1. Age ≥ 18 years. 2. Appropriate staging studies identifying patient as AJCC 7th edition clinical stage T1 (a, b, or c) or T2 (a, b, or c) adenocarcinoma of the prostate gland. The patient should not have direct evidence of regional or distant metastases after appropriate staging studies. See Appendix I for details on AJCC 7th Edition staging criteria. Histologic confirmation of cancer will be required by biopsy performed within 12 months of registration. T-staging may be assessed by multi-parametric imaging alone if digital rectal examination was deferred. 3. The patient's Zubrod performance status must be 0-2 (see Appendix II for definition). 4. The Gleason summary score should be less than or equal to 7 [Grade group 1 (Gleason 3+3=6), group 2 (Gleason 3+4=7), and group 3 (Gleason 4+3=7) are allowed]. See Appendix III for details on definitions. While a template biopsy is recommended, it is not required in the case of MRI fusion biopsy performed on all dominant MR lesions (defined as PIRADS v2 4-5). 5. Baseline AUA symptom score ≤19 (see Appendix IV for questionnaire) without need for maximum medical therapy (specifically, not on tamsulosin 0.8mg daily). 6. EPIC sexual domain composite score 60-100 (see Appendix V). 7. Multi-parametric MRI evaluation of the prostate is required for this study within 12 months of registration. Gross radiographic disease on MRI (defined as PIRADS v2 score 3-5) must be > 5mm at minimum distance from at least one side's neurovascular bundle, which is typically the closest of the neurovascular elements to the prostate. 8. The serum PSA should be less than or equal to 20 ng/ml within 90 days of registration. -Study entry PSA must not be obtained during the following time frames: (1) 10-day period following prostate biopsy; (2) following initiation of ADT or anti-androgen therapy; (3) within 30 days after discontinuation of finasteride; (4) within 90 days after discontinuation of dutasteride; (5) within 5 days of a digital rectal examination (which is not a required exam on the protocol). 9. Ultrasound or MRI based volume estimation of prostate gland ≤ 80 grams. Cytoreduction therapy (finasteride or dutasteride only) may be considered for those with >60 gram size. 10. All patients must be willing and capable to provide informed consent to participate in the protocol within the 30 days prior to registration. 1. Subjects with clinical (digital rectal examination) evidence of extraprostatic extension (T3a) or seminal vesicle involvement (T3b). MRI evidence of equivocal/potential but not definite extraprostatic extension is allowed, as long as it is unilateral and not on the side of the gland proposed for neurovascular element sparing. In equivocal cases of potential extracapsular extension on MRI only, discretion is left to the treating physician. 2. MRI evidence of gross disease (defined as PIRADS v2 score 3-5 lesions) ≤5mm of BOTH neurovascular bundles, which are the most proximate of the neurovascular elements planned for sparing on this protocol. 3. Patients with all three intermediate risk factors (PSA >10 and ≤ 20, Gleason 7, clinical stage T2b-T2c) who ALSO have ≥50% of the number of their template biopsy cores positive for cancer are ineligible. 4. Inability to undergo multi-parametric MRI. 5. Evidence of metastatic disease. Note bone scan is not required for this study given the low-intermediate NCCN risk cohort to be enrolled. 6. Evidence of clinical nodal involvement of the pelvis. Biopsy is required for lymph nodes over ≥1.5cm in short-axis measured size. 7. No currently active ADT or anti-androgen therapy at time of registration is allowed. Further, no more than 3 cumulative months of prior ADT or anti-androgen therapy is allowed. If either has been used by the patient, there must be a demonstration of testosterone recovery (>50ng/dL serum blood level), EPIC sexual domain score ≥60, and at least 1 month between demonstration of testosterone recovery and study registration (any one measurement of testosterone recovery suffices). 8. Testosterone ≤ 50 ng/dL (any one measurement >50 ng/dL suffices for inclusion) within 90 days of study entry. 9. Subjects who have had previous pelvic radiotherapy or have had chemotherapy or surgery for prostate cancer. 10. Subjects who have plans to receive other concomitant or post treatment adjuvant antineoplastic therapy while on this protocol including surgery, cryotherapy, conventionally fractionated radiotherapy, hormonal therapy, or chemotherapy given as part of the treatment of prostate cancer. 11. Subjects who have undergone previous transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) within 1 year of enrollment or ablative procedures to the prostate for benign prostatic hyperplasia or other conditions (i.e. cryotherapy, HIFU). 12. Subjects who have baseline severe urinary symptoms, as defined by AUA symptom score >19 (alpha-blocker medication allowed except if taking tamsulosin 0.8mg daily at baseline which indicates compensated severe symptoms and also can affect sexual function). 13. Subjects who have a history of significant psychiatric illness that would confound informed consent. 14. Severe, active co-morbidity, defined as follows: 1. Unstable angina and/or congestive heart failure requiring hospitalization within the last 6 months 2. Myocardial infarction within the last 6 months 3. Acute bacterial or fungal infection requiring intravenous antibiotics at time of registration 4. Patients with active inflammatory colitis (including Crohn's Disease and ulcerative colitis) currently requiring systemic steroids and/or systemic immunosuppression are not eligible. 15. Subjects with a known allergy to polyethylene glycol hydrogel (rectal spacer material) or contraindication to spacer products (SpaceOAR). 16. Subjects with uncontrolled coagulation disorder which cannot be controlled with anticoagulants. 17. Men active with partners of reproductive potential who do not agree that they will use an effective contraceptive method during treatment and 6 months after treatment. 18. Men who require erectile function medication or aid to achieve an erection sufficient for intercourse. Ability to achieve erection sufficient for intercourse without medication or aid at least once time in the month prior to registration is sufficient for inclusion. 19. Men who have clinically significant penile malformation (i.e. Peyronie's disease) or history of penile implantation are excluded. 20. If DRE is performed, patient may not have palpable disease on side of gland to be planned for neurovascular sparing. Given the poor accuracy of DRE, such a finding should be confirmed by MRI and/or biopsy to harbor actual disease before excluding a patient on this basis.

• Women of childbearing potential must not be known to be pregnant or lactating
• Patients must be scheduled for, or have intent to schedule, a screening mammogram
• Patients must be able to tolerate digital breast tomosynthesis and full-field digital mammographic imaging required by protocol.
• Patients must be willing and able to provide a written informed consent
• Patients must not have symptoms or signs of benign or malignant breast disease (eg, nipple discharge, breast lump) warranting a diagnostic rather than a screening mammogram, and/or other imaging studies (eg, sonogram); patients with breast pain are eligible as long as other criteria are met
• Patients must not have had a screening mammogram within the last 11 months prior to date of randomization
• Patients must not have previous personal history of breast cancer including ductal carcinoma in situ
• Patients must not have breast enhancements (e.g., implants or injections)
• ANNUAL SCREENING REGIMEN ELIGIBILITY CHECK
• To be eligible for inclusion in the annual screening regimen one of the following three conditions must be met in addition to the eligibility criteria above:
• Patients are pre-menopausal; OR
• Post-menopausal aged 45-69 with any of the following three risks factors:
• Dense breasts (BIRADS density categories c-heterogeneously dense or d-extremely dense), or
• Family history of breast cancer (first degree relative with breast cancer), or, positive genetic testing for any deleterious genes that indicate an increased risk for breast cancer, or
• Currently on hormone therapy; OR
• Post-menopausal ages 70-74 with either of the following two risk factors:
• Dense breasts (BIRADS density categories c-heterogeneously dense or d-extremely dense), or
• Currently on hormone therapy
• Postmenopausal women are defined as those with their last menstrual period more than 12 months prior to study entry; for the purpose of defining menopausal status for women who have had surgical cessation of their periods, women who no longer have menses due to hysterectomy and oophorectomy will be considered postmenopausal; women who no longer have menses due to hysterectomy without oophorectomy will be considered premenopausal until age 52 and postmenopausal thereafter
• All other postmenopausal women are eligible for inclusion in the biennial screening regimen
• For those women who cannot be assigned to annual or biennial screening at the time of study entry and randomization because they are postmenopausal, have no family history or known deleterious breast cancer mutation, are not on hormone therapy AND have not had a prior mammogram, breast density will be determined by the radiologist?s recording of it at the time of interpretation of the first study screening examination, either DM or TM; for those who are randomized to TM, radiologists will assign BI-RADS density through review of the DM or synthetic DM portion of the TM examination; such women cannot be part of the planned stratification by screening frequency and are expected to represent far less than 1% of the Tomosynthesis Mammographic Imaging Screening Trial (TMIST) population
• Breast density will be determined by prior mammography reports, when available; all other risk factors used to determine patient eligibility for annual or biennial screening will be determined by subject self-report

1. TIA with ABCD2 ≥4 or ischemic stroke, within the prior 14 days. 1. pre-event inability to perform all of own basic ADLs 2. unable to obtain informed consent from subject or legally authorized representative 3. incarcerated 4. known pregnancy 5. current mechanical ventilation (can enroll later if this resolves) or tracheostomy 6. current use of positive airway pressure, or use within one month prior to stroke 7. anatomical or dermatologic anomaly that makes use of CPAP interface unfeasible 8. severe bullous lung disease 9. history of prior spontaneous pneumothorax or current pneumothorax 10. hypotension requiring current treatment with pressors (can enroll later if this resolves) 11. other specific medical circumstances that conceivably, in the opinion of the site PI, could render the patient at risk of harm from use of CPAP 12. massive epistaxis or previous history of massive epistaxis 13. cranial surgery or head trauma within the past 6 months, with known or possible CSF leak or pneumocephalus 14. recent hemicraniectomy or suboccipital craniectomy (i.e. those whose bone has not yet been replaced), or any other recent bone removal procedure for relief of intracranial pressure 15. current receipt of oxygen supplementation >4 liters per minute 16. current contact, droplet, respiratory/airborne precautions

