• Have a histologically confirmed diagnosis of urothelial carcinoma (UC) / muscle invasive bladder cancer (MIBC) (T2-T4aN0M0 or T1-T4aN1M0) with predominant (≥50%) urothelial histology
• Have clinically non-metastatic bladder cancer (N≤1 M0) determined by imaging (computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the chest/abdomen/pelvis
• Be deemed eligible for Radical Cystectomy (RC) + Pelvic Lymph Node Dissection (PLND)
• Have Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1
• Have adequate organ function
• Has a known additional malignancy that is progressing or has required active anti-cancer treatment ≤3 years of study randomization with certain exceptions
• Has received any prior systemic treatment for MIBC or non-invasive muscle bladder cancer (NMIBC
•prior treatment for NMIBC with intravesical BCG/chemotherapy is permitted) or prior therapy with an anti- programmed cell death 1 (PD-1), anti-programmed cell death ligand 1/ ligand 2 (PD-L1/L2), or anti-cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated protein 4 (CTLA-4)
• Has ≥N2 disease or metastatic disease (M1) as identified by imaging
• Is cisplatin-ineligible, as defined by meeting any one of the cisplatin ineligibility criteria as per protocol
• Has received prior systemic anticancer therapy including investigational agents within 3 years of randomization or any radiotherapy to the bladder
• Has undergone partial cystectomy of the bladder to remove any NMIBC or MIBC
• Has received a live or live attenuated vaccine within 30 days before the first dose of study intervention
• Has a diagnosis of immunodeficiency or has a known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Hepatitis B infection or known active Hepatitis C infection
• Has a known psychiatric or substance abuse disorder
• Has had an allogenic tissue/solid organ transplant
• Has ongoing sensory or motor neuropathy Grade 2 or higher
• Has active keratitis (superficial punctate keratitis) or corneal ulcerations
• Has a history of uncontrolled diabetes defined as hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) ≥8% or HbA1c 7% to <8% with associated diabetes symptoms

1. Women age 21 or older 2. Prior total hysterectomy (no cervix present) 3. Prolapse beyond the hymen (defined as Ba, C, or Bp > 0 cm) 4. Vaginal cuff descent into at least the lower two thirds of the vagina (defined as point C> -2/3 TVL) 5. Bothersome bulge symptoms as indicated on question 3 of the PFDI-20 form relating to 'sensation of bulging' or 'something falling out' 6. Desires surgical treatment for post-hysterectomy vaginal prolapse 7. Available for up to 60 month follow-up 1. Previous synthetic material or biologic grafts (placed vaginally or abdominally) to augment POP repair including anterior, posterior and/or apical compartments 2. Known previous formal SSLS performed for either uterovaginal or post-hysterectomy vaginal vault prolapse * 3. Known adverse reaction to synthetic mesh or biological grafts; these complications include but are not limited to erosion, fistula, or abscess 4. Unresolved chronic pelvic pain-active 5. Prior abdominal or pelvic radiation 6. Contraindication to any of the index surgical procedures
• Known Horseshoe Kidney or Pelvic Mass overlying the sacrum
• Active diverticular abscess or active diverticulitis
• Shortened vaginal length (<6 cm TVL)
• NOTE:
• Only documented SSLS will be an exclusion.
• Mesh used for only mid-urethral sling will NOT be an exclusion
• If prior POP repair is unknown and unable to be documented, subjects will be eligible based on clinician judgment. The investigator will examine and assess for evidence of mesh or graft if no evidence of mesh or graft is present on examination subject remains eligible.

Eligibility criteria: Infants are eligible if they meet all of the following criteria:
• ≥ 36 0/7 weeks PMA by best obstetric estimate AND birth weight of ≥ 2000g
• postnatal age ≤7 days (168 hours of age)
• invasive mechanical ventilation (defined as ventilation with an endotracheal tube) and
• one arterial blood gas with an OI ≥ 10 (after tracheal tube obstruction and other easily resolvable mechanical causes for increased OI are ruled out) on the most recent arterial blood gas within 12 hours prior to the time of randomization.
• if an arterial blood gas is not available at the time of randomization, a preductal OSI of ≥ 5 can be used as an inclusion criterion instead of OI ≥ 10; (the OSI should be based on the most recent preductal pulse oximetry recording and must be within 12 hours of randomization)
• postnatal blood gas with PCO2 ≤ 80 mmHg (arterial, capillary or venous blood gas) on the most recent blood gas sample obtained within 12 hours prior to randomization Note: Criteria (iv) to (vi) must be met at the most recent analysis within 12 hours prior to randomization. Infants are ineligible if they meet any of the following criteria:
• known hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• Note 1: infants of diabetic mothers with asymmetric septal hypertrophy can be included as long as there is no evidence of obstruction to left ventricular outflow tract on echocardiogram,
• Note 2: infants with other acyanotic congenital heart disease (CHD) and CDH may be included in the study and will be a predetermined subgroup for analysis)
• cyanotic CHD
•transposition of great arteries (TGA), total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR), partial anomalous pulmonary venous return (PAPVR), truncus arteriosus (TA), tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), single ventricle physiology
•hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS), tricuspid atresia, critical pulmonic stenosis or atresia etc.,
• enrolled in conflicting clinical trials (such as a randomized controlled blinded trial of another pulmonary vasodilator therapy); Note: mothers enrolled in fetal tracheal occlusion studies such as FETO may be enrolled if permitted by investigators of the fetal tracheal occlusion study; [FETO refers to fetoscopic endoluminal tracheal occlusion and involves occlusion of fetal trachea with a balloon device at mid-gestation and subsequent removal in later gestation]
• infants with bilateral CDH o Note 3: infants with anterior and central defects are included in the study
• associated abnormalities of the trachea or esophagus (trachea-esophageal fistula, esophageal atresia, laryngeal web, tracheal agenesis)
• renal dysfunction (with serum creatinine > 2 mg/dL not due to maternal factors) or severe oligohydramnios associated with renal dysfunction at randomization; renal dysfunction may be secondary to renal anomalies or medical conditions such as acute tubular necrosis
• severe systemic hypotension (mean blood pressure < 35 mm Hg for at least 2 h with a vasoactive inotrope score of > 30)
• decision is made to provide comfort/ palliative care and not full treatment
• Intracranial bleed (including the following findings on the cranial ultrasound)
• Cerebral parenchymal hemorrhage
• Blood/echodensity in the ventricle with distension of the ventricle
• Periventricular hemorrhagic infarction
• Posterior fossa hemorrhage
• Cerebellar hemorrhage
• persistent thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 80,000/mm3) despite blood product administration on the most recent blood draw prior to randomization
• coagulopathy (PT INR > 1.7) despite blood product administration on the most recent blood draw (if checked
•there is no reason to check PT for the purpose of this study)
• aneuploidy associated with short life span (such as trisomy 13 or 18) will not be included in the study (infants with trisomy 21 can be included in the study)
• elevated arterial, venous or capillary PCO2 > 80 mmHg in spite of maximal ventilator support (including high frequency ventilation) on the most recent blood gas obtained within 12 hours prior to randomization
• use of milrinone infusion prior to randomization (the use of other inhaled pulmonary vasodilators such as iNO, inhaled epoprosternol, inhaled PGE1 and oral such as endothelin receptor antagonists is permitted
•Note: it is unlikely to be on oral pulmonary vasodilators early in the course of CDH)
• ongoing therapy with parenteral (intravenous or subcutaneous) pulmonary vasodilators such as IV/SQ prostacyclin analogs (Epoprostenol
•Flolan or Treprostinil
•Remodulin or PGE1
•Alprostadil) or IV phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors (sildenafil
•Revatio) at the time of randomization. In addition, initiation of therapy with these two classes of parenteral medications during the first 24 hours of study drug initiation is not permitted and will be considered a protocol deviation. The risk of systemic hypotension is high during the first 24 hours of study-drug (milrinone) infusion and hence parenteral administration of other pulmonary vasodilators is avoided to minimize risk of hypotension.
• Subjects already on ECMO or patients who are being actively considered for ECMO by the neonatal or surgical team
• attending (neonatal, critical care or surgical) refusal for participation in the trial (including concern about presence of hemodynamic instability)

Inclusion Criteria Age -Patients must be ≥ 1 and ≤ 21 years of age at the time of enrollment. Diagnosis
• Cohort A: Patients must have a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia with ≥ 5% blasts in the bone marrow (M2 or M3), with or without extramedullary disease) or a diagnosis of lymphoblastic lymphoma.
• Cohorts B & C: Patients must have a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), lymphoblastic lymphoma, or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia with any level of detectable disease (minimal residual disease level acceptable) with or without extramedullary disease Performance Level -Karnofsky > 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky > 50% for patients ≤ 16 years of age. Prior Therapy
• Patients must have recovered from the acute toxic effects (≤ Grade 2 or baseline) of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy prior to entering this study, unless otherwise specified. Subjects with disease related cytopenias will be eligible.
• Patients must have relapsed or refractory disease after attaining at least a first remission. They may be in first to third relapse..
• Patients with Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) positive disease must have received at least two prior tyrosine kinase inhibitors.
• Patients who have experienced their relapse after a Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) are eligible, provided they have no evidence of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) and are at least 100 days post-transplant at the time of enrollment.
• Prior anthracycline lifetime cumulative exposure: Patients must have less than 320 mg/m2 (or 400 mg/m2 if prior cardioprotection) lifetime exposure of anthracycline chemotherapy. 1. Cohort A: Patients must have less than 320 mg/m2 (or 400 mg/m2 if prior cardioprotection) lifetime exposure of anthracycline chemotherapy (See Appendix 2 for anthracycline calculation worksheet). 2. Cohorts B & C: There is no limit on prior anthracycline exposure.
• Hematopoietic growth factors: It must have been at least seven days since the completion of therapy with granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (GCSF) or other growth factors at the time of enrollment. It must have been at least 14 days since the completion of therapy with pegfilgrastim (Neulasta®).
• Biologic anti-neoplastic agents: At least seven days after the last dose of a biologic agent. For agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond seven days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur. The duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair or vice chair.
• Monoclonal antibodies: At least three half-lives (or 30 days—whichever is longer) of the antibody must have elapsed after the last dose of monoclonal antibody. (e.g., Rituximab = 66 days, Epratuzumab = 69 days)
• Immunotherapy: At least 30 days after the completion of any type of immunotherapy, e.g. tumor vaccines, chimeric antigen receptor T-cells.
• Recent prior chemotherapy: At least 10 days after standard vincristine and the completion of any type of chemotherapy induction regimen. At least 3 weeks after radiation therapy. At least 30 days after the completion of any investigational neoplastic agent is also required. An investigational agent is defined as any drug that is not approved and licensed for sale by the FDA for institutions in the United States, by Health Canada for institutions in Canada and by The Therapeutic Goods Administration for institutions in Australia. Exceptions:
• There is no time restriction in regard to prior intrathecal chemotherapy provided there is complete recovery from any acute toxic effects of such; it is allowable to enroll a patient that has received IT Cytarabine (ARA-C), IT Methotrexate (MTX) or triple IT therapy within 14 days of enrollment as part of their evaluation to diagnose disease relapse. The IT therapy given within 14 days of initiation of protocol specified chemotherapy, may substitute for the day 1 IT in cohorts A and B
• Subjects with rapidly progressive disease may receive hydroxyurea until they begin study therapy;
• Patients who relapse while on maintenance-type ALL therapy or are receiving maintenance therapy for disease stabilization will not require a wash-out period before entry into this study. However, there must be at least 10 days after any dose of standard vincristine. Renal and Hepatic Function
• Renal function: Patient's serum creatinine must be ≤ 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) according to age. If the serum creatinine is greater than 1.5 times normal, the patient must have a calculated creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ≥ 70milliliter/min/1.73m2. Alternatively, a 24-hour creatinine clearance may also be used.
• Hepatic function: alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) must be < 5 x institutional upper limit of norm ULN. Total bilirubin must be ≤ 1.5 x ULN (except in the case of subjects with documented Gilbert's disease ≤ 5 × ULN). Cardiac Function -Patients must have a shortening fraction ≥ 27% or an ejection fraction ≥ 55% by echocardiogram, cardiac MRI or multigated acquisition scan (MUGA). Reproductive Function
• Female patients must not be pregnant and those of childbearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test confirmed within one week prior to enrollment.
• Female patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on this study.
• Male and female patients of childbearing potential must agree to use an effective method of contraception during the study. Exclusion Criteria Patients will be excluded if they have isolated testicular disease. Patients will be excluded if they have previously received Marqibo®. Patients will be excluded if they have a known allergy to any of the drugs used in the study, with the exception that patients with an allergy to PEG-asparaginase who can receive Erwinia asparaginase are eligible. Patients unable to receive any formulation of asparaginase may only enroll on cohort C Patients will be excluded if they have active, uncontrolled systemic fungal, bacterial, viral or other infection despite appropriate antibiotics or other treatment. Patients who require azole antifungal agents will be excluded. Azoles must be discontinued at least one week prior to the start of Marqibo®. Patients will be excluded if there is a plan to administer non-protocol chemotherapy, radiation therapy, another investigational agent or immunotherapy during the study period. Patients with pre-existing, persistent grade 2 or greater sensory or motor neuropathy from any cause will be excluded. Patients will be excluded if they have, significant concurrent disease, illness, psychiatric disorder or social issue that would compromise patient safety or adherence with the protocol treatment or procedures or interfere with consent, study participation, follow up, or interpretation of study results.Patients with Down syndrome will not be eligible for enrollment on Cohort A Patients with a known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) will will be excluded due to the increased risk of complications such as severe infection and unknown interaction of Marqibo® with antiretroviral drugs. Active hepatitis B or C infection as defined by seropositive for hepatitis B (hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)) or hepatitis C and elevated liver transaminases (defined as above the ULN per the institution normal ranges).

