuria, may be allowed if they are not otherwise described in the exclusion criteria AND there is agreement to allow by both the investigator and sponsor)
• Prior radiotherapy to the region of the study cancer that would result in overlap of radiation therapy fields
• Clinically significant bleeding within 4 weeks of screening, current use of warfarin, factor Xa inhibitors, and direct thrombin inhibitors unless these medications can be safely discontinued 14 days prior to AMG-232 (KRT-232) administration; Note: low molecular weight heparin and prophylactic low dose warfarin are permitted; PT/PTT must meet the inclusion criteria; subjects taking warfarin must have their INR followed closely
• History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to AMG 232 (KRT-232)
• All subjects must agree to stop the use of all herbal medicines (e.g., St. John's wort), and supplements, within the 10 days prior to receiving the first dose of AMG 232 (KRT-232), and during the protocol AMG 232 (KRT-232) treatment (weeks 1-5); subjects may renew the use of the above at week 6; standard adult multi-vitamin is allowed
• All subjects must agree to stop the use of any known CYP3A4 substrates with narrow therapeutic window (such as alfentanil, astemizole, cisapride, dihydroergotamine, pimozide, quinidine, sirolimus, or terfanide; within the 14 days prior to receiving the first dose of AMG 232 (KRT-232) and during protocol AMG 232 (KRT-232) treatment (weeks 1-5); other medications (such as fentanyl and oxycodone) may be allowed per investigator's assessment/evaluation
• All subjects must agree to stop the use of any known CYP2C8 substrates with a narrow therapeutic window within the 14 days prior to receiving the first dose of AMG 232 (KRT-232) and during protocol AMG 232 (KRT-232) treatment (weeks 1-5)
• All subjects are required to submit a list of medications consumed within 14 days prior to receiving the first dose of AMG232 (KRT-232) and during the protocol AMG232 (KRT-232) treatment (weeks 1-5)
• Patients with gastrointestinal (GI) tract disease causing the inability to take oral medication, malabsorption syndrome, requirement for intravenous alimentation, prior surgical procedures affecting absorption, uncontrolled inflammatory GI disease (e.g., Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis), therefore could affect the absorption of AMG 232 (KRT-232) at the discretion of treating physician
• Patients with active infection requiring intravenous (IV) antibiotics within 2 weeks of registration
• Patients with known positive hepatitis B surface antigen (HepBsAg) (indicative of chronic hepatitis B), positive hepatitis total core antibody with negative HBsAG (suggestive of occult hepatitis B), or detectable hepatitis C virus RNA by a polymerase-chain reaction (PCR) assay (indicative of active hepatitis C
•screening is generally done by hepatitis C antibody (HepCAb), followed by hepatitis C virus RNA by PCR if HepCAb is positive)
• Patients known to be positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are NOT excluded from this study, but HIV-positive patients must have:
• A stable regimen of highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART)
• No requirement for concurrent antibiotics or antifungal agents for the prevention of opportunistic infections
• A CD4 count above 250 cells/mcL and an undetectable HIV viral load on standard PCR-based test
• HIV testing is not required
• Treatment with medications known to cause corrected QT (QTc) interval prolongation within 7 days of study day 1 is not permitted unless approved by the sponsor; use of ondansetron is permitted for treatment of nausea and vomiting
Drug: MDM2 Inhibitor KRT-232, Radiation: Radiation Therapy
Sarcoma, Soft Tissue Sarcoma
UT Southwestern
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A Study of CC-99712, a BCMA Antibody-Drug Conjugate, in Subjects With Relapsed and Refractory Multiple Myeloma

Study CC-99712-MM-001 is an open-label, Phase 1, dose escalation (Part A) and expansion (Part B), First-in-Human (FIH) clinical study of CC-99712 in subjects with relapsed and refractory multiple myeloma (MM). The dose escalation part (Part A) of the study will evaluate the safety and tolerability of escalating doses of CC-99712, administered intravenously (IV), to determine the maximum tolerated dose (MTD) and non-tolerated dose (NTD) of CC-99712 using a modified accelerated titration design and Bayesian methodology. The MTD and NTD may be established separately for CC-99712 administered at Q3W and/ or Q4W schedules. The expansion part (Part B) will further evaluate the safety and efficacy of CC-99712 administered at or below the MTD in selected expansion cohorts in order to determine the RP2D. One or more dosing regimens may be selected for cohort expansion. All subjects will be treated until confirmed disease progression per IMWG criteria, unacceptable toxicity, or subject/Investigator decision to withdraw.
Call 833-722-6237
canceranswerline@utsouthwestern.edu
Ankit Kansagra
177999
All
18 Years and over
Phase 1
This study is NOT accepting healthy volunteers
NCT04036461
STU-2019-1325
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Inclusion Criteria:
Subjects must satisfy the following criteria to be enrolled in the study: 1. Subject (male or female) is ≥ 18 years of age at the time of signing the ICF. 2. Subject has a history of MM with relapsed and refractory disease, and must:
• Have disease that is nonresponsive while on their last antimyeloma therapy or documented disease progression on or within 60 days from the last dose of their last antimyeloma therapy; and,
• Must have received at least 3 prior MM treatment regimens. and,
• Must have received a proteasome inhibitor, an immunomodulatory agent and an anti-CD38 antibody (eg, daratumumab); and,
• Should have failed treatment with or are intolerant to all established therapies. 3. Subjects must have measurable disease, including at least one of the criteria below:
• M-protein quantities ≥ 0.5 g/dL by sPEP or
• ≥ 200 mg/24 hours urine collection by uPEP or
• Serum FLC levels > 100 mg/L (milligrams/liter involved light chain) and an abnormal kappa/lambda (κ/λ) ratio in patients without detectable serum or urine M-protein or
• For subjects with immunoglobulin class A (IgA) myeloma whose disease can only be reliably measured by quantitative immunoglobulin measurement, a serum IgA level ≥ 0.50 g/dL. 4. Subject has an ECOG PS of 0-1. 5. Subjects must have the following laboratory values (determined by local laboratory):
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥ 1.0 x 10^9/L
• Platelets (plt) ≥ 75 x 10^9/L.