Individuals who meet all of the following criteria are eligible for enrollment as study participants: 1. Participant and/or parent/legal guardian must be able to understand and provide informed consent and/or assent, as applicable; 2. Peanut allergic: participant must meet all of the following criteria to minimize the chance that the participant will develop natural tolerance to peanut over the course of the study: 1. Positive skin prick test (SPT) defined as ≥4 mm wheal greater than saline control) to peanut, 2. Positive peanut immunoglobulin E (IgE), ≥6 kUA/L, at Screening or within three months of Screening, determined by ImmunoCap, and 3. Positive double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge (DBPCFC), defined as experiencing dose-limiting symptoms at a single dose of ≤100 mg of peanut protein. 3. Allergic to at least two of the six other foods (milk, egg, wheat, cashew, hazelnut, walnut): each participant must meet all of the following criteria for at least two of the six other foods to minimize the chance that the participant will develop natural tolerance to at least two of the six other foods over the course of the study: 1. Positive SPT (≥4 mm wheal) to food, 2. Positive food specific IgE (≥6 kUA/L) at Screening or within three months of Screening, determined by ImmunoCap, and 3. Positive DBPCFC, defined as experiencing dose-limiting symptoms at a single dose of ≤300 mg of food protein. 4. With body weight (as measured at Screening) and total serum IgE level (as measured within three months of Screening) suitable for omalizumab dosing; 5. If female of child-bearing potential, must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test; 6. For women of childbearing potential, must agree to,during the treatment period and for 60 days after the last dose of study drug:
• remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse), or
• use acceptable contraceptive methods (barrier methods, or
• oral, injected, or implanted hormonal methods of contraception, or
• other forms of hormonal contraception that have comparable efficacy). 7. Plan to remain in the study area of an OUtMATCH clinical research unit (CRU) during the trial; and 8. Be willing to be trained on the proper use of an epinephrine autoinjector for the duration of the study. Individuals who meet any of the following criteria are not eligible for enrollment as study participants: 1. Inability or unwillingness of a participant and/or parent/legal guardian to give written informed consent and/or assent or comply with the study protocol; 2. Clinically significant laboratory abnormalities at Screening; 3. Dose-limiting symptoms to the placebo portion of the Screening DBPCFC; 4. Sensitivity or suspected/known allergy to any ingredients (including excipients) of the
• active or placebo oral food challenge (OFC) material,
• multi-allergen oral immunotherapy (OIT), or
• drugs related to omalizumab (e.g., monoclonal antibodies, polyclonal gamma globulin).
• Note: Guidance for determination of sensitivity to excipients will be detailed in the study's Manual of Procedures (MOP). 5. Poorly controlled atopic dermatitis (AD) at Screening, per the Principal Investigator's PI's) discretion; 6. Poorly controlled or severe asthma/wheezing at Screening, defined by at least one of the following criteria: 1. Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) criteria regarding asthma control latest guidelines, 2. History of two or more systemic corticosteroid courses within six months of Screening or one course of systemic corticosteroids within three months of Screening to treat asthma/wheezing, 3. Prior intubation/mechanical ventilation for asthma/wheezing, 4. One hospitalization or Emergency Department (ED) visit for asthma/wheezing within six months of Screening, 5. Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) <80 percent of predicted or FEV1/forced vital capacity (FVC) <75 percent, with or without controller medications (only for participants who are aged seven years or older and are able to perform spirometry), or 6. Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) dosing of >500 mcg daily fluticasone (or equivalent ICS based on the National Institutes of Health, National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) dosing chart). 7. History of severe anaphylaxis to participant-specific foods that will be used in this study, defined as neurological compromise or requiring intubation; 8. Treatment with a burst of oral, intramuscular (IM), or intravenous (IV) steroids of more than two days for an indication other than asthma/wheezing within 30 days of Screening; 9. Currently receiving oral, intramuscular, or intravenous corticosteroids, tricyclic antidepressants, or beta-blockers (oral or topical); 10. Past or current history of eosinophilic gastrointestinal (GI) disease within three years of Screening; 11. Past or current history of cancer, or currently being investigated for possible cancer; 12. Previous adverse reaction to omalizumab; 13. Past or current history of any immunotherapy to any of the foods being treated in this study (e.g., OIT, sublingual immunotherapy [SLIT], EPIT) within 6 months of Screening; 14. Treatment with monoclonal antibody therapy, such as omalizumab (Xolair®), dupilumab (Dupixent®), benralizumab (Fasenra™), mepolizumab (Nucala®), reslizumab (Cinqair®), or other immunomodulatory therapy within six months of Screening; 15. Currently on "build-up phase" of inhalant allergen immunotherapy (i.e., has not reached maintenance dosing). Note: Individuals tolerating maintenance allergen immunotherapy can be enrolled; 16. Inability to discontinue antihistamines for the minimum wash-out periods required for SPTs,or OFCs; 17. Current participation in another therapeutic or interventional clinical trial or participation within 90 days of Screening; 18. Use of investigational drugs within 24 weeks of Screening; 19. Pregnant or breastfeeding, or intending to become pregnant during the study or within 60 days after the last dose of omalizumab or placebo for omalizumab; 20. Has a first-degree relative already enrolled in the study; or 21. Past or current medical problems (e.g., severe latex allergy), history of other chronic diseases (other than asthma/wheezing, AD, or rhinitis) requiring therapy (e.g., heart disease, diabetes), findings from physical assessment, or abnormalities in clinical laboratory testing that are not listed above, which, in the opinion of the PI, may:
• pose additional risks from participation in the study,
• may interfere with the participant's ability to comply with study requirements, or
• may impact the quality or interpretation of the data obtained from the study.

• Must have newly diagnosed multiple myeloma with a history of a minimum of 4 cycles of induction therapy, have received high-dose therapy (HDT) and autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT) within 12 months of the start of induction therapy, and be within 6 months of ASCT on the date of randomization
• Must have a very good partial response (VGPR) or better response assessed per International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG) 2016 criteria at the time of randomization
• Must have archived bone marrow samples collected before induction treatment (that is, at diagnosis) or before transplant (for example, at the end of induction) or have existing results on the index multiple myeloma clone based on Adaptive Biotechnologies' next generation sequencing (NGS)-based minimal residual disease (MRD) assay. Archived bone marrow samples will be used for calibration of myeloma clonal cells to facilitate assessment of primary end point by NGS. If an existing result on index myeloma clone is available from Adaptive Biotechnologies' NGS-based MRD assay, as part of institutional procedures, an archived bone marrow sample is not required as long as Adaptive Biotechnologies is able to retrieve historical results on the index myeloma clone form the clinical database. Any one of the following archived samples are required: (a) Greater than 1 milliliter (mL) viable frozen bone marrow aspirated aliquot (preferred) collected in an ethylenediaminetetra-acetic acid (EDTA) tube, frozen, and stored at a temperature of -80 centigrade (°C), or; (b) Non-decalcified diagnostic bone marrow aspirate clot sections (block or slides) for MRD assessment: (i) A formalin fixed paraffin embedded (FFPE) block of bone marrow aspirate clot, or slides (preferably 5, if available), 5 micrometer each, of non-decalcified bone marrow, or; (ii) Slides (preferably 5, if available), bone marrow aspirate smear; (iii) Please note, bone marrow core sections are not acceptable samples for analysis; (iv) In exceptional circumstances when index myeloma clone cannot be identified from the archived bone marrow sample, a post-transplant sample can be used to identify myeloma clone with permission from the sponsor
• Must have residual disease as defined by detectable MRD (Adaptive Biotechnologies' NGS based MRD assay)
• Must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of 0, 1, or 2
• A history of malignancy (other than multiple myeloma) unless all treatment of that malignancy was completed at least 2 years before consent and the participant has no evidence of disease before the of date of randomization. Exceptions are squamous and basal cell carcinomas of the skin, carcinoma in situ of the cervix or breast, or other non-invasive lesion that in the opinion of the investigator, with concurrence with the sponsor's medical monitor, is considered cured with minimal risk of recurrence within 3 years
• Must not have progressed on multiple myeloma (MM) therapy at any time prior to screening
• Have had prior treatment/therapy with: (a) Daratumumab or any other anti-cluster of differentiation 38 (CD38) therapies, (b) Focal radiation therapy within 14 days prior to randomization with the exception of palliative radiotherapy for symptomatic management but not on measurable extramedullary plasmacytoma. Radiotherapy within 14 days prior to randomization on measurable extramedullary plasmacytoma is not permitted even in the setting of palliation for symptomatic management, or (c) Plasmapheresis within 28 days of randomization
• Be exhibiting clinical signs of meningeal or central nervous system involvement due to multiple myeloma
• Have known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with a forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) less than (<) 50 percent (%) of predicted normal
• Have known moderate or severe persistent asthma within the past 2 years or current uncontrolled asthma of any classification
• Have any of the following: (a) Known history of seropositivity for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV); (b) Seropositive for hepatitis B (defined by a positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen [HBsAg]. Participants with resolved infection (that is, participants who are HBsAg negative but positive for antibodies to hepatitis B core antigen [anti-HBc] and/or antibodies to hepatitis B surface antigen [anti-HBs]) must be screened using real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) measurement of hepatitis B virus (HBV) DNA levels. Those who are PCR positive will be excluded. EXCEPTION: Participants with serologic findings suggestive of HBV vaccination (anti-HBs positivity as the only serologic marker) AND a known history of prior HBV vaccination, do not need to be tested for HBV DNA by PCR; (c) Seropositive for hepatitis C (anti-hepatitis C virus [HCV] antibody positive or HCV-RNA quantitation positive), except in the setting of a sustained virologic response, defined as aviremia at least 12 weeks after completion of antiviral therapy)

• CKD patients classified as Stage 3 and 4 of National Kidney Foundation Classification with estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) between 15 and 59 mL/min/1.73 m2 according to the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) formula based on serum creatinine, age, gender, and race.
• Men and women 35 to 70 years of age
• Allergy to Glitazones
• Myocardial infarction
• Heart failure
• Angina
• History of kidney stones
• Liver disease (abnormal liver enzymes)
• Anemia (hemoglobin <8 g/dl)
• Cancer with current treatment
• Previous organ transplantation
• Immunosuppressant therapy
• Human immunodeficiency virus infection
• Pregnancy or lactating
• Current tobacco use
• Dilantin and oral contraceptive usage due to potential drug interaction with glitazones
• Self-identified history of hypoglycemia

• Male or female, age greater than or equal to 18 years at the time of signing informed consent
• Diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus greater than or equal to 10 years prior to the day of screening
• HbA1c of 7.0-10.0% (53-86 mmol/mol) (both inclusive)
• Eye inclusion criteria (both eyes must meet all criteria):
• Early Treatment Diabetic Retinopathy Study (ETDRS) level of 10-75 (both inclusive) evaluated by fundus photography and confirmed by central reading centre
• No ocular or intraocular treatment for diabetic retinopathy or diabetic macular oedema twelve months prior to the day of screening
• No anticipated need for ocular or intraocular treatment for diabetic retinopathy or diabetic macular oedema within six months after randomisation
• Best-corrected visual acuity greater than or equal to 30 letters using the ETDRS visual acuity protocol
• No previous treatment with pan-retinal laser photocoagulation
• No substantial non-diabetic ocular condition that, in the opinion of the ophthalmologist, would impact diabetic retinopathy or diabetic macular oedema progression during the trial
• No substantial media opacities that would preclude successful imaging
• Any of the following: myocardial infarction, stroke, hospitalization for unstable angina pectoris or transient ischaemic attack within the past 60 days prior to the day of screening
• Planned coronary, carotid or peripheral artery revascularisation known on the day of screening
• Subjects presently classified as being in New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class IV
• Renal impairment measured as estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) value of eGFR less than 30 ml/min/1.73 m^2
• Personal or first degree relative(s) history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 or medullary thyroid carcinoma
• Presence or history of malignant neoplasms within the past 5 years prior to the day of screening. Basal and squamous cell skin cancer and any carcinoma in-situ are allowed
• Female who is pregnant, breast-feeding or intends to become pregnant or is of child-bearing potential and not using highly effective contraceptive methods
• Current or previous (within 30 days before screening) treatment with any glucagon like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist or dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor
• Receipt of any investigational medicinal product within 30 days before screening
• Previous participation in this trial. Participation is defined as randomisation
• Known or suspected hypersensitivity to trial products or related products
• Any disorder, which in the investigator's opinion might jeopardise subject's safety or compliance with the protocol