Women with Breast Imaging-Reporting and Data System (BI-RADS) 4 or 5 Age ≥ 18 years Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent. Subjects who have had a needle biopsy of the suspicious area within the last 6 weeks Subjects who have contraindication to contrast enhanced MRI examination. Contraindications to MRI examinations include: Medically unstable
• Heart failure
• Unstable angina
• Child bearing
• Lactating Any contraindication per MRI Screening Form (Appendix A attached).
• Implants contraindicated at 3T, pacemakers
• Poorly controlled diabetes
• Body weight greater than 300 pounds
• Claustrophobic Since each patient is receiving a gadolinium based contrast agent intravenously:
• eGFR < 60 mL/min/1.73m2
• Sickle cell disease
• Hemolytic anemia Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for gadolinium contrast agents to harm fetuses or nursing infants.

• Patients must have undergone complete surgical resection of their stage IB (>= 4 cm), II, or non-squamous IIIA NSCLC per American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 7th edition and have had negative margins; N3 disease is not allowed
• Baseline chest computed tomography (CT) with or without contrast must be performed within 6 months (180 days) prior to randomization to ensure no evidence of disease; if clinically indicated additional imaging studies must be performed to rule out metastatic disease
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0 or 1
• Patients must be registered to the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) trial prior to randomization
• Positive for translocation or inversion events involving the ALK gene locus (e.g. resulting in echinoderm microtubule associated protein like 4 [EML4]-ALK fusion) as determined by the Vysis Break Point fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) assay and defined by an increase in the distance between 5? and 3? ALK probes or the loss of the 5? probe; this must have been performed:
• By a local Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory: report must indicate the results as well as the CLIA number of the laboratory which performed the assay; tissue must be available for submission for central, retrospective confirmation of the ALK fusion status via ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) OR
• Patient registered to and the ALK fusion status performed centrally on the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216)
• Women must not be pregnant or breast-feeding
• All females of childbearing potential must have a blood or urine pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to randomization to rule out pregnancy; a female of childbearing potential is any woman, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria: 1) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or 2) has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months)
• Women of childbearing potential and sexually active males must be strongly advised to practice abstinence or use an accepted and effective method of contraception
• Patients must NOT have uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, serious ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• No known interstitial fibrosis or interstitial lung disease
• No prior treatment with crizotinib or another ALK inhibitor
• No ongoing cardiac dysrhythmias of grade >= 2 National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version 4.0, uncontrolled atrial fibrillation (any grade), or corrected QT (QTc) interval > 470 msec
• No use of medications, herbals, or foods that are known potent cytochrome P450, subfamily 3A, polypeptide 4 (CYP3A4) inhibitors or inducers, included but not limited to those outlined
• Patients must be adequately recovered from surgery at the time of randomization
• The minimum time requirement between date of surgery and randomization must be at least 4 weeks (28 days)
• The maximum time requirement between surgery and randomization must be:
• 3 months (90 days) if no adjuvant chemotherapy was administered
• 8 months (240 days) if adjuvant chemotherapy was administered
• 10 months (300 days) if adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation therapy were administered
• Patients must have completed any prior adjuvant chemotherapy or radiation therapy 2 or more weeks (6 or more weeks for mitomycin and nitrosoureas) prior to randomization and be adequately recovered at the time of randomization
• NOTE: Patients taking low dose methotrexate for non-malignant conditions and other cytotoxic agents for non-malignant conditions are allowed to continue treatment while on study
• NOTE: Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy or radiation therapy for the resected lung cancer is not permitted
• Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Total serum bilirubin =< 1.5 x ULN
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1500/mm^3
• Platelets >= 30,000/mm^3
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL
• Serum creatinine =< 2 x ULN
• Prior to randomization patients with any non-hematologic toxicity from surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation must have recovered to grade =< 1 with the exception of alopecia and the criteria outlined
• Patients must not have any history of locally advanced or metastatic cancer requiring systemic therapy within 5 years from randomization, with the exception of in-situ carcinomas and non-melanoma skin cancer; patients must have no previous primary lung cancer diagnosed concurrently or within the past 2 years
• Patients may not be receiving any other investigational agents while on study

• Subjects of all races and ethnic origins over 18 years of age will be recruited.
• Patients must have suspicious or known to be malignant solitary pulmonary nodule,5cm or less in size.
• Patients with a contraindication to MRI examinations will be excluded from this study. Contraindications to MRI examinations include:
• Medically unstable
• Heart failure
• Unstable angina
• Child bearing
• Lactating
• Not a surgical candidate
• Any contraindication per MRI Screening Form (Appendix A attached). This is the same form used in clinical practice at UT Southwestern.
• Titanium implants, pacemakers
• Poorly controlled diabetes
• Body weight greater than 300 pounds
• Claustrophobic
• Since each patient is receiving a gadolinium based contrast agent intravenously:
• eGFR < 45 mL/min/1.73m2
• Sickle cell disease
• Hemolytic anemia

• radical prostatectomy for adenocarcinoma of prostate
• pathologically confirmed T1-T3 disease
• no sign of lymph node or metastatic disease
• pT1-pT3pNxMx patients in whom standard NCCN or AUA guidelines would suggest are at low risk for pelvic lymph node or metastatic disease and who would not require confirmatory imaging for metastatic disease. This includes patients with Gleason 6 or 7(T2 disease) and PSA less than 20.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group(ECOG) status 0-2
• adequate renal and liver function as well as bone marrow reserve (measured serum creatinine <2mg/dl, bilirubin ≤ 1.5 mg/dl, ANC ≥ 1.5 x 10 (3) uL, platelets ≥ 50 x K/uLL, and hemoglobin ≥ 10 g/dL)
• 30-80 y/o at time of diagnosis with a life expectancy of >= 3 yrs
• focally positive surgical margins are permitted
• no plan to receive adjuvant hormone or radiation therapy
• PSA at the time of enrollment must be undetectable
• life expectancy of 3 years
• must not have exceeded 3 months from time of surgery to enrollment into study
• T3b or T4 or node positive disease
• macroscopic residual disease after surgery
• hormone therapy before surgery
• history of gallbladder problems or gallstones, or biliary obstruction, unless patient had cholecystectomy
• radiation therapy as primary treatment after surgery
• INR value greater than 1.5
• AST/ALT are equal or greater than 2 times the upper limit of normal
• antiplatelet or anticoagulant agents- patients taking 81mg of Aspirin will be allowed with close observation
• history of gastric or duodenal ulcers or untreated hyperacidity syndromes
• patients who are currently taking or plan to take Curcumin during the study

• Age > 18 years.
• ECOG performance status (PS) 0, 1, or 2.
• Radiographic findings consistent with non-small cell lung cancer, including lesions with ground glass opacities with a solid component of 50% or greater. Those with ground glass opacities and <50% solid component will be excluded.
• The primary tumor in the lung must be biopsy confirmed non-small cell lung cancer within 180 days prior to randomization.
• Tumor ≤ 4 cm maximum diameter, including clinical stage IA and selected IB by PET/CT scan of the chest and upper abdomen performed within 180 days prior to randomization. Repeat imaging within 90 days prior to randomization is recommended for re-staging but is not required based on institutional norms.
• All clinically suspicious mediastinal N1, N2, or N3 lymph nodes (> 1 cm short-axis dimension on CT scan and/or positive on PET scan) confirmed negative for involvement with NSCLC by one of the following methods: mediastinoscopy, anterior mediastinotomy, EUS/EBUS guided needle aspiration, CT-guided, video-assisted thoracoscopic or open lymph node biopsy within 180 days of randomization.
• Tumor verified by a thoracic surgeon to be in a location that will permit sublobar resection.
• Tumor located peripherally within the lung. NOTE: Peripheral is defined as not touching any surface within 2 cm of the proximal bronchial tree in all directions. See below. Patients with non-peripheral (central) tumors are NOT eligible.
• No evidence of distant metastases.
• Availability of pulmonary function tests (PFTs
•spirometry, DLCO, +/- arterial blood gases) within 180 days prior to registration. Patients with tracheotomy, etc, who are physically unable to perform PFTs (and therefore cannot be tested for the Major criteria in 3.1.11 below) are potentially still eligible if a study credentialed thoracic surgeon documents that the patient's health characteristics would otherwise have been acceptable for eligibility as a high risk but nonetheless operable patient (in particular be eligible for sublobar resection).
• Patient at high-risk for surgery by meeting a minimum of one major criteria or two minor criteria
• Major Criteria
• FEV1 ≤ 50% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• DLCO ≤ 50% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• Minor Criteria
• Age ≥75
• FEV1 51-60% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• DLCO 51-60% predicted (pre-bronchodilator value)
• Pulmonary hypertension (defined as a pulmonary artery systolic pressure greater than 40mm Hg) as estimated by echocardiography or right heart catheterization
• Study credentialed thoracic surgeon believes the patient is potentially operable but that a lobectomy or pneumonectomy would be poorly tolerated by the patient for tangible or intangible reasons. The belief must be declared and documented in the medical record prior to randomization.
• Poor left ventricular function (defined as an ejection fraction of 40% or less)
• Resting or Exercise Arterial pO2 ≤ 55 mm Hg or SpO2 ≤ 88%
• pCO2 > 45 mm Hg
• Modified Medical Research Council (MMRC) Dyspnea Scale ≥ 3.
• No prior intra-thoracic radiation therapy for previously identified intra-thoracic primary tumor (e.g. previous lung cancer) on the ipsilateral side. NOTE: Previous radiotherapy as part of treatment for head and neck, breast, or other non-thoracic cancer is permitted so long as possible radiation fields would not overlap. Previous chemotherapy or surgical resection specifically for the lung cancer being treated on this protocol is NOT permitted.
• No prior lung resection on the ipsilateral side.
• Non-pregnant and non-lactating. Women of child-bearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test prior to registration. Peri-menopausal women must be amenorrheic > 12 months prior to registration to be considered not of childbearing potential.
• No prior invasive malignancy, unless disease-free for ≥ 3 years prior to registration (exceptions: non-melanoma skin cancer, in-situ cancers).
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
• evidence of distant metastases
• prior intra-thoracic radiation therapy. NOTE: Previous radiotherapy as part of treatment for head and neck, breast, or other non-thoracic cancer is permitted so long as possible radiation fields would not overlap. Previous chemotherapy or surgical resection specifically for the lung cancer being treated on this protocol is NOT permitted. No prior lung resection on the ipsilateral side.
• pregnant and lactating women
• prior invasive malignancy, unless disease-free for ≥ 3 years prior to registration (exceptions: non-melanoma skin cancer, in-situ cancers).