• Potassium within normal limits or correctable with supplements.
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST/SGOT) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT/SGPT) ≤ 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN).
• Serum bilirubin ≤ 1.5 x ULN (or ≤ 2.0 x ULN for subjects with documented Gilbert's syndrome).
• Estimated serum creatinine clearance of ≥ 60 mL/min
• International normalized ratio (INR) < 1.5 x ULN and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) < 1.5 x ULN. 6. Females of childbearing potential (FCBP) must:
• Either commit to true abstinence from heterosexual contact (which must be reviewed on a monthly basis and source documented) or agree to use, and be able to comply with, at least two effective contraceptive methods (oral, injectable, or implantable hormonal contraceptive; tubal ligation; intra-uterine device; barrier contraceptive with spermicide; or vasectomized partner), one of which must be barrier, from signing the ICF, throughout the study, during dose interruptions, and for up to 42 days following the last dose of CC-99712; and
• Have two negative pregnancy tests as verified by the Investigator prior to starting CC-99712. Subject must agree to ongoing pregnancy testing during the course of the study, and after end of study treatment. This applies even if the subject practices true abstinence from heterosexual contact. The subject may not receive IP until the Investigator has verified that the result of the pregnancy test is negative.
• a negative serum pregnancy test (sensitivity of at least 25 mIU/mL) at Screening
• a negative serum or urine pregnancy test (Investigator's discretion) within 72 hours prior to Cycle 1 Day -1 of study treatment, and within 72 hours prior to Day -1 of every subsequent cycle (note that the Screening serum pregnancy test can be used as the test prior to Day -1 study treatment if it is performed within the prior 72 hours). A serum or urine pregnancy test (investigators discretion) must also be performed at the end of study for each FCBP.
• Avoid conceiving for 42 days after the last dose of CC-99712.7. Males must practice true abstinence (which must be reviewed on a monthly basis) or agree to use a condom (a latex condom is recommended) during sexual contact with a pregnant female or a FCBP and will avoid conceiving from signing the ICF, while participating in the study, during dose interruptions, and for at least 42 days following CC-99712 discontinuation, even if he has undergone a successful vasectomy. 8. Subject is willing and able to adhere to the study visit schedule and other protocol requirements.
Exclusion Criteria:
The presence of any of the following will exclude a subject from enrollment: 1. In Part A only, subject has received prior investigational therapy directed at BCMA. 2. Subject has symptomatic central nervous system involvement of MM. 3. Subject has nonsecretory MM, plasma cell leukemia, Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia, POEMS syndrome (polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal protein, and skin changes), or amyloidosis. 4. Subjects with a history of class III or IV congestive heart failure (CHF) or severe non-ischemic cardiomyopathy, unstable angina, myocardial infarction, or ventricular arrhythmia within the previous 6 months prior to signing ICF. 5. Subject had a prior autologous stem cell transplant ≤ 3 months prior to starting CC-99712. 6. Subject had a prior allogeneic stem cell transplant with either standard or reduced intensity conditioning ≤ 6 months prior to starting CC-99712 or is on systemic immunosuppression for graft-versus host disease. 7. Subject had a prior chimeric antigen receptor T (CAR T) cell product ≤ 4 weeks prior to starting CC-99712. 8. Subject had a prior systemic cancer-directed treatments or investigational modalities within 5 pharmacokinetic half-lives or 2 weeks prior to starting CC-99712, whichever is longer. The only exception is emergency use of a short course of corticosteroids (equivalent of dexamethasone 40 mg/day for a maximum 4 days) before treatment. 9. Subject had major surgery ≤ 2 weeks prior to starting CC-99712. Subjects must have recovered from any clinically significant effects of recent surgery. 10. Subject is a pregnant or lactating female. 11. Subject has known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. 12. Subject has known history of chronic, active hepatitis B or C virus (HBV/HCV) infection. 13. Subject requires ongoing treatment with chronic, therapeutic dosing of anti-coagulants (eg, warfarin, low molecular weight heparin, Factor Xa inhibitors). 14. Subject has a history of concurrent second cancers requiring active, ongoing systemic treatment. 15. Subject has known history of cirrhosis or has clinically significant liver or biliary disease. Subjects with stable chronic liver or biliary disease (such as Gilbert's syndrome, asymptomatic gallstones, or hepatobiliary involvement of malignancy) may participate in the study, however, sponsor medical monitor must be contacted for a discussion before enrollment. 16. Subject has a history of clinically significant corneal disease requiring therapy or ongoing active corneal disease. 17. Subject has active peripheral neuropathy or neuropathic pain Grade 2 or higher, as defined by the National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (NCI-CTCAE v5.0).
Drug: CC-99712
Multiple Myeloma
Multiple Myeloma, Relapsed and refractory, CC-99712, BCMA, Antibody drug conjugate
UT Southwestern
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