• Metastatic disease defined as new or progressive lesions on cross-sectional imaging or bone scan. Patients must have at least:
• One measurable site of disease as per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) version (v) 1.1
• One bone lesion on bone scan (tec99 or sodium fluoride [NaF] positron emission tomography [PET]/computed tomography [CT], CT, or magnetic resonance imaging [MRI]) for the bone-only cohort
• Histologically confirmed diagnosis of one of the following metastatic cohorts:
• Small cell/ neuroendocrine carcinoma of the bladder
•All urothelial carcinomas with any amount of neuroendocrine differentiation (including small cell differentiation) will be included. If the tumor is purely neuroendocrine, metastasis from another site of origin should be clinically excluded.
• Adenocarcinoma of the bladder, or urachal adenocarcinoma, or bladder/urethra clear cell adenocarcinoma
•must be pure (per World Health Organization [WHO] definition), (i.e. urothelial carcinoma with glandular differentiation is not considered a pure adenocarcinoma.
• Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder
•must be pure (i.e. urothelial carcinoma with squamous differentiation is not considered a pure squamous cell carcinoma).
• Plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma
•Tumor should show predominantly > or equal ~50% plasmacytoid histology (including all types of discohesive growth, such as tumors with signet-ring and/or rhabdoid features as well).
• Any penile cancer
• Sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma
•Tumor should be predominantly sarcomatoid ~50% (including rhabdoid differentiation) is also unclassified renal cell carcinomas (RCCs): all (assuming they are high grade with metastasis) malignant angiomyolipomas are allowed.
• Sarcomatoid urothelial carcinoma
•Tumor should show predominantly ~ 50% sarcomatoid differentiation.
• Renal medullary carcinoma
•Per WHO definition, ideally confirmed with immunostains.
• Renal collecting duct carcinoma
•Per WHO definition (medullary involvement, predominant tubular morphology, desmoplastic stromal reaction, high grade cytology, infiltrative growth pattern, and absence of other renal cell carcinoma subtype or urothelial carcinoma).
• Bone only urothelial carcinoma or other non-prostate GU tumor
• Urethra carcinoma
•May be of any histology but if urothelial carcinoma then must be isolated to the urethra and not have metachronous or synchronous urothelial carcinoma of the bladder.
• Other miscellaneous histologic variants of the urothelial carcinoma, such as, but not limited to: micropapillary (Tumor should show predominantly > or equal 50% micropapillary architecture), giant cell, lipid-rich, clear cell and nested variants (Tumor should predominantly > or equal 50% show these features), large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma, lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma and mixed patterns will be considered, as well as small cell neuroendocrine prostate cancer (Only treatment-naïve primary small cell of prostate with any amount of small cell component allowed. Post-treatment small cell prostatic carcinomas are not allowed), Malignant testicular Sertoli or Leydig cell tumors, and papillary and chromophobe RCC.
• Note: Translocation positive renal cell carcinoma patients are eligible. However, AREN1721 should be considered before this trial.
• Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) slides from diagnostic tumor tissue for retrospective central pathology review
• Patients may have received up to 2 systemic anti-cancer treatments or be treatment naive. Patients with small cell carcinoma should have received a platinum-based combination regimen either as neoadjuvant, adjuvant or first-line treatment). Patients in the bone-only cohort may be urothelial carcinoma histology but must receive standard cisplatin-based chemotherapy (if cisplatin-eligible).
• Patients must be able to swallow oral formulation of the tablets
• Karnofsky performance status >= 80%
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mcL
• Platelet count >= 75,000/mcL
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN). For subjects with known Gilbert's disease or similar syndrome with slow conjugation of bilirubin, total bilirubin =< 3.0 mg/dL
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 3.0 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (or =< 5 x ULN for patients with liver metastases or Gilbert's disease)
• Creatinine =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) OR creatinine clearance >= 40 mL/min/1.73 m^2 (calculated using the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology [CKD-EPI] equation or Cockcroft-Gault formula) for patients with creatinine levels above institutional normal
• Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL (transfusion of packed red blood cells [PRBCs] allowed)
• Serum albumin >= 3.2 g/dL
• Lipase and amylase =< 2.0 x ULN and no radiologic (on baseline anatomical imaging) or clinical evidence of pancreatitis
• Prior treatment with MET or VEGFR inhibitors is allowed. However, prior cabozantinib will not be allowed. Also, patients that have received both prior MET or VEGF and prior PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 (sequentially or in combination) are also not allowed
• Prior treatment with any therapy on the PD-1/PD-L1 axis or anti- CTLA-4/CTLA-4 inhibitors is allowed, either in the perioperative or in the metastatic setting. However, patients that have received both prior MET or VEGF and prior PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4 (sequentially or in combination) are not allowed
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients are eligible if on stable dose of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART), no clinically significant drug-drug interactions are anticipated with the current HAART regimen, CD4 counts are greater than 350 and viral load is undetectable
• Patients with rheumatoid arthritis and other rheumatologic arthropathies, Sjogren's syndrome and psoriasis controlled with topical medication only and patients with positive serology, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-thyroid antibodies etc. are eligible but should be considered for rheumatologic evaluation for the presence of target organ involvement and potential need for systemic treatment
• Patients with vitiligo, endocrine deficiencies including thyroiditis managed with replacement hormones or medications (e.g. thyroiditis managed with propylthiouracil [PTU] or methimazole) including physiologic oral corticosteroids are eligible
• Patients who have evidence of active or acute diverticulitis, intra-abdominal abscess, and gastrointestinal (GI) obstruction, within 12 months are not eligible
• Women of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test =< 7 days prior to registration
• Women of childbearing potential include women who have experienced menarche and who have not undergone successful surgical sterilization (hysterectomy, bilateral tubal ligation, or bilateral oophorectomy) or are not postmenopausal. Post menopause is defined as amenorrhea >= 12 consecutive months. Note: women who have been amenorrheic for 12 or more months are still considered to be of childbearing potential if the amenorrhea is possibly due to prior chemotherapy, antiestrogens, ovarian suppression or any other reversible reason
• Pregnant women may not participate in this study because with cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab have potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with cabozantinib, nivolumab, and ipilimumab, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with these agents
• The patient has received no cytotoxic chemotherapy (including investigational cytotoxic chemotherapy) or biologic agents (e.g., cytokines or antibodies) within 2 weeks before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no radiation therapy:
• To the lungs and mediastinum or abdomen within 4 weeks before the first dose of study treatment, or has ongoing complications, or is healing from prior radiation therapy
• To brain metastasis within 3 weeks for whole-brain radiotherapy (WBXRT), and 2 weeks for stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT) before the first dose of study treatment
• To the abdomen within 4 weeks before the first dose of study treatment, or has ongoing complications, or is healing from prior radiation therapy
• To any other site(s) within 2 weeks before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no radionuclide treatment within 6 weeks of the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no prior treatment with a small molecule kinase inhibitor within 14 days or five half-lives of the compound or active metabolites, whichever is longer, before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has received no prior treatment with hormonal therapy within 14 days or five half-lives of the compound or active metabolites, whichever is longer, before the first dose of study treatment. Subjects receiving gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists and antagonists are allowed to participate
• The patient has not received any other type of investigational agent within 14 days before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient must have recovered to baseline or Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) =< grade 1 from toxicity due to all prior therapies except alopecia, neuropathy and other non-clinically significant adverse events (AEs) defined as lab elevation with no associated symptoms or sequelae
• The patient may not have active brain metastases or epidural disease. Patients with brain metastases previously treated with whole brain radiation or radiosurgery who are asymptomatic and do not require steroid treatment for at least 2 weeks before starting study treatment are eligible. Neurosurgical resection of brain metastases or brain biopsy is permitted if completed at least 3 months before starting study treatment. Baseline brain imaging with contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans for subjects with known brain metastases is required to confirm eligibility
• No concomitant treatment with warfarin. Aspirin (up to 325 mg/day), thrombin or factor Xa inhibitors, low-dose warfarin (=< 1 mg/day), prophylactic and therapeutic low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) are permitted
• No chronic concomitant treatment with strong CYP3A4 inducers (e.g., dexamethasone, phenytoin, carbamazepine, rifampin, rifabutin, rifapentine, phenobarbital, and St. John's wort) or strong CYP3A4 inhibitors
• Because the lists of these agents are constantly changing, it is important to regularly consult medical reference texts such as the Physicians' Desk Reference may also provide this information. As part of the enrollment/informed consent procedures, the patient will be counseled on the risk of interactions with other agents, and what to do if new medications need to be prescribed or if the patient is considering a new over-the-counter medicine or herbal product
• The patient has not experienced any of the following:
• Clinically-significant gastrointestinal bleeding within 6 months before the first dose of study treatment
• Hemoptysis of >= 0.5 teaspoon (2.5 mL) of red blood per day within 1 months before the first dose of study treatment
• Any other signs indicative of pulmonary hemorrhage within 3 months before the first dose of study treatment
• The patient has no tumor invading any major blood vessels
• The patient has no evidence of tumor invading the GI tract (esophagus, stomach, small or large bowel, rectum or anus), or any evidence of endotracheal or endobronchial tumor within 28 days before the first dose of cabozantinib. Patients with rectal tumor masses are not eligible.
• The patient has no uncontrolled, significant intercurrent or recent illness including, but not limited to, the following conditions:
• Cardiovascular disorders including:
• Congestive heart failure (CHF): New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III (moderate) or class IV (severe) at the time of screening.
• Concurrent uncontrolled hypertension defined as sustained blood pressure (BP) > 150 mm Hg systolic, or > 90 mm Hg diastolic despite optimal antihypertensive treatment within 7 days of the first dose of study treatment
• The subject has a corrected QT interval calculated by the Fridericia formula (QTcF) > 500 ms within 28 days before randomization. Note: if initial QTcF is found to be > 500 ms, two additional electrocardiograms (EKGs) separated by at least 3 minutes should be performed. If the average of these three consecutive results for QTcF is =< 500 ms, the subject meets eligibility in this regard
• Any history of congenital long QT syndrome
• Any of the following within 6 months before registration of study treatment:
• Unstable angina pectoris
• Clinically-significant cardiac arrhythmias (patients with atrial fibrillation are eligible)
• Stroke (including transient ischemic attack [TIA], or other ischemic event)
• Myocardial infarction
• Cardiomyopathy
• No significant gastrointestinal disorders particularly those associated with a high risk of perforation or fistula formation including:
• Any of the following that have not resolved within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment:
• Active peptic ulcer disease
• Acute diverticulitis, cholecystitis, symptomatic cholangitis or appendicitis, or malabsorption syndrome
• None of the following within 2 years before the first dose of study treatment:
• Abdominal fistula or genitourinary fistula
• Gastrointestinal perforation
• Bowel obstruction or gastric outlet obstruction
• Intra-abdominal abscess. Note: Complete resolution of an intra-abdominal abscess must be confirmed prior to initiating treatment with cabozantinib even if the abscess occurred more than 2 years before the first dose of study treatment
• Disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement are not eligible
• No other clinically significant disorders such as:
• Severe active infection requiring IV systemic treatment within 14 days before the first dose of study treatment
• Serious non-healing wound/ulcer/bone fracture within 28 days before the first dose of study treatment
• History of organ or allogeneic stem cell transplant
• Concurrent uncompensated hypothyroidism or thyroid dysfunction within 7 days before the first dose of study treatment (for asymptomatic patients with an elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], thyroid replacement may be initiated if clinically indicated without delaying the start of study treatment)
• No history of major surgery as follows:
• Major surgery within 3 months of the first dose of cabozantinib; however, if there were no wound healing complications, patients with rapidly growing aggressive cancers, may start as soon as 6 weeks if wound has completely healed post-surgery
• Minor surgery within 1 month of the first dose of cabozantinib if there were no wound healing complications or within 3 months of the first dose of cabozantinib if there were wound complications excluding core biopsies and mediport placement
• Complete wound healing from prior surgery must be confirmed before the first dose of cabozantinib irrespective of the time from surgery
• No history of severe hypersensitivity reaction to any monoclonal antibody
• No evidence of active malignancy, requiring systemic treatment within 2 years of registration
• No history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to cabozantinib, nivolumab, ipilimumab or other agents used in study
• No positive test for hepatitis B virus surface antigen (HBV sAg) or hepatitis C virus ribonucleic acid (HCV antibody) indicating acute or chronic infection. If HBV sAG is positive, subsequent ribonucleic acid (RNA) polymerase chain reaction (PCR) must be negative
• No patients with active autoimmune disease or history of autoimmune disease that might recur, which may affect vital organ function or require immune suppressive treatment including systemic corticosteroids. These include, but are not limited to patients with a history of immune related neurologic disease, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune (demyelinating) neuropathy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis; systemic autoimmune disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), connective tissue diseases, scleroderma, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), Crohn's, ulcerative colitis, hepatitis; and patients with a history of toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), Stevens-Johnson syndrome, or phospholipid syndrome should be excluded because of the risk of recurrence or exacerbation of disease