• The patient must have histologic or cytologic evidence of a malignant solid tumor and must have disease that is resistant to or relapsed following available standard systemic therapy, or for which there is no standard systemic therapy or reasonable therapy likely to result in clinical benefit.
• The patient must have advanced disease, defined as cancer that is either metastatic, OR locally advanced and unresectable (and for which additional radiation therapy or other locoregional therapies are not considered feasible).
• The patient must have disease that is measurable by standard imaging techniques, per the Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors, version 1.1 (RECIST 1.1), or evaluable per RECIST 1.1. (For patients with prior radiation therapy, measurable lesions must be outside of any prior radiation field[s], unless disease progression has been documented at that disease site subsequent to radiation.)
• The patient is ≥18 years old.
• The patient has an ECOG PS of 0-2.
• The patient has adequate baseline organ function, as demonstrated by the following:
• Serum creatinine ≤1.5 × institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) or calculated creatinine clearance >30 mL/min.
• Serum albumin ≥2.5 g/dL.
• Bilirubin ≤1.5 × institutional ULN.
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤2.5 × institutional ULN (patients with hepatic metastases must have AST/ALT ≤5 times ULN).
• International normalized ratio (INR) ≤1.5 or prothrombin time (PT) ≤1.5 × ULN; and either partial thromboplastin time or activated partial thromboplastin time (PTT or aPTT) ≤1.5 × ULN.
• The patient has adequate baseline hematologic function, as demonstrated by the following:
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥1.5×10⁹/L
• Hemoglobin ≥8 g/dL, with no red blood cell (RBC) transfusions within the prior 14 days.
• Platelet count ≥100×10⁹/L, with no platelet transfusions within the prior 14 days.
• If the patient is a woman of child bearing potential (WOCBP), she has had a negative serum or urine pregnancy test within 1 week prior to treatment.
• The patient (male and female) agrees to use acceptable contraceptive methods for the duration of time on the study, and continue to use acceptable contraceptive methods for 1 month after the last dose of SL-801.
• The patient has signed informed consent prior to initiation of any study-specific procedures or treatment.
• The patient is able to adhere to the study visit schedule and other protocol requirements, including follow-up for survival assessment.
• The patient has persistent clinically significant ≥Grade 2 toxicities from previous anticancer therapy (excluding Grade 2 chemotherapy-related neuropathy which is permitted, and excluding Grade 2-3 laboratory abnormalities if they are not associated with symptoms, are not considered clinically significant by the Investigator, and can be managed with available medical therapies).
• The patient has received treatment with chemotherapy, external-beam radiation, or other systemic anticancer therapy within 28 days prior to study entry (Patients with advanced prostate cancer who are receiving luteinizing hormone releasing hormone [LHRH] agonists are permitted onto the study and should continue use of these agents during study treatment).
• The patient has received treatment with an investigational systemic anticancer agent within 28 days prior to C1D1.
• The patient has previously received treatment with SL-801 or another investigational agent that inhibits the XPO1/CRM1 pathway.
• The patient has an additional active malignancy that may confound the assessment of the study endpoints. Patients with a past cancer history (active malignancy within 2 years prior to study entry) with substantial potential for recurrence must be discussed with the Sponsor before study entry. Patients with the following concomitant neoplastic diagnoses are eligible: non-melanoma skin cancer, carcinoma in situ (including transitional cell carcinoma, cervical intraepithelial neoplasia), organ-confined prostate cancer with no evidence of progressive disease.
• The patient has clinically significant cardiovascular disease (e.g., uncontrolled or any New York Heart Association Class 3 or 4 congestive heart failure [Appendix 1], uncontrolled angina, history of myocardial infarction, unstable angina or stroke within 6 months prior to study entry, uncontrolled hypertension or clinically significant arrhythmias not controlled by medication).
• The patient has uncontrolled, clinically significant pulmonary disease (e.g., chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pulmonary hypertension) that, in the Investigator's opinion, would put the patient at significant risk for pulmonary complications during the study.
• The patient has known active or suspected brain or leptomeningeal metastases. (Central nervous system [CNS] imaging is not required prior to study entry unless there is a clinical suspicion of CNS involvement). Patients with stable, treated brain metastases are eligible provided there is no evidence of CNS disease growth on imaging for at least 3 months following radiation therapy or other locoregional ablative therapy to the CNS.
• The patient is receiving immunosuppressive therapy for prophylaxis following a prior organ transplant (solid organ or allogeneic stem cell) or management of immune-mediated toxicities due to immunotherapy. Low-dose corticosteroid (defined as < 10mg/day of prednisone or equivalent) therapy is permitted.
• The patient has uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, uncontrolled infection, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements.
• The patient is pregnant or breast feeding.
• The patient has known positive status for human immunodeficiency virus active or chronic Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C.
• The patient is oxygen-dependent.
• The patient has any medical condition which in the opinion of the Investigator places the patient at an unacceptably high risk for toxicities.

• Patient has a new, unrated histologic diagnosis of stage IB2 (> 4 cm), II, IIIB or IVA squamous, adenocarcinoma, or adenosquamous carcinoma of the uterine cervix (FIGO 2009) or stage II-IVA squamous, adenocarcinoma, or adenosquamous carcinoma of the vagina not amenable to curative surgical resection alone; the presence or absence of para-aortic lymph node metastasis will be based on pre-therapy 18F-FDG PET/CT; NOTE: if the baseline 18F-FDG PET/CT identifies hypermetabolic para-aortic disease, such patients will NOT be eligible; the patient must be able to tolerate imaging requirements of an 18F-FDG PET/CT scan
• Patient must provide study specific informed consent prior to study entry
• Patient must have a Gynecologic Oncology Group (GOG) performance status of 0, 1, or 2 or equivalent
• Absolute neutrophil count > 1,500/uL
• Platelets > 100,000/uL
• Hemoglobin > 10 g/dL
• Total bilirubin < 2.0 mg/dL
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase [SGOT])/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) (serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase [SGPT]) < 2.5 X institutional upper limit of normal
• Prothrombin time (PT)/activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) < 1.5 X institutional upper limit of normal
• Creatinine =< 1.5 mg/dL to receive weekly cisplatin
• Patients whose serum creatinine is between 1.5 and 1.9 mg/dL are eligible for cisplatin if the estimated creatinine clearance (CCr) is >= 30 ml/min; for the purpose of estimating the CCr, the formula of Cockcroft and Gault for females should be used
• Patient does not have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus (i.e., fasting blood glucose > 200 mg/dL)
• Patient has a life expectancy of greater than 20 weeks
• Patient does not have known brain metastases (testing optional)
• Patient does not have known human immunodeficiency virus syndrome (HIV, testing optional); known HIV-positive patients receiving combination antiretroviral therapy are ineligible because of the potential for pharmacokinetic interactions with triapine
• Patient does not have a known allergy to compounds of similar or biologic composition as triapine
• Patient does not have known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency as the condition interferes with triapine antidote metabolism (G6PD testing optional)
• Patient is not actively breastfeeding (or has agreed to discontinue breastfeeding before the initiation of protocol therapy)
• Patient has another concurrent active invasive malignancy
• Patient has had a prior invasive malignancy diagnosed within the last three years (except [1] non-melanoma skin cancer or [2] prior in situ carcinoma of the cervix); patients are excluded if they have received prior pelvic radiotherapy for any reason that would contribute radiation dose that would exceed tolerance of normal tissues at the discretion of the treating physician
• Patient has uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, myocardial infarction within six months of protocol initiation, cardiac arrhythmia within six months of protocol initiation; known inadequately controlled hypertension; clinically significant pulmonary disease including dyspnea at rest, or patients requiring supplemental oxygen, or poor pulmonary reserve; or clinically significant renal function impairment (baseline serum creatinine > 2 mg/dL); or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• Patient is receiving another investigational agent for the treatment of cancer
• Patient is currently pregnant
• Patient does not agree to use two forms of birth control if they are of child-bearing potential
• Patients who have had a hysterectomy or are planning to have an adjuvant hysterectomy following radiation as part of their cervical cancer treatment are ineligible (05/30/2017)
• Patients scheduled to be treated with adjuvant consolidation chemotherapy or other anti-neoplastic therapy at the conclusion of their standard chemoradiation (05/30/2017)
• Patients with self-reported or known diagnosis of G6PD deficiency (05/30/2017)
• Patients with vaginal cancer may have previously undergone a hysterectomy for various indications; patients with vaginal cancer who underwent a hysterectomy for treatment of cervical cancer less than five years prior to their diagnosis of vaginal cancer are ineligible

• Experiments will be performed on 3 groups of nondiabetic human subjects:
• 1) stage I (140-159/90-99 mmHg) subjects with essential hypertension.
• 2) stage I hypertensive subjects with primary aldosteronism
• 3) normotensive controls.
• 1) Any evidence of cardiopulmonary disease, left ventricular hypertrophy or systolic dysfunction by echocardiography.
• 2) Blood pressure averaging ≥160/100 mmHg
• 3) Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) < 90 mL/min/1.73m2
• 4) Diabetes mellitus or other systemic illness
• 5) Pregnancy
• 6) Hypersensitivity to nitroprusside, phenylephrine, amlodipine or eplerenone
• 7) Any history of substance abuse or current cigarette use
• 8) Any history of psychiatric illness
• 9) History of malignancy

• Patient must consent for the appropriate surgery
• Patients with a histologic diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, or adenosquamous cell carcinoma of the cervix, stage IA1 (lymph-vascular space invasion [LVSI]+), IA2, and IB1 (tumor size [maximum visible or palpable]) =< 2 cm), any grade
• All patients must have undergone a cone biopsy or loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP); depth of invasion must be =< 10 mm
• Patients must have no evidence of metastasis on positron emission tomography (PET) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) scan of the pelvis and chest imaging
• Patients who have met the pre-entry requirements
• Patients must have signed an approved informed consent and authorization permitting release of personal health information
• Patient must have Gynecologic Oncology Group (GOG) performance status of 0, 1, or 2
• Patients with stage IA1 disease who are LVSI negative
• Patients with stage IB1 with tumor size (maximum visible or palpable) > 2 cm
• Patients with >= stage IB2 disease
• Patients with clear cell or neuroendocrine cell types
• Patients with depth of invasion > 10 mm on first cone biopsy (or LEEP)
• Patients with a history of other invasive malignancies, with the exception of non-melanoma skin cancer, are excluded if there is any evidence of other malignancy being present within the last five years; patients are also excluded if their previous cancer treatment contraindicates this protocol therapy

• Patients must have constitutional trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) or trisomy 21 mosaicism (by karyotype or fluorescence in situ hybridization [FISH])
• Patient has one of the following:
• Patient has previously untreated de novo AML and meets the criteria for AML with >= 20% bone marrow blasts as set out in the World Health Organization (WHO) Myeloid Neoplasm classification
• Attempts to obtain bone marrow either by aspirate or biopsy must be made unless clinically prohibitive; in cases where it is clinically prohibitive, peripheral blood with an excess of 20% blasts and in which adequate flow cytometric and cytogenetics/FISH testing is feasible can be substituted for the marrow exam at diagnosis
• Patient has cytopenias and/or bone marrow blasts but does not meet the criteria for the diagnosis of AML (WHO Myeloid Neoplasm classification) because of < 20% marrow blasts and meets the criteria for a diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)
• For patients who do not meet criteria for AML or MDS as outlined above; patient has a history of transient myeloproliferative disorder (which may or may not have required chemotherapy intervention and:
• Is > 8 weeks since resolution of transient myeloproliferative disease (TMD) with >= 5% blasts, OR
• Has an increasing blast count (>= 5%) in serial bone marrow aspirates performed at least 4 weeks apart
• Children who have previously received chemotherapy, radiation therapy or any anti-leukemic therapy are not eligible for this protocol, with the exception of cytarabine for the treatment of TMD
• There are no minimal organ function requirements for enrollment on this study
• Note: Previous cardiac repair with sufficient cardiac function is not an exclusion criteria
• Each patient's parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human subjects research must be met
• Patients with promyelocytic leukemia (French-American-British [FAB] M3)
• Prior therapy
• Patients =< 30 days from the last dose of cytarabine used for treatment of TMD

1. Pre-pubescent girls (age 2 years [12 kg minimum] to 8 years inclusive; skeletal age <10 years) or boys (age 2 years [12 kg] to 9 years inclusive; skeletal age <11 years). 2. Confirmed classic 21-hydroxylase deficiency evident by genotype groups A, A1 or B or clinical course (e.g., adrenal crisis with documented hyperkalemia and hyponatremia, at diagnosis or during a later evaluation; ambiguous genitalia in females). Documentation of one or both parents' genotypes may be required to confirm the subject's genotype. 3. Requirement for standard of care fludrocortisone (any dose) and ≥10 mg/m2/day of hydrocortisone for at least 1 month prior to the study consent. 4. Morning serum androstenedione concentrations >1.5 x Upper limit normal (ULN) after 7 days of dosing with doses of hydrocortisone required for physiologic replacement. 5. At least one parent (or other legally acceptable representative) must sign the informed consent form before the performance of any study procedures, but both parents must sign if both have parental rights. Children who are capable of providing assent (typically 10 years of age and older) must sign an assent form before the performance of any study procedures 1. Evidence of central puberty: Tanner Stage >2 for breast development in girls or testicular volume >4 mL in boys, or random luteinizing hormone (LH) >0.3 milli-international units (mIU)/mL. Subjects with pubic and/or axillary hair as the only sign of puberty onset will be allowed. 2. Current or history of hepatitis from any etiology, including history of active viral hepatitis A, B, or C. 3. Patients with baseline hepatic impairment are excluded from this trial. To be eligible for this protocol, patients must meet all of the following criteria: AST, ALT and Total bilirubin < ULN Albumin > lower limits of normal (LLN) No evidence of ascites No evidence of encephalopathy 4. Abnormalities of liver function developing during the study 5. Abnormal renal function tests, defined as blood urea nitrogen (BUN) or creatinine >1.5 ULN for age. 6. Significant anemia (hemoglobin < 12 g/dl). If documented to be due to iron deficiency, subjects may be rescreened 3 months after this has been treated. 7. Clinically significant abnormality in the 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) 8. A history of a malabsorption syndrome. 9. Evidence of active malignancy. 10. Serious or uncontrolled co-existent disease, including active or uncontrolled infection. Subjects may be rescreened after resolution of any such condition. 11. Concurrent medical condition or disease other than 21-hydroxylase deficiency that may interfere with linear growth or that requires concomitant therapy that is likely to interfere with study procedures or results. 12. Asthma or other condition requiring treatment with systemic corticosteroids within the past 3 months. Asthma treatment with inhaled corticosteroids is permitted. 13. Treatment with potentially hepatotoxic medications (statins); strong inhibitors of CYP3A4 (ketoconazole, itraconazole, clarithromycin, atazanavir, nefazodone, saquinavir, telithromycin, ritonavir, indinavir, nelfinavir, voriconazole), or CYP3A4 inducers (e.g., phenytoin, carbamazepine, rifampin, rifabutin, rifapentine, phenobarbital). CYP2C8 substrates (rosiglitazone, pioglitazone, rapaglinide) and CYP2D6 substrates (dextromethorphan, thioridazine) should be avoided 14. Treatment with medications to affect puberty or synthesis of sex steroids, including gonadotropin releasing hormone agonists, aromatase inhibitors, or androgen receptor blockers (e.g., flutamide, spironolactone). However, a gonadotropin releasing hormone agonist may be started during the study for treatment-emergent central puberty without disqualifying the subject 15. Treatment with growth hormone at enrollment or during the course of the study. 16. Known allergies, hypersensitivity, or intolerance to abiraterone acetate or its excipients (refer to United States Prescribing Information). 17. Has received an investigational drug within 4 weeks of the planned first dose of study drug or is currently enrolled in an investigational interventional study. 18. Any condition that, in the opinion of the investigator, would make participation not be in the best interest (eg, compromise the well-being) of the subject or that could prevent, limit, or confound the protocol-specified assessments. 19. Presence or history of cataracts.

• Ability to provide informed consent;
• Diagnosis of Pemphigus Vulgaris (PV) or Pemphigus Foliaceus (PF), defined by H&E staining (e.g., Haemotoxylin and Eosin) and direct immunofluorescence staining of skin biopsy at any time prior to enrollment;
• Pemphigus treated with systemic corticosteroids within the 2 years prior to screening (historic or current), or treated with rituximab ≥ 12 months prior to screening;
• Presence of:
• anti-Dsg3 antibodies (>20.0 U/ml) at screening visit consistent with diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris or,
• anti-Dsg1 antibodies (>20.0 U/ml) at screening visit consistent with diagnosis of pemphigus foliaceus.
• Active of PV or PF as defined by Pemphigus Disease Area Index (PDAI) overall activity score 3-10 at screening visit, and PDAI overall activity score 1-12 at baseline visit;
• Positive test for Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) antibody;
• Adequate venous access to support draw of 400 ml whole blood and infusion of investigational therapy; and
• An absolute Treg count of ≥ 42 cells/μL within 6 weeks prior to whole blood collection at Week -2 (i.e., 2 weeks prior to planned PolyTreg Infusion).
• Initiation of systemic corticosteroid therapy, prednisone dose > 25 mg/d (or equivalent) or change in prednisone dose within 4 weeks prior to screening;
• Addition of a new medication, or change in the dose of any background medication used to treat any aspect of pemphigus within the timeframes listed below. Specifically:
• methotrexate, mycophenolate mofetil, mycophenolic acid, azathioprine, cyclosporine or dapsone within the 6 weeks prior to screening or in the time between screening and study drug infusion,
• intravenous Immunoglobulin (IVIG) within 12 weeks prior to screening or in the time between screening and study drug infusion (subjects on IVIG must be on stable dose for at least 12 weeks prior to screening),
• treatment with cyclophosphamide within 12 weeks prior to screening or in the time between screening and study drug infusion.
• Doses of background medications at screening:
• methotrexate > 25 mg/week,
• mycophenolate mofetil > 3000 mg/d,
• mycophenolic acid > 1080 mg/bid,
• azathioprine > 200 mg/d,
• cyclosporine > 2 mg/kg/d,
• dapsone >250 mg/d,or
• intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) > 4mg/kg monthly.
• Use of rituximab within the 12 months prior to screening;
• Change in dosing frequency, concentration, or applied surface area of topical steroids and/or topical calcineurin inhibitors within 2 weeks prior to screening;
• Paraneoplastic pemphigus;
• Pemphigus erythematosus;
• Pemphigus vegetans;
• Immunoglobulin A (IgA) pemphigus;
• Drug-induced pemphigus;
• Blood donation within 10 weeks prior to baseline visit (Day 0);
• Hemoglobin < 10 g/dL;
• White blood cell (WBC) count < 3,000/ mm^3 (equivalent to < 3 x10^9/L);
• Lymphocyte count < 800/mm^3 (equivalent to < 0.8 x10^9/L);
• Absolute neutrophil count < 1,500/mm^3 (equivalent to < 1.5 x10^9/L);
• Platelets < 100,000/mm^3 (equivalent to < 100 x 10^9/L);
• Liver function test [aspartate aminotransferase (AST)], alanine aminotransferase (ALT), or alkaline phosphatase (ALK)] results that are ≥ 2 times the upper limit of normal (ULN);
• Direct bilirubin > ULN;
• End stage renal disease [estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) < 20 ml/min/1.73m^2 using the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration (CKD-EPI) equation];
• At or within three months of screening:
• a positive QuantiFERON(R)-TB Gold test or positive purified protein derivative tuberculin skin test (PPD) [>5mm induration, regardless of Bacille Calmette Guerin (BCG) vaccine administration] unless completion of treatment has been documented for active Tuberculosis (TB),
• an indeterminate QuantiFERON (R)-TB Gold test unless followed by a subsequent negative PPD or negative QuantiFERON(R)-TB Gold test as well as a consultation with and clearance by local infectious disease (ID) department.
• Recent or ongoing active bacterial, viral, fungal, or opportunistic infections requiring systemic anti-infective therapy;
• Evidence of current or prior infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B [as assessed by HBsAg and anti-hepatitis B core antigen (HBc) Ab] or hepatitis C [as assessed by anti-Hepatitis C Virus (anti-HCV) Ab];
• Detectable circulating EBV or Cytomegalovirus (CMV) genomes or active infection;
• Chronic infection that is currently being treated with suppressive anti-infective therapy, including but not limited to tuberculosis, pneumocystis, CMV, herpes zoster, and atypical mycobacteria, with the exception of historical orolabial or localized cutaneous herpes simplex infections treated with suppressive anti- viral therapy;
• Receipt of a live-attenuated vaccine within 12 months prior to screening;
• Concomitant malignancies or a history of malignancy, with the exception of completely treated basal cell carcinoma of the skin;
• Pregnancy;
• Lactating or breastfeeding;
• Unwilling or unable to use reliable method(s) of contraception:
• For females of child-bearing potential, from four weeks prior to Day 0 through 1 year after Treg dosing;
• For males, from the day of Treg infusion (baseline visit) to three months after Treg infusion.
• Use of an investigational therapeutic medication, or other biologic medications except rituximab, within the past 90 days, or 5 half-lives prior to screening, whichever is greater;
• Concomitant medical condition that places the subject at risk by participating in this study, including but not limited to:
• another severe, systemic autoimmune disease or condition (besides pemphigus) requiring systemic immunosuppressive therapy (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), systemic sclerosis, primary Sjogren's syndrome, primary vasculitis, psoriasis, multiple sclerosis, ankylosing spondylitis, and inflammatory bowel disease), or
• severe, progressive, or poorly controlled renal, hepatic, hematological, gastrointestinal, pulmonary, cardiac, or neurological disease, or
• history of significant infection or recurrent infection that, in the investigator's opinion, places the subject at risk by participating in this study, or
• any other concomitant medical condition that, in the investigator's opinion, places the subject at risk by participating in this study.
• Comorbidities requiring glucocorticoid therapy, including those which have required three or more courses of systemic glucocorticoids within the previous 12 months;
• Current or history within the past year of substance abuse; or
• Inability to comply with study and follow-up procedures.