Patients eligible for inclusion in this study must meet all of the following criteria: 1. Patient has signed the Informed Consent (ICF) prior to any screening procedures being performed and is able to comply with protocol requirements. 2. Age > 18 years at time of study entry. 3. Willingness and ability to comply with study and follow-up procedures. 4. Histological confirmation of diagnosis of low-grade serous carcinoma of ovary, fallopian tube or peritoneum; Original diagnosis of de novo low-grade serous carcinoma or Original diagnosis of serous borderline tumor with subsequent diagnosis of low-grade serous carcinoma. • In order to prevent inclusion of patients with high-grade serous carcinoma, diagnosis of low-grade serous carcinoma will be verified as part of screening review by a gynecologic pathologist. Tissue for confirmation can be from primary tumor or recurrence. 5. Patient must have recurrent, measurable disease by RECIST v1.1. 6. There are no restrictions on number of prior therapies. 7. Patient cannot have previously received a prior cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor (CDKi). Patients who were treated with letrozole or another aromatase inhibitor for other indications must have not taken the drug for 6 months prior to initiating letrozole for this trial and may not have progressed on treatment. 8. Patients must not have remaining ovarian function to be included. In women who have at least one retained ovary, menopause must be confirmed with laboratory confirmation. Women who have ovarian function are eligible but must be placed on hormonal suppression. Menopause must be confirmed with laboratory confirmation, to include an estradiol level as this is assessed within 8 weeks of patient having been on tamoxifen. 9. Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS) 0-2 10. Resolution of all acute toxic effects of prior therapy or surgical procedures to National Cancer Institute (NCI) CTCAE Grade ≤ 1. Patients with grade 1 taxane-induced neuropathy, any grade alopecia, amenorrhea, or other toxicities not considered a safety risk for the patient as per investigator's discretion are eligible. 1. Patient has adequate bone marrow and organ function as defined by the following laboratory values at screening:
• Absolute neutrophil count ≥1.5 × 109/L
• Platelets ≥100 × 109/L
• Hemoglobin ≥9.0 g/dL
• Potassium, total calcium (corrected for serum albumin), magnesium, sodium and phosphorus within normal limits for the institution or corrected to within normal limits with supplements before first dose of study medication
• INR ≤1.5 (unless patient is receiving permitted anticoagulants and the INR is within the therapeutic range of intended use for that anticoagulant within 7 days prior to the first dose of study drug). Serum creatinine <1.5 mg/dL or creatinine clearance ≥50 mL/min
• In the absence of liver metastases, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) <2.5 x ULN. If the patient has liver metastases, ALT and AST <5 x ULN
• Total bilirubin < ULN; or total bilirubin ≤3.0 x ULN or direct bilirubin ≤1.5 x ULN in patients with well-documented Gilbert's Syndrome. 12. Patient with available standard 12-lead ECG with the following parameters at screening:
• QTcF interval at screening <450msec (using Fridericia's correction)
• Resting heart rate 50-90bpm 13. Must be able to swallow ribociclib and letrozole capsules/tablets. 14. Patients receiving tamoxifen or toremifine must have washout period of 5 half-lives prior to randomization. Patients eligible for this study must not meet any of the following criteria: 1. Patient has a known hypersensitivity to any of the excipients of ribociclib or letrozole. 2. Patient has a concurrent malignancy or malignancy within 3 years prior to starting study drug, with the exception of adequately treated, basal or squamous cell carcinoma, non-melanomatous skin cancer or curatively resected cervical cancer. Patients with known brain metastases are excluded. 3. Patients with central nervous system (CNS) involvement unless they meet ALL of the following criteria:
• At least 4 weeks from prior therapy completion (including radiation and/or surgery) to starting the study treatment
• Clinically stable CNS tumor at the time of screening and not receiving steroids and/or enzyme inducing anti-epileptic medications for brain metastases. 4. Patient has impairment of gastrointestinal (GI) function or GI disease that may significantly alter the absorption of the study drugs (e.g., ulcerative diseases, uncontrolled nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, malabsorption syndrome, or small bowel resection). 5. Patient has a known history of HIV infection (testing not mandatory). 6. Patient has any other concurrent severe and/or uncontrolled medical condition that would, in the investigator's judgment, cause unacceptable safety risks, contraindicate patient participation in the clinical study or compromise compliance with the protocol (e.g. chronic pancreatitis, chronic active hepatitis, active untreated or uncontrolled fungal, bacterial or viral infections, etc.). 7. Clinically significant, uncontrolled heart disease and/or cardiac repolarization abnormalities, including any of the following:
• History of acute coronary syndromes (including myocardial infarction, unstable angina, coronary artery bypass grafting, coronary angioplasty, or stenting) or symptomatic pericarditis within 6 months prior to screening
• History of documented congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association functional classification III-IV)
• Documented cardiomyopathy
• Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction (LVEF) <50% as determined by Multiple Gated acquisition (MUGA) scan or echocardiogram (ECHO)
• Clinically significant cardiac arrhythmias (e.g. ventricular tachycardia), complete left bundle branch block, high-grade AV block (e.g. bifascicular block, Mobitz type II and third-degree AV block)
• Long QT syndrome or family history of idiopathic sudden death or congenital long QT syndrome, or any of the following:
• Risk factors for Torsades de Pointe (TdP) including uncorrected hypocalcemia, hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia, history of cardiac failure, or history of clinically significant/symptomatic bradycardia.
• Concomitant use of medication(s) with a known risk to prolong the QT interval and/or known to cause Torsades de Pointe that cannot be discontinued (within 5 half-lives or 7 days prior to starting study drug) or replaced by safe alternative medication
• Inability to determine the QT interval on screening (QTcF, using Fridericia's correction)
• Systolic blood pressure (SBP) >160 mmHg or <90 mmHg at screening 8. Patient is currently receiving any of the following medications and cannot be discontinued 7 days prior to starting study drug (see Table 1 for details):
• Known strong inducers or inhibitors of CYP3A4/5, including grapefruit, grapefruit hybrids, pummelos, star-fruit, and Seville oranges
• That have a narrow therapeutic window and are predominantly metabolized through CYP3A4/5
• Herbal preparations/medications, dietary supplements. 9. Participation in other studies involving investigational drug(s) within 30 days prior to randomization or within 5 half-lives of the investigational product (whichever is longer) or participation in any other type of medical research judged not to be scientifically or medically compatible with this study. If the patient is enrolled or planned to be enrolled in another study that does not involve an investigational drug, the agreement of Novartis study medical lead is required to establish eligibility. 10. Patient is currently receiving warfarin or other coumadin-derived anticoagulant for treatment, prophylaxis or otherwise. Therapy with heparin, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) or fondaparinux is allowed. Direct-Acting Oral Anticoagulants (DOACS) are permitted. 11. Patient is currently receiving or has received systemic corticosteroids ≤2 weeks prior to starting study drug, or who have not fully recovered from side effects of such treatment. The following uses of corticosteroids are permitted: a short duration (,5 days) of systemic corticosteriods; any durations of topical applications (e.g., for rash), inhaled sprays (e.g., for obstructive airways diseases), eye drops or local injections (e.g., intra-articular) 12. Patient who has received radiotherapy ≤4 weeks or limited field radiation for palliation ≤2 weeks prior to starting study drug, and who has not recovered to grade 1 or better from related side effects of such therapy (exceptions include alopecia) and/or in whom ≥25% of the bone marrow (Ellis, 1961) was irradiated. 13. Patient has had major surgery within 14 days prior to starting study drug or has not recovered from major side effects (tumor biopsy is not considered as major surgery). 14. Patient with a Child-Pugh score B or C. 15. Patients who are pregnant or breastfeeding. 16. Women of child-bearing potential, defined as all women physiologically capable of becoming pregnant, unless they are using highly effective methods of contraception throughout the study and for 3 weeks after study drug discontinuation. Highly effective contraception methods include:
• Total abstinence when this is in line with the preferred and usual lifestyle of the patient. Periodic abstinence (e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, post-ovulation methods) and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception
• Female sterilization (have had surgical bilateral oophorectomy with or without hysterectomy), total hysterectomy, or tubal ligation at least six weeks before taking study treatment. In case of oophorectomy alone, only when the reproductive status of the woman has been confirmed by follow up hormone level assessment Women are considered post-menopausal and not of child bearing potential if they have had 12 months of natural (spontaneous) amenorrhea with an appropriate clinical profile (e.g. age appropriate, history of vasomotor symptoms) or have had surgical bilateral oophorectomy (with or without hysterectomy) or tubal ligation at least six weeks ago. In the case of oophorectomy alone, only when the reproductive status of the woman has been confirmed by follow up hormone level assessment is she considered not of child bearing potential. 17. Current use of food or drugs known to be potent CYP3A4 inhibitors, drugs known to be potent CYP3A4 inducers, and drugs that are known to prolong the QT interval unless the prohibited concomitant medication can be replaced by other drugs of less potential to inhibit or induce CYP3A4 or prolong QT interval (See Appendix C for Prohibited Concomitant Medications). 18. Patients whose tumors contain both low-grade serous carcinoma (LGSC) and high-grade serous carcinoma (HGSC) 19. Patients with history of haemopoietic stem cell or bone marrow transplant.

• Patients must be women with newly diagnosed histologically proven invasive carcinoma of the breast with no evidence of metastases, staged as per site standard of care.
• Patients must have been treated by BCS or mastectomy with clear margins of excision. Post-mastectomy positive margins for invasive disease and/or DCIS is not allowed. Multifocal disease (i.e. the presence of two or more foci or breast cancer within the same breast quadrant) and multicentric disease (i.e. the presence of two or more foci of breast cancer in different quadrants of the same breast) are allowed.
• Patients with T3N0 disease are eligible.
• Patients with disease limited to nodal micrometastases are eligible
• Patients with nodal macrometastases (>2mm) treated by axillary dissection must have 1-3 positive axillary nodes (macrometastases, > 2 mm).
• Patients treated by mastectomy and SLNB alone must have only 1-2 positive axillary nodes (macrometastases, > 2 mm).
• Patients must be ER ≥ 1% and HER2 negative on local testing
• Patients must have an Oncotype DX recurrence score ≤25 obtained from testing of breast tumour tissue from a core biopsy or from the surgical specimen.
• Patient must consent to provision of, and investigator(s) must agree to submit to the CCTG Central Tumour Bank, a representative formalin fixed paraffin block of tumour tissue in order that the specific correlative marker assays described in the protocol may be conducted
• Patient must consent to provision of samples of blood in order that the specific correlative marker assays described in the protocol may be conducted.
• Patients must have had endocrine therapy initiated or planned for ≥ 5 years. Premenopausal women will receive ovarian ablation plus aromatase inhibitor therapy or tamoxifen if adjuvant chemotherapy was not administered. For all patients, endocrine therapy can be given concurrently or following RT.
• Patients may or may not have had adjuvant chemotherapy.
• RT must commence within 16 weeks of definitive surgery if the patient is not treated with chemotherapy. If adjuvant chemotherapy is given, RT must begin within 12 weeks after the last dose. (Note: adjuvant chemotherapy may be ongoing at the time of randomization). Definitive surgery is defined as the last breast cancer-related surgery.
• Patient's ECOG performance status must be 0, 1 or 2.
• Patient's age must be ≥ 35 years.
• For the first 736 eligible English or French-speaking subjects who have agreed to optional questionnaire completion: Patient is able (i.e. sufficiently fluent) and willing to complete the quality of life, health utilities and lost productivity questionnaires in either English or French (note: enrollment completed 2022Aug02)
• Patient consent must be appropriately obtained in accordance with applicable local and regulatory requirements
• Patients must be accessible for treatment and follow-up. Investigators must assure themselves the patients randomized on this trial will be available for complete documentation of the treatment, adverse events, and follow-up.
• In accordance with CCTG policy, protocol treatment is to begin within 6 weeks of patient randomization.
• Women of childbearing potential must have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method. A woman is considered to be of "childbearing potential" if she has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months.
• Patients with nodal disease limited to isolated tumour cells (pN0i+ < 0.2 mm).
• Patients with pT3N1 and pT4 disease (Note: patients with T3N0 are eligible).
• Any prior history, not including the index cancer, of ipsilateral invasive breast cancer or ipsilateral DCIS treated with radiation therapy. (Patients with synchronous or previous ipsilateral LCIS are eligible.)
• Synchronous or previous contralateral invasive breast cancer. (Patients with contralateral DCIS are eligible unless previously treated with radiation.)
• History of non-breast malignancies except adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancers, in situ cancers treated by local excision or other cancers curatively treated with no evidence of disease for ≥ 5 years.
• Patients who are pregnant.
• Patients that have had prior ipsilateral chestwall/thoracic radiation.
• Patients treated with chemo or endocrine therapy administered in the neoadjuvant setting for breast cancer. Endocrine therapy exposure 12 weeks or less prior to surgery is permitted.
• Patients with serious non-malignant disease (e.g. cardiovascular, scleroderma etc.) which would preclude RT.
• Patients with any serious active or co-morbid medical conditions, laboratory abnormality, psychiatric illness, active or uncontrolled infections, or serious illnesses or medical conditions that would prevent the patient from participating or to be managed according to the protocol (according to investigator's decision).