• Male or Female, age 18 years or older;
• Requires IVC filter for prevention of pulmonary embolism (PE);
• Provide written informed consent and written HIPAA authorization prior to initiation of study procedures;
• Willing to comply with the specified follow-up
• Subject is unable to participate in study evaluations pre- and post-treatment
• Known sensitivity to contrast or serious contrast reaction such as anaphylaxis for which premedication is known to be unsuccessful in alleviating symptoms

• Histologically confirmed diagnosis of follicular lymphoma CD20+ (Grade 1, 2 or 3a) Ann Arbor Stage II, III or IV disease.
• Measurable disease
• Subjects 70 years of age or older; OR subjects 60-69 years of age who have one or more comorbidities.
• Meets one or more Groupe d'Etude des Lymphomes Folliculaire (GELF) criteria.
• Adequate hematologic function within protocol-defined parameters.
• Adequate hepatic and renal function within protocol-defined parameters.
• ECOG performance status score of 0-2.
• Transformed lymphoma
• Prior treatment for follicular lymphoma
• Central nervous system lymphoma or leptomeningeal disease
• Currently active, clinically significant cardiovascular disease

• Female ≥ 18 years
• Previously histologically proven diagnosis of a. Endometrial Cancer: recurrent or persistent endometrial carcinoma refractory to conventional therapy or established treatments with the following histologic epithelial cell types i. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma, serous adenocarcinoma, undifferentiated carcinoma, clear cell adenocarcinoma, mixed epithelial carcinoma, adenocarcinoma not otherwise specified, mucinous adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and transitional cell carcinoma b. Ovarian Cancer: recurrent or persistent ovarian or primary peritoneal cancer refractory to established treatments with the following histologic epithelial cell types i. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma, serous adenocarcinoma, undifferentiated carcinoma, clear cell adenocarcinoma, mixed epithelial carcinoma, adenocarcinoma not otherwise specified. c. Cervical cancer: squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix refractory to conventional therapy or established treatments with the following histologic epithelial cell types: i. Squamous cell carcinoma, adenosquamous carcinoma or adenocarcinoma Measurable disease defined as at least one lesion that can be accurately measured in at least one dimension (longest dimension to be recorded). Each lesion must be ≥ 20mm when measured by conventional techniques, including palpation, plain x-ray, CT, and MRI or ≥ 10mm when measured by spiral CT.
• Life expectancy ≥ 3 months
• Able to take orally administered study medication
• Must sign approved informed consent and authorization permitting release of personal health information.
• Patient must have adequate: 1. Bone marrow function: absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥ 1,500/mm^3, equivalent to Common Toxicity Criteria (CTC) grade 1, platelets ≥ 100,000/mm^3 2. Renal function: creatinine ≤ 1.5 x institutional upper limit normal (ULN), CTC grade 1. Note: If creatinine is > 1.5 x ULN, creatinine clearance must be > 50 mL/min. 3. Hepatic function: bilirubin ≤ 1.5 x ULN (CTC grade 1) or ≤ 3.0 x ULN for subjects with Gilbert Syndrome; AST and ALT ≤ 3.0 ×ULN. 4. Coagulation profile: PT such that international normalized ratio (INR) is ≤ 1.55 (or an in-range INR, usually between 2 and 3, if a patient is on a stable dose of therapeutic warfarin or low molecular weight heparin) and a PTT < 1.2 times control. 5. ECOG performance ≤ 2
• Patient of child-bearing potential must agree to use contraceptive measures starting 1 week before the administration of the first dose of AL3818 until 4 weeks after discontinuing study drug and have a negative serum pregnancy test prior to study entry and cannot be lactating.
• Ability and willingness to comply with the study protocol for the duration of the study and with follow-up procedures.
• Patients with serious, non-healing wound, ulcer or bone fracture.
• Patients with active bleeding or pathologic conditions that carry high risk of bleeding, such as known bleeding disorder, coagulopathy, or tumor involving major vessels.
• Patient with history or evidence upon physical examination of CNS disease, including primary brain tumor, seizures not controlled with standard medical therapy, any brain metastases or history of cerebrovascular accident (CVA, stroke) transient ischemic attack (TIA) or subarachnoid hemorrhage within 6 months of the first date of treatment on this study. a. Patients with metastatic CNS tumors may participate in this trial, if the patient is > 4 weeks from therapy completion (including radiation and/or surgery), is clinically stable at the time of study entry and is not receiving corticosteroid therapy.
• Patients with proteinuria: patients discovered to have a urine protein of 1+ on dipstick or ≥ 30 mg/dl at baseline should undergo a 24-hour urine collection, which must be an adequate collection and must demonstrate < 1000 mg protein/24 hours to allow participation in the study.
• Patients with clinically significant cardiovascular disease including uncontrolled hypertension, myocardial infarction or unstable angina within 6 months prior to registration. New York Heart Association (NYHA) Grade II or greater congestive heart failure, Serious cardiac arrhythmia requiring medication, Grade II or greater peripheral vascular disease.
• Patients who are pregnant or nursing.
• Women of childbearing potential who are unable to use contraceptive measures during study therapy and for at least 3 months after completion of AL3818 therapy.
• Patients with uncontrolled hypokalemia, hypomagnesaemia, and/or hypocalcaemia.
• Hemoptysis within 3 months prior to first scheduled dose of AL3818.
• Patients with acute or chronic liver disease, active hepatitis A or B with known cirrhosis or liver dysfunction.
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy within 4 weeks (6 weeks in cases of mitomycin C, nitrosourea, lomustine) prior to first scheduled dose of AL3818 or a major surgical procedure within 28 days or minor surgical procedure performed within 7 days prior to first scheduled dose of AL3818.
• Concomitant treatment with strong inhibitors or inducers of CYP3A4, CYP2C9 and CYP2C19 who cannot be switched to other alternative medications .
• Known history of human immunodeficiency virus infection (HIV).
• Subjects with active bacterial infections (other than uncomplicated urinary tract infection) and/or receiving systemic antibiotics.
• Patients with other invasive malignancies, with the exception of non-melanoma skin cancer, who had (or have) any evidence of other cancer present within the last 5 years or whose previous cancer treatment contraindicates this protocol therapy.
• History of non-malignant GI bleeding, gastric stress ulcerations, or peptic ulcer disease within the past 3-months that in the opinion of the investigator may place the patient at risk of side effects on an anti-angiogenesis product.
• History of significant vascular disease (e.g. aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection).
• Intra-abdominal abscess within the last 3 months.
• Pre-existing uncontrolled hypertension as documented by 2 baseline BP readings taken at least one hour apart, defined as systolic bloodpressure (BP) >160 mm Hg or diastolic BP > 90 mm Hg pressure.
• QTcF>470 msec on screening ECG.
• A history of additional risk factors for TdP (e.g., heart failure, hypokalemia, family history of Long QT Syndrome).
• The use of concomitant medications that prolong the QT/QTc interval. Baseline echocardiogram (within 2 months) with left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) < 50%.
• History of difficulty swallowing, malabsorption, active partial or complete bowel obstruction, or other chronic gastrointestinal disease or condition that may hamper compliance and/or absorption of AL3818.
• History of pancreatitis and/or renal disease or pancreatitis that includes histologically confirmed glomerulonephritis, biopsy proven tubulointerstitial nephritis, crystal nephropathy, or other renal insufficiencies.
• Treatment with an investigational agent within the longest time frame of either 5 half- lives or 30 days of initiating study drug.
• Known recreational substance abuse.
• Known hypersensitivity to AL3818 or components of the formulation.