• Patients with suspected renal cell carcinoma with planned surgery or patients with metastatic RCC and a tissue diagnosis. (In standard clinical practice, biopsy is not routinely performed in patients who will be having surgery).
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
• Patient must be able to lie still for a 30 to 60 minute PET/CT scan.
• One of the following: 1. Patients with locally advanced RCC planned for surgery determined to be a high risk of recurrence, defined by presence of at least clinical T2 or thioredoxin 1 (TxN1), OR patients with metastatic RCC for whom treatment with metastasectomy is planned by the treating physician. 2. Patients with metastatic RCC for whom immuno-oncology (IO) therapy is planned.
• Women of child-bearing potential must agree to undergo and have documented a negative pregnancy test on the day of 89Zr-DFO-Atezolizumab administration. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months).
• History of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to atezolizumab or any other chimeric or humanized antibodies.
• Uncontrolled severe and irreversible intercurrent illness or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements.
• Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.
• Significant autoimmune disease requiring treatment with either prednisone (or steroid equivalent) at a dose > 10 mg/day or other immunosuppressive agents. (Replacement steroid therapy is acceptable).
• Any patient for whom ICI therapy would be contraindicated for other reasons. Patients with adverse reactions to ICI therapy may undergo second 89Zr-DFO-Atezolizumab injection and PET/CT at the discretion of the treating physician considering that the dose of antibody represents 1% of a single therapeutic dose and therefore unlikely to cause adverse events.
• Subjects unable to provide informed consent.
• Subjects who are claustrophobic or have other contraindications to PET/CT.
• Subjects must not weigh more than the maximum weight limit for the table for the PET/CT scanner where the study is being performed. (>200 kg or 440 lbs).

1. Histologically or pathologically confirmed diagnosis of AML based on WHO classification that has relapsed after, or is refractory to, two, three, or four prior induction regimens that may have included intensive chemotherapy (e.g., "7+3" cytarabine and daunorubicin), epigenetic therapy (i.e., azacitidine or decitabine), or targeted therapy (e.g., FLT-3, IDH-1/2, BCL-2, monoclonal antibody). (Relapse is defined as reemergence of ≥5% leukemia blasts in bone marrow or ≥1% blasts in peripheral blood ≥90 days after first CR or CR without complete platelet recovery (CRp). Refractory AML is defined as persistent disease ≥28 days after initiation of intensive induction therapy (up to two induction cycles) or relapse <90 days after first CR or CRp. Refractory disease for patients undergoing hypomethylating agent induction is defined as lack of remission following at least 2 cycles of epigenetic therapy without reduction in bone marrow blast status.) Patients with a history of IPSS-R high or very high risk MDS that transformed to AML during treatment with hypomethylating drugs and then relapse following or are refractory to a subsequent AML induction regimen may be enrolled as Second Salvage AML patients. Additionally, patients with a history of MPN in accelerated phase (MPN-AP) or high-risk primary myelofibrosis (PMF) that transformed to AML during treatment with hypomethylating drugs and then relapse following or are refractory to a subsequent AML induction regimen may be enrolled as Second Salvage AML patients. 2. Aged ≥ 18 years. 3. ECOG Performance Status of 0, 1 or 2. 4. Adequate clinical laboratory values (i.e., plasma creatinine <2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for the institution, bilirubin <2.5 x ULN, alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST) ≤2.5 x ULN). 5. Absence of active central nervous system (CNS) involvement by leukemia. Patients with previously diagnosed CNS leukemia are eligible if the CNS leukemia is under control and intrathecal treatment may continue throughout the study. 6. Absence of uncontrolled intercurrent illnesses, including uncontrolled infections, cardiac conditions, or other organ dysfunctions. 7. Signed informed consent prior to the start of any study specific procedures. 8. Women of child-bearing potential must have a negative serum or urine pregnancy test. 9. Male and female patients must agree to use acceptable contraceptive methods for the duration of the study and for at least one month after the last drug administration. 1. The interval from prior treatment to time of study drug administration is < 2 weeks for cytotoxic agents or < 5 half-lives for noncytotoxic agents. Exceptions: Use of hydroxyurea is allowed before the start of study and is to be discontinued prior to the initiation of study treatment. At the investigator's discretion, for patients with significant leukocytosis that develops during the early treatment cycles, hydroxyurea may be administered. The hydroxyurea should be discontinued as soon as clinically appropriate. 2. Any >grade 1 persistent clinically significant toxicities from prior chemotherapy. 3. Inadequate Cardiac (left ventricular ejection fraction ≤40%) function. 4. White blood cell (WBC) count >15,000/μL (Note: Patients considered for possible venetoclax-containing regimen must have WBC ≤10k/μL prior to initiating venetoclax treatment). 5. For patients with prior hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT): 1. Less than 3 months since HSCT 2. Acute Graft versus Host Disease (GvHD) >Grade 1 3. Chronic GvHD >Grade 1 6. Any concomitant condition that in the opinion of the investigator could compromise the objectives of this study and the patient's compliance. 7. A pregnant or lactating woman. 8. Current malignancies of another type. Exceptions: Patients may participate if they have previously treated and currently controlled prostate cancer, or adequately treated in situ cervical cancer or basal cell skin cancer, or other malignancies with no evidence of disease for 2 years or more. 9. Patient has acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL). 10. Patients with known HIV, active HBV or active HCV infection (note: testing for these infections is not required). For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated. Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load. 11. Documented or known clinically significant bleeding disorder.

Participants must satisfy the following criteria to be enrolled in the study: Inclusion
• Participant is ≥ 18 years of age at the time of signing the ICF.
• Participant has a history of multiple myeloma (MM) with relapsed and/or refractory disease
• Participant must have measurable disease.
• Participant has an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group Performance Status (ECOG PS) of 0 or 1. Exclusion Criteria
• Participant has symptomatic central nervous system involvement of MM.
• Participant had a prior autologous stem cell transplant ≤ 3 months prior to starting CC-99712.
• Participant had a prior allogeneic stem cell transplant with either standard or reduced intensity conditioning ≤ 6 months prior to starting CC-99712 or is on systemic immunosuppression for graft-versus host disease.
• Subject is a pregnant or lactating female.
• Subject has known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.
• Subject has active hepatitis B or C (HBV/HCV) infection. Other protocol-defined inclusion/exclusion criteria apply

• Histologically confirmed, recurrent, non-muscle-invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder. Variant pathology are allowed
• Tumor with specified fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) mutations or fusions
• Bacillus Calmette- Guerin (BCG)-unresponsive after adequate BCG therapy or BCG experienced participants
• Refuses or is not eligible for cystectomy (Cohort 1 and Cohort 2 only)
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status Grade 0-1
• Must sign an informed consent form (ICF) (or their legally acceptable representative must sign) indicating that he or she understands the purpose of, and procedures required for, the study and is willing to participate in the study
• A woman of childbearing potential must have a negative pregnancy test (beta-hCG [beta-human chorionic gonadotropin]) (urine or serum) within 7 days before randomization (Cohort 1) or the first dose of study drug (Cohort 2 and Cohort 3)
• Adequate bone marrow, liver, and renal function as specified in the protocol
• Histologically confirmed, muscle-invasive (T2 or higher stage) urothelial carcinoma of the bladder
• Histopathology demonstrating any small cell component, pure adenocarcinoma, pure squamous cell carcinoma, or pure squamous CIS of the bladder
• Prior treatment with an FGFR inhibitor
• Active malignancies other than the disease being treated under study. The only allowed exceptions are: (a) skin cancer treated within the last 24 months that is considered completely cured (b) adequately treated lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) and ductal CIS (c) history of localized breast cancer and receiving antihormonal agents, or history of localized prostate cancer (N0M0) and receiving androgen deprivation therapy
• Current central serous retinopathy or retinal pigment epithelial detachment of any grade

• Has a confirmed diagnosis of endogenous Cushing syndrome
• Meets at least one of the following criteria:
• Has Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• Has impaired glucose tolerance
• Has hypertension
• Has non-endogenous source of hypercortisolemia
• Has uncontrolled, clinically significant hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism
• Has poorly controlled hypertension
• Has poorly controlled diabetes mellitus
• Has severe renal insufficiency

1. Age 18 years and older 2. Admitted to Cardiovascular ICU (CVICU) after coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), isolated valve repair/replacement, or CABG + valve repair/replacement 3. Cardiac surgery performed via median sternotomy 1. BMI>40 2. Refusal to be consented 3. Prior or current lung transplant patients

• Participants must have discontinued all previous treatments for cancer or investigational agents ≥7 days after the last dose or per the type of previous treatment as stated in the protocol and must have recovered from the acute effects to ≤Grade 2 for alopecia and decreased tendon reflex and to ≤Grade 1 for all other effects at the time of enrollment, unless otherwise noted. Consult with the Lilly clinical research physician or scientist for the appropriate length of time prior to the first dose of study treatment.
• Participants with relapsed, recurrent, or refractory DSRCT.
• Participants must:
• Have measurable disease by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors, Version (RECIST) 1.1.
• Have received at least one prior line of systemic treatment (including neoadjuvant and adjuvant chemotherapy). This prior treatment must include approved therapies for which they are eligible, unless the participant is not a suitable candidate for the approved therapy.
• Not be eligible for surgical resection at time of enrollment.
• Adequate cardiac function, defined as: Shortening fraction of ≥27% by echocardiogram, or ejection fraction of ≥50% by gated radionuclide study.
• Adequate blood pressure (BP) control, defined as:
• Participants ≥18 years: Controlled hypertension defined as systolic BP ≤150 millimeters of mercury (mmHg) or diastolic BP ≤90 mmHg where standard medical management is permitted. Please note that ≥2 serial BP readings should be obtained and averaged to determine baseline BP.
• Participants <18 years: A BP ≤95th percentile for age, height, and gender measured as described in National High Blood Pressure Education Program Working Group (NHBPEPWG) on High Blood Pressure in Children and Adolescents (2004), where standard medical management is permitted. Please note that ≥2 serial BP readings should be obtained and averaged to determine baseline BP.
• Adequate hematologic function, as defined as:
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC): ≥750/microliters (µL) granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) permitted up to 48 hours prior. Participants with documented history of benign ethnic neutropenia or other conditions could be considered with a lower ANC after discussion with and approval from the Lilly clinical research physician or scientist.
• Platelets: ≥75,000/cubic millimeters. Platelet transfusion permitted up to 72 hours prior.
• Hemoglobin: ≥8 grams per deciliter (g/dL) (≥80 g/liter). Transfusions to increase the participant's hemoglobin level to at least 8 g/dL are permitted; however, study treatment must not begin until 7 days after the transfusion, and complete blood count criteria for eligibility are confirmed within 24 hr of first study dose.
• Adequate renal function, as defined as:
• Creatinine clearance or radioscope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ≥60 milliliters/minute/meters squared OR serum creatinine meeting the following parameters:
• for participants ≥18 years of age serum creatinine ≤1.5×upper limit of normal (ULN);
• for participants <18 years of age, serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows: Age 1 to <2 years maximum serum creatinine 0.6, Age 2 to <6 years maximum serum creatinine 0.8, Age 6 to <10 years maximum serum creatinine 1.0, Age 10 to <13 years maximum serum creatinine 1.2, Age 13 to <16 years maximum serum creatinine 1.5 for males and 1.4 for females, Age 16 to <18 years maximum serum creatinine 1.7 for males and 1.4 for females.
• Urine protein meeting the following parameters:
• for participants ≥18 years of age: <2+ on dipstick or routine urinalysis. If urine dipstick or routine analysis indicates proteinuria ≥2+, then a 24-hour urine must be collected and must demonstrate <2 grams of protein in 24 hours to allow participation in the study.
• for participants <18 years of age: ≤30 milligrams per deciliter urine analysis or <2+ on dipstick. If urine dipstick or routine analysis indicates proteinuria ≥2+, then a 24-hour urine must be collected and must demonstrate <1 g of protein in 24 hours to allow participation in the study.
• Adequate liver function:
• Total bilirubin: ≤1.5×ULN. Except participants with document history of Gilbert Syndrome who must have a total bilirubin level of <3.0×ULN.
• Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST): ≤2.5×ULN OR ≤5.0×ULN if the liver has tumor involvement.
• The participant has an adequate coagulation function as defined by International Normalized Ratio ≤1.5 or prothrombin time ≤1.5×ULN, and partial thromboplastin time ≤1.5×ULN if not receiving anticoagulation therapy. For participants receiving anticoagulants, exceptions to these coagulation parameters are allowed if they are within the intended or expected range for their therapeutic use. Participants must have no history of clinically significant active bleeding (defined as within 14 days of first dose of study drug) or pathological condition that carries a high risk of bleeding (for example, tumor involving major vessels or known esophageal varices).
• The participant has adequate hematologic and organ function ≤1 week (7 days) prior to first dose of study drug.
• Female participants of childbearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test within 7 days prior to randomization. Male and female participants must agree to use highly effective contraception for the duration of the study and up to 3 months following the last dose of ramucirumab and vinorelbine, and 12 months following the last dose of cyclophosphamide in order to prevent pregnancy.
• Participants with severe and/or uncontrolled concurrent medical disease or psychiatric illness/social situation that in the opinion of the investigator could cause unacceptable safety risks or compromise compliance with the protocol.
• Participants who have active infections requiring therapy.
• Participants with an active fungal, bacterial, and/or known severe viral infection including, but not limited to, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or viral (A, B, or C) hepatitis (screening is not required).
• Participants who have had allogeneic bone marrow or solid organ transplant are excluded.
• Surgery: Participants who have had, or are planning to have, the following invasive procedures are not eligible:
• Major surgical procedure, laparoscopic procedure, or significant traumatic injury within 28 days prior to enrollment.
• Central line placement or subcutaneous port placement is not considered major surgery.
• Core biopsy, fine needle aspirate, and bone marrow biopsy/aspirate are not considered major surgeries.
• Surgical or other wounds must be adequately healed prior to enrollment.
• Bleeding and thrombosis:
• Participants with evidence of active bleeding or a history of significant (≥Grade 3) bleeding event within 3 months prior to enrollment are not eligible.
• Participants with a bleeding diathesis or vasculitis are not eligible.
• Participants with known or prior history in the prior 3 months of esophageal varices are not eligible.
• Participants with a history of deep vein thrombosis requiring medical intervention (including pulmonary embolism) within 3 months prior to study enrollment are not eligible.
• Participants with a history of hemoptysis or other signs of pulmonary hemorrhage within 3 months prior to study enrollment are not eligible.
• Cardiac:
• Participants with a history of central nervous system (CNS) arterial/venous thromboembolic events (VTEs) including transient ischemic attack (TIA) or cerebrovascular accident (CVA) within 6 months prior to study enrollment are not eligible.
• Participants with myocardial infarction or unstable angina within the prior 6 months.
• Participants with New York Heart Association Grade 2 or greater congestive heart failure (CHF).
• Participants with serious and inadequately controlled cardiac arrhythmia.
• Participants with significant vascular disease (eg, aortic aneurysm, history of aortic dissection).
• Participants with clinically significant peripheral vascular disease.
• Participants who have a history of fistula, gastrointestinal (GI) ulcer or perforation, or intra-abdominal abscess within 3 months of study enrollment are not eligible.
• Participants with a history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathy within 6 months of study enrollment are not eligible.
• Participants who have non-healing wound, unhealed or incompletely healed fracture, or a compound (open) bone fracture at the time of enrollment are not eligible.
• Participants previously treated and progressed on combination cyclophosphamide and vinorelbine regimen. Participants who received combination as maintenance therapy, without progression, would be eligible.
• Participants with a known hypersensitivity to ramucirumab, cyclophosphamide, vinorelbine or any of the excipients of the medicinal products.
• Hepatic impairment:
• Severe liver cirrhosis Child-Pugh Class B (or worse).
• Cirrhosis with a history of hepatic encephalopathy.
• Clinically meaningful ascites resulting from cirrhosis and requiring ongoing treatment with diuretics and/or paracentesis.
• History of hepatorenal syndrome.
• The participant has a bowel obstruction, history or presence of inflammatory enteropathy or extensive intestinal resection (eg, hemicolectomy or extensive small intestine resection with chronic diarrhea), Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, or chronic diarrhea.
• The participant has a urinary outflow obstruction.
• The participant has Grade 2 hematuria or non-infectious cystitis at the time of screening.
• Participants with central nervous system (CNS) involvement are ineligible.

• Participant meets the standard criteria for liver transplant at the local center.
• Participants being listed for a simultaneous liver kidney (SLK) are eligible if participants meet the standard criteria for both organs.
• Participant is able to understand and provide informed consent.
• Participant meets with an independent advocate per the HIV Organ Policy Equity (HOPE) Act Safeguards and Research Criteria.
• Documented HIV infection (by any licensed assay or documented history of detectable HIV-1 RNA).*
• Participant is ≥ 18 years old.
• Opportunistic complications: prior history of certain opportunistic infections is not an exclusion if the participant has received appropriate therapy and has no evidence of active disease. Medical record documentation should be provided whenever possible.
• CD4+ T-cell count: ≥ 100/µL within 16 weeks prior to transplant if no history of AIDS-defining infection; or ≥ 200 μL if history of opportunistic infection is present.
• HIV-1 RNA is below 50 RNA/mL.* Viral blips between 50-400 copies will be allowed as long as there are not consecutive measurements > 200 copies/mL. *Organ recipients who are unable to tolerate anti-retroviral therapy (ART) due to organ. failure or recently started ART may be eligible despite a detectable viral load if safe and effective ART to be used by the recipient after transplantation is described.
• Participant must have or be willing to start seeing a primary medical care provider with expertise in HIV management.
• Participant is willing to comply with all medications related to participant's transplant and HIV management.
• For participants with a history of aspergillus colonization or disease, no current clinical evidence of active disease.
• Agreement to use contraception.
• Participant is not suffering from significant wasting (e.g. body mass index < 21) thought to be related to HIV disease.
• Participant has a history of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), or primary central nervous system (CNS) lymphoma.*
• Participant is pregnant or breastfeeding. (Note: Participants who become pregnant post-transplant will continue to be followed in the study and will be managed per local site practice. Women that become pregnant should not breastfeed.)
• Past or current medical problems or findings from medical history, physical examination or laboratory testing that are not listed above, which, in the opinion of the investigator, may pose additional risks from participation in the study, may interfere with the participant's ability to comply with study requirements or that may impact the quality or interpretation of the data obtained from the study.

• Step 1 Patient Registration Eligibility Criteria
• Histologically confirmed muscle-invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder. Urothelial carcinoma invading into the prostatic stroma with no histologic muscle invasion is allowed, provided the extent of disease is confirmed via imaging and/or examination under anesthesia (EUA). The diagnostic TURBT sample must have been obtained within 60 days prior to registration
• 20 unstained slides (10 micron thickness) of formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) pre-treatment diagnostic transurethral resection (TUR) specimen available (for sequencing), with 2 (5 micron) slides at the start and end of the 20 slides, for a total of 22 unstained slides. An FFPE block is also acceptable
• Clinical stage T2-T4aN0/xM0 disease
• Medically appropriate candidate for radical cystectomy as assessed by surgeon
• No concomitant multifocal carcinoma in situ; a single focus is allowed
• A single muscle-invasive bladder tumor measuring ≤5 cm in size as defined by the surgeons at cystoscopic evaluation. When documented, pathologic size at cystoscopy and TURBT will take precedence over radiographic measurements of tumor size.
• No clinical or radiographic evidence for locally advanced or metastatic disease
• No prior anti-PD-1 or anti PD-L1 therapies, or systemic chemotherapy within the past 5 years (prior intravesical induction immunotherapy for non-muscle invasive disease is allowed, defined as BCG x6 doses and maintenance therapy); BCG refractory disease, defined as disease recurrence within 3 months of BCG therapy, is not allowed. Intravesical chemotherapy is allowed.
• No prior radiation therapy to the bladder or prostate
• No major surgery or radiation therapy =< 4 weeks of registration (TURBT is allowed).
• Not pregnant and not nursing. This study involves an agent that has known genotoxic, mutagenic and teratogenic effects. For women of childbearing potential only, a negative pregnancy test done =< 14 days prior to registration is required
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-1
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mm^3
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3
• Calculated creatinine clearance ≥ 55 mL/min using formula per institutional standard or investigator's discretion. The same formula should be used to calculate all subsequent creatinine clearances.
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) * (For patients with documented Gilbert's syndrome Total Bilirubin =< 3 x ULN)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x ULN
• Alkaline phosphatase =< 2.5 x ULN
• No evidence of New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional class III or IV heart disease
• No ongoing cardiac dysrhythmias of National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version 5.0 grade >= 2
• No pre-existing sensory grade >= 2 neuropathy
• No pre-existing grade >= 2 hearing loss
• No serious intercurrent medical or psychiatric illness, including serious active infection
• None of the following within the 6 months prior to study drug administration: myocardial infarction, severe/unstable angina, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft, symptomatic congestive heart failure, cerebrovascular accident, or transient ischemic attack
• No known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)-related illness or other active infection. HIV-positive patients on combination antiretroviral therapy are ineligible because of the potential for pharmacokinetic interactions with the drugs used in this trial. In addition, these patients are at increased risk of lethal infections when treated with marrow-suppressive therapy. Appropriate studies will be undertaken in patients receiving combination antiretroviral therapy, when indicated
• No history of allergic reaction attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to the agents used in this study
• No concurrent treatment on another clinical trial; supportive care trials or non-therapeutic trials (e.g., quality of life) are allowed
• No prior malignancy except for: adequately treated basal or squamous cell skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer, adequately treated stage I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for five years. Patients with localized prostate cancer who are being followed by an active surveillance program are also eligible
• Step 2 Patient Registration Eligibility Criteria
• Patients must have completed 4 or more cycles of protocol-directed chemotherapy and DDR gene results must be available
• Step 3 Patient Registration Eligibility Criteria (only patients with a DDR gene alteration)
• Deleterious alteration within 1 or more of 9 pre-defined DDR genes within the pre-treatment TURBT deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
• Cystoscopy and imaging performed to determine stage/treatment assignment

Inclusion criteria will be the same for Phase I and Phase II. 1. Pathologically proven diagnosis of stage I-IVB squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, oropharynx, hypopharynx, or larynx status post gross total resection with pathology showing one or more of the following intermediate risk factors:
• T3/4 disease (AJCC 8th edition), positive lymph node(s), close margin(s), perineural invasion, and/or lymphovascular invasion
• Close margin(s) defined as either:
• Final patient margin of <5 mm without disease on ink OR
• Initial positive margin in the specimen regardless of the final patient margin (e.g. if resection margin on the initial specimen is positive, final patient margin after subsequent resections can be ≥5 mm and still be considered close margin) 2. Age ≥18 years 3. ECOG performance status 0-2 4. Women of child-bearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and for 90 days following completion of therapy. Medically acceptable birth control (contraceptives) includes:
• approved hormonal contraceptives (such as birth control pills, patch or ring; Depo-Provera, Implanon), or
• barrier methods (such as condom or diaphragm) used with a spermicide Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months). 5. Negative serum or urine pregnancy test within 2 weeks before registration for women of childbearing potential. 6. Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent Phase I: 1. Distant metastasis 2. Stage I and II glottic squamous cell carcinoma 3. High risk factors following surgical resection requiring concurrent chemotherapy: final positive margin(s) and/or extranodal extension 4. Feeding tube dependence at baseline assessment. 5. Synchronous non-skin cancer primaries outside of the oropharynx, oral cavity, larynx, and hypopharynx except for low- and intermediate-risk prostate cancer and synchronous well-differentiated thyroid cancer. For prostate cancer, patient should not be receiving active treatment. For thyroid cancer, thyroid surgery may occur before or after treatment, provided all other eligibility criteria are met. 6. Prior invasive malignancy with an expected disease-free interval of less than 3 years 7. Prior radiotherapy to the region of the study cancer that would result in overlap of radiation fields 8. Subjects may not be receiving any other investigational agents for the treatment of the cancer under study. 9. Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that, in the opinion of the investigator, would limit compliance with study requirements 10. Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants. 11. History of severe immunosuppression, including HIV, and organ or autologous or allogeneic stem cell transplant Phase II: The exclusion criteria will be the same as Phase I except for feeding tube dependence. Patients who are feeding tube dependent are excluded from Phase I to accurately assess treatment associated toxicity affecting swallowing and oral intake. During Phase II, patients who are feeding tube dependent will be eligible to enroll and stratified at randomization.

• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: All patients must have a histologically or cytologically proven diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the prostate. Patients with pure small cell carcinoma* (SCC), sarcomatoid, or squamous cell carcinoma are not eligible. (*morphology must be consistent with SCC; synaptophysin or chromogranin positive by immunohistochemical staining is insufficient to diagnose SCC).
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have an intact prostate. No prior local therapy for prostate adenocarcinoma is allowed (e.g., brachytherapy, high-intensity focused ultrasound [HIFU], cryotherapy, laser ablative therapies). Any prior therapy for benign conditions, such as obstruction, are acceptable (e.g., transurethral resection of the prostate, greenlight laser ablation, microwave ablation).
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have evidence of metastatic disease on technetium bone scan and computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) within 42 days prior to starting standard systemic therapy. Metastatic disease that is detected by positron emission tomography (PET) scan only (sodium fluoride [NaF], prostate-specific membrane antigen [PSMA], anti-1-amino-3-18F-fluorocyclobutane-1-carboxylic acid [FACBC], carbon [C]11) but not conventional imaging (technetium [Tc]99 bone scan, CT or MRI) or solitary metastases by conventional imaging, must be confirmed histologically or cytologically.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients with known brain metastases are not eligible. Brain imaging studies are not required for eligibility if the patient has no neurologic signs or symptoms suggestive of brain metastasis. If brain imaging studies are performed, they must be negative for disease.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must have received no more than 28 weeks of standard systemic therapy (SST). SST is defined as current National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) guidelines for metastatic prostate cancer.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must not have progressed while on SST.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients with oligometastatic prostate cancer may receive metastasis directed therapy to up to four sites of disease prior to randomization.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a complete physical examination and medical history within 28 days prior to registration.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a PSA documented prior to initiation of SST and within 28 days prior to registration. Any additional PSAs measured while receiving SST should be recorded.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a testosterone lab documented within 28 days prior to randomization. Any additional testosterone labs measured while receiving SST should be recorded as well as pretreatment initiation if available.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: No other prior malignancy is allowed except for the following: adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, adequately treated stage 0, I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for three years.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: SPECIMEN SUBMISSION CRITERIA: Patients must be offered the opportunity to participate in translational medicine studies and specimen banking for future studies.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: QUALITY OF LIFE CRITERIA: Patients who can complete Patient-Reported Outcome instruments in English, Spanish or French, must participate in the quality of life studies.
• STEP 1 REGISTRATION: REGULATORY CRITERIA: Patients must be informed of the investigational nature of this study and must sign and give written informed consent in accordance with institutional and federal guidelines.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: As a part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have no evidence of disease progression during the 28 weeks of SST by PSA measure, bone scan and CT or MRI or symptomatic deterioration (as defined by physician discretion) within 28 days prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: DISEASE-RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have consultation with a urologist and have surgically resectable disease regardless of definitive treatment intent or randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must have received between 22 and 28 weeks of SST as measured from the date of first hormonal therapy or surgical castration. SST is defined by current NCCN guidelines for metastatic prostate cancer.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients must not be planning to receive docetaxel after randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Any toxicities from SST must have resolved to =< grade 1 (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] version 5.0) prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: PRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: Patients may have received elective metastasis directed therapy to oligometastatic sites (=< 4 sites). All treatment must be completed prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a PSA performed within 28 days prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a testosterone < 50 ng/dL within 28 days prior to randomization.
• STEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: CLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must have a Zubrod performance status of 0 ? 1 within 28 days prior to randomization.

• Has a histologically- or cytologically-confirmed advanced (metastatic and/or unresectable) solid tumor (except breast or ovarian cancers whose tumor has a germline or somatic BRCA mutation) that is not eligible for curative treatment and for which standard of care therapy has failed. Participants must have progressed on or be intolerant to standard of care therapies that are known to provide clinical benefit. There is no limit on the number of prior treatment regimens.
• Has either centrally-confirmed known or suspected deleterious mutations in at least 1 of the genes involved in HRR or centrally-confirmed HRD.
• For participants receiving prior platinum (cisplatin, carboplatin, or oxaliplatin either as monotherapy or in combination) for advanced (metastatic and/or unresectable) solid tumor, have no evidence of disease progression during the platinum chemotherapy.
• Has measurable disease per RECIST 1.1 or PCWG-modified RECIST 1.1 as assessed by the local site Investigator/radiology and confirmed by BICR.
• Is able to provide a newly obtained core or excisional biopsy of a tumor lesion or either an archival formalin-fixed paraffin embedded (FFPE) tumor tissue block or slides.
• Has a life expectancy of at least 3 months.
• Has an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of either 0 or 1, as assessed within 3 days of treatment initiation.
• Male participants must agree to use contraception during the treatment period and for at least 90 days (3 months) after the last dose of study treatment and refrain from donating sperm during this period.
• Female participants must not be pregnant or breastfeeding. Additionally, female participants must either not be a woman of childbearing potential (WOCBP) or, if a WOCBP, agree to use contraception during the treatment period and for at least 30 days (1 month) after the last dose of study treatment.
• Has adequate organ function.
• Has a known additional malignancy that is progressing or has required active treatment in the last 5 years. Note: Participants with basal cell carcinoma of the skin, squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, ductal carcinoma in situ, or cervical carcinoma in situ that has undergone potentially curative therapy are not excluded.
• Has myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)/acute myeloid leukemia (AML) or with features suggestive of MDS/AML.
• Has known central nervous system (CNS) metastases and/or carcinomatous meningitis. Note: Participants with previously treated brain metastases may participate if radiologically stable, clinically stable, and without requirement for steroid treatment for at least 14 days prior to the first dose of study treatment.
• Has received colony-stimulating factors (e.g., granulocyte colony-stimulating factor [G-CSF], granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor [GM-CSF] or recombinant erythropoietin) within 28 days prior to the first dose of study treatment.
• Has a known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.
• Has known active hepatitis infection (i.e., Hepatitis B or C).
• Is unable to swallow orally administered medication or has a gastrointestinal disorder affecting absorption (e.g., gastrectomy, partial bowel obstruction, malabsorption).
• Has received prior therapy with olaparib or with any other polyadenosine 5' diphosphoribose (poly[ADP ribose]) polymerization (PARP) inhibitor.
• Has a known hypersensitivity to the components or excipients in olaparib.
• Has received previous allogenic bone-marrow transplant or double umbilical cord transplantation (dUCBT).
• Has received a whole blood transfusion in the last 120 days prior to entry to the study. Packed red blood cells and platelet transfusions are acceptable if not performed within 28 days of the first dose of study treatment.

• Histologically documented, unresectable locally advanced or metastatic urothelial carcinoma
• Measurable disease by investigator assessment according to RECIST v1.1
• Participants with prior definitive radiation therapy must have measurable disease per RECIST v1.1 that is outside the radiation field or has demonstrated unequivocal progression since completion of radiation therapy
• Participants must not have received prior systemic therapy for locally advanced or metastatic urothelial carcinoma with the following exceptions:
• Participants that received neoadjuvant chemotherapy with recurrence >12 months from completion of therapy are permitted
• Participants that received adjuvant chemotherapy following cystectomy with recurrence >12 months from completion of therapy are permitted
• Must be considered eligible to receive cisplatin- or carboplatin-containing chemotherapy, in the investigator's judgment
• Archival tumor tissue comprising muscle-invasive urothelial carcinoma or a biopsy of metastatic urothelial carcinoma must be provided for PD-L1 testing prior to randomization
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status score of 0, 1, or 2
• Adequate hematologic and organ function Exclusion Criteria
• Previously received enfortumab vedotin or other monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE)-based antibody-drug conjugate (ADCs)
• Received prior treatment with a programmed cell death ligand-1 (PD-(L)-1) inhibitor for any malignancy, including earlier stage urothelial cancer (UC), defined as a PD-1 inhibitor or PD-L1 inhibitor
• Received prior treatment with an agent directed to another stimulatory or co inhibitory T-cell receptor
• Received anti-cancer treatment with chemotherapy, biologics, or investigational agents not otherwise prohibited by exclusion criterion 1-3 that is not completed 4 weeks prior to first dose of study treatment
• Uncontrolled diabetes
• Estimated life expectancy of less than 12 weeks
• Active central nervous system (CNS) metastases
• Ongoing clinically significant toxicity associated with prior treatment that has not resolved to ≤ Grade 1 or returned to baseline
• Currently receiving systemic antimicrobial treatment for active infection (viral, bacterial, or fungal) at the time of randomization. Routine antimicrobial prophylaxis is permitted.
• Known active hepatitis B, active hepatitis C, or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.
• History of another invasive malignancy within 3 years before the first dose of study drug, or any evidence of residual disease from a previously diagnosed malignancy
• Documented history of a cerebral vascular event (stroke or transient ischemic attack), unstable angina, myocardial infarction, or cardiac symptoms consistent with New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class IV within 6 months prior to randomization
• Receipt of radiotherapy within 2 weeks prior to randomization
• Received major surgery (defined as requiring general anesthesia and >24 hour inpatient hospitalization) within 4 weeks prior to randomization
• Known severe (≥ Grade 3) hypersensitivity to any enfortumab vedotin excipient contained in the drug formulation of enfortumab vedotin
• Active keratitis or corneal ulcerations
• History of autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in the past 2 years
• History of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, organizing pneumonia, drug induced pneumonitis, idiopathic pneumonitis, or evidence of active pneumonitis on screening chest computed tomography (CT) scan
• Prior allogeneic stem cell or solid organ transplant
• Received a live attenuated vaccine within 30 days prior to randomization

• Patients with suspected BCR of prostate cancer following initial treatment with either prostatectomy or definitive EBRT of the prostate or patients with known metastatic prostate cancer who have failed systemic therapy.
• Patients being considered for salvage therapy.
• Patients must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0-3.
• Patients must be medically stable as judged by the patient's physician.
• Patients must be able to lie still for 20-40 minutes for the PET/CT scans.
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent.
• Patients with BCR and no known lesions should not be on antiandrogen therapy at the time of scans. Patients with known metastases who are currently being treated with anti-androgen therapy may remain on this medication.
• Patients who have or have had a biopsy proven concurrent other malignancy, excluding skin cancers.
• Patients may not weigh more than the maximum weight limit for the PET /CT scanner table (> 200 kg or 440 pounds).
• History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to 68Ga PSMA-11. Furosemide will not be administered to patients with known allergy.
• Patients must not be claustrophobic.

• Written informed consent in accordance with federal, local, and institutional guidelines. The patient must provide informed consent prior to the first screening procedure.
• Previously treated (up to three prior lines of therapy), histologically proven advanced squamous NSCLC.
• No prior treatment with EGFR inhibitors, IMIDs (eg, thalidomide, lenalidomide), or anti-TNF antibodies.
• No treatment with systemic glucocorticoids within 3 weeks of initiation of study therapy (topical and inhaled glucocorticoids are permitted).
• Age ≥ 18 years.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1.
• Adequate organ and marrow function as defined below:
• absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1,000/μL
• platelets ≥ 50,000/μl
• total bilirubin within normal institutional limits
• AST(SGOT)/ALT(SPGT) ≤ 2.5 X institutional upper limit of normal
• CrCl ≥ 45 ml/min
• For both male and female patients, effective methods of contraception must be used throughout the study and for 3 months following the last dose of study treatment.
• Adequate archival tissue (5-10 slides) for correlative studies.
• Subject must have measurable disease per RECIST 1.1
• Chemotherapy, radiotherapy, or other cancer therapy within two weeks prior to starting study treatment. Subjects must have recovered from prior treatment-related to toxicities to grade 1 or baseline (excluding alopecia and clinically stable toxicities requiring ongoing medical management, such as hypothyroidism from prior immune checkpoint inhibitor treatment).
• Subjects may not be receiving any other investigational agents for the treatment of the cancer under study.
• Symptomatic brain metastases or brain metastases requiring escalating doses of corticosteroids
• History of hypersensitivity or allergic reactions attributed to afatinib or prednisone.
• Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including but not limited to poorly controlled diabetes (which may worsen in setting of chronic prednisone therapy), symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that, in the opinion of the investigator, would limit compliance with study requirements.
• Subjects must not be pregnant or nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infants.