• Patients must have had histologic verification of juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML) at original diagnosis and currently have relapsed or refractory disease; the diagnosis is made based on the following criteria
• JMML category 1 (all of the following): the diagnostic criteria must include all features in category 1 and EITHER (i) one of the features in category 2 OR (ii) two features from category 3 to make the diagnosis
• Splenomegaly
• > 1000 (1 x 10^9/uL) circulating monocytes
• < 20% blasts in the bone marrow or peripheral blood
• Absence of the t(9;22) or BCR/ABL fusion gene
• JMML category 2 (at least one of the following if at least two category 3 criteria are not present):
• Somatic mutation in RAS or PTPN11
• Clinical diagnosis of NF1 or NF1 gene mutation
• Homozygous mutation in CBL
• Monosomy 7
• JMML category 3 (at least two of the following if no category 2 criteria are met):
• Circulating myeloid precursors
• White blood cell count, > 10 000 (10 x 10^9/ uL)
• Increased hemoglobin F for age
• Clonal cytogenetic abnormality
• GM-CSF hypersensitivity
• Patients with refractory or relapsed JMML must have had at least one cycle of intensive frontline therapy or at least 2 cycles of a deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) demethylating agent with persistence of disease, defined by clinical symptoms or the presence of a clonal abnormality; frontline therapy is defined as one cycle of intravenous chemotherapy that includes of any of the following agents: fludarabine, cytarabine, or any anthracycline but specifically excludes oral 6-mercaptopurine; frontline therapy will also include any conditioning regimen as part of a stem cell transplant; patients who transform to AML at any point with more than 20% blasts are not eligible for this trial
• Patients must have a Lansky or Karnofsky performance status score of >= 50, corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) categories 0, 1 or 2; use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy prior to study enrollment
• Myelosuppressive chemotherapy: patients must have completely recovered from all acute toxic effects of chemotherapy, immunotherapy or radiotherapy prior to study enrollment; at least 14 days must have elapsed since the completion of cytotoxic therapy, with the exception of hydroxyurea
• Note: cytoreduction with hydroxyurea can be initiated and continued for up to 24 hours prior to the start of protocol therapy
• Hematopoietic growth factors: at least 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g., pegfilgrastim) or 7 days for short-acting growth factor; for agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur
• Biologic (anti-neoplastic agent): at least 7 days must have elapsed since completion of therapy with a biologic agent; for agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period prior to enrollment must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur
• Monoclonal antibodies:
• At least 30 days after the completion of any type of immunotherapy, e.g. tumor vaccines
• At least 3 half-lives must have elapsed since prior therapy that included a monoclonal antibody
• Radiotherapy:
• >= 2 weeks must have elapsed since local palliative external radiation therapy (XRT) (small port)
• >= 6 months must have elapsed if prior craniospinal XRT was received, if >= 50% of the pelvis was irradiated, or if traumatic brain injury (TBI) was received
• >= 4 weeks must have elapsed if other substantial bone marrow irradiation was given
• Stem cell transplant or rescue without TBI: no evidence of active graft versus (vs.) host disease and >= 3 months must have elapsed since transplant; >= 4 weeks must have elapsed since any donor lymphocyte infusion
• Patients must not be known to be refractory to red blood cell or platelet transfusions
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• Age: Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL)
• 1 month to < 6 months: 0.4 (male) 0.4 (female)
• 6 months to < 1 year: 0.5 (male) 0.5 (female)
• 1 to < 2 years: 0.6 (male) 0.6 (female)
• 2 to < 6 years: 0.8 (male) 0.8 (female)
• 6 to < 10 years: 1 (male) 1 (female)
• 10 to < 13 years: 1.2 (male) 1.2 (female)
• 13 to < 16 years: 1.5 (male) 1.4 (female)
• >= 16 years: 1.7 (male) 1.4 (female)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) =< 3 x ULN (=< 135 U/L) (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L)
• Serum albumin >= 2 g/dL
• Shortening fraction of >= 27% by echocardiogram OR ejection fraction of >= 50% by multi-gated acquisition (MUGA)
• Corrected QT (by Bazett's formula [QTcB]) interval < 450 msecs
• Patients must be able to swallow tablets or liquid; use of a nasogastric or gastrostomy (G) tube is also allowed
• Patients who are pregnant or breast-feeding are not eligible for this study as there is yet no available information regarding human fetal or teratogenic toxicities; negative pregnancy tests must be obtained in girls who are post-menarchal; patients of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of study therapy; women of childbearing potential should be advised to use effective contraception for 4 months after the last dose of trametinib; trametinib may also potentially be secreted in milk and therefore breastfeeding women are excluded; female patients should not breastfeed during treatment with trametinib, and for 4 months following the last dose; male patients must use a condom during intercourse and agree not to father a child during therapy and for 4 months following discontinuation of trametinib to avoid unnecessary exposure of trametinib to the fetus
• Concomitant Medications
• Corticosteroids: patients requiring corticosteroids who have not been on a stable or decreasing dose of corticosteroid for the 7 days prior to enrollment are not eligible; if used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Note: hydrocortisone used as a pre-medication to prevent transfusion related reactions is not considered a concomitant corticosteroid
• Investigational drugs: patients who are currently receiving another investigational drug are not eligible
• Anti-cancer agents: patients who are currently receiving other anti-cancer agents are not eligible (except patients receiving hydroxyurea, which may be continued until 24 hours prior to start of protocol therapy)
• Anti-graft versus host disease (GVHD) or agents to prevent organ rejection post-transplant: patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to prevent either graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant or organ rejection post-transplant are not eligible for this trial
• Cardiac medications: any medications for treatment of left ventricular systolic dysfunction
• Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• Patients who in the opinion of the investigator may not be able to comply with the safety monitoring requirements of the study are not eligible
• Patients with a history of hepatic sinusoid obstructive syndrome (veno-occlusive disease) within the prior 3 months are not eligible
• Patients with a history of or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) are not eligible
• Patients with a history of RVO or CSR, or predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension
• Patients with uncontrolled systemic disease(s) such as hypertension or diabetes mellitus are not eligible; blood pressure must be =< the 95th percentile for age, height, and gender
• Patients with a history of allergic reaction attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to the MEK inhibitor, trametinib are not eligible
• Patients with a clinical diagnosis of Noonan syndrome are not eligible; Note: patients with Casitas B-lineage lymphoma (CBL) syndrome, also known as Noonan-like syndrome, are eligible to enroll

• Eligible for study when participant is 1 year to 21 years at the time of diagnosis
• Eligible Ages in Australia and Canada; 2 years to 21 years
• De novo high-risk (HR) Ph-like B-ALL for which any of following criteria are present at diagnosis:
• Age ≥ 10 years
• White blood cell (WBC) ≥ 50 × 10^3/μL
• CNS3 leukemia at diagnosis
• Systemic steroid pretreatment without presteroid WBC documentation
• Diagnostic bone marrow or peripheral blood sample must have gene expression profiling and downstream genetic testing performed by submitting diagnostic specimens under the COG AALL08B1 or APEC14B1 biology studies, or AALL1131 or its successor study. Specimens must demonstrate a Ph-like expression profile (ie, LDA-positive) as tested by low density microarray testing at the COG ALL reference laboratory or TriCore laboratory at the University of New Mexico AND must contain 1 of the following genetic lesions: (determined at COG ALL reference laboratories, or equivalent CAP/CLIA-certified laboratories approved by the medical monitor: 1. CRLF2 rearrangement* with confirmed JAK1 or JAK2 mutation (JAK+) 2. CRLF2 rearrangement* without JAK mutation 3. Other JAK pathway alterations (eg, JAK2 fusions, EPOR fusions, SH2B3 deletions, IL7RA mutations) with or without CRLF2-R, or CRLF2-R with unknown JAK status*† as determined by a COG ALL Reference Laboratory
• Completed a 4-drug Induction therapy regimen (modified aBFM regimen or equivalent) in Study AALL1131 or its successor study, or as per the institutional standard of care for HR B-ALL and have had end-Induction minimal residual disease (MRD) assessed
• Male and female subjects of reproductive non childbearing potential or willing to take appropriate precautions to avoid pregnancy or fathering a child for the duration of study participation
• Receipt of any other cytotoxic chemotherapy before Induction therapy, with exception of hydroxyurea or steroid pretreatment
• Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
• BCR-ABL1-rearranged (Ph+) ALL
• Calculated creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate < 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2
• Alanine aminotransferase ≥ 5 × upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• Direct bilirubin ≥ 1.5 × ULN (may be assumed if total bilirubin is below ULN)
• History or evidence of cirrhosis
• Platelet count < 75 × 10^3/μL
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) < 750/μL
• Positive screen for hepatitis B or C
• Known human immunodeficiency virus infection

• Male and female subjects aged between 18-75 years
• Ability to understand and sign a written informed consent form (ICF)
• Histological evidence of NASH based on central reading of the Screening biopsy
• Subjects included in Part1 must have histopathological evidence of Stage 2 or 3 liver fibrosis per the NASH CRN System based on central reading of the Screening biopsy slides. Subjects newly randomized in Part 2 must have histological evidence of Stage 3 liver fibrosis per the NASH CRN System, based on central reading of the Screening period biopsy slides. Historical biopsy can be used, provided the criteria listed on Item 3a above are fulfilled.
• Females of childbearing potential and males participating in the study must agree to use at least 2 approved methods of contraception throughout the duration of the study and for 30 days after stopping study drug. Females who are postmenopausal must have documentation of cessation of menses for ≥ 12 months and serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) ≥ 30 mU/mL at Screening.
• Inability to undergo a liver biopsy
• Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) positive
• Hepatitis C antibody (HCVAb) positive
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-1 or HIV-2 infection
• Prior or planned liver transplantation
• Other known causes of chronic liver disease
• History or presence of cirrhosis and/or hepatic decompensation including ascites, hepatic encephalopathy or variceal bleeding
• Alcohol consumption greater than 21 units/week for males or 14 units/week for females
• AST > 200 IU/L in males and females at Screening
• ALT > 250 IU/L in males and > 200 IU/L in females at Screening
• HbA1c > 10% at Screening
• Serum albumin < 3.5 g/dL at Screening
• Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) < 50 mL/min/1.73 m2 according to the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation
• Platelet count < 100,000/mm3
• Total bilirubin > 1.5 mg/dL
• International normalized ratio (INR) > 1.3
• Model of end stage liver disease (MELD) score > 12
• Weight reduction, defined as ≥ 7% of body weight, through bariatric surgery in the past 5 years or bariatric surgery planned during the conduct of the study (including gastric banding and sleeve surgery)
• History of malignancy within the past 5 years or ongoing malignancy other than basal cell carcinoma, or resected noninvasive cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma
• Active, serious infections that require parenteral antibiotic or antifungal therapy within 30 days prior to Screening Visit
• Clinically significant cardiovascular or cerebrovascular disease within the past 3 months
• Females who are pregnant or breastfeeding
• Current or anticipated treatment with radiation therapy, cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agents and immunomodulating agents (eg, interleukins, interferons, cyclosporine, tacrolimus) except for vaccines or short-term corticosteroids
• Receiving a glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist, a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitor, a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) and/or SGLT1 inhibitor, or a thiazolidinedione (TZD) for less than 6 months prior to the Screening period liver biopsy. Subjects on a stable therapy with a GLP-1 receptor agonist, DPP-4 inhibitor, SGLT1 and/or SGLT2 inhibitor, or a TZD for at least 6 months prior to the Screening liver biopsy may be considered eligible. (Important Note: if a historical biopsy is to be used, subjects need to be on stable therapy for at least 6 months prior to the day historical liver biopsy was performed).

Part 1 Open-Label Extension:
• Patients previously enrolled in etrolizumab Phase III study GA29144 (NCT02394028) who meet the eligibility criteria for open-label etrolizumab as described in the protocol Part 2 Safety Monitoring:
• Patients who participated in etrolizumab Phase III study GA29144 (NCT02394028) and are not eligible or choose not to enter Part 1
• Patients who transfer from Part 1
• Completion of the 12-week safety follow-up period prior to entering Part 1 Open-Label Extension:
• Any new, significant, uncontrolled condition Part 2 Safety Monitoring:
• No exclusion criteria

• Diagnosis of unilateral, bilateral, unifocal, multifocal, or multicentric DCIS without invasive breast cancer (date of diagnosis defined as the date of the first pathology report that diagnosed the patient with DCIS) OR: atypia verging on DCIS OR: DCIS + LCIS (mix and/or separate locations in the same breast)
• A patient who has had a lumpectomy or partial mastectomy with margins positive for DCIS (i.e. <2mm/ink on tumor) as part of their treatment for a current DCIS diagnosis is also eligible (post-excision bilateral mammogram required at enrollment to establish a new baseline)
• No previous DCIS or invasive breast cancer in ipsilateral breast 5 years prior to current DCIS diagnosis
• 40 years of age or older at time of DCIS diagnosis
• ECOG performance status 0 or 1
• No contraindication for surgery
• Baseline imaging (must include dimensions):
• Unilateral DCIS: contralateral normal mammogram ≤ 6 months of registration and ipsilateral breast imaging ≤ 120 days of registration (must include ipsilateral mammogram; can also include ultrasound or breast MRI)
• Bilateral DCIS: bilateral breast imaging ≤ 120 days of registration (must include bilateral mammogram; can also include ultrasound or breast MRI)
• DCIS s/p lumpectomy: post excision mammogram on side of excision ≤ 60 days of registration
• Pathologic criteria:
• Any grade I DCIS (irrespective of necrosis/comedonecrosis)
• Any grade II DCIS (irrespective of necrosis/comedonecrosis)
• Absence of invasion or microinvasion
• Diagnosis of DCIS confirmed on core needle biopsy, vacuum-assisted or surgery ≤ 120 days of registration
• ER(+) and/or PR(+) by IHC (≥ 10% staining or Allred score ≥ 4) unless atypia verging on DCIS in which case biomarker criterion does not apply
• HER2 0, 1+, or 2+ by IHC if HER2 testing is performed
• Histology slides reviewed and agreement between two clinical pathologists (not required to be at same institution) that pathology fulfills COMET eligibility criteria. In cases of disagreement between the two pathology reviews about whether or not a case fulfills the eligibility criteria, a third pathology review will be required.
• At least two sites of biopsy for those cases where individual mammographic extent of calcifications exceeds 4 cm, with second biopsy benign or both sites fulfilling pathology eligibility criteria (ER/PR testing required for second biopsy)
• Amenable to follow up examinations
• Ability to read, understand and evaluate study materials and willingness to sign a written informed consent document
• Reads and speaks Spanish or English
• Male DCIS
• Grade III DCIS
• Concurrent diagnosis of invasive or microinvasive breast cancer in either breast
• Documented mass on examination or mass/hypoechoic area on imaging at site of DCIS prior to biopsy yielding diagnosis of DCIS, with exception of: subsequent lumpectomy or partial mastectomy (with positive DCIS margins i.e. <2mm/ink on tumor) followed by a post-surgery MMG; fibroadenoma at a distinct/separate site from site of DCIS; or diagnosis of mass/hypoechoic area as a cyst or a papilloma. In cases of uncertainty about whether the mass was present on physical examination prior to biopsy, the following criteria should be applied: if mammogram noting abnormal findings is diagnostic MMG = symptomatic/if mammogram noting abnormal findings is screening MMG = asymptomatic. If a patient has a mass on imaging that is biopsied (worked-up) and does not show invasive breast cancer, they are eligible. If a patient has a mass on initial MMG that is not seen on subsequent MMG, they are eligible (if initial mass occurred due to additional work-up).
• Any color/bloody nipple discharge (ipsilateral breast)
• Mammographic finding of BIRADS 4 or greater within 6 months prior to registration at site of breast other than that of known DCIS, without pathologic assessment
• Use of investigational cancer agents within 6 weeks prior to diagnosis of DCIS
• Any serious and/or unstable pre-existing medical, psychiatric, or other existing condition that would prevent compliance with the trial or consent process
• Pregnancy. If a woman has been confirmed as pregnant, she will not be eligible to take part in the trial. If she suspects there is a chance that she may be pregnant, a pregnancy test should be undertaken, although a pregnancy test for all women of child-bearing potential is not mandatory. In addition, if a woman becomes pregnant once registered to the trial, she can continue to be followed (endocrine therapy is not a mandatory requirement of the study)
• Documented history of prior tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitor, or raloxifene use in the 6 months prior to registration
• Current use of exogenous hormones (i.e. oral progesterone)

1. Aged ≥ 12 years 2. At least 1 symptomatic stone event (passage or procedural intervention) within 3 years prior to enrollment 3. Low 24‐hr urine volume 1. ≥18 years old: <1.8 L/day 2. <18 years old: <20 ml/Kg/day up to 1.8L/day 4. Able to provide informed consent (parental permission for children) 5. Owning and willing to use a smartphone or other device (e.g., tablet) compatible with the study‐provided wireless enabled "smart" bottle 1. Spinal cord injury 2. Currently undergoing active treatment for cancer except basal cell skin cancer, or patients with a history of cancer who completed their initial therapy <1 year before screening. 3. Known infectious (struvite), monogenic or other causes of stone disease for which therapies are likely to significantly alter course of stone disease 1. Cystinuria 2. Primary hyperoxaluria 3. Primary xanthinuria 4. Primary hyperparathyroidism 5. Sarcoidosis 6. Medullary sponge kidney 4. History or presence of hyponatremia (serum sodium <130 mmol/L) or hypo‐osmolality (serum osmolality <275 mosm/kg) 5. Study participants with comorbidities that preclude high fluid intake or prior surgery precluding high fluid intake or leading to GI fluid losses 1. History of or current Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, short gut syndrome (e.g. ileostomy, bowel bypass surgery to treat obesity, small bowel resection), chronic diarrhea, or GI tract ostomy. 2. History of malabsorptive (e.g., Roux‐en‐Y gastric bypass) or restrictive (e.g., sleeve gastrectomy) bariatric surgery procedures 3. Congestive heart failure i. NYHA class II or greater, and/or ii. Hospital admission in the past year for heart failure d. Lung disease with a home oxygen requirement e. Chronic kidney disease (eGFR <30 ml/min/1.7 m2 over a 3‐month period) i. For adults (age ≥18), we will use the CKD‐Epi equation which requires the measurement of serum creatinine only. ii. For children (age <18), we will use the bedside Schwartz (CKiD) formula. f. Nephrotic syndrome (>3.5 grams of protein per 24 hours) g. Cirrhosis with ascites 6. Women who are currently pregnant or planning pregnancy within 2 years. 7. Renal transplant recipient 8. Bedridden study participants (ECOG ≥ 3) 9. Uncorrected anatomical obstruction of the urinary tract 10. History of recurrent urinary tract infections (> 3 UTI/year proven by urine culture) 11. Exclusions due to medication use: 1. Chronic use of lithium 2. Long‐term glucocorticoid use (> 7.5 mg prednisone daily for > 30 days prior to enrollment) 3. Intake of narcotic medication on a daily basis for >30 days prior to enrollment 4. Supplemental Vitamin C (> 1 g daily) 12. Individuals with stones that have developed after the initiation of medications that are strongly associated with USD such as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide, topiramate, zonisamide), high dose vitamin C (> 1 g daily), high dose calcium supplementation (> 1,200 mg daily) AND who have discontinued or plan to discontinue these medications. 13. Individuals taking medications that may crystallize in the urine (guaifenesin, sulfonamides, triamterene, and the protease inhibitors indinavir and nelfinavir) AND who have discontinued or plan to discontinue these medications. Note: Individuals who are on long‐term medications that increase the risk of stone disease, who cannot stop these medications due to other chronic conditions (e.g., HIV) and who may reduce their risk for stone recurrence through increased fluid intake, will be eligible to participate in the trial. Examples of these medications include: 1. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide, topiramate, zonisamide) 2. Medications that may crystallize in the urine (guaifenesin, sulfonamides, triamterene, and the protease inhibitors indinavir and nelfinavir). 14. Study participants <2 yrs life expectancy 15. Non‐English Speakers 16. History of Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH) 17. Anatomical urologic abnormalities including ileal conduits, horseshoe kidney, megaureter or solitary kidney. 18. Psychiatric conditions impairing compliance with the study 19. Vulnerable population (prisoner and/or cognitive impairment that the investigator feels will impact the study participant's ability to participate in the protocol) 20. Individual who will be unable to participate in the protocol in the judgment of the investigator.

Inclusion Criteria 1. Male or female at least 18 years of age and able to provide informed consent. 2. Histologically-confirmed diagnosis of CD20-positive DLBCL based on the WHO classification (2016); the diagnosis must be confirmed at the enrolling site. Subjects with high-grade B-cell lymphoma with MYC and BCL2 and/or BCL6 rearrangements and high-grade B-cell lymphoma, NOS are eligible. 3. Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0, 1 or 2. 4. International Prognostic Index (IPI) score of at least 3. 5. Estimated life expectancy of at least 12 weeks. 6. Adequate organ function as follows (within 14 days prior to randomization): 1. Hepatic: total bilirubin ≤1.5 times upper limit of normal (ULN); alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST) ≤1.5 times ULN (<5 times ULN if liver involvement) 2. Renal: creatinine clearance of >50 mL/min by Cockcroft- Gault equation 3. Bone marrow: platelets ≥75 x 109/L, absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥1.5 x 109/L, hemoglobin ≥10 g/dL. (Platelets ≥50 x 109/L, ANC ≥1.0 x 109/L, hemoglobin ≥8 g/dL permitted if documented bone marrow involvement) 7. Male or female with reproductive potential, must be willing to use an approved contraceptive method (for example, intrauterine device (IUD), birth control pills, or barrier device) during and for 3 months after discontinuation of study treatment. Women of childbearing potential must have a negative serum pregnancy test within 7 days prior to randomization. 1. Men are considered of reproductive potential unless they have undergone a vasectomy and confirmed sterile by a post-vasectomy semen analysis. 2. Women are considered of reproductive potential unless they have undergone hysterectomy and/or surgical sterilization (at least 6 weeks following a bilateral oophorectomy, bilateral tubal ligation, or bilateral tubal occlusive procedure that has been confirmed in accordance with the device's label) or achieved postmenopausal status (defined as cessation of regular menses for greater than 12 consecutive months in women at least 45 years of age). 8. Left ventricular ejection fraction ≥50% by echocardiography or nuclear medicine multi-gated scan. 9. Must be able to swallow tablets. 10. Must be able to comply with study protocol procedures. 11. Willing to consent to have blood stored for possible future biomarker and disease analysis. 12. Must have available and willing to submit pre-systemic treatment DLBCL tumor biopsy tissue/slides for central pathology review. Exclusion Criteria 1. Received treatment with an investigational drug within the last 30 days. 2. Receiving or has received radiation or any other systemic anticancer treatment for lymphoma (Up to 7 days of corticosteroids are permitted but must be administered after eligibility IPI determination and imaging scans). 3. History of indolent lymphoma or follicular Grade 3b lymphoma. 4. Primary mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma. 5. B-cell lymphoma, unclassifiable, with features. intermediate between DLBCL and classical Hodgkin lymphoma. 6. Burkitt lymphoma. 7. Pregnancy or breastfeeding. 8. Known central nervous system (CNS) involvement. 9. Any significant concomitant disorder based on the discretion of the investigator, including but not limited to active bacterial, fungal, or viral infection, incompatible with participation in the study. 10. A second primary malignancy (except adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancer); subjects who have had another malignancy in the past, but have been disease-free for more than 5 years, and subjects who have had a localized malignancy treated with curative intent and disease free for more than 2 years are eligible. 11. Use of a strong inducer or moderate or strong inhibitor of CYP3A4 within 7 days prior to start of study therapy or expected requirement for use on study therapy. 12. Personal or immediate family history of long QT syndrome, QTc interval >450 msec (males) or >470 msec (females) at screening (recommended that QTc be calculated using Fridericia correction formula, QTcF: see Section 6.2.1), or a history of unexplained syncope. 13. Use of any medication that can prolong the QT/QTc interval within 7 days prior to start of study therapy or expected requirement for use on study therapy. 14. History of severe allergic or anaphylactic reaction to monoclonal antibody therapy. 15. Confirmed diagnosis of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. 16. Ongoing grade 2 or higher peripheral neuropathy. 17. Have any of the following cardiac disorders: uncontrolled hypertension, unstable angina, myocardial infarction within 8 weeks of Day1, NYHA Grade 2 or higher congestive heart failure, ventricular arrhythmia requiring medication within 1 year of Day 1, NYHA Grade 2 or higher peripheral vascular disease. 18. Received a live vaccine within 28 days of study Day 1. 19. HIV positive. 20. Evidence of chronic hepatitis C infection as indicated by antibody to HCV with positive HCV-RNA. 21. Evidence of chronic hepatitis B infection as indicated by either: 1. HBsAg+ or 2. HBcAb+ with HBV-DNA+ (any detectable amount is considered positive)

• Patients must have pathologically confirmed melanoma that is either stage IV or unresectable stage III; patients may have primaries of cutaneous, mucosal or unknown origin; patients with uveal (ocular) primary are not eligible
• Patients must have measurable disease per RECIST 1.1; all measurable lesions must be assessed by physical examination, computed tomography (CT) scans or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)s within 28 days prior to registration; if the only measurable disease is cutaneous or subcutaneous, lesions must be at least 10 mm in greatest dimension and able to be serially recorded using calipers and photographs; tests used to assess non-measurable disease must have been performed within 42 days prior to registration; all disease must be assessed and documented on the Baseline Tumor Assessment Form
• Patients with central nervous system (CNS) metastases must have all lesions adequately treated with stereotactic radiation therapy, craniotomy, gamma knife therapy, or whole brain radiotherapy, with no subsequent evidence of CNS progression; patients must not have required steroids for at least 14 days prior to registration; patients with a history of central nervous system metastases must have MRI of the brain within 42 days prior to registration
• Patients must have had prior treatment with anti-PD1 or anti-PD-L1 agents and had documented disease progression per the treating physician either while on these agents or after stopping therapy with these agents without intervening therapy; patients who received adjuvant therapy for previously resected disease with PD-1 or PD-L1 agents may also be eligible if disease recurrence occurred while still receiving the PD-1 or PD-L1 therapy and no intervening therapy was received; patients must have discontinued anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 therapy at least 21 days prior to registration
• Patients must have Zubrod performance status of =< 2
• Patients must have complete history and physical examination within 28 days prior to registration
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500/mcL (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Hemoglobin >= 8 g/dL (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Platelets >= 100,000/mcL (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Total bilirubin =< 2.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (IULN) (except patients with Gilbert's syndrome) (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) both =< 5 x IULN (within 28 days prior to registration)
• Serum creatinine =< 2.0 x IULN within 28 days prior to registration
• Patients with a known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) must have CD4 count >= institutional lower limit of normal within 28 days prior to registration
• Patients with a known history of congestive heart failure (CHF), cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, myocardial infarction (MI), exposure to cardiotoxic medications, or with a clinical history suggestive of the above must have an electrocardiography (EKG) and echocardiogram (ECHO) performed within 42 days prior to registration and as clinically indicated while on treatment
• Patients with new symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF), cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, myocardial infarction (MI), or exposure to cardiotoxic medications must have a cardiology consultation, creatinine phosphokinase (CPK), and troponin testing at prestudy and as clinically indicated
• Males who are sexually active with women of reproductive potential must have agreed to use birth control throughout the study and for 7 months after completion of protocol treatment; in addition to routine contraceptive methods, "effective contraception" also includes heterosexual celibacy and surgery intended to prevent pregnancy (vasectomy); if at any point a previously celibate patient chooses to become heterosexually active during or within 7 months after completion of protocol treatment, he is responsible for beginning effective contraceptive measures
• Patients must submit archival tissue (if available) for translational medicine; patients must also be willing to undergo biopsies and submit fresh tissue and blood for translational medicine
• Patients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking of leftover tissue for future research
• Patients must be informed of the investigational nature of this study and must sign and give written informed consent in accordance with institutional and federal guidelines
• As a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system
• Patients must not have achieved a partial or complete response to the anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 agents prior to progression per the treating physician
• Patients must not have had any systemic therapy, including anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 agents, within 21 days prior to registration
• Patients must not have had prior radiation therapy within 14 days prior to registration
• Patients must not have had:
• Prior treatment with ipilimumab or other CTLA-4 antagonists
• Systemic therapy between progression on the anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 agents and registration
• Note: Systemic therapy (including BRAF-targeting agents) prior to anti-PD-1 or anti-PD-L1 therapy is allowed
• Patients must not be planning to require any additional form of systemic anti-tumor therapy while on protocol treatment
• Patients must not have known active hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection prior to registration
• Patients must not have an active infection requiring systemic therapy at time of registration
• Patients must not have organ allografts
• Patients must not have received systemic treatment with corticosteroids (> 10 mg daily prednisone or equivalent) or other immunosuppressive medications within 14 days prior to registration; inhaled or topical steroids, and adrenal replacement doses =< 10 mg daily prednisone or equivalent are permitted in the absence of active autoimmune disease
• Patients must not have a history of immune-mediated pneumonitis or colitis that required interruption of therapy or treatment of steroids
• No other prior malignancy is allowed except for the following: adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer, adequately treated stage 0, I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for two years
• Patients must not be pregnant or nursing due to risk of fetal or nursing infant harm; females of reproductive potential must have negative serum pregnancy test within 2 days prior to registration and agree to use an effective contraceptive method throughout the study and for 5 months after completion of protocol treatment; a woman is considered to be of "reproductive potential" if she has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months; in addition to routine contraceptive methods, "effective contraception" also includes heterosexual celibacy and surgery intended to prevent pregnancy (or with a side-effect of pregnancy prevention) defined as a hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy or bilateral tubal ligation; if at any point a previously celibate patient chooses to become heterosexually active during or within 5 months after protocol treatment, she is responsible for beginning effective contraceptive measures

• Age ≤6 weeks (≤42 days) at time of dose
• Ability to tolerate thin liquids as demonstrated through a formal bedside swallowing test
• Compound muscle action potential (CMAP) ≥2mV at Baseline; centralized review of CMAP data will be conducted
• Gestational age of 35 to 42 weeks • Patients with pre-symptomatic SMA Type 1 as determined by the following features:
• 2 copies of SMN2 Patients with 2 copies of SMN2 (n ≥12) • Patients with pre-symptomatic SMA Type 2 as determined by the following features:
• 3 copies of SMN2
• Weight at screening visit <2 kg
• Hypoxemia (oxygen saturation <96% awake or asleep without any supplemental oxygen or respiratory support) at the screening visit or for altitudes >1000 m, oxygen saturation <92% awake or asleep without any supplemental oxygen or respiratory support at the screening visit
• Any clinical signs or symptoms at screening or immediately prior to dosing that are, in the opinion of the Investigator, strongly suggestive of SMA
• Tracheostomy or current prophylactic use or requirement of noninvasive ventilatory support at any time and for any duration prior to screening or during the screening period
• Patients with signs of aspiration/inability to tolerate nonthickened liquids based on a formal swallowing test performed as part of screening or patients receiving any non-oral feeding method
• Clinically significant abnormalities in hematology or clinical chemistry parameters as determined by investigator or medical monitor
• Treatment with an investigational or commercial product, including nusinersen, given for the treatment of SMA. This includes any history of gene therapy, prior antisense oligonucleotide treatment, or cell transplantation.
• Patients whose weight-for-age is below the third percentile based on World Health Organization (WHO) Child Growth Standards
• Biological mother with active viral infection as determined by screening laboratory samples (includes human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] or positive serology for hepatitis B or C) • Biological mothers with clinical suspicion of Zika virus that meet Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Zika virus epidemiological criteria including history of residence in or travel to a geographic region with active Zika transmission at the time of travel will be tested for Zika virus RNA. Positive results warrant confirmed negative Zika virus RNA testing in the patient prior to enrollment.
• Serious nonrespiratory tract illness requiring systemic treatment and/or hospitalization within 2 Weeks prior to screening
• Upper or lower respiratory infection requiring medical attention, medical intervention, or increase in supportive care of any manner within 4 Weeks prior to dosing
• Severe nonpulmonary/respiratory tract infection within 4 Weeks before administration of gene replacement therapy or concomitant illness that, in the opinion of the Investigator or Sponsor medical monitor, creates unnecessary risks for gene replacement therapy such as:
• Major renal or hepatic impairment
• Known seizure disorder
• Diabetes mellitus
• Idiopathic hypocalciuria
• Symptomatic cardiomyopathy
• Known allergy or hypersensitivity to prednisolone or other glucocorticosteroids or their excipients
• Previous, planned or expected major surgical procedure including scoliosis repair surgery/procedure during the study assessment period
• Concomitant use of any of the following: drugs for treatment of myopathy or neuropathy, agents used to treat diabetes mellitus, or ongoing immunosuppressive therapy, plasmapheresis, immunomodulators such as adalimumab, immunosuppressive therapy within 4 Weeks prior to gene replacement therapy
• AntiAAV9 antibody titer >1:50 as determined by Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) binding immunoassay • Should a potential patient demonstrate AntiAAV9 antibody titer >1:50, he or she may receive retesting inside the 30-Day screening period and will be eligible to participate if the AntiAAV9 antibody titer upon retesting is ≤1:50, provided the <6 Week age requirement at the time of dosing is still met
• Biological mother involved with the care of the child refuses anti-AAV9 antibody testing prior to dosing

• All cancer cases with an International Classification of Diseases for Oncology (ICD)-O histologic behavior code of two "2" (carcinoma in situ) or three "3" (malignant), in remission
• Patient must have completed curative therapy (surgery and/or radiation and/or chemotherapy) within the past 12 months at a Childrens Oncology Group (COG) institution
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2; use Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age
• At the time of consent, patient or parent/guardian reports less than 420 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity over the last week
• Patient must have access to a smart phone with Android 4.3 or later or iOS 7.1 or later or computer (laptop/desktop) with a connection to the internet to create an account and be able to sync the Sqord device (accelerometer)
• Patient and at least one parent/guardian are able to read and write English; at least 1 parent/guardian must be able to read and write English in order to assist the patient with using their Sqord account
• Patients with previous hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT)
• Patients with significant concurrent disease, illness, psychiatric disorder or social issue that would compromise patient safety or compliance with protocol therapy, or interfere with consent, study participation, follow up, or interpretation of study results
• Female patients who are pregnant are not eligible; women of childbearing potential require a negative pregnancy test
• Female patient who is postmenarcheal and has not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method (including abstinence) for the duration of study participation
• Patients with a cognitive, motor, visual or auditory impairment that prevents computer use (e.g. unresolved posterior fossa syndrome) are not eligible

• Informed consent obtained before any trial-related activities. Trial-related activities are any procedures that are carried out as part of the trial, including activities to determine suitability for the trial except for protocol described pre-screening activities which require a separate informed consent.
• Male or female, aged 18-75 years (both inclusive) (for Japan: male or female aged 20-75 years (both inclusive)) at the time of signing informed consent
• Local histological diagnosis of NASH followed by histological confirmation of NASH based on central pathologist evaluation of a liver biopsy obtained up to 21 weeks before screening
• Histologic evidence of NASH based on central pathologist evaluation of a liver biopsy obtained up to 21 weeks before screening.
• NASH fibrosis stage 1, 2 or 3 according to the NASH CRN fibrosis staging system based on central pathologist evaluation
• Known or suspected abuse of alcohol (above 20 g/day for women or above 30 g/day for men), alcohol dependence* or narcotics. (* = assessed by the Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT questionnaire))
• Diagnosis of type 1 diabetes according to medical records
• HbA1c above 10% at screening
• History or presence of pancreatitis (acute or chronic)
• Calcitonin equal or above 50 ng/L at screening
• Family or personal history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 or medullary thyroid carcinoma. Family is defined as a first degree relative
• Body Mass Index (BMI) ≤ 25.0 kg/sqm at the screening visit (visit 1)
• Female who is pregnant, breast-feeding or intends to become pregnant or is of childbearing potential and not using an adequate contraceptive method (adequate contraceptive measures as required by local regulation or practice)