• Eastern Collaborative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance score of less than or equal to 2.
• Documented relapsed or progressive Multiple Myeloma (MM) on or after any regimen or is refractory to the most recent line of therapy.
• Positive for translocation t(11;14) as determined by an analytically validated Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization (FISH) assay per central laboratory testing.
• Received prior treatment with at least 1 prior line of therapy for MM.
• Measurable disease on Screening per International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG) criteria.
• Meets absolute neutrophil count, platelet count, hemoglobin, liver and kidney function laboratory values within 2 weeks prior to first dose of study drug.
• Has a pre-existing condition that is contraindicated including.
• Non-secretory or oligo-secretory MM
• Active plasma cell leukemia.
• Waldenström's macroglobulinemia.
• Primary amyloidosis.
• POEMS syndrome (polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal protein, and skin changes).
• Active hepatitis B or C infection based on screening blood testing.
• Known active Severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) infection.
• Significant cardiovascular disease.
• Major surgery within 4 weeks prior to first dose.
• Acute infections requiring antibiotic, antifungal or antiviral therapy within14 days prior to first dose.
• Peripheral neuropathy ≥ Grade 3 or ≥ Grade 2 with pain within 2 weeks prior to first dose.
• Uncontrolled diabetes or uncontrolled hypertension within 14 days prior to first dose.
• Any other medical condition that, in the opinion of the Investigator, would adversely affect the participant's participation in the study.
• History of other active malignancies, including myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), within the past 3 years prior to study entry Other protocol defined inclusion/exclusion criteria could apply

• Patients less than 12 months of age
• Clinical signs of moderate to severe bronchiolitis defined by American Academy of Pediatrics
• Requires ICU level of care by clinicians' discretion
• Requiring HFNC support
• Infants who required immediate need for respiratory support such as non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) or invasive ventilation
• Congenital heart disease,
• Immunocompromised state
• Upper airway obstruction
• Chronic lung disease
• Bronchopulmonary dysplasia,
• Home oxygen therapy requirement
• Acute trauma patients
• Baseline craniofacial malformations
• Admitted to the neonatal or cardiac ICUs
• Patients who are admitted to the floor

• Community-dwelling adults
• Age ≥75 years
• English or Spanish as primary language
• Clinically evident cardiovascular disease defined as prior myocardial Infarction (MI), prior stroke, prior revascularization procedure, or a secondary prevention indication for a statin (clinician determined)
• Hospitalization for a primary diagnosis of heart failure in the prior 12 months (Note: History of heart failure in the absence of recent hospitalization or clinically evident cardiovascular disease is not an exclusion)
• Dementia (clinically evident or previously diagnosed)
• Dependence in any Katz Basic Activities of Daily Living [ADL] (with the exception of urinary or bowel continence)
• Severe hearing impairment (preventing phone follow up)
• Unable to talk (preventing phone follow up)
• Severe visual impairment (preventing cognitive testing)
• Statin use in the past year or for longer than 5 years previously (participant reported)
• Ineligible to take atorvastatin 40 mg (clinician determined)
• Documented intolerance to statins
• Active Liver Disease
• Long-term use of daily colchicine, verapamil at any dose, or diltiazem at a dose >240mg/day.

• Each patient must meet the following criteria to be enrolled in this study. 1. Be able to and provide written informed consent and be willing and able to comply with all study procedures 2. Adult, 18 years and older 3. AL amyloidosis Mayo stage IIIa based on the 2013 European Modification of the 2004 Standard Mayo Clinic Staging in patients with advanced cardiac involvement at the time of Screening 4. Measurable hematologic disease at Screening as defined by at least one of the following: 1. Involved/Uninvolved Free Light Chain Difference (dFLC) > 4 mg/dL or 2. Involved Free Light Chain (iFLC) > 4 mg/dL with abnormal ratio or 3. Serum Protein Electrophoresis (SPEP) m-spike > 0.5 g/dL 5. Histopathological diagnosis of amyloidosis AND confirmation of AL derived amyloid deposits by at least one of the following: 1. Immunohistochemistry or 2. Mass spectrometry or 3. Characteristic electron microscopy appearance 6. Cardiac involvement as defined by: a. Documented clinical signs and symptoms supportive of a diagnosis of heart failure in the setting of a confirmed diagnosis of AL amyloidosis in the absence of an alternative explanation for heart failure AND b. At least one of the following: i. Endomyocardial biopsy demonstrating AL cardiac amyloidosis or ii. Echocardiogram demonstrating a mean left ventricular wall thickness (calculated as [IVSd+LPWd]/2) of > 12 mm at diastole in the absence of other causes (e.g., severe hypertension, aortic stenosis), which would adequately explain the degree of wall thickening or iii. Cardiac MRI with gadolinium contrast agent diagnostic or cardiac amyloidosis 7. Planned first-line treatment for plasma cell dyscrasia is a CyBorD-based regimen administered as Standard of Care (SoC) 8. Adequate bone marrow reserve and hepatic function as demonstrated by: 1. Absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1.0 x 109/L 2. Platelet count ≥ 75 x 109/L 3. Hemoglobin ≥ 9 g/dL 4. Total direct bilirubin ≤ 2 times the upper limit of normal (x ULN) unless due to Gilbert's syndrome. 5. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) ≤ 3 x ULN 6. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤ 3 x ULN 7. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) ≤ 5 x ULN (except for patients with hepatomegaly and isozymes specific to liver, rather than bone) 9. Women of childbearing potential (WOCBP) must have a negative pregnancy test during Screening and must agree to use highly effective physician approved contraception from Screening to at least 5 months following the last study drug administration or 12 months following the last dose of her PCD therapy, whichever is longer 10. Men must be surgically sterile or must agree to use effective physician approved contraception and refrain from donating sperm from Screening to at least 5 months following the last study drug administration or 12 months following the last dose of his PCD therapy, whichever is longer
• Patients who meet any of the following criteria will not be permitted entry to the study. 1. Have any other form of amyloidosis other than AL amyloidosis 2. Received prior therapy for AL amyloidosis or multiple myeloma. A maximum exposure of 2 weeks of a CyBorD-based PCD treatment after screening laboratory samples are obtained and prior to randomization is allowed. 3. Has POEMS syndrome or multiple myeloma defined as clonal bone marrow plasma cells > 10% or biopsy-proven bony or extramedullary plasmacytoma AND any one or more of the following CRAB features: a. Evidence of end organ damage that can be attributed to the underlying plasma cell proliferative disorder, specifically: i. Hypercalcemia: serum calcium > 0.25 mmol/L (> 1mg/dL) higher than the ULN or > 2.75 mmol/L (> 11mg/dL) ii. Renal insufficiency: creatinine clearance < 40 mL per minute or serum creatinine > 177mol/L (> 2mg/dL) iii. Anemia: hemoglobin value of > 20g/L below the lowest limit of normal, or a hemoglobin value < 100g/L iv. Bone lesions: one or more osteolytic lesion on skeletal radiography, CT, or PET/CT. If bone marrow has < 10% clonal plasma cells, more than one bone lesion is required to distinguish from solitary plasmacytoma with minimal marrow involvement OR b. Any one of the following biomarkers of malignancy: i. 60% or greater clonal plasma cells on bone marrow examination ii. More than one focal lesion on MRI that is at least 5mm or greater in size 4. Have supine systolic blood pressure < 90 mmHg or symptomatic orthostatic hypotension, defined as a decrease in systolic blood pressure upon standing of > 30 mmHg despite medical management (e.g., midodrine, fludrocortisones) in the absence of volume depletion 5. Taking prednisone or its equivalent > 10 mg/day 6. Taking doxycycline 7. Receiving dialysis 8. Planned stem cell transplant during the first 6 months of protocol therapy. Stem cell collection during the protocol therapy is permitted. 9. Have had myocardial infarction, uncontrolled angina, severe uncontrolled ventricular arrhythmias within 6 months prior to screening or percutaneous cardiac intervention with recent stent or coronary artery bypass grafting within 4 months prior to screening. Exacerbation of chronic condition or new acute condition will require discussion and approval by the Medical Monitor. 10. Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction (LVEF) is < 40% by echocardiogram at Screening 11. Have severe valvular stenosis (e.g., aortic or mitral stenosis with a valve area < 1.0 cm2) or severe congenital heart disease 12. Have history of sustained ventricular tachycardia or aborted ventricular fibrillation or a history of atrioventricular nodal or sinoatrial nodal dysfunction for which a pacemaker/implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is indicated but not placed. (Participants who do have a pacemaker or ICD are allowed in the study.) 13. QT corrected by Fridericia (QTcF) is > 550 msec. Participants who have a pacemaker may be included regardless of calculated QTc interval. 14. There is evidence of acute ischemia or active conduction system abnormalities with the exception of any of the following: 1. First degree Atrioventricular (AV)-block 2. Second degree AV-block Type 1 (Mobitz Type 1/Wenckebach type) 3. Right or left bundle branch block 4. Atrial fibrillation with a controlled ventricular rate. (An uncontrolled ventricular rate [i.e., > 110 beats per minute] determined by an average of three beats in lead II or representative beats in lead II is not allowed) 15. Have had major surgery within 4 weeks of randomization or is planning major surgery during the study. Patients with surgical procedures conducted under local anesthesia may participate 16. There is active malignancy (including lymphoma) with the exception of any of the following: 1. Adequately treated basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, or in situ cervical cancer 2. Adequately treated stage I cancer from which the patient is currently in remission and has been in remission for > 2 years 3. Low-risk prostate cancer with Gleason score < 7 and prostate-specific antigen < 10 mg/mL 4. Other localized and/or low risk malignancies may be permitted with Medical Monitor approval. 17. Have received an investigational drug/device in another clinical investigational study within 60 days before Screening 18. Hypersensitivity to the study drug 19. Have received a live vaccine within 4 weeks prior to first dose of CyBorD 20. Women who are breast feeding 21. Have any other medical, social or psychological factors that could affect the patient's safety or ability to consent personally or comply with study procedures.

1. Have histologically confirmed advanced or metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer, bladder cancer, melanoma, non-small cell lung cancer, pancreatic cancer, colorectal cancer, gastric cancer, esophageal cancer, ovarian cancer, and head neck squamous cell carcinoma. Or, Have histologically confirmed metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma. Recurrent unresectable pancreatic cancer is acceptable as long as the treatment is first-line. 2. Have not received any approved chemotherapy, except in the adjuvant setting. 1. Subject was using immunosuppressive medications within 14 days before Screening with the exception of topical (intranasal, inhaled, and local injection), systemic (prednisone equivalent 10 mg/day or less), or as needed for hypersensitivity reactions such as computed tomography (CT) scan premedication. 2. Subject has active infections or other serious underlying significant medical illness, abnormal and clinically significant laboratory findings or psychiatric illness/social situation. 3. Subject is using a pacemaker, implantable cardiac defibrillator, neurostimulator, cochlear implants, cochlear implants, or other electronic medical equipment. 4. Subject has documented immunodeficiency or organ transplant. 5. Subject has an untreated central nervous system disease, leptomeningeal disease or cord compression. 6. Subject has a history, or presence, of significant cardiovascular diseases; including uncontrolled hypertension, clinically relevant cardiac arrhythmia, unstable angina or myocardial infarction within 6 months before randomization, congestive heart failure > New York Heart Association Class II, severe peripheral vascular disease, corrected QT (QTc) prolongation >470 msec, clinically significant pericardial effusion. 7. Subject has a history or presence of documented inflammatory bowel disease. 8. Subject is known to be positive for human immunodeficiency virus infection